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Gen Ed English reviewer

1. _____ is an epic about the adventures of early Muslim warriors who defended
Islam.
A. Indarapatra and Sulayman
B. Bantugan
C. Parang Sabu
D. Darangan
2. During the 18th century, what kind of novel is most common?
A. Religious
B. Epistolary
C. Picaresque
D. Gothic
3. This is a literary movement in America that looks through life as it is.
A. Romanticism
B. Puritanism
C. Realism
D. Naturalism
4. All the citIes below were centers of government, religion, and culture in the 3rd
Millennium B.C except _____.
A. Babylon
B. Nineveh
C. Baghdad
D. Thebes
5. What is the main idea that can be inferred from the stanza below?
Time is a pair of scissors
And life, a bolt of brocade
When the lost section is done
The scraps are committed to a bonfire
A. Transitoriness of life
B. Cruelty of time
C. Beauty of life
D. Destruction of beauty
6. “Ibong Mandaragit” was written by ____.
A. Amado V. Hernandez
B. Vergilio Almario
C. Lualhati Bautista
D. Edgardo Reyes
7. Poetry during the age of modernism is characterized by _____.
A. Measure
B. Free Verse
C. Blank Verse
D. Rhyme
8. “Her dress is as blue as the sky” is an example of _____.
A. Simile
B. Hyperbole
C. Metaphor
D. Onomatopoeia
9. A Comedia usually ends with the _____.
A. Death of the Prince
B. Victory of Muslims
C. Death of the Queen
D. Victory of Christians
10. The American Renaissance also known as the American Romantic Movements
paved the way for the birth of _____.
A. Romanticism
B. Transcendentalism
C. Naturalism
D. Realism
11. What does Sappho tell the lesbian woman about her death in the poem
below?
To An Uncultured Lesbian Woman
“Yes, thou shalt die,
And lie
Dump in the silent tomb;
Nor of thy name
Shall these by any fame”
A. She will not be famous in death
B. She will find peace
C. She will be placed in a tomb
D. She will be forgotten
12. The Ifugao epic “HUDHUD” immortalized the hero _____.
A. Lumawig
B. Banna
C. Duluyan
D. Aligaynon
13. Who is considered the Indian counterpart of Shakespeare?
A. Kalidasa
B. Tagore
C. Khagyam
D. Sadi
14. Both Realism and Naturalism oppose ______.
A. Classicism
B. Symbolism
C. Romanticism
D. Neoclassicism
15. This is Geoffrey Chaucer’s collection of stories in poetic form.
A. The Canterbury Tales
B. Lliad
C. Decameron
D. Beowulf
16. Which of the statements below supports this statement: “The Homeric poems
greatly influenced the development of Greek Civilization.”
A. The Greeks became the great warriors
B. The great epic characters became the models of conduct for the later
generations of the Greeks
C. The Olympian gods were worshipped
D. The Greeks became the good architects
17. Filipino folks narratives’ function is _____.
A. To ward off evil spirits
B. To explain natural phenomena
C. To teach proper behavior
D. To honor the gods
18. Among the following statements, which best describe the difference between
the three canticles of the Divine Comedy?
A. In Inferno, they become more corporeal as Dante descends into the lower
circles
B. In Purgatorio, they have corporeal shape, but not corporeal
C. In Paradiso, they have neither bodies nor images but simply lights; in
Purgatorio, they have corporeal shape but not corporeal substance; and in
Inferno, they become more corporeal as Dante descends into lower circles
D. In Paradiso, they have neither bodies nor images but not a corporeal substance
19. _____ are at war in the lliad.
A. Trojans and Macedonians
B. Trojans and Minoans
C. Trojans and Acheans
D. Trojans and Phoenicians
20. The lines of the poem below describe Africa as a land that is _____.
AFRICA
David Deop
Africa, my Africa
Africa of proud warriors
In ancestral savanna
Africa of whom my grandmother
Songs
A. Free and beautiful
B. Mysterious and unexplored
C. War town and undeveloped
D. Primitive and uncivilized
21. Because of his poetic style, Ezra Pound is considered a/an
A. Philosophical
B. Imagist
C. Metaphysical
D. Romantic
22. Oedipus _____ as a punishment for killing his father and having sexual
relations with his mother.
A. Castrated himself
B. Killed himself
C. Ordered his sons to murder him
D. Gouged his eyes
23. ______ can be inferred from Iseneses’ “answer.”
A. She respects Creon
B. She fears Creon
C. She understands Creon
D. She likes Creon
24. The following are romantic poets except
A. William Blake
B. Robert Burn
C. John Milton
D. John Keats
25. _____ is famous for his plays that used the “alienation effect”.
A. Henrick Ibsen
B. August Strindberg
C. Bertolt Brecht
D. Thomas Mann
26. In the poem below, what could be the author’s feeling toward lesbian
women?
To Uncultured Lesbian Woman
“Yes, thou shalt die,
And lie
Dump in the silent tomb;
Nor of thy name
Shall these by any fame”
A. Pity
B. Regret
C. Sadness
D. Anger
27. Who is speaking in the poem below:
“Sunset and the evening star
And one clear call for me
And may there be no moaning of the bar
When I put out to sea”
A. A dying man
B. A fisherman
C. The certainty of more suffering
D. Understanding and progress
28. Based on Zeus’ plan, _____ comes from suffering.
A. The consolation of death
B. The ecstasy of truth
C. The certainty of more suffering
D. Understanding and progress
29. The word Gospel is derived from a Greek word that means _____.
A. Holy word
B. Good News
C. Law of God
D. Message of God
30. The line below expresses _____.
“While a cold hand snatched you away like a kite–I should have come home”
A. Regret
B. Sadness
C. Loss
D. Love
31. Which statement best characterizes the Old Testament as a literary piece?
A. A collection of religious anecdotes
B. A chronicle of Jewish events
C. An inspirational prose
D. An anthology of Jewish literature
32. This line usually starts a/an _____.
A. Supernatural tale
B. Legend
C. Folk tale
D. Creation myth
33. _____ greatly influenced the Japanese Noh Play
A. Shintoism
B. Zen Buddhism
C. Hinduism
D. Buddhism
34. Among the statements below, which is not an important cultural influence in
the development of Europe in the middle ages?
A. Greco-Roman civilizations
B. Christianity from Palestine
C. Germanic tribes from the north
D. Merchant trade from China
35. Pre-colonial literature is best described by _____ themes.
A. Sad and dramatic
B. Serious and imaginative
C. Playful and entertaining
D. Communal and functional
36. What lesson can be inferred in the passage below:
“All that we are is the result of what we have thought: It is founded on our
thoughts, it is made up of our thought. If a man speaks or acts with an evil
thought, pain follows him, as the wheel follows the foot of the ox that draws the
carriage.”
A. we must change for the better
B. we must think carefully
C. we must have the right thoughts
D. we must be hardworking like the ox
37. Among the following statements below, which is not an accurate
representation of ancient Greek religious beliefs?
A. The Greeks credited humanity with intervening in humanity
B. The Greek god Zeus was subject to the mysterious power of fate
C. The Greek gods were expressions of the world’s uncontrollable forces
D. The Greeks blamed humanity for disorder in the universe
38. Euripides produced the play “Medea” to _____.
A. Express his shock
B. Attack the deepest prejudices of the levels
C. Criticize Greek behavior
D. Entertain the audience
39. The following are works of Sophocles except
A. Agamemnon
B. Ajax
C. Antigone
D. Oedipus at Colonus
40. This is considered the greatest contribution to the prose of the 17th century.
A. the drama
B. the biology
C. the essay
D. the novel
41. _____ is the usual topic of lyric poetry
A. Women
B. Nature
C. Feelings or emotions
D. Religion
42. All are examples of Gnomic verses except:
A. Folktale
B. Legend
C. Fable
D. Riddle
43. Sappho is considered the _____.
A. The greatest woman poet of antiquity
B. model of women Greece
C. The leader of women in Lesbos
D. A very passionate poet
44. Mistakes in pronunciation are immediately corrected in the Audio-Lingual
method because:
A. So that behaviors don’t become habits
B. To make learners conscious of their mistakes
C. So that learners will practice more
D. To develop accuracy and fluency
45. Which of the following statements below will help the students, who are
asked to listen to a set of instructions in English, process the material?
A. Identifying the topic sentence
B. Identifying the keywords
C. Listening to every word
D. Repeating each sentence
46. Vowels are characterized by _____.
A. Freely flowing air through the nasal cavity
B. The little obstruction in the vocal tract
C. Friction that is present in the vocal tract
D. Vibrations of the vocal cords
47. This is the most appropriate “while listening” activity for a text describing a
family tree with three generations.
A. Completing a family tree
B. Copying a family tree
C. Writing down names
D. Writing the family history
48. Which statement below is a feature of suggestopedia?
A. Learners share their feelings in a small group
B. Only listening activities are provided
C. Learners are in a relaxed and reclining position
D. Reading and writing are emphasized
49. If a teacher believes that a language is a system of a structure composed of
sounds, words, and sentences, then his syllabus might focus on _____.
A. Communication tasks
B. Building blocks of language
C. Functions of language
D. Form and function of language
50. Where is the primary stress in the word “characterization”?
A. Second
B. Fifth
C. Fourth
D. First
Answer key
1. A 11. D 21. B 31. D 41. C
2. D 12. D 22. D 32. D 42. C
3. C 13. A 23. B 33. A 43. A
4. C 14. C 24. A 34. D 44. B
5. A 15. A 25. C 35. D 45. D
6. A 16. B 26. A 36. C 46. B
7. B 17. B 27. A 37. B 47. C
8. A 18. C 28. B 38. B 48. C
9. D 19. C 29. B 39. A 49. D
10. B 20. C 30. A 40. A 50. B
Gen Ed English reviewer
1. Which shows a minimal pair of /s/ and /z/?
A. Juice-peace
B. Lacy-lazy
C. Trace-craze
D. Seize-sees
2. ______ is a grammar teaching approach where rules are given after the
learners have done an intensive pattern in various contexts.
A. Inductive
B. Formal
C. Deductive
D. Functional
3. This process of language learning is characterized by repeated practice of
sentence patterns until they become automatic.
A. Language performance
B. Hypothesis testing
C. Habit formation
D. Overgeneralization
4. If a teacher follows the communicative approach, which practices could be
seen inside the classroom?
A. Teaching listening-speaking-reading-writing sequentially
B. Focus on grammar rules
C. Assesses the needs of the target listeners
D. Emphasize oral proficiency
5. To emphasize the student’s need to identify why and for whom he/she is
writing, the teacher can use:
A. Process approach
B. Controlled writing approach
C. Free writing approach
D. Communicative writing approach
6. Filipinos find it hard to learn tenses because ______.
A. Tense cannot be translated to Filipino
B. English has many tenses
C. It is not presenting the Philippine language
D. The Filipino tense is different from English
7. It _____ unfair that she should stay on stage longer.
A. has to
B. tends to
C. needs
D. seems
8. “She transformed a dragon into a pinworm” is an example of _____.
A. Hyperbole
B. Metaphor
C. Metonymy
D. Alliteration
9. This is the smallest unit of sound.
A. Allophone
B. Morpheme
C. Allomorph
D. Phoneme
10. Krashen said that knowledge of grammatical rules in language performance
functions as _____.
A. Monitor
B. Output
C. Affect
D. Input
11. If a teacher wants to make an intensive drill about the basic sentence pattern,
he/she should _____.
A. assign pair work
B. explain grammar rules
C. demonstrate the lesson
D. do pattern practice
12. _____ will provide encouragement for a learner to team a language.
A. Explanation of rules
B. Self-satisfaction
C. Learning environment
D. Language form
13. A language learner tries out his/her rules of language with a competent 2nd
language speaker, he/she is _____.
A. Reviewing
B. Hypothesis testing
C. Generalizing
D. Practicing
14. If a teacher adheres to the humanistic approach, the materials would most
likely be
A. Providing background music while reading
B. Activities for sharing one’s values and viewpoint with others
C. Vocabulary words for writing
D. Completing entries in a grid
15. If a teacher wants to teach about the range of meaning between opposite
words, he/she may use
A. Cline
B. Context Clues
C. Matching
D. Pictures
16. _____ is an example of information transfer.
A. Engaging in as a small group
B. Listening and telling it to somebody
C. Competing grid based on a recorded talk
D. Doing a simulation
17. If followed by _____ /t/, /p/, /k/ are aspirated initial sounds.
A. an unstressed syllable
B. s stressed syllable
C. two syllables
D. three syllables
18. A behavior must be _____ if the teacher wants it to occur again and
eventually becomes a habit.
A. Corrected
B. Reinforced
C. Imitated
D. Modeled
19. _____ will determine the difference in pronouncing “ice cream” and “I
scream”.
A. Juncture
B. Pitch
C. Intonation
D. Stress
20. _____ will determine the difference between “English teacher”- meaning a
teacher who teaches English, and “English teacher”- meaning a teacher from
England.
A. Juncture
B. Pitch
C. Stress
D. Intonation
21. Continue the chain: plays, cleans, approves, bothers, _____.
A. Prepares
B. Links
C. Collects
D. Realizes
22. Wh – questions must have _____ intonation.
A. Level
B. Falling
C. Rising
D. Rising falling
23. A teacher who adheres to the communicative approach uses authentic
materials because _____.
A. They are readily available
B. They are cheap
C. Learners are familiar with them
D. Communicative activities in real life can be built around them
24. In the Philippines, English language teaching is aimed at:
A. Producing learners who can use English in the proper context
B. Producing learners who have mastery of English pronunciation and grammar
C. Producing learners who can confidently speak in English
D. Producing learners who can communicate accurately, fluently, and
appropriately
25. Which is acceptable in English?
A. Gilbert cleaned the table up
B. Tess is eager to talk to
C. That she dances well surprises me
D. He desires that you go
26. Choral reading is a type of reading.
A. Buddy
B. Reading aloud to students
C. Shared
D. Guided
27. Which word in the lines below infers the moral?
A. Beauty
B. Praised
C. Favor
D. Feareth
28. _____ states that children have the ability to relate new information to prior
knowledge.
A. Sociolinguistic
B. Constructivist
C. Reader response
D. Interactive
29. _____ makes use of Children’s language and experiences.
A. Language experience approach
B. Directed-reading thinking activity
C. Mastery learning
D. Individualized method
30. Which theory emphasizes comprehension as students read?
A. Constructivist
B. Interactive
C. Reader response
D. Sociolinguistic
31. _____ states that children have the ability to organize and integrate
information in schemata.
A. Interactive
B. Reader response
C. Constructivist
D. Sociolinguistic
32. _____ reading takes place when two students read the text together.
A. Shared
B. Guided
C. Independent
D. Buddy
33. _____ is a technique when the students crumple and throw and read these
pieces of paper.
A. Snowball Toss
B. Hot Seat
C. Quaker reading
D. Carousel
34. What virtue is shown in the poem below?
It’s the little things we do or say
That makes or break the beauty of the
Average passing day.
Heart, like doors, will open with ease
To very, little keys,
And don’t forget that two of these
Are “I thank you” and “If you please”
A. Encouragement
B. Friendliness
C. Kindness
D. Confidentiality
35. _____ reading takes place when the leaders read each line and then the group
repeats it.
A. Cumulative reading
B. Echo reading
C. Chorus reading
D. Small group reading
36. This is an interdisciplinary unit that integrates reading and writing with social
studies, science, mathematics, and values education.
A. Learning log
B. Cluster
C. Theme study
D. Collaborative report
37. _____ is the system students use in capitalization and punctuation rules.
A. Semantic
B. Syntactic
C. Phonological
D. Pragmatic
38. _____ is used to measure students’ reading comprehension.
A. Reading logs
B. Grand conversation
C. Anecdotal notes
D. Running record
39. What paragraph development is most appropriate in the main idea given
below?
A. Cause-effect
B. Analysis
C. Process
D. Classification
40. _____ views children as having the ability to relate new information to prior
knowledge.
A. Sociolinguist
B. Constructivist
C. Reader response
D. Interactive
41. The press is considered the fourth estate because it _____.
A. Checks all branches of government
B. Is a powerful political force
C. Is an adversary of government
D. Acts as the fourth branch of government
42. What can be implied from the statement below about mass media?
“The most important effect of mass communication is its ability to mentally order
and organize the world for us.”
A. Mass media decides the type of program to air
B. Mass media chooses advertisements for the program
C. Selects production number
D. Determines what will be news and what won’t
43. _____ states that mass media should be state-owned to best serve the
government.
A. Social responsibility
B. Soviet
C. Libertarianism
D. Authoritarianism
44. _____ is the 9th-century entertainment that is made up of skits and musical
acts that influenced modern-day TV.
A. Zarzuela
B. Comedia
C. Opera
D. Vaudeville
45. _____ is also called the response in the communication process.
A. Reaction
B. Gesture
C. Feedback
D. Signal
46. _____ is the process when media people control the public’s access to news.
A. Correlating
B. Gatekeeping
C. Agenda-setting
D. Channeling
47. What defense can a news reporter give when he is accused of invasion of
privacy?
A. Victim’s welfare
B. Victim’s consent
C. Honest reporting
D. Impartial reporting
48. _____ is shown when the government prohibited the press from interviewing
President Estrada.
A. Media Law
B. Censorship
C. Prior Restraint
D. Gag order
49. The article below is an example of:
“Residential customers of the Manila Electric Co. will see their bills go down by 43
centavos per kilowatt-hour this month, due to reduction in generation system low
charges”
A. Editorial
B. Obituaries
C. Straight news
D. Feature article
50. The phrase “human shield” in the given headline below indicates that the
phrase is:
“Army accuses rebels of using civilians as a human shield.”
A. extraordinary
B. important
C. not used correctly
D. newly coined
Answer key
1. B 11. D 21. A 31. C 41. A
2. D 12. B 22. D 32. D 42. D
3. B 13. B 23. D 33. A 43. A
4. C 14. B 24. D 34. C 44. A
5. D 15. B 25. B 35. B 45. C
6. D 16. B 26. D 36. D 46. B
7. D 17. C 27. D 37. B 47. D
8. A 18. B 28. B 38. C 48. D
9. D 19. D 29. A 39. A 49. C
10. A 20. C 30. C 40. B 50. D

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