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Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Listening

PRACTICE TEST 40 minutes

Time 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the
separate answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.
Each question carries one mark.

For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and
time for you to check your answers.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 1


SECTION 1 Questions 1–10

Questions 1–5

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Transport from Bayswater

Example Answer
Destination Harbour City

• Express train leaves at 1 …………………….

• Nearest station is 2 …………………….

• Number 706 bus goes to 3 …………………….

• Number 4 ……………………. bus goes to station

• Earlier bus leaves at 5 …………………….

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 2


Questions 6–10

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Transport Cash fare Card fare

Bus 6 $ …………… $1.50

Train (peak) $10 $10

Train (off-peak) $10

– before 5pm or after 7 …………… pm) 8 $ ……………

9 …………… ferry $4.50 $3.55

Tourist ferry (10 ……………) $35 –

Tourist ferry (whole day) $65 –

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 3


SECTION 2 Questions 11–20

Questions 11–14

Which counsellor should you see?

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 11–14.

A Louise Bagshaw
B Tony Denby
C Naomi Flynn

11 If you do not have an appointment

12 If it is your first time seeing a counsellor

13 If your concerns are related to anxiety

14 If you are unable to see a counsellor during normal office hours

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 4


Questions 15–20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Workshop Content Target group

Adjusting what you need to succeed 15 ………………… students


academically

Getting Organised use time effectively, find all students


16 ………………… between
study and leisure

Communicating talking with staff, all students, especially


communicating across cultures
17 …………………

Anxiety 18 …………………, breathing students about to sit exams


techniques, meditation, etc.

19 ………………… staying on track for long periods 20 ………………… students


only

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 5


SECTION 3 Questions 21–30

Questions 21–30

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Novel: 21 …………………

Protagonists: Mary Lennox; Colin Craven

Time period: Early in 22 …………………

Plot: Mary → UK – meets Colin who thinks he’ll never be able to

23 ………………… . They become friends.

Point of view: “Omniscient” – narrator knows all about characters’ feelings,

opinions and 24 …………………

Audience: Good for children – story simple to follow

Symbols (physical items that represent 25 …………………):

• the robin redbreast

• 26 …………………

• the portrait of Mistress Craven

Motifs (patterns in the story):

• the Garden of Eden

• secrecy – metaphorical and literal transition from 27 …………………

Themes: Connections between

• 28 ………………… and outlook

• 29 ………………… and well-being

• individuals and the need for 30 …………………

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 6


SECTION 4 Questions 31–40

Questions 31–35
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Time Perspectives

Time Zone Outlook Features & Consequences

Past Positive Remember good times, e.g. birthdays.

Keep family records, photo albums, etc.

31 ………… Focus on disappointments, failures, bad decisions.


…..

Present Hedonistic Live for 32 …………….. ; seek sensation; avoid pain.

Fatalistic Life is governed by 33 …………….. , religious beliefs,


social conditions. Life’s path can’t be changed.

Future 34 ………… Prefer work to play. Don’t give in to temptation.


…..

Fatalistic Have a strong belief in life after death and importance of

35 …………….. in life.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 7


Questions 36–40
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

36 We are all present hedonists


A at school
B at birth
C while eating and drinking

37 American boys drop out of school at a higher rate than girls because
A they need to be in control of the way they learn
B they play video games instead of doing school work
C they are not as intelligent as girls

38 Present-orientated children
A do not realise present actions can have negative future effects
B are unable to learn lessons from past mistakes
C know what could happen if they do something bad, but do it anyway

39 If Americans had an extra day per week, they would spend it


A working harder
B building relationships
C sharing family meals

40 Understanding how people think about time can help us


A become more virtuous
B work together better
C identify careless or ambitious people

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 8


Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Listening

PRACTICE TEST 2 40 minutes

Time 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the
separate answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.
Each question carries one mark.
For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and
time for you to check your answers.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 1


SECTION 1 Questions 1–10

Questions 1–6

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Application Form for use of Library Internet Service

Example Answer

Existing cardholder? Yes

Family name: Milton

First names: 1 ……………….. Jayne

Address: 2 ………………..

35 Maximilian Way

Whitfield

Post Code: 3 ………………..

Occupation: Nurse

(works the 4 ………………..)

Home phone: N/A

Mobile: 0412 214 418

Type of ID: 5 ………………..

ID number: AZ 1985331

Date of Birth: 25th 6 ………………..

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 2


Questions 7 and 8

Choose TWO letters, A–E.

What will the woman use the internet for?

A trade & exchange


B research
C email
D social networking
E job vacancies

Questions 9 and 10

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

9 How much does it cost to register as an internet user?


………………………………….

10 What is the maximum amount of time allowed per single daily internet session?
………………………………….

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 3


SECTION 2 Questions 11–20

Questions 11–15
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

11 The guided bushwalk is suitable for


A adults only
B children over 12 and adults
C children over 8 accompanied by a parent

12 On the bird observation outing, it is recommended that you have


A waterproof footwear
B a bird identification book
C binoculars

13 For the trip to the sand dunes, a company will donate


A water
B tools
C gloves

14 The bush tucker excursion will cost (per person)


A $15
B $12
C $7

15 The deadline to register for the bush tucker outing is


A 25 November
B 15 November
C 10 November

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 4


Questions 16–20

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Activity Leader Date Venue Time

Bush walk Glenn Ford 16 …………… Springvale 17 ……–1pm

Bird watching Joy Black, club 10 September Camford 4.30–6.30pm

18 ……………

Sand dunes Rex Rose 26 November 19 …………… 8.30–10.30am

Bush tucker Jim Kerr, ranger 3 December Carson Hills 10am–20 ……

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 5


SECTION 3 Questions 21–30

Questions 21–25

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

21 Students must follow ……………………. to prevent accidents in the lab.

22 The students have not been using ……………………. while in the lab.

23 Students cannot eat or drink until ……………………. is finished and they have

washed their hands.

24 Tessa should tie her hair back to avoid danger when she is working with

a ……………………. or chemicals.

25 Students must wear long sleeves and shoes made of ……………………. in the

lab.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 6


Questions 26–28
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

26 Which student is currently using an appropriate notebook?

A Vincent
B Tessa
C Neither student

27 The tutor says that writing observations in complete sentences

A is often not a good use of time


B makes them easier to interpret later
C means that others can understand them

28 The students must write dates

A next to each drawing


B next to each written section
C next to each drawing and written section

Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A–E.

Which TWO things must be included in the conclusion to the experiment?

A the questions investigated


B the solutions to the questions
C the student’s own thoughts about the experiment
D the length of time spent on the experiment
E the student’s signature

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 7


SECTION 4 Questions 31–40

Questions 31–40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Climate change
HUMAN FACTORS

• Cutting down trees for 31 ……………………


• Industrial Revolution
• 32 ……………………
• Increase in population  deforestation
KNOWN EFFECTS

• Over previous 130 yrs: temp.  by 0.6 ° C


• Since Ind. Rev.: CO2  by 30% & Methane  by 33 …………………… (from
mining, animals, rice paddies)
• N2O  (from 34 …………………… esp. fertiliser; waste management; car
exhausts)
• Greenhouse Effect: gases form 35 ……………………  heat trapped  Earth
warms up

FUTURE EFFECTS

1. Rise in sea levels  ice melting


Sea level Number of people at risk

1998 levels 36 ……………………


+50 cm 92 million

+1 metre 37 ……………………

2. Change in 38 …………………  more arid areas  population movement to


cities
3. Increase in pests and 39 …………………… e.g. malaria

4. Change in ecosystems: *shift in 40 …………………… – some die, others


multiply *deserts get hotter & bigger

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 8


Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Listening

PRACTICE TEST 3 40 minutes

Time 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the
separate answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.
Each question carries one mark.

For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and
time for you to check your answers.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 1


SECTION 1 Questions 1–10

Questions 1–5

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Second-hand Bedroom Furniture for Sale

Example Answer

Number of items for sale: three

Bedside tables

Construction: wood

Colour: 1 ………………..

Drawers: two (in each table)

handles made of 2 ………………..

Height: 3 ……………….. cm

Condition: 4 ………………..

Price: 5 ……………….. (for both)

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 2


Questions 6–10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Dressing table

Drawers: five (two are 6 ………………..)

Width: 7 ………………..

Mirrors: three: one large, two small (all

8 ………………..)

Condition: good

Price: 9 ………………..

Seller’s details

Name: Carolyn Kline

Address: 19 10 ……………….. Road

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 3


SECTION 2 Questions 11–20

Questions 11–17
Label the plan below.
Write the correct letter, A–J, next to questions 11–17.

11 Administration office
12 Sports medicine clinic
13 Bike racks
14 Café
15 Conference room
16 Men’s locker room
17 Pool shop

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 4


Question 18

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

18 The sports centre is open on public holidays from

A 7 a.m. to 5 p.m.
B 5 a.m. to 7 p.m.
C 5 a.m. to 9 p.m.

Questions 19 and 20

Choose TWO letters, A–E.

Which TWO services are covered by the membership fee?

A Personal training
B Swim squads
C Childminding
D Programme design
E Tennis lessons

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 5


SECTION 3 Questions 21–30

Questions 21–25

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Part One – Checklist:

 Write an 21 ……………………. – keep it brief.

 List relevant 22 ……………………. .

 Have two academic advisors read over your 23 ……………………. .

 Choose the journal you want to submit to.

 Apply the journal’s 24 ……………………. to your article.

 Sign the 25 ……………………. .

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 6


Questions 26–30

Complete the flow-chart below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Part Two – Process

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 7


SECTION 4 Questions 31–40

Questions 31–33
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

If soil is healthy, it is a 31 ………………… teeming with life such as worms, fungi

and bacteria. If plants are grown in poor soil, they will lack 32 ………………… and

human health will suffer. Plants are nourished by organic matter, 33 …………………

and other essential elements which are broken down by insects and other organisms in

a synergistic relationship.

Questions 34–36
Label the diagram below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 8


Questions 37–40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Problems:
 Erosion
 37 ………………… from various sources, including chemical fertilisers

Conventional farming methods Organic farming methods


 monoculture  crop rotation
 synthetic fertiliser & chemicals  covering crops
used for 38 …………………  use of insects as natural
 genetically-modified seeds 40 …………………
 pesticide & fungicide sprayed on  addition of manure & green waste
crops after picking
 no need for documentation of
39…………………

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 9


 
Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Listening

PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the separate
answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.

Each question carries one mark.

For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for
you to check your answers.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 1


 
SECTION 1 Questions 1–10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

BUYING A USED CAR

Example Answer

Name of caller Peter Smith

Vehicle Details:

• Vehicle for sale: 2012 Toyota sedan


• Vehicle colour: 1 ……………………
• Condition of vehicle: original 2 ……………………
no scratches
no dents
engine: no problems, regular servicing

• Ownership: one driver, old lady


3 ……………………
• Tyres: back tyres: worn
front tyres: 4 ……………………

• Extras air conditioning


5 ……………………
power steering, central locking, ABS brakes
manual transmission
tow bar – useful for Peter’s 6 ……………………
Mileage: 7 …………………… km

Meeting Arrangements
• Tina’s address: 8 352 ……………………
• Time of appointment: 9 …………………… today
• Peter’s phone number: 10 045 -……………………

© British Council. All rights reserved. 2


 
SECTION 2 Questions 11–20

Questions 11–17

Label the plan below.

Write the correct letter, A–I, next to questions 11–17.

Daisy Day Care Centre

11 shoe rack ………

12 carpet ………

13 bookcase ………

14 dress-up cupboard ………

15 cubbyholes ……....

16 climbing walls ………

17 chickens ………

© British Council. All rights reserved. 3


 
Questions 18–20

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

18 The official ratio of adults to children who are two or older is one adult to
…………………. children.

19 Parents who are often late may be asked to ………………….. .

20 The quickest waiting time for a place in the Day Care is …………………. .

© British Council. All rights reserved. 4


 

SECTION 3 Questions 21–30

Questions 21 and 22

Choose TWO letters, A–E

Professor Jones thinks that Mark will ask for more time for his essay because:

A two other students have already asked her


B her students never plan their assignments
C most students have handed in their assignments
D it is the day before the assignment is due in
E Mark is always late with his assignments

Questions 23–25

Choose ONE letter, A, B or C

23 Mark needs an extension because:


A he was sick and went to the doctor
B he had a problem with his computer
C his brother had a personal problem

24 Mark didn’t come to see Professor Jones a week ago because:


A he thought his writing was very bad
B he planned to finish the essay on time
C he wanted to keep his grade point average

25 Which rule below is NOT correct? You should


A ask at least 3 days before the essay is due
B fill out a form and then email it
C talk to your teacher in person

© British Council. All rights reserved. 5


 
Questions 26–30

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Professor Jones’s feedback:

• Mark needs to add 26 …………………… to his bibliography

• He should look in the online databases, e.g. Languageline

• His essay has no 27 ……………………

• Mark plans to explain the theories and show 28 …………… for each of them

• He should 29 …………………… the essay before he hands it in

• He can have one 30 …………………… for his assignment

© British Council. All rights reserved. 6


 

SECTION 4 Questions 31–40

Questions 31–35

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Managing Creativity in Your Business

Managing creative staff is a difficult task. They have creativity and 31 ……………….., so

they need freedom. In the past, in factories, 32 ……………….. was vital for making a

high quality product. Nowadays, we hire staff to create new products and find new

customers. But, their new ideas must be 33 ………………. if we want to make money

from them. A standard method for managing staff is setting 34 ……………….. targets,

related to profits, products or new clients. This method has some problems, because

staff might be dishonest or break the law so that they can meet the company goals.

These goals are often tied in to 35 ……………….. and this can make the problem worse.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 7


 
Questions 36–40

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Robert Simons’ Three 36 ……………………..

The first: Develop a mission statement

Engage the workers with the Follow the company 37 ……………………..


company’s core values
examples:

the best tools in the world

the customer is no 1

The second: Don’t tell your creative staff what to do;

The power of 38 tell them what they should not do, e.g.
……………………..
this product is not part of our company goals

this behaviour is not OK

You need to set 39…………………….. to help


control creativity

The third: Be aware of and discuss external factors

40……………………. the competition

the company profits and losses

other new products in the market

© British Council. All rights reserved. 8


Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Listening

PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the separate
answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.    
There are 40 questions.
Each question carries one mark.

For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for
you to check your answers.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 1


SECTION 1 Questions 1–10

Questions 1–6

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Harry’s Hire Company

Example

Hire for: birthday party

Equipment Hire:

Day and date of event: 1 …………………… November

Number attending event: 2 ……………………

Rental: 5 dozen dinner plates, bowls

5 dozen sets of 3 ………… and …………

40 plastic 4 ……………………

4 dozen each small / medium glasses

six 5 ……………………

Costings:

Weekend Package: 5 p.m. Fri – 10 a.m. Mon: $1600 + tax

6 …………………… Package: 5 p.m. Sat – 10 a.m. Mon: $1350 + tax

7 ……………………: $50 (within 10 km)

Breakage Insurance: $60

Replacement costs: plates, bowls – $3.55 per item

small glasses – 8 …………………… per item

medium glasses – $4.40 per item

© British Council. All rights reserved. 2


Customer Details:

Full name: 9 ……………………

Address: 28B Sandstone Close, Martinsborough

Contact number: 10. 084 ……………………

© British Council. All rights reserved. 3


SECTION 2 Questions 11–20

Questions 11–15

Match the creatures to their behaviour.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D next to each description.

A swifts

B bats

C cockroaches

D centipedes

11 feed on the guardrail beside the path

12 are dangerous to people

13 collect in large groups

14 fly only at night

15 live on the roof of the cave

Questions 16 and 17

Answer the questions below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

16 What is the guano from the caves used for?

………………………………….

17 What are the birds’ nests from the cave used for?

………………………………….

© British Council. All rights reserved. 4


Questions 18–20

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

In the cave, you should:

18 carry a .…………………

19 wear a .………………… and a hat

20 keep to the .………………… at all times

© British Council. All rights reserved. 5


SECTION 3 Questions 21–30

Questions 21–23

Choose ONE letter, A, B, or C.

21 Mary has been called in for a meeting because:


A she has been working too hard
B she has offered to lead an activity
C she is going on a training programme

22 The most important part of planning a field trip is:


A to organise activities for everyone
B to know about the official rules for field trips
C to think about and plan for problems

23 Leaders must develop:


A a tailored trip plan
B an adventure activities plan
C a hazard management plan

Questions 24 and 25

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

24 Mary’s plan must consider .…………………, such as local rain or wind, the land and the
party members.

25 Mary’s plan does not need to consider things such as tropical storms or serious illnesses,
which are known as ………………… .

© British Council. All rights reserved. 6


Questions 26–30

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer

FIELD TRIP PLAN:

WEATHER:

• everyone needs warm clothing and a 26 .…………………

ACTIVITIES

• hiking – first aid kit, map and a 27 .…………………

• avoid routes where an avalanche, mudslide or 28 .………………… is

possible

GROUP MEMBERS

• think about the fitness and 29 ………………… of the group

• do not allow 30 .………………… to be responsible for transport.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 7


SECTION 4 Questions 31–40

Questions 31–34

Label the diagrams below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

A Normal Ear An Ear with Cochlear Implant

31 .…………………

32 ………………….

33 .…………………

34 .…………………

© British Council. All rights reserved. 8


Questions 35 – 40

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Cochlear Implants – Advantages, Disadvantages and Factors

Hearing aids 35.…………………… normal sounds, so they are good for mild hearing loss but

not for severe loss. Cochlear implants help some people a lot, but do not work so well for

everyone. The brain gets different 36.…………………… from an implant, so users must

relearn how to hear. Cochlear implants are not a cure. Users need ongoing training in

37.……………………, lip-reading and sign language. The surgery can damage nerves. It

may also destroy any 38 .……………………; in such cases, those users cannot go back to

using a hearing aid. The most important factor for selecting users is the

39.…………………… of their deafness, and also age and previous speaking ability. Finally,

the condition of the nerve cells in the cochlea is a factor, because 40 ……………………. can

damage these cells.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 9


 
Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Listening

PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the separate
answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.

Each question carries one mark.

For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and
time for you to check your answers.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 1


 

SECTION 1 Questions 1–10

Questions 1–6

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Cell Phone Packages

Type of Plans • Pre-paid

• 24-month contract plans

Prepaid Plans • 1 without ………………

SIM cards • 15 minutes of 2 ………………

Minimal Plan • $12

• 40 minutes

• 3 without ………………

Social Plan • $40

• 200 minutes

• 4 ………………

• 2GB data

5 ……… & ……… Plan • 5 numbers, free talking and texting

• $70

• 3GB data

Changing Plans • at any time

• in person

• access the 6 ………………

© British Council. All rights reserved. 2


 
Questions 7–10

Complete the sales form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Sales Form

Plan Social Plan

Phone Number 7 047 - ………………

Customer Name 8 ………………

Address 375 Thompson 9 ………………

Total Payment $42.50

Payment Method 10 ………………

© British Council. All rights reserved. 3


 

SECTION 2 Questions 11–20

Questions 11–13

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11 Which option is NOT part of keeping the kitchen clean?


A hair covers
B hand wash
C touching counter surfaces

12 The locked door is NOT used to protect against …


A theft of money
B damage to food
C unwanted visitors

13 Mayonnaise is measured …
A to count the number of burgers sold
B to make the burgers taste delicious
C to know how much has been used

Questions 14 and 15

Choose TWO letters, A—E

Which TWO of the following make the company efficient?

A achieving sales targets


B knowing the busy times and days
C throwing away burgers after 10 minutes
D hiring extra staff at key times
E teaching staff to work in one area

© British Council. All rights reserved. 4


 
Questions 16–20
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

There is a 16 …………………. on the back of the paper tray covers.

Exact servings are important for stock checking, for 17 …………………. and, most
importantly, for providing correct food values.

Customers in cars account for 18 …………………. of the total sales.

Paid orders are sent to 19 …………………., for both cooks and servers.

The order is finished when the 20 …………………. arrives.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 5


 

SECTION 3 Questions 21–30

Questions 21–30

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Experiment Planning Form


Experimental hypothesis:
That 21 …………………. impacts on crabs at the beach.
Variables:
Visitor numbers overall number of visitors
Time of day changes in number of people and 22 ………………….
23 …………………. left by visitors to the beach
Constants:

• floating rubbish
• boat pollution
Available beaches and usage levels:
Main town beach 24 ………………….
Beach over the hill Little use
25 …………………. No use; control
Experimental method:
Count crab holes:
• over a set 26 ………………….
• in a defined area of sand
• the same 27 …………………. from the sea
Equipment: (3 of each):

• measuring tapes, balls of string, small posts


• 28 …………………. to check that we start and stop at the same time
• stop watches for timing
• 29 …………………. to see at night
Observations:

• Initial time period: one hour / day and night


• Total observation period: 20 hours over a 30 ………………….

© British Council. All rights reserved. 6


 

SECTION 4 Questions 31–40


Questions 31 and 32
Choose TWO letters, A—E

The lecturer states that in the past mythologies offered …


A stories to explain the unknown.
B a substitute for religion.
C characters with special powers.
D examples of goodness and virtue.
E an escape into fantasy.

Questions 33 and 34
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C

33 The Warring States are mentioned as an example of …


A how myths affect poor people.
B political change in modern China.
C the social power of myths.

34 Luke Skywalker’s story is told to show that ...


A modern myths have new values and ideas.
B myths are still being retold today.
C myths are written mainly for young people.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 7


 
Questions 35—40

Match the creation mythologies to their features.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D next to each feature.

A Greek
B Norse
C Chinese
D Māori
E Australian

35 An animal brings up life from the sea.

36 The world is formed from the body of a god.

37 The gods fight with each other.

38 The Earth forms as a god becomes bigger.

39 A son separates his parents.

40 People steal from the gods.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 8



Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Listening

PRACTICE TEST 30 minutes

Time 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the separate
answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.
Each question carries one mark.
For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for
you to check your answers.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 1




SECTION 1 Questions 1–10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

BEST FITNESS CENTRE


Registration form

Example
Membership Status: New (Example)

Member details

Name: Tom 1. _________

Reason for joining: To train for a 2. ____________.

Extra activities: Tennis, 3. ___________

Home telephone: 4. ______________________

Date of Birth: 5. __________________January 1977

© British Council. All rights reserved. 2




Questions 6–10

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

BEST FITNESS MEMBERSHIP GUIDE



STARTER SILVER GOLD

Cost (monthly) £10 6. _____________ £50

7. _______________ NO YES YES


class included.

USE OF NO NO YES

8. _______________

RENEW DATE Every 9. ____________ Yearly Yearly


months

EXTRAS NONE Discount at Discount at restaurant


restaurant One free session with

10._________________

© British Council. All rights reserved. 3




SECTION 2 Questions 11–20

Choose ONE letter, A, B or C.

11. In 1482, Brimley Castle


A. Was destroyed by fire.
B. Was re-built.
C. Was built for the first time.

12. The castle was originally built as


A. A gift.
B. Defence against attacks
C. A prison.

13. The castle first opened to the public in


A. 1944
B. 1964
C. 1924

14. The most unusual feature of the castle is


A. The tower
B. The water-mill
C. The window.

Questions 15-20

Complete the notes below.

Write no more than TWO WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.

BRIMLEY CASTLE FACTSHEET

KEY FEATURES FUTURE ADDITIONAL


DEVELOPMENTS INFORMATION

GARDENS Plants shaped like New Mill not working.

15. ___________________ 16. __________________

TOWER 17. _______- sided. Building work Created in 1495

FOREST Different tree and plant varieties Complete 19. ______________


18. _________________. made by local
children

WALLS Highest point: 20. _______ metres Tea-rooms Created in 1490

© British Council. All rights reserved. 4




SECTION 3 Questions 21–30

Complete the notes below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Sally and Ben are from the: 21.________________________

New library planning meeting notes – Sally Winter


Projected time until opening: 22. ____________months

Improvements:

l 23. ________________design

l Reading rooms with 24. _____________pods for quiet study

l Over 20% use of 25. _____________ energy.

Issue Response

- Enough computers? - 26. ________ terminals in total; bring own devices

- Internet speed - Funding from 27. ___________; fastest in U.K.

- Book availability - Reduced browsing space; computer booking system

- 28. _________library access - Greatly increased selection

- Seating - 29. ___________near to bookshelves; will review later

- Disabled access - Will address in next meeting; wheelchair ramps

Next meeting: 30. ______________January

© British Council. All rights reserved. 5




Section 4 Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write no more than one word and/or number for each
answer.

Lecture Notes

Topic: Great Pacific Garbage Patch

I. General info
- A swirl of marine litter 31. _____
- Located in the North Pacific Ocean
- Large area. Not sure of exact size

II. Description
- Made of: plastics, chemical 32. _____, other litter
- Low density, hard to see
- Held together by 33. _____ and movement of the water

III. History
- First described in 34. ____
- Measured plastic in the North Pacific using estimates from Sea of Japan
- Named by Curtis 35. _____

© British Council. All rights reserved. 6




Questions 36-40

Choose the best option, A, B or C

36. The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is formed by…


A. coastal waters.
B. wind material.
C. oceanic currents.

37. The scientific information about where ocean plastics come from…
A. does not exist
B. has been published
C. is very definitive

38. How much of the ocean litter consists of fishing gear?


A. less than half
B. more than half
C. half

39. What is the most surprising thing about the Great Pacific Garbage Patch?
A. how big it is
B. how easy it is to clean up
C. how there is one identifiable source

40. Why do the size estimates of the Garbage Patch vary so much?
A. the media exaggerates the problem
B. concentration standards are too high
C. sampling is a complicated process

© British Council. All rights reserved. 7



IELTS preparation and practice

Listening
Practice test 8

Council. All rights reserved.


© The British Council

Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Listening

PRACTICE TEST 30 minutes

Time 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the separate
answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.
Each question carries one mark.
For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for
you to check your answers.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 1




SECTION 1 Questions 1–10

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example: Big Bear Lake Camping


Trip
Timetable

Day 1 7 a.m. - 2 p.m. Arrive. 2 p.m. - 5 p.m. Grass 5 p.m. - 9 p.m. Dinner.
6 a.m. Leave from Set up camp. Land hiking trails Share stories. Sing
meeting area Lunch and 1. _____ songs. Lights out
schedule.

Day 2 7:30 a.m.- noon. White Noon - 1:30 p.m. 1:30 p.m. - 3:00 p.m.
2. _____ a.m. Water River floating Lunch 3. _____ camp. Head
Breakfast back to town

Camping Equipment (per person)

1 tent + sleeping bag 1 pair of hiking boots + Plenty of clothes: Torch + 5. _____
and pillow 1 pair of 4. _____ jeans, t-shirts, socks...

Drinking water: 6 bottles Emergency 6. _____: 1 1 pack of matches 1 sharp knife


pack of whole grain
bars

Fees (per person)

Camp site fee: $20 Food: $50. Includes Hiking trails: River floating: $20
7. _____ and drinks 8. $_____

Total: $95 Deposit: $50, due Remainder: due before Refund policy:
9. _____ before the trip leaving 10. _____

© British Council. All rights reserved. 2




SECTION 2 Questions 11-15

Complete the sentences below. Use no more than two words for each answer.

11. The Shelter Society started in The Cedars _____.

12. Many volunteers help with the Society’s fund-raising and _____ activities.

13. There has been a fifty percent increase in homelessness in the last _____.

14. Homelessness has been made worse by _____ in government assistance.

15. Our _____ and former neighbors really need our help.

Questions 16-20

Which organiser should you talk to?

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 14 - 17. You can use a letter
more than once.

A Marla Sunderland

B Leticia Perez

C Roman Aranov

16. __________ if you are interested in donating first aid supplies.

17. __________ if you have experience as a cook.

18. __________ if you are willing to sort sweaters, jackets and pants.

19. __________ if you have worked in the primary school system.

20. __________ if you know how to write a CV.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 3




SECTION 3 Questions 21–30

Choose the best option A, B or C.

21. Ms. Okello is covering Dr. Humphries’ classes because he is…

A. enjoying holiday with his wife


B. visiting a family member in the hospital
C. away doing research

22. Ms. Okello’s area of expertise is…

A. intercultural communication
B. business communication
C. mass communication

23. Which of the following best describes Arshad?

A. naturally talented but under motivated


B. enjoying his freedom but keen to please his parents
C. disorganised but has lots of good ideas

24. Which of the following best describes Galiya?

A. has natural authority but is afraid to use it


B. focused on her future but afraid of public speaking
C. organized but lacking in confidence

25. Overall, what is the students’ problem?

A. Galiya and Arshad are not sure how to begin and the deadline’s in two
weeks
B. Galiya’s trying to do the entire project herself without Arshad’s help
C. Galiya and Arshad have teamwork trouble and unclear instructions

26. What suggestion does Ms. Okello give to Galiya?

A. Request a deadline extension


B. Change partners
C. Practice more

27. What does Galiya ask Arshad to do in order to improve their presentation?

A. Come up with better ideas


B. Use his computer skills
C. Start taking the project seriously

© British Council. All rights reserved. 4




28. What does Arshad ask Galiya to do in order to improve their presentation?

A. Treat him with respect


B. Practice her speaking part
C. Give him less work

29. What does Arshad want to be in the future?

A. entrepreneur
B. financial analyst
C. Not sure

30. How should Leah inform Ms. Okello about her project topic?

A. office visit
B. phone call
C. e-mail message

© British Council. All rights reserved. 5




SECTION 4 Questions 31–40

Complete the notes below

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer

Notes: Space Exploitation

Introduction:

• Space agencies and others use mythologies to create a sense of 31. _____.

• There are great 32. _____ to be harvested from exploiting space.

• Nations that control the 33. _____ on the Moon or Mars will earn vast profits.

• Earth exploration-growth in technology and 34. _____ only the beginning.

The Moon:

• Helium3-if we 35. _____ its possibilities, we will lose control of the economy.

• Commercial activity should support the first Moon 36. _____.

• The surface has already been 37. _____.

• Wealth-sharing: Problems without 38. _____ controls and agreements.

Nuclear power:

• Use in space may cause 39. _____ problems for humans.

Space junk:

• So serious that the possibility of space tourism is in 40. _____.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 6



IELTS preparation and practice

Listening
Practice test 9

Council. All rights reserved.


© The British Council

Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Listening

PRACTICE TEST 30 minutes

Time 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Listen to the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
While you are listening, write your answers on the question paper.
You will have 10 minutes at the end of the test to copy your answers onto the separate
answer sheet. Use a pencil.
At the end of the test, hand in this question paper.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


There are four parts to the test.
You will hear each part once only.
There are 40 questions.
Each question carries one mark.
For each part of the test, there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for
you to check your answers.

© British Council. All rights reserved.
1


SECTION 1 Questions 1–10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Survey UK

Date: 5/6/2017

Location: Leeds

Topic: City centre (Example)

Respondent details

Name: Mary 1. ___________________

Address:

14 Bay Road

Leeds

L11 2. _________________

Job: 3. _________________

Work telephone: 4. ______________________

Email: leedsmary1977@ukmail.com


© British Council. All rights reserved.
2


Questions 5-7

Which THREE of the following are facilities that have recently opened in Leeds city centre?

Choose 3 letters, A-F

Leeds city centre facilities

A cinema
B amusement arcade
C childcare centre
D department store
E library garden
F food street

Questions 8-10

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

SURVEY UK SUGGESTIONS
Topic: Leeds city centre

No. Problems Suggested solution


1. Cars drive too fast. More 8. ______________

2. Not enough buses to the city centre in Employ more drivers


the 9. ____________

3. Too many similar shops. Have fewer 10. ____________


© British Council. All rights reserved.
3


SECTION 2 Questions 11–20

Complete the notes below.

Write TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Royal Victoria Nursing College Factsheet

- Opened in 11. _________.

- 7-storey building

- 85 individual rooms, including 12. 4 ____________and 8 wards.

- Cost at time of construction: 13. £_____m.

- Most popular period: 1920s. Students from all over the world, especially Canada,
New Zealand, India and 14. ______________.

- Decision to close college made in late 1990s; new college located in Derby.


© British Council. All rights reserved.
4


Questions 15-17

What is the main area of responsibility of each of the following people?

Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to
questions 15-17.

Area of responsibility

A Marketing
B Media
C Sales
D Museum maintenance
E Exhibitions
F Human Resources
G Arts

People

15. Susan ____________

16. Vanessa ____________

17. Gordon ____________

Questions 18-20

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer

NATIONAL MUSEUM OF NURSING FREE MONTHLY LECTURES

Subject Date / Time Speaker

The history of nursing 18. September 15th, 7pm Dr. Mark Fisher
___________ at the college.

Nursing in 19. ___________ October 10th, 7pm Mrs. Margaret Hall

The 20. _________ of nursing November 12th, 7pm Mrs. Nigella Smith


© British Council. All rights reserved.
5


SECTION 3 Questions 21–30

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. The purpose of the meeting is to:

A. Report on problems with the program.

B. Help to make the program better for future students.

C. Discuss what was most enjoyable about the program.

22. Freya found it easy to adapt to studying in Germany because:

A. She had been there before.

B. She speaks perfect German.

C. Many things were familiar.

23. Tom felt that the university’s pre-program support was not enough because:

A. The preparation booklet didn’t have enough information about living in China.

B. It didn’t provide enough practical skills for living independently abroad.

C. It is impossible to prepare everything in advance.

24. After three months in China Tom felt unhappy because:

A. He didn’t have any friends.

B. He wasn’t making much progress with learning Chinese.

C. He was frustrated about no longer being the best student.

25. Tom improved his experience by:

A. Becoming more socially active:

B. Having a lot of trips around China.

C. Spending more time on study.


© British Council. All rights reserved.
6


26. According to Freya, the number of students attending classes was:

A. Less than in the U.K.

B. About the same as in the U.K.

C. More than in the U.K.

27. Freya found that when studying management case studies in Germany:

A. There were a lot of arguments between the students.

B. There was more focus on solving problems with theory.

C. Increasing profit was one of the most important factors.

28. Tom found it hard to adapt to his new course at first because:

A. He was not able to use his first language:

B. He found it difficult to get along with his classmates.

C. The course materials were not interesting.

29. Tom and Freya both found it useful to:

A. Ask other students for help.

B. Go on trips with other students.

C. Study with other students.

30. Before starting the exchange program, Tom and Freya both suggest:

A. Making friends with local people in the new country.

B. Visiting the country you will be studying in.

C. Watching TV shows about the country you will be studying in.


© British Council. All rights reserved.
7


SECTION 4 Questions 31–40

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Herzberg’s Two
Factor theory

A model for understanding what causes employee satisfaction and dissatisfaction with
their job.

- Two factors

a. Factors that lead to increased satisfaction: 31.______________


b. Factors that lead to increased dissatisfaction: 32._____________ factors

- Factors leading to satisfaction and dissatisfaction are considered to be


33.____________, hence ‘two factor’ theory

- Factors that increase satisfaction:

a. Achievement
b. 34._________________
c. Enjoyment of work
d. More responsibilities
e. Personal 35._______________

- Factors that increase dissatisfaction:

a. Salary (never enough)


b. Company policy and administration
c. Relations with 36.______________
d. Working conditions
e. Relations with colleagues

- Possible combinations


© British Council. All rights reserved.
8


Combinations Characteristics

- High H, High M – Staff have desire to succeed; few 37.____________.

- High H, Low M – No big issues, but not driven to improve; focus on salary.

- Low H, High M – Job stimulating but conditions are 38._____________

- Low H, High M – Job is uninteresting and conditions are poor.

- According to Herzberg, it is necessary to eliminate job dissatisfaction before job


satisfaction can be increased.

- Ways to eliminate job dissatisfaction:

a. Pay fair salaries

b. Guarantee employee 39. ______________ in the workplace

c. Create positive company culture (team building activities)

- Ways to increase job satisfaction:

a. Provide more challenging and 40.____________ work


b. Pathway to promotion


© British Council. All rights reserved.
9

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