Sbrts 10 (Eng)

All India Score Booster Test - 10 [Paper] All India
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Test - 10
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A magnet is suspended at an angle 60 o in a
5.
magnetic field of 5×10–4T . What is the work done
by the magnetic field in bringing it in its direction
TOPIC : Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter? The magnetic dipole moment of the magnet is
20 amp × metre2 :
SECTION-A SECTION-A
(1) 5×10–5 J
1. In a moving coil galvanometer the deflection of 1.  i
the coil  is related to the electric current i by the (2) –5×10–5 J
relation : (3) –5×10–1 J
(1)(4)I 5×10 J
tan –3
(1) I  tan 
6. (2)A magnet
I  is parallel to a uniform magnetic field.
(2) I   If it is rotated by 60o, the work done is 0.8 J. How
much work is done in moving it 30o further :
(3) I  2 (3) I  2
(1) 0.8×107 erg
(4) I   (4) I  
(2) 0.7 J
2. The effect due to uniform magnetic field on a freely 2. (3) 8 J

suspended magnetic needle is as follows :
(4) 0.8 erg
(1) Both torque and net force are present (1)
7. The magnetism of a magnet is due to :
(2) Torque is present but no net force u te (2)(1) The earth
s tit
(3) Both torque and net force are absent In (3)(2) Cosmic rays
g ht (4)(3) The spin motion of electrons g ht
Li Li
(4) Net force is present but not torque
3. A magnetised wire of moment M is bent into an ew (4) Pressure of big magnet inside the earth
3. M ew
N
arc of a circle subtending an angle of 60o at the 8. A triangular loop 60
of oside l carries a current I. It isN
center; then the new magnetic moment is : placed in a magnetic field B such that the plane of
loop is in the direction of B. The torque on the
loop is:
(1) (2M/) (1) (2M/)
(1) Zero
(2) (M/) (2) (M/)
(2) IBl
(3) (3 3 M/) (3) (3 3 M/)
3 2 2
(3) Il B
(4) (3M/) 2
(4) (3M/)
4. Two points A and B are situated alog the extended 4. 2 3 A B

(4) IBl 2
axis of a 2 cm long bar magnet at distances x and 4 x 2x A
2x cm respectively from the pole nearer to the
B
points. The ratio of the magnetic fields at A and B 9. If dip angle on a plane at 30 o with magnetic
will be : meridian is 45o . Then true value of dip :
(1) 4 : 1
(1) tan–1(2/3)
(1) 4 : 1
(2)(2)4 tan
: 1 –1(3/2)
(2) 4 : 1 approximately
(3)(3)8 tan–1
:1 (3)
(3) 8 : 1
(4) tan–1(2)
(4) 8 : 1 approximately (4) 8 : 1
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10. A circular coil of radius R carries an electric 15. AnRelectric charge in uniform motion
10. i produces :
current. The magnetic field due to the coil at a
point on the axis of the coil located at a distance r (1) an electric field only r
from the center of the coil, such that r >>R, varies
(r >>R ) :
as: (2) a magnetic field only
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1)(3) both electric and magnetic
(2) 3 /field
r r 3/2 r r 2
(4) no such field at all
1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) 2 (4) 3
r2 r3 16. The r magnetic field dB due r to a small current

11. Magnetic dipole moment of a charge q moving on 11. element
q d  at adistance
R r and element carrying
a circle of radius R with angular velocity  is : current i is :
(1) qR2/2 (1) qR2/2  
 0  d  r 
(2) qR2 (1) dB  i  
(2) qR2 4   r 
(3) q2R (3) q2R  

  0 2  d  r 
(4) q2R2/2 (4)(2)qdB
2
R/2 i  2 
2
4  r 
12. The angle of dip at the magnetic equator is : 12.
 
(1) 0o (1) 0o dB  0  d  r 
 i 3 
u te (3) 4  r 
tit
(2) 45o (2) 45 o
(3) 30 o s
n (3) 30    d  r 
o
I
ht (4)(4)90 dB  4 i  r  ht
0 2
o o
(4) 90
g g
13. 0 Li 13.17. A long wire is bent30in to the shape PQRST as shown
At a place the angle of dip is 30 . If the horizontal 0 Li
component of earth’s magnetic field is H e wtotal
the H with QRS being a semicircle e w
earth’s field will be : N in the figure
N with
centre O and radius r metre.
(1) H/2 (2) 2H/ 3
(1) H/2 (2) 2H/ 3
P I Q
(3) H (4) H (3) H 2 (4) H 3

2 3 O r R
14. Match of the column A and B 14. A B T I
A B S
A B
A current of I ampere flows through it in the
M direction P  Q  R S T.
i. Magnetisation a. M Then the magnetic
H i. induction at the point a.
O of the
H figure in vaccum is:
magnetic moment
ii. Magnetic field b-  1 1
volume (1) 0   
ii.  2r 4r  b-
strength
B  1 1
iii. Magnetic c. (2) 0    B
 0H iii.  2r 4r  c.
 0H
susceptibility
1
iv. Relative magnetic d. 0 (H  M) (3) 0
iv. 4r d. 0 (H  M)
permeability
(1) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a (2) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c (1) i-b,ii-d,
0l iii-c, iv-a (2) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(4)
r
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c (3) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
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18. Two parallel wires are carrying electric currents 23. A wire of length L carrying current i is placed
18.
of equal magnitude and in the same direction. perpendicular to the magnetic induction B . The
They exert : total force on the wire is :
(1)
(1) an attractive force on each other (1) iLB
(2)
(2) a repulsive on each other (2) iB/L
(3) no force on each other (3)

(3) iL/B
(4) a rotational torque on each other (4)(4) LB/i
19. A proton, a deutron and an a-particle accelerated 19.

24. A charge q coulomb moves - in a circle at n
through the same potential difference enter a revolutions per second and the radius of the circle
region of uniform magnetic field, moving at right r metre; then magnetic field at the centre of the
angles to B. What is the ratio of their K.E. : circle is :
(1) 2 : 1 : 1
(1) 2 : 1 : 1 2q 7 N
10
(2) 2 : 2 : 1 (2)(1)2 : nr
2:1 A m
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 : 1
2q N
(2)  107
(4) 1 : 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1r : 2 A m
20. An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into 20. 2nq N
the shape as shown below. It carries a current of I (3) I  10 7
ampere and the radius of the circular loop is R te r i A m R
metre. Then the magnetic induction at the centre

titu 2q N
of the circular part is :
Ins (4) r A  m
g ht 25. Current I flows through R
g ht
Li Li
R a long conducting wire
bent at right angles as shown in the figure. The
ew ew of
magnetic field at a point P on the right bisector
(1) zero (2) 
N (1) (2)
the angle XOY at a distance N
 r from O is :
 0 2l  0 2l  0 2l Y  0 2l
(3)    1 tesla (4)    1 tesla (3)    1 tesla (4)    1 tesla
2 R 2 R 2 R 2 R
P
I r
21. Lorentz force can be calculated by using the 21.
formula: 45o
    X
    (1) F  q(E  v  B)O I
(1) F  q(E  v  B)
   
    (2) F q(E
0l  v  B) 20l
(2) F  q(E  v  B) (1) (2)
     r    r
(3) F  q(E  v. B) (3) F  q(E  v. B)
      0l   0 2l
(4) F  q(E  B  v) (4)(3)F  q(E( B2 v)
1) (4)  ( 2  1)
4 r 4 r
22. The magnetic field at a point at a large distance x 22.
26. A current flows in a conductor from east to west.
on the axis of a current carrying circular coil of The direction of the magnetic field at a point above
small radius is proportional to (if x >> r ): the conductor is towards :
(1) x2
(1) x2 (1) East
2
(2) 1/x2 (2)(2)1/x
West
(3) x3 (3)(3)x3North
(4) 1/x3 (4)(4)1/x

South
3
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27. A copper wire of resistance 10  is in the form of 31. Two thin long parallel wires, separated by a
27.
a perfect circle. Two points A and B on it are distanceAd carry
B a 5V of 
current0.5 l amp in the same
connected to a battery of emf 5V and internal direction. They will:
resistance 0.5 . The two segments of the circle
have lengths in the ratio 2 : 3 . The net magnetic 2:3 0i2
(1) Attract each other with a force of per unit
induction at the centre of the circle is : 2d2
(1) 
length
(1) 
(2)
(2) zero  0i2
(2) Repel each other with a force of per unit
(3) 2  2d2
(3) 2 
length
(4) 0/4 (4) 0/4
 0i2
(3) Attract each other with a force of per unit
28. Two current loops (similar) are placed with their 28. x y 2 d
planes one along x-axis and the other along length
y-axis. Then, the ratio of resultant magnetic field
at a common centre to the individual magnetic  0i2
field is : (4) Repel each other with a force of per unit length
2 d
32. When a charged particle moving with velocity v is


subjected to a magnetic field of induction B , the
force on it is non-zero. This implies that :
 
(1) Angle between v and B is either zero or 180o
u te  
(1) 2 :1 it t (1)(2) Angle
2 : 1 between v and B is necessarily 90o
Ins(2)(3)1 Angle  
between v and B can have any value other
ht ht
: 2
(2) 1 : 2 o
g than 90
g
(3) 3 : 2 Li (3) 3 : 2   Li
(4) Angle between v and B can have any value other
ew than zero and 180 e wo
(4) 3 : 2 N (4) : 3 2 N
33. Two circular coils of radius R and 2R carry current
I and 2I respectively. If magnetic induction at their
29. A narrow electron beam passes undeviated 29.
centres are B1 and B2 then B1/ B2 is :
through an electric field of E = 3×104 volt/m and
4
an overlapping magnetic field of B = 2×10–3 T. If  3 110
E (1) :1 v /m 2×10 –3
(2) 1 T.
: .2
the electron motion, electric field and magnetic (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
field are mutually perpendicular, then the speed 34. A current I flowing through the loop as shown in
of the electron is : (1)the
60adjoining
m/s figure. The magnetic field at centre
(1) 60 m/s O is :
(2) 10.3×107 m/s
(2) 10.3×107 m/s
(3) 1.5×107 m/s
(3) 1.5×107 m/s
I
(4) 0.67×10–7 m/s (4) 0.67×10–7 m/s 2R
O
R
30. A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary 30.
electron. Then the electron :
(1) Moves in the direction of the field (1)
(2) Remains stationary (2)

70l 70l
(1)  (2) 
(3) Moves perpendicular to the direction of the field (3) 16R 16R
50l 50l
(4) Begins to spin (4)(3)  (4) 
16R 16R
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35. Two wires with currents 2 A and 1 A are enclosed 39. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d
35.
in a circular loop. Another wire with current 3 A is carry currents I1 and I2 in the same direction. They
  exert a force F on each other. Now
situated outside the loop as shown. The  B.d   the current in
one of them is increased to B.dtwo times and its
around the loop is :
direction is reversed. The distance is also increased
to 3d. The new value of force between them is:
2A 2A 1A 3A
1A 3A (1) –2F
(2) F/3
(3) –2F/3
(4) –F/3
40. An electron moving with a speed u along the
(1) 0 positive x-axis at y = 0 enters a region of uniform
(1) 0 
(2) 30 magnetic field B  B 0 k which exists tot he right of
(2) 30
y-axis. The electron exits from the region after
(3) 20 20 time with speed v at coordinate y, then:
(3)some
(4) zero (4)
SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. A charged particle enters a magnetic field at an 36. 45º
angle of 45º with the magnetic field. The path of
the particle will be:
u te
tit
(1)
(1) A straight line
s
n (2)(1) v > u , y < 0
(2) A circle I
t (3) (2) v = u , y > 0
(3) An ellipse g h (3) v > u, y > 0 (4) v = u , y < 0 g ht
(4) A helical
Li (4)
41. Two circular coils P and Q are made from similar
Li
e w w
wires but the radius of Q is twice that ofeP. What
37. N
A and B are two conductors carrying a current I in 37. A B I N
should be the value of potential difference across
the same direction. x and y are two electron beams x themyso that the magnetic induction at their centres
moving in the same direction as shown in the
figure, there will be: may be the same:
(1) VQ = 2VP
(2) VQ = 3VP
(3) VQ = 4VP
(1) Repulsion between A and B, attraction between A VQ B 1

(1)(4) x y
4VP
x and y (2) A B x y
(2) Attraction between A and B, repulsion between 42. A cirular current carrying coil has a radius R.The
x and y (3)distance
A B from the
x centre
y of the coil on the axis
(3) Repulsion between A and B and also x and y where the magnetic induction will be 1/8 the of its
(4) A B x y
(4) Attraction between A and B and also x and y value at the centre of the coil is :
38. An electron is moving in the north direction. It 38.
experiences a force in vertically upward direction. R
(1)
The magnetic field at the position of the electron 3
is in the direction of:
(1) East (1)(2) R 3
(2) West (2)(3) 2R 3
(3) North (3)

 2 
(4) South (4)(4)  R
 3
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43. Ionized hydrogen atoms and -particles with same 48. Cyclotron frequency does-
43. not depend upon:
momenta enters perpendicular to a constant B
magnetic field, B. The ratio of their radii of their (1) Radius
rH : r
paths rH : r will be :
(2) Velocity
(1) 1 : 4
(1) 1 : 4
(2)(3)2Both
: 1 (1) and (2)
(2) 2 : 1
(3)(4)1None
: 2 of these.
(3) 1 : 2
49. (4)Shown
4 : 1 in the figure is a conductor carrying a
(4) 4 : 1
current I. The magnetic field intensity at the point
44. A straight conductor carrying a direct current I 44. O (common centre of I the three arcs) is:
ampere is split into circular loop as shown. Then
the magnetic induction at the centre of the circular
loop of radius R metre is :
R R
(1) zero (2)  (1) (2) 
 0 l  0 l te l  0 l
(3)
2l R
gauss (4)
2l R
tesla u (3)
0
it 25l RIgauss (4)

2l R
tesla
t
s (1)
A particle of mass m and charge q moving with t45. In 24 r
0
ht
45. m q v
g
velocity v describes a circular path of radius r when h g
Li Li
r
subjected to a uniform transverse magnetic field  I 0
(2)
of induction B. The workdone by the field, ewwhen 24 r
ew
the particle completes one full circle is: N N
(1)(3) 11 0I
(1) Zero
24 r
(2) 2v2m (2) 2v2m
(4) Zero
(3) 2rvqB (3) 2rvqB
50. A long straight wire carrying a current of 30A is
(4) 2rqB (4) 2rqB
placed in an external uniform magnetic field of
46. A bar magnet is equivalent to a current carrying : 46. induction 4×10–4T. The magnetic field is acting
parallel to the direction of current. The magnitude
(1) Toroid (1)of the resultant magnetic induction in tesla at a
point 2.0 cm away from the wire is
(2) Solenoid (2)(0 =4×10–7 H/m):
–4
(3) Circular coil (3)(1) 10 T
–4
(4) A straight wire (4)(2) 3×10 T
(3) 5×10–4 T
47. When a charged particle moves perpendicular to 47.
a magnetic field, then: (4) 6×10–4 T
(1)
(1) Speed of the particle is changed
(2)
(2) Speed of the particle remains unchanged
(3)
(3) Direction of the particle remains unchanged
(4) Acceleration of the particle remains unchanged (4)
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56. Which of the following catalysts is not correctly
TOPIC : Surface chemistry, Isolation of elements matched with the reaction :
(1) Haber's
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, process : Finely
P=31, S=32, divided Fe + Mo as
Cl=35.5,
promoter
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
(2) Contact process : V2O5
SECTION-A SECTION-A
(3) Ostwald's process : Fe2O3
51. Which of the following is not correctly matched : 51.
(4) None of these
(1) Gelatin – Lyophilic colloid (1)
(2) Gold sol - Lyophilic colloid 57. Bredig's method cannot be used to prepare
(2)colloidal solution of :
(3) Arsenious sulphide - Lyophobic colloid (3)
(1) Pt
(4) Ferric hydroxide - Lyophoibic colloid
(4)
52. Gold numbers of starch, gelatin and albumin are (2) Fe
respectively 25, 0.01 and 0.15. Which of the 52. 25, 0.01
(3)
0.15Ag
following is the correct decreasing order of
protective power :
(1)(4) Au > >
(1) Starch > gelatin > albumin
58. (2)Which of
> the following
> catalysis is an example of
(2) Starch > albumin > gelatin negative catalysis :
(3) > >
(3) Gelatin > albumin > starch
(4)(1) 2SO2  2SO3
V2 O5
(4) Data is insufficient to decide

53. If KI is added to excess of AgNO 3 to prepare
53.
u te
KI AgNO
(2) CHCl3 + O2  
alcohol3
 2COCl2 + 2HCl
tit
colloidal solution of AgI, the colloidal particles will AgI
have : s
t In (1)(3) 2KClO  2KCl + 3OMnO2
ht
3  2
gh (2)(4) CO + 3H  CH + H O
(1) no charge
i g
(2) positive charge L 2
Ni
4 2 Li
(3) negative charge ew 59. (3)In Bredig's arc method an electric arc is struck ew
(4) may be positive or negative charge
N (4)between the metal electrodes under the surface
N
of water containing some stabilizing agent. The
54. Mixing of positively charged colloidal solution with 54. process involves:
negatively charged colloidal soloution brings
______. The decreasing order of coagulating ______. Na+,
(1) mechanical dispersion
power of Na+, Ba2+ and Al3+ for negatively charged Ba2+ Al3+
colloidal solution is _____: (2) condensation
(1) mutual coagulation, Na+ > Ba2+ > Al3+ (1)(3) both dispersion +
, Naand Ba2+ > Al3+
> condensation
(2) mutual coagulation, Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+ , Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
(2)(4) ultrasonic dispersion
(3) coagulation, Na+ > Ba2+ > Al3+ +
> Ba2+ > Alisotherm
3+
, Naadsorption
60. (3)Freundlich equation is :
(4) peptization, Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
(4) , Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
55. Colloidal solutions of metals like gold can be m 1
55. (1) log  log k  log P
prepared when their salt solutions react with x n
certain substances like SnCl2 formaldehyde, SnCl2
phenyl hydrazine, etc. x + 3SnCl  3SnCl + 2Au
2AuCl
(2) log 3 log k  n 2log P 4 Sol
2AuCl3 + 3SnCl2  3SnCl4 + 2Au
Sol
m
The above method is an example of :
(1) m
(1) reduction method (3) log  log k  n log P
x
(2)
(2) oxidation method
(3) x 1
(3) hydrolysis method (4) log  log k  log P
(4) m n
(4) double decomposition method
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61. In the adsorption of a gas on solid, Freundlich 67. Chemisorption is :
61.
isothermis obeyed. The slope of the plot is zero,
then the extent of adsorption is : (1) Multimolecular in nature
(1) directly proportional to the pressure of the gas
(1)(2) Reversible
(2) inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas
(2)(3) Often highly specific and directional
(3) independent of the pressure of the gas
(3)(4) Not very specific
(4) directly proportional to the square root of the
pressure of the gas 68. (4)The stability of lyophilc colloid is due to :
62. In an adsorption experiment, a graph between log 62. log (x/m) log P
(x/m) versus log P was found to be linear with a (1) Charge on their particles
0
45 log (x/m)
slope of 450. The intercept on the log (x/m) axis
was found to be 0.3010. Calculate the amount of (2) A layer of0.3010
dispersion0.5
medium on their particles
the gas adsorbed per gram of charcoal under a
(3) The smaller size of their particles
pressure of 0.5 atmosphere :
(1) 2.0
(1) 2.0 (4) The large size of their particles
(2) 0.1
(2) 0.1 69. Peptization is a process of :
(3) 1.0 (3) 1.0
(1) Precipitating colloidal particles
(4) 0.01 (4) 0.01
(2) Purifying colloidal particles
63. Which one of the following is wrong about physical 63.
adsorption :
te
(3) Dispersing the precipitate into colloidal state
u
tit
(1)
(1) It involves only vander Waals forces of attraction
s (4) None of the above
(2) It is low heat of adsorption
t In (2)
(3) It is reversible in nature gh

70. The average molecular weight of colloidal
g ht
i (3)particles is determined by :
Li
(4) It forms a unimolecular layer on the surface ofL the
adsorbent. e w (4)(1) Tyndall effect
ew
64. Which of the following is true in respect of
N 64.
N
(2) Osmotic pressure measurement
adsorption :
(1) DG < 0, DS > 0, DH < 0
(1) DG < 0, DS > 0, DH < 0 (3) Victor Meyer’s method
(2) DG < 0, DS < 0, DH < 0
(2) DG < 0, DS < 0, DH < 0 (4) None of the above
(3) DG > 0, DS > 0, DH < 0 (3) DG > 0, DS > 0, DH < 0
71. Soap removes grease by :
(4) DG < 0, DS < 0, DH > 0 (4) DG < 0, DS < 0, DH > 0
(1) Adsorption
65. Which one of the following method is commonly 65.
used method for destruction of colloid : (2) Emulsification
(1) Dialysis (1)(3) Coagulation
(2) Condensation (2)
(4) None of these
(3) filteration by animal membrane (3)
(4) By adding electrolyte 72. (4)Which forms micelles in aqueous solution above
certain concentration :
66. Adsorption is accompanied by : 66.
(1) Decrease in entropy of the system (1) Glucose
(1)
(2) Decrease in enthalpy of the system (2) Dodecyl trimethyl ammonium chloride
(2)
(3) TS for the process is negative (3) Urea
(3) TS
(4) All of the above (4) Pyridinium chloride
(4)
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73. In physical adsorption, the gas molecules are held 73.
79. Which one of the following reactions is an
on solid surface by : example for calcination process :
(1) Chemical forces (1)(1) 2Zn + O  2ZnO
2
(2) Electrostatic forces (2)(2) 2ZnS + 3O  2ZnO + 2SO

2 2
(3) Gravitational forces (3)(3) MgCO  MgO + CO
3 2
(4) Vander Wall’s forces (4)
(4) None of these
74. Which one is used for curing "Kalaazar' : 74.
80. Which of the following is used in thermite welding:
(1) Silver sol (1)
(1) TiO2 + 4Na
(2) Colloidal antimony (2)
(2) 2Al + Fe2O3
(3) Colloidal gold (3)
(3) SnO2 + 2C
(4) Milk of magnesia (4)
(4) Cr2O3 + 2Al
75. Which of the following is a macromolecular 75.
colloid : 81. Which of the follwoing statement is/are correct :
(1) Enzyme (1)
A. Generally reactions occuring during calcina-
(2) Gold sol (2) tion are example of non redox.
(3)B. Depressants and activator are used to sepa-

(3) Sulphur sol
u te rate two or more sulphide ores.
(4) All of these
s tit (4)
C. Fe is the fourth most abundant element in the
76. During the calcination of dolomite, metal oxides
t In 76. earth crust.
obtained will be :
g h (1)D.MgO g ht
Li Li
During roasting oxidation occurs.
(1) MgO
(2) CaO e w (2)(1)CaO
A, B, C and D
ew
N (3)(2)ZnO
B, C and D
N
(3) ZnO
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4)(3) B and
1 D2
77. Which method of purification is represented by 77. (4) A, B and D

the following equation :
82. In chromite ore, the oxidation number of iron is :
[Impure  Ti]  2I2 (s) 
523 K
 TiI4 (g) 
1700 K
 Ti(s)  2I2 (g) [Impure  Ti]  2I2 (s) 
523 K
 TiI4 (g) 
1700 K
 Ti(s)  2I2 (g)
Sample
(1)Sample
+3
(1) Cupellation (1)(2) +2

(3) +8/3
(2) Poling (2)
(4) 0
(3) Zone refining (3)
83. During froth floatation process, the role of collec-
(4) None of these (4)tor is:
78. Sulphide ores are common for the metals : (1) It enhance the wettability of ore particle towards
78. water
(1) Ag (1)(2)Ag
It decreases the wettability of ore particle towards
oil
(2) Hg (2) Hg
(3) It enhance the non-wettability of ore particle towards
water
(3) Pb (3) Pb
(4) It enhance the non-wettability of ore particle towards
(4) All of these (4) oil
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84. NaCN is sometimes added in the froth floatation 84. Which PbS
89. ZnS of the following statement is correct
process as a depressant when ZnS and PbS min- regarding calcinations : NaCN
erals are extracted because
(1) Impurities are removed in the from of elemental
(1) ZnS form soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] while PbS (1) ZnS
vapours. Na2[Zn(CN)4]
forms froth. PbS
(2) Carbonate ores convert into their oxides
(2) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS. (2) Pb(CN)2 ZnS
(3) Temperature of the process is maintained below
(3) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4] while ZnS the melting point of the mixture.
(3) PbS Na2[Pb(CN)4]
forms froth.
ZnS
(4) All of these
(4) NaCN is never added in froth floatation process.
90. (4)Select
NaCNincorrect statement :
85. In which of the following mineral aluminium is 85. (1) Silica present in haemetite is removed by the
present: addition of CaCO3 during smelting.
(1)
(1) Cryolite (2) Fe2O3 present in bauxite is removed by Bayer’s
(2) Mica (2) process.
(3) Feldspar (3)(3) Magnetic separation is used for cassitarite.

(4) None of these
(4) All of these (4)
91. Which of the following process can be used in the
SECTION-B SECTION-B
extraction of lead from galena :
86. Find out similarity between those elements which 86.
u te
tit
are maximum in earth crust. atmosphere and (1) Self reduction
universe : s
t In A.(2) Froth floatation process
A. Their atomicity
gh B.(3) Carbon reduction g ht
B. Their physical state Li Li
ew (4) All of these
ew
C.
C. They all are non metal N N
92. The ore having two different metals is :
(1) A & B (1) A & B
(1) haematite
(2) A & C (2) A & C
(2) galena
(3) B & C (3) B & C
(3) magnetite
(4) All A, B & C (4) A, B & C
(4) copper pyrites
87. Composition of carnallite mineral : 87.
93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(1) K2O.Al2O3.6SiO2 (1)answer
K2O.Alusing the codes given below :
O .6SiO
2 3 2
List-I
(2) KNO List-II
(2) KNO3 3
a. Moond’s process i. Purification of silver

(3) K2SO4.MgSO4.MgCl2.CH2O (3) K2SO4.MgSO4.MgCl2.CH2O
b. Van Arkel process ii. Purification of Zinc.
(4) KCl. MgCl2.6H2O (4) KCl. MgCl2.6H2O
c. Cupellation iii. Purification of nickel
88. The metal which cannot be obtained by 88.
d. Distillation iv. Purification of
electrolysis of aqueous solution of its salts is : titanium
(1) Ag (1)(1)Aga-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) Zn (2)(2)Zna-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) Cu (3)(3)Cua-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) Al (4)(4)Ala-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

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94. The metal in which its property of formation of a 99. Match item of Column I with the item in Column II
94. and assign the correct code :
volatile compound is taken into account for its
extraction is : Column I Column II
(1)p. Cyanide process i. Ultrapure Ge
(1) cobalt
q. Froth floatation ii. Dressing of ZnS
(2)
(2) titanium
process
(3) vanadium (3)
r. Electrolytic recution iii. Extraction of Al
(4) iron (4)s. Zone refining iv. Extraction of Au

(1)O p-iv, Cu
95. Cu q-ii,Sr-iii, s-i
95. Heating mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S will give : 2 2
(2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i, s-v

(1) Cu + SO2 (1) Cu + SO2
(3) p-i, q-ii, r-iii, s-iv
(2) Cu + SO3 (2) Cu + SO3
(4) p-iii, q-iv, r-v, s-i
(3) CuO + CuS 100.(3)Which
CuO +ofCuS
the following is not an ore of iron :
(4) Cu2SO3 (4)(1)CuMagnetite

2
SO3
(2) Limonite
96. Which of the following has lowest percentage of 96.
carbon : (3) Azurite
te
(1)(4) Haematite
u
(1) Cast iron
st(2)it
t In
ht
(2) Wrought iron
igh (3) g
(3) Steel L Li
(4) All have same percentage ew (4)
ew
N N
97.
97. In Hall’s process, the ore is mixed with :
(1) coke (1)
(2) calcium carbonate (2)
(3) sodium hydroxide (3)
(4) sodium carbonate (4)
98. Which of the following examples is not correctly 98.

matched :
(1)
(1) Two metals which are extracted by auto-reduction
Cu, Pb
process - Cu, Pb
(2) Two metals which are extracted by leaching method (2) – Al, Ag
- Al, Ag
(3)
(3) Two metals which are extracted by electrolysis of - Na, Al
their fused salts - Na, Al
(4) - Sn,
(4) Two metals which are extracted from their oxide
Pb
ores - Sn, Pb
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106. Since there are three different alleles, there are
TOPIC : Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis
six of Inheritance,
different Evolution of
combinations + Previous Topics
these three alleles
BOTANY that are possibleBOTANY
a total of six different genotypes
of the human ABO blood types. If ‘n’ represents
SECTION–A the number ofSECTION–A
alleles then which one of the
101. During experiment upon drosophila morgan saw 101. following relation is correct for number of possible
genotype :
quickly that when the two genes in a dihybrid
cross were situated on the same chromosomes, n
the proportion of parental gene combinations were (1)  n  1
2
much higher than the non parental type. What is
the behaviour of genes behind this phenomena: n
(2)  n  1 
(1) Recombination (1) 2
(2) Linkage (2) n

(3)  2  n
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2 2
(4) Linkage and crossing over (4) n

(4)  n  2 
102. In a cross between a white eyed female fruit fly 102. 2
and red eyed male, given white eyes are X-linked 107. In human skin colour which are polygenic
recessive, what percentage of the female offspring inheritance. The lightest skin colour person have
X-
will have white eyes genotype :
(1) 100%
(1) 100% (1) AABBCC
(2) 0%
u te (2) 0%
(2) AaBbCc
(3) 75% s tit (3)(3)75%
aabbcc
t In (4)(4)50%
ht
(4) 50% AaBbcc
g h g
Li Li
103. Phenylketonuria disease is the example of : 103.
108. The -thalassemia controling genes are present
(1) sex linked recessive disease
e w (1)on which chromosome :
e w
(2) sex linked dominant disease N (2) N
(1) 10
(3) autosomal dominant disease (3)
(4) Pleiotropy (2) 11
(4)
104. If distance between two gene are high and gene (3) 16
104.
are loosely linked then which of the following state-
ment are not correct : (4) 12
(1) Linkage between these gene are low (1)
109. The myotonic dystrophy is :
(2) Recombination between these gene are high (2)
(1) Autosomal recessive trait
(3) Percentage of crossing over and map unit are high (3)
(2) Autosomal dominant trait
(4) None of these (4)
(3) Sex-linked recessive trait
105. Special characteristic features in which the males 105.
(4) Sex-linked dominant trait
do not have father and thus can not have sons but
110. Which of the following aneuploidy can not
have a grand father and can have grand sons
possible:
(1) Haploid - haploid sex - determination system (1) - -
(1) 2n + 1
(2) Haploid - diploid sex - determination system (2) - -
(2) 2n – 1
(3) Diploid . diploid sex - determination system (3) . -
(3) 2n + 2
(4) None of these (4)
(4) 2n – 3
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111. Which scientist used first time statistical analysis 116. In a cross between a heterozygous tall pea plant
111.
and mathematic logic in biology : and a homozygous dwarf pea plant, the F1 progeny
will be:
(1) Gregor Mendel (1)
(a) 50% of the progeny will be tall
(2) T.H. Morgan (2)
(b) 25% of the progeny will be dwarf
(3)
(3) Sturtevant
(c) 50% of the progeny will be dwarf
(4)
(4) Hugo de Vries
(d) 75% of the progeny will be tall
112.
112. A gene is said to be dominant if :
Choose the correct option :
(1)
(1) It expresses it's effect only in homozygous state (1) a & b
(2) It expresses it's effect only in heterozyguos (2)(2) a & c

condition (3) a,d, c
(3)(4) Only d
(3) It expresses it's effect both in homozygous and
117. Three children in a family have blood types O, AB
heterozygous condition and B respectively. What are the possible
(4)
genotypes of their parents:
(4) It never expresses it's effect in any condition
(1) IAi and IBi
113. The chromosomal disorder that is example of 113.
(2) IAIB and ii
trisomy :
u te
t(b)i(4)t I I and I i
(a)(3) IBIB and IAIA
(a) Turner's syndrome
s A A B
(b) Klinefelters syndrome In

g h 118.(c)Out of a population of 800 individuals in Fght
t 2
Li i
(c) Downs syndrome
generation of a cross between yellow round and
(d) Edward syndrome (d) L
ew w
green wrinkled pea plants, what would be number
e
(1) a, b, c, d N (1)of green
a, b, c, wrinkled
d seeds: N
(2) b, c, d (2)(1)b,100
c, d
(3) Only b, c (3)(2) 200b, c
(4) Only c, d (4)(3) 50 c, d
114. In dihybrid experiment on garden peas worked (4) 150
114. RrYy
by mendel, what is the % of seed with RrYy 119. The given figure of individual is represents which
genotype : %
syndrome :
(1) 12.5% (1) 12.5%
(2) 25% (2) 25%

(3) 6.25% (3) 6.25%
(4) 37.5% (4) 37.5%
115. The dominant flower colour studied by Mendel in 115.
pea plant is:
(1) Yellow (1)

(1) Klinefelter’s Syndrome with 47 chromosome
(2) Green (2)(2) Down’s Syndrome with 45 chromosome
(3) White (3)(3) Down’s Syndrome with 47 chromosome
(4) Violet (4)(4) Edward’s Syndrome with 47 chromosome
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120. Which of the following statements are correct 124. Which one of the following is correct statement
120.
according to given diagram : with reference to RNA :
a. More reactive than DNA
b. Less stable than DNA
c. Mutate at a faster rate than DNA
(i) d. Mutate at a slower rate than DNA

(ii) (i) (ii)
(1) a, d
a. XO type of sex determination occur (2) a, b, c
a. XO
b. XY type of sex determination occur
(3) Only a, c
c. (i) have a pair of XX while (ii) have XY b. XY
chromosomes (4) b, d
125.c.Which
(i) one of the
XX following
(ii) XY
scientist is not involved
d. (i) and (ii) do not have same number of
in biochemical characterisation of transforming
chromosomes d. (i) (ii)
principle :
e. It is used in experimental genetics e.
(1) Oswald Avery
(1) a, d (1)(2)a,Colin
d macleod
(2) b, e (2)(3)b,Maclyn
e Mccarty
u te (4) Jacob monod

tit
(3) b, d, e (3) b, d, e
s 126. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
(4) Only b
t In (4)materialb came from the experiments of :
gh 121. (1) Alfred Hershey and martha chase

121. Which one of the following is the genetic material: g ht
L i Li
(1) RNA
ew (1)(2)RNA
Oswald avery
ew
(2) DNA
N (3) Griffith N
(2) DNA
(4) Matthew meselson
(3) Protein (3)
127. In Bacteria how many types of DNA-dependent
(4) Both 1 and 2
(4)RNA1 polymerase
2 that catalyses transcription of all
type of RNA in bacteria :
122. Haploid content of human DNA is : 122. DNA
(1) Single
(1) 3.3 × 106 (1)(2)3.3 × 106
Two
(2) 4.6 × 106 (2)(3)4.6 × 106
Three
(3) 3.3 × 109 (3)(4)3.3

Four
× 109
128. Which one11of the following is not a important goal
(4) 3.3 × 1011 (4) 3.3 × 10
of HGP :
123. Histones are rich with amino acids : 123.
(1) Identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes
(1) in human DNA
(1) Lysine and arginine
(2) Determine the sequences of the 5 billion chemical
(2) Lysine and aspartic acid (2)
base pairs that make up human DNA
(3) Arginine and aspartic acid (3)
(3) Store this information in databases
(4) Arginine and glycine (4)(4) Improve tools for data analysis
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129. Which of the following correct ascending order of 133. There are many non human model organisms
129.
the number of the hydrogen bond in different DNA which genome have also been sequenced
DNA :
which are given below:
(a)a. 5'-AATAAAGC-3'
Drosophila (b) 5'-AATGCTGC-3'
(a) 5'-AATAAAGC-3' (b) 5'-AATGCTGC-3'
3'-TTATTTCG-5' 3'-TTACGACG-5' b. 3'-TTATTTCG-5'
Yeast 3'-TTACGACG-5'
(c) 5'-ATGCTGAT-3' (d) 5'-GCATAGCC-3'
(c) 5'-ATGCTGAT-3' (d) 5'-GCATAGCC-3' c. Caenorhabditis elegans
3'-TACGACTA-5' 3'-CGTATCGG-5' 3'-TACGACTA-5' 3'-CGTATCGG-5'
d. Arabidopsis
(1) a < c < b < d (1) a < c < b < d
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a < c < d < b (2) a < c < d < b
(2) Only c, d
(c) c < a < d < b (c) c < a < d < b
(d) c < a < b < d (d)(3)c Only
< a < b,
b< c, dd
130. In a mRNA strand UTR contains total 600 130. (4)mRNA

Only a, c, d UTR 600
nitrogenous bases, after translation process 300 134. The total number of300nucleosome are formed in
amino acids containing proteins are formed. Then human cell : mRNA
how many total number of bases is present in
mRNA strand : (1) 6.6×107
(1)(2)2103
3.3×109
(1) 2103
(2) 1500 (2)(3)1500
6.6×106
(3) 1803 (3)(4)1803
3.3×107
(4) 1503 135.(4)In 1503
the given figure identify A and B and also iden-
131. In a person DNA from which tissue show same 131.
u te
tify the process : DNA
tit
degree of polymorphism :
a. Skin sa.
t In b.
ht
b. Bone A
igh c. g
c. Sperm
L B Li
d. Blood
ew d.
(1) A-RNA polymerase, B-Rho factor & process is ew
(1) Only c, d N (1) Initiation
c, d N
(2) Only a, b, c (2)(2) A-RNA
a, b,polymerase,
c B-Rho factor & process is
(3) a, b, c, d (3) a,Termination
b, c, d
(4) Only b, c, d (4)(3) A-RNA b, c,polymerase,
d B-Sigma factor & process is
132. With reference to the given below diagram below Initiation
132.
depicting a process taking place in a bacteria, the (4) A-RNA polymerase, B-Sigma factor & process is
enzyme that would catalyze a peptide bond Ala Val
Termination
between Ala and Val is
SECTION–B
136. Read the following statements about asexual
reproduction and select the correct one:
(i) It involves a single parent
(ii) It is slower than sexual reproduction
(iii) It produces progeny that are genetically
identical with the parent but not with one
another
(iv) The progeny of asexual reproduction can be
(1) 23S rRNA – Ribozyme (1) 23Stermed
rRNA –as clones.
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) 28S rRNA – Ribozyme (2) 28S rRNA –
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) 32S rRNA – Ribozyme (3)(3)32S
(i)rRNA –
and (iv)
(4) Nucleases (4)(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
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137. No. of vegetative propagules from below 141. How many kinds of genotypes will be produced
137.
mentioned examples
by a plant having the genotype AABbcc :
Rhizome, offset, tuber, bulbil, leaf buds, bulb, , , , , , ,
antherozoid, ovum, sperm (1) Four , ,
(1) 6 (1)(2)6 Nine
(2) 5 (2) 5
(3) Two
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 3 (4) Three
(4) 3
138. Which is the correct for given diagram : 142. Which of the following is correct for linkage
138.
(I) The tendency of genes inherited together is
known as linkage
(II) Linkage help to hold the parental character

together
(III) Linkage is inversely proportional to crossing

over
(IV) Linkage is broken down due to phenomena

(1)
of crossing over occuring during meiosis
(1) Asexual reproductive structure in sponge (2)
(1) I and II only
(2) Asexual reproductive structure in fungi
u te(3)
(2) I, II and III only
tit
(3) Vegetative propagules
(4)
(4) Asexual reproductive structure in bacteria s
In
(3) I, II, III and IV only
139.
139. Which one of the following are correct match t
h a.(4) I and IV only ht
g g
Li Li
a. pistillate flower I. Unisexual I.
143. Select the correct option with respect to dihybrid
b. Antherozoid II. Type of gamete
e w b.
cross
II.
e w
c. Homothallic N
III. Bisexual c. III. N
(1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome
d. Meiocytes IV. Gamete mother cell d. IV.
show very few recombinations
(1) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II (1)(2)a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-IIgenes on the same chromosome
Tightly linked
(2) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III (2) a-II,
showb-I,higher
c-IV, d-III
recombinations
(3) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV (3)(3)a-I, b-II, c-III,
Genes d-IV on the same chromosome show
far apart
(4) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II (4) a-IV,
veryb-I,
few c-III, d-II
recombinations
140. The given diagram is 140. (4) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome
show similar recombinations as the tightly linked
ones
144. In Mendel's experiment the study of inheritance

of one gene (cross between tall and dwarf plant)
in F2 generation showed :
(1) All plants are tall in F2 progeny

(1)
(2) 75% tall and 25% dwarf plants in F2 progeny
(1) Asexual reproductive structure in Yeast (2)
(2) Asexual reproductive structure in Penicillium
(3)(3) All dwarf plants
(3) Asexual reproductive structure in Sponge
(4)(4) 50% tall and 50% dwarf plants in F1 progeny
(4) Asexual reproductive structure in Chlamydomonas
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145. Which of the following statement is true for 150.XXY
145. DNA replicates semiconservatively for this
Klinefelter's syndrome with XXY karyotype : experimental proof which of the following scientist
i. One extra Y chromosome in females 23 pair performed the experiment :
i. Y
sex chromosome a. Matthew Meselson
ii. One extra Y chromosome in 21 pair of auto- b. Griffith
some in male ii. Y
c. Colin Macleod
iii. Development of breast (Gynaecomastia) iii.
d. Martha Chase
iv. One extra X chromosome in males 23rd pair of iv. X
sex chromosome e. Taylor
(1) i and ii (1) a, c, d, e

(1) i ii
(2) ii and iii (2) a, e
(2) ii iii
(3) i and iv (3) Only a
(3) i iv
(4) iii and iv (4) a, c, e
(4) iii iv
146. If a DNA sample containes 2000 nucleosomes then ZOOLOGY
146. 2000
what is the number of H 2 A, H 3 , H 4 Histones
H2A, H3, H4 SECTION–A
respectively :
151.(1)Which
2000,of3000,
the following
4000 event is not associated with
(1) 2000, 3000, 4000
ovulation in human female
(2) 2000, 4000, 4000 (2) 2000, 4000, 4000
(1) Release of secondary oocyte
(3) 4000, 4000, 4000
u te (3) 4000, 4000, 4000
(4) 2000, 4000, 6000
s tit (2) LH surge
(4) 2000, 4000, 6000
147. If a sample of B-DNA which length are 8.5 metre In (3) Full development of graffian follicle
then number of base pairs present in this sample: ht ht
147. B-DNA 8.5
g (4) None of these
g
(1) 6.6×10 10
Li 152.(1)Why
6.6×10 10 Li
a woman cannot get pregnant again during
(2) 2.5×10 10
e w (2)pregnancy:
2.5×10 10 e w
(3) 2×10 9
N 9
N
(3)(1)2×10
A woman ovulates during pregnancy , but the
(4) 2.5×109 (4) 2.5×10 9
oviducts are plugged with protective mucus to
148. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of : 148. prevent sperm from entering
(1) Alternaria (1)(2) High levels of hCG in women's bodies kill sperm
(2) Crocodile (2)(3) A woman cannot have intercourse during pregnancy
(3) Streptococcus (3) due to the presence of a protective mucus plug
(4) Mustard that develops in the cervix
(4)
149. RNA is the genetic material in which virus (4) High levels of estrogen and progesterone, secreted
149. RNA
by the corpus luteum or placenta during pregnancy
a. TMV
a. TMVinhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and prevent
b. QB bacteriophage ovulation
b. QB
c. HIV 153.c.Seminiferous
HIV tubules is lined inside by how many
d. Polio virus types of cells:
d.
(1) a, b, c, d (1) Two
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only a, b (2) One
(2) a, b
(3) Only a, b, c (3) Four
(3) a, b, c
(4) Only a, c (4) Three
(4) a, c
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154. The function of secretion of prostate gland is to : 154.
160. Which one of the following is incorrect match :
(1) Inhibit sperm activity (1)(1) Condoms – Barriers
(2) Attract sperms (2)(2) Cervical caps – Implants
(3) Stimulate sperm activity (3)
(3) Lippes loop – IUDs
(4) Phagocytosis of sperms (4)
(4) Coitus interruptus – Contraceptive method
155. Placenta acts as an : 155.
161. Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract is
(1) Endocrine tissue (1)
called
(2) Exocrine tissue (2)
(1) emasculation
(3) Inner cell mass (3)
(2) insemination
(4) Corpus luteum (4)
(3) fertilisation
156. Which one of the following is incorrect match 156.
(4) gametogenesis
(1) Graffian follicle - corpus luteum (1)
162. Total how many male reprodutive accessory
(2) Menarche - menstrual cycle start (2)
glands are present in human
(3) Menopause - Menstrual cycle stop (3)
(1) two
(4) interstitial cells - Sertoli cells (4)
157. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 157. u te
(2) three
(1) Testicular lobules – 250 stit(3) four
t In (1) – 250
ht
(4) five
(2) Spermatogonia – 46 chromosomes
igh (2) – 46
g
(3) Menstrual flow – 3 – 13 day L 163. Labia minora is a part of
(3) – 3 – 13 Li
(4) Ovulation – 14th day ew (1) female accessory duct ew
N (4) – 14 N
158. How many matching are correct match : (2) female external genitalia
158.
a. Heart formation – One month (3) male accessory duct
a. –
b. Innercell mass – Stem cells (4) male external genitalia
b. –
c. Parturition – Neuroendocrine 164. Antrum is
mechanism c. –
(1) inner layer of tertiary follicle
d. –
d. Colostrum – Antibodies
(2) outer layer of tertiary follicle
(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 4 (2)(3)4 fluid filled cavity in tertiary follicle
(3) 2 (3)(4)2 fluid filled cavity in secondary follicle
(4) 1 165.(4)Changes
1 in ovary and uterus during menstrual
cycle takes place due to changes in level of
159. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 159.
(1) Foetal - ejection reflex – Parturition (1)(1) pituitary and thyroid hormone
–
(2) First polar body – Oogenesis (2)(2) pituitary and androgen

– hormones
(3) Second polar body – Spermatogenesis (3)(3) thyroid and ovarian hormones
–
(4) Implantation – Blastocyst (4)(4) pituitary and ovarian–hormones
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166. Second meiotic division of secondary oocyte 172. The first movement of foetus and hairs on the head
166.
results in appears after
(1) two equal size ovum (1)(1) one month
(2) two secondary polar bodies (2)(2) two month
(3) one ovum and one secondary polar body (3)(3) three month
(4)(4) five month
(4) one ovum and one primary polar body
173. Resistance
167. Y is developed in new born baby is
167. When sperm carrying Y chromosome fuses with
provided by
ovum the child will be
(1)(1) antibodies are present in mother's milk of first few
(1) female
(2)days after child birth
(2) male
(3)(2) keeping new born in sterile place
(3) can't determine
(4)(3) giving oxytocin hormone injections soon after birth
(4) none of these
168. (4) none of these
168. 8-16 cell stage of embryo is called
174.(1)Contraceptive methods are grouped in which of
(1) blastocyst
the following categories
(2)
(2) morula
(3)
u te
(a) Natural/traditional (b) Barrier
ti(c)t IUDs
(3) trophoblast
(d) MTPs
s(4)
(4) none of these
t In (e) oral contraceptives
169. Umbilical cord joins
gh
169. (f) IVF
g ht
Li Li
(1) embryo to cervix (1)(g) injectables (h) implants
ew ew
(2) embryo to uterus N (2)(1) all of these N
(3) placenta to uterus (3)(2) a, b, c, d, e, g, h
(4) embryo to placenta (4)(3) a, d, e, f, g, h
170. After implantation the inner cell mass differentiates 170. (4) a, b, c, e, g, h
into how many layers
175. Lactational amenorrhea means
(1) two (1)(1) lack of milk in mother after child birth
(2) one
(2)(2) milk over production in lactating mother
(3) three
(3)(3) high menstruation in lactating mother
(4) four
(4)(4) absence of menstruation in lactating mother
171. Increased levels of several hormones in maternal
171.
176. Hepatitis B and AIDS is spread through
blood are necessary
(1) sharing of injection needles and surgical
(1) supporting fetal growth
(1)instruments with infected person
(2) maintainence of pregnancy
(2)(2) infected mother to foetus
(3) supporting metabolic changes in mother
(3)(3) transfusion of blood
(4) All of these (4)(4) all of these
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183.STIs
177. In humans being fertilisation takes place at
177. To remain protected from STIs
(1)(1) ampullary region
(1) Avoid sex with unkown partners/multiple partners
(2) isthmic region
(2) Always use condoms during coitus (2)(3) vagina
(4) cervix
(3) Get medical help as soon the person gets doubt of
184.(3)Which one of the following events are related with
having STIs human female
a. menarche
(4) All of these
(4)
b. menopause
178. At the time of ovulation which hormone is at the 178. c. menstruation
peak level :
(1)d. LH
gestation
(1) LH
(2) Estrogen (2)(1) only a, b, c
(3) FSH (3)(2)FSH

only a, c, d
(4) All of these (4)(3) a, b, c, d
179. Presence of which structure in human female is 179. (4) only b, c, d

not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual 185. How many are correct matching according to
experience
u te
hormone and their target cells or organ:
(1) Hymen
s tia.t Oxytocin
(1) - Myometrium
t In (2)b. FSH - Sertoli cells

ht
(2) Clitoris
(3) Mons pubis igh (3)c. GnRh - Anterrior pituitary

ig
L L
(4) Ampulla ew d. LH
(4)
-
w
Mature graffian follicle
e
N 180.
e. LH - Sertoli cells N
180. Relaxin hormone in human female secreted from
(1) 2
(1) ovary (1)
(2) 3
(2) placenta (2)
(3) 4
(3) pituitary (3)
(4) 1
(4) both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
SECTION–B
181. Which one of the following is NOT extra embryonic 181.
186. Embryological support for evolution was proposed
membrane
(1)by :
(1) chorion (1) Karl Ernst Von Baer
(2)
(2) allantois (2) Ernst Heckel
(3)
(3) Amnion (3) Lamarck
(4)
(4) None of these (4) Hugo de vries
182.
187. Which two animal are show convergent evolution:
182. Parturition is induced by
(1) a simple neuroendocrine mechanism (1)(1) Lemur and spotted cuscus
(2) a complex neuroendocrine mechanism (2)(2) Lemur and Bobcat
(3) a complex muscular mechanism (3)(3) Koala and wombat
(4) a simple hormonal mechanism (4)(4) Sugar glider and koala
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188. What is the meaning of saltation : 193. Which one of the following is the incorrect match:
188.
(1) Small step large mutation (1)(1) High level of cortisol – Support pregnancy
(2) Large step large mutaion (2)(2) Cortisol – Placenta
(3) Single step large mutation (3)(3) Relaxin – Placenta
(4) Single step small mutation (4)
(4) Stem cells – Totipotency
189. In human body many hormones interact with 189.
intracellular receptors mostly gene expressions 194. What is Blastomeres
or chromosome function by the interaction of
hormone receptor complex with the genome. In (1) Newly formed Daughter cells
the given below example how many hormones
are such type : (2) Newly formed flower
Progesterone, Estrogen, Thyroxine, Insulin, (3) A type of bacterial cell

Glucagon, Androgen, Cortisol, Aldosterone, GIP,
ANF, CCK (4) A type of proteins
GIP, ANF, CCK
(1) 7 195.(1)Which
7 one of the following is not the periods of
(2) 6 (2)mesozoic
6 era :
(3) 8 (3)(1)8 Cretaceous
(4) 5 (4) 5
(2) Triassic
190. What is the correct sequence of organisation of 190.
skeletal muscles : (3) Jurassic
(1)    
(1) Myofibrils  Muscle fibre  Fascicles  Skeletal
te
(4) Devonian
muscle u
t which of the
196.(2)iIn   following
 animal
 True placenta
  is
(2) Myofibrils  Fascicles  Muscle fibre  Skeletal s tabsent:
muscle
t In t
(3) Muscle fibre  Myofibrils  Fascicles  Skeletal
g h (3)(a) Koala      h
g
muscles Li (b) Sugar glider Li
(4) Myofibrils  Fascicles  Skeletal muscles
e w  (4)(c) Numbat   ew 
Muscle fibre. N .
N
191. The correct sequence of reproductive events in (d) Lemur
191.
human female : (e) Flying squirrel
(1)    
(1) Gametogenesis  Insemination  Fertilisation 
Implantation  Gestation (1) Only a, b, c
(2) Gametogenesis  Insemination  Implantation (2)(2) Only a, b    

 Fertilisation  Gestation
(3) a, b, e
(3) Insemination  Gametogenesis  Fertilisation  (3)    
Implantation  Gestation (4) a, c, d
(4) Gametogenesis  Insemination  Implantation 197.(4)Which one ofthe following
 is the correct
 match

 Gestation  Fertilisation
(a) H.M.S beagle (I) Simulation experiment
192. The most accepted line of descent in human evo-
192. (b) S.L. miller (II) Light years
lution is
(1) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo sa-
(1) 
(c) Stellar distances

(III) Darwin

piens  Homo habilis
(d) Oparin (IV) Chemical evolution
(2) Homo erectus  Homo habilis  Homo sapiens (2)  
(1) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
(3) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus (3)   
(2) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
 Homo sapiens
(4) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo (4)(3) a-IV, b-II, c-I,
d-III  
erectus  Homo habilis  Homo sapiens  d-IV
(4) a-I, b-II, c-III,
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198. Match the following concepts of evolution in List- 198.
I with List-Il and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
a. Mutation i. Changes in
population's a. i.
allele frequencies due
to chance alone.
b. Gene flow ii. Differences in survival
and reproduction b. ii.
among variant
individuals.
c. Natural selection iii. Immigration, emigra
tion change allele c. iii.
frequencies.
d. Genetic iv. Source of new alleles
drift d. iv.
(1) a : i, b : ii, c : iii, d : iv (1) a : i, b : ii, c : iii, d : iv
(2) a : iv, b : ii, c : iii, d : i (2) a : iv, b : ii, c : iii, d : i
(3) a : iii, b : i, c : iv, d : ii (3) a : iii, b : i, c : iv, d : ii
(4) a : iv, b : iii, c : ii, d : i (4) a : iv, b : iii, c : ii, d : i
199. In a habitat a population of 1000 individuals 360 u te
tit
199. 1000 360 AA
belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the
s , 480 Aa 160 aa
remaining 160 to aa. After many years in this
t In
habitat the new population are 2000 individuals
1000 belong to genotype AA, 680 to Aa and the gh
2000
g ht
remaining aa. Li 1000 AA 680 Aa
Li
aa
What is the conclusion about this population : ew ew
N
a. Stabilising selection takes place in this habitat
N
a.
b. More extent of evolutionary changes takes
place. b.
c. Hardy-weinberg equilibrium is not maintained. c.
d. Hardy weinberg equilibrium is maintained.
d.
(1) a, d (1) a, d
(2) a, b (2) a, b
(3) b, c (3) b, c
(4) b (4) b
200. Which one of the following is the example of 200.
evolution by anthropogenic action :
(1) Antibiotics resistance microbes (1)
(2) Marsupial radiation (2)
(3) Adaptive radiation (3)
(4) All of these (4)
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Test Booklet Code
ALL INDIA SCORE BOOSTER REVI
Test ID : 960
li ity-c
tit
u te b N
s
t In
gh g ht
Li Li
ew ew
N l N
Na
TEST DATE :
SOLU
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P H Y S I5.C S
(4) [NCERT-178] 5
SECTION-A W = MB (cos 1 – cos 2)

SECTION-A
1. (2) [NCERT-162] 1. (2) W ex = 20 × 5 × 10–4 [cos 60o – [NCERT-162]

cos 0o]
–4
I  I =100 × 10 × – 1/2
2. (2) [NCERT- 135] 2. (2) = – 5 × 10–3 J [NCERT- 1353]

In uniform magnetic field, net force on magnet is Work done by magnet W in = –W ex = 5 × 10–3J.
zero but torque may not be. 6. (1) [NCERT-178] 6
3. (4) [NCERT- 118] 3. (4) W = MB(cos 1 –cos 2) [NCERT- 118]

When the magnet is rotated from 0o to 60o , then
work done is 0.8 J.
N S N S
N N
MB
0.8 = MB (cos 0o – cos 60o) =
R o
R R R 2
60 60
o
C  MB = 1.6 J
C
Workdone to rotate it from 60o to 90o.
Clerarly NSC is equilateral triangel NSC
MB
Arc NS =

R , NS = R u te W = MB (cos 60o – cos 90o) =
2
 0.8J
tit
3 NS = R , NS = R
3
n
7. s (3) [NCERT- 185] 7
R t I
 M  m.
3
, M'  m.R
gh  M  m.
R
, M'  m.R
g ht
Li The magnetism
3 of a magnet is due to the spin
motion of electrons Li
M' mR 3 ew M' mR 3 ew
 
M mR  N 8. (4) M  mR   N
[NCERT-137] 8
3 3
1 3  3l2 
3M 3M  l  l   
M' 
Area = 2
M'  2  4 
  I 3
l l I
2
4. (4) [NCERT-177] 4. (4)   NiAB sin  [NCERT-177] B
l I
For a magnet,
 3  3l2IB
 0 2M  I  2M l2  B   
0 
B=
4 r 3
(nearly) B =  43 (nearly)
 4
4 r
9. (2) [NCERT- 187] 9
3
 r1 
3
B2

B2  r1 
or   
B1  r2  V B1  ro2 
tan ' = = tan 60 = 3
Hcos 30o
3 3
B2  x  B2  x 
or   V  
B1  2x    tan   3 cos30
B1o  2x 
H
B2 1 B2 1
or  3 3 
B1 8  3  B1 8
2 2
Thus, B1 : B2 = 8 : 1 (approximately) B : B2 =–18 : 1 ( )
so, 1 = tan (3/2)
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10. (4) [NCERT-143] 10.
20. (4)(4) [NCERT-143]
[NCERT-143] 2
0 2  nR 2 1 Taking 2  nR 2 field as positive

 0 downward 1 and upward field
B=  B B as
= negative 3  B 3
4 r 3
r 3 4 r r
when r >>>> R r >>>> R

 0 l 0 2 l l 
11. (2) [NCERT-177] 11. (2) B=     Tesla
[NCERT-177]
 4 R 4 R R 
q q 2 q q
M = iA = .R 2  R  qR2 M = iA =0 2l .R 
2
R2  qR2
T 2 or B = T    1 tesla
2
2 R
12. (1) [NCERT-186] 12. (1) [NCERT-186]
21. (1) [NCERT-134] 2
At magnetic equator angle of dip  = 0o  = 0o
The well known lorentz force equation for force on a
13. (2) [NCERT-187] 13. (2) [NCERT-187]
charge in an electric and magnetic field is
tan  = V/H tan  = V/H    
F  q(E  v  B)
tan 30o = V/H tan 30o = V/H
22. (4) [NCERT-145] 2
V=H/ 3 V=H/ 3
0 2 lr 2
B
H2 2 4 (r 2  x 2 )3/ 2 2
H2
so B = 2
V 2 = H
2
 = H B = H V 2 2 = H
2
 = H
te
H 3
3 If x >> r 3 3
u
14. (2) [NCERT-190] tit
14. s(2) [NCERT-190]
In  2 lr 2
1
B  B  [NCERT-137]
0
15. (3) [NCERT-137]
ht15. (3)
4 x 3
x3 ht
ig g
Charge in motion produces both E and B L 23. (1) [NCERT-136]
Li 2
w w
16. (3)
Ne
[NCERT-143] 16. (3)
F = BiL
e
[NCERT-143]
N
Biot Savart’s law states that
24. (3) [NCERT-145] 2
     
  0 ld   rˆ  0 id  r   0 ld   rˆ  0 id  r
dB   dB   i 2 nq nq
4  r2 4 r3 B =4  r
0 0 4 r3
 4  107
2r 2r 2r
17. (1) [NCERT-143] 17. (1) [NCERT-143]
2 nq 7 N
  l l l   1 1 =   l 10
l l  1 1
B  0      0    B  0 r   A 0m  
4  r r r   2r 4r  4  r r r   2 r 4r 
25. (4) [NCERT-143] 2
18. (1) [NCERT-155] 18. (1) [NCERT-155]
0 1
Like parallel currents attract each other B (sin 45  sin 90)  2
4 r sin 45
19. (4) [NCERT-141] 19. (4) [NCERT-141]
0 1 1
1 = 1 (  1)  2
qv = mv2 =(KE) 4 r
qv = mv =/ 2 2 2
2 2
0 2l ) = eV
(KE)proton = eV (
= 
4 r
2 1  
(KE)deutron =eV 26. (3)( ) = eV [NCERT-134] 2
(KE) = 2 eV Ratio is 1 : 1 : 2 According
(KE) 
= 2 eVto Fleming Left Hand
= 1 : rule.
1:2
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27. (2) [NCERT-143] 34. (2)(1)
27. [NCERT-143]
[NCERT-143] 3
B = B1 – B2 B = B1 – B2
 I
B 0 .
 0 I1 I2 (2  )  I4 r I (2  )
  = 0.  0 1  2 = 0.
4 r r 4 r r
35. (1) [NCERT-147] 3
I1R1 = I2R2. I1R1 = I2R2.
According to ampere’s circuital law
So, I1 = I2(2 – ). , I1 = I2(2 – ).
 
28. (1) [NCERT-146] 28. (1)  B.dl  0 l enclosed [NCERT-146]
29. (3) [NCERT-140] 29. (3) [NCERT-140]
= 0 (2 – 1)
v= E/B = 3×104/ 2×10–3 v= E/B = 3×104/ 2×10–3
= 0.
= 1.5×107 m/s = 1.5×107 m/s
30. (2) [NCERT-134] 36. (2)(4)
30. [NCERT-134]
[NCERT-137] 3
F = qBv sin . F When

= qBv sin .
a charged particle enter in a uniform field
o
 v = 0. other
 v = 0.than angle 90 then pathw ill be helical.
 F = 0. 37. (2) F = 0. [NCERT-155] 3

31. (3) [NCERT-155] 31. (3) [NCERT-155]
In wire magnetic force will be applied due to each
other hence it will be attractive. While in moving
l 2L
l1 l2
u te electrons (point charges)
2
will bel act.
L
l1
only electrostatic force
l2
F= 0
2 d d
stit F= 0
2 d L
d
In
L L 38. (1) L [NCERT-134] 3
ht    ht
g
Where L is the overlapping length. Two long parallel L F  q(B  v)
Apply g
Li
conductor carrying currents in the same direction Li
attract each other . e w For negative charge. ew
32. (4)
N [NCERT-134]
N
32.
39. (4)(3) [NCERT-134]
[NCERT-155] 3
Force acting on a charged particle, moving with 
  v
velocity v and subjected to magnetic field B , is i1 i2 
B
given by :
d
  
F  q(v  B ) or F = q vB sin    
F  0 i1i2 F  q(v  B ) or F = q vB sin 
(i) When q = 0o , F = qvB sin 0o = 0  ....(i)
l 2nd
(i) q = 0o , F = qvB sin 0o = 0
(ii) When q = 90o, F = qvB sin 90o = qvB
(iii) When q = 180o, F = qvB sin 180o =0 (ii) F'q = 
90o(2i
, F )(i ) sin 90o = qvB
= qvB
 0 1 2 ....(ii)
l 2n(3d)
This implies force acting on a charged particle is (iii) q = 180o, F = qvB sin 180o =0
 
non -zero, when angle between v and B can value 
 since direction is reversed so 'F' will be negative
v
o
other than 0 and 180 . o opposite
 to previous force. o
B 0 180o
33. (1) [NCERT-143]
33. (1) F' 2 2 [NCERT-143]
   F'   F
 0 I2 F 3 3
B1   0 I2
4 R B1 
40. (4) 4 R [NCERT-137] 4
 0 2I.2 B1
 1. Force on e– will be downward
B2  .  0 2I.2 B1
4  2R B2 B2  .  1.
 2R
so 'y'4will be negativeBand
2 speed remains same.
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41. (3) [NCERT-146] 41.
45. (3)(1) [NCERT-146]
[NCERT-141] 4
Since BP = BQ BPSince
= BQ speed of particle remains constants. Hence
kinetic energy also constans.
0iP 0iQ 0iP 0iQ
 = K
2rP 2rQ 2rW
P 2rQ
So, W = 0
VP VQ  V VP VQ  V
  i   { K = constant.}
 i  
rP2 rQ2  R rP2 rQ2  R
46. (2) [NCERT- 174] 4
VP V R  l  VAP barV R  
is lequivalent
 Q    Qmagnet
 
to a current carrying
rP2 4rP2 R  2nr  rPsolenoid
2 4rP2 R  2nr 
47. (2) [NCERT-137] 4
VQ = 4VP VQ = 4VP
When a charged particle enter perpendicularly then
42. (2) [NCERT-145] 42. (2) [NCERT-145]
path will be circle and speed of charged particle
remains same.
Bcentre Bcentre
Bx = 48. (3)Bx = [NCERT-141]
8 8 4
qB
0 2 lR 2 1 0 2 l f0  2 lR 2 1 0 2 l
 2nm 
4 (R  x )
2 2 3/ 2
8 4 R 4 (R  x )
2 2 3/ 2
8 4 R
e above formula it is clear that frequency is
tFrom
u
8 R3 = (R2 + x2)3/2
tit 8 independent
3 2 2 3/2
R = (R + x of) 'v' and 'r'.
s
n (1)(2R) =(R + x )
(2R)3 =(R2 + x2)1/2
t I49. 3 2 2 1/2
[NCERT-143] t4
g h gh
2R =(R2 + x2)1/2
Li 2R =(R + x )
 i  i  i
2 2 1/2
L i
B   0 0 0
4R3 = (R2 + x2) or x2 = 3R2 w 4r+ x16
4R = (R ) r 24orr x = 3R
3 2 2
w 2 2
Ne Ne
x= R 3 x = R  3i  1 1
B  0 1   
43. (2) [NCERT-143] 4r  2 6 
43. (2) [NCERT-143]
P 0P
i  6  3  2  5 0 i
rH  rH  4r   
eB eB  6  24r
P 50. (3) [NCERT-154] 5

r  P
2e  B r 
2e due
Field B to wire and external field both are
perpendicular.
P P
rH
 eB rH
 eB Bext
r P r P
2eB 2eB
30 A 2 cm X
Bwire
rH 2 rH 2
 
r 1 r 1
Bnet  B2w  B2ext
44. (1) [NCERT-143] 44. (1) [NCERT-143]
0 2 l 1 0 2 l 1  (3210 4 2
l 1) (40 210
4 2 4
 l )1  5  10 Tesla
B    0 B 0
   0
4 R 2 4 R 2 4 R 2 4 R 2
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C H E M I S62.T R
(3) Y 6
SECTION-A 63. (4) SECTION-A 6

51. (2) [NCERT 134] 51.
64. (2)(2) [NCERT 134]
6
Gold has liquid dispersed in solid. 65. (4) [CBSE 2000]
6
52. (3) [NCERT 134] 52. (3) By adding electrolytes the colloidal [NCERT 134]are
particles
Lower the gold number, higher is the protective precipitated. The electrolytes neutralise the charge
power. of colloids leading to their coagulation and thus
destroy the colloid.
53. (2) [NCERT 131]
53. (2) [NCERT 131]
66. (4) [NCERT 121]
AgNO3 + KI  AgI + KNO3
AgNO3 + KI  AgI + KNO3 6
AgI + AgNO3(excess)  [AgI] Ag+ During adsorption, entropy decreases (disorder
AgI + AgNO3or
decreases (excess)  [AgI]
S = –ve). AlsoAg
+
adsorption is always
54. (2) [NCERT 133-135] 54. (2) exothermic, i.e., H decreases. [NCERT 133-135]
According to Hardy Schulze rule, the coagulating
67. (3) [NCERT 121]
power of an ion depends upon its valency. Higher 6
the valency of ion, greater is its coagulating power. Chemisorption is directional, irreversible and
55. (1) [NCERT 134-135] unimolecular exothermic process where adsorbate
Salt solution of gold is being reduced to gold by 55. (1) molecules are adsorbed on active134-135]
[NCERT centres of
adsorbent by chemical forces.
using a reducing agent like SnCl2. SnCl2
68. (2) [NCERT 143]
56. (3) [NCERT 141] 6
Platinised asbestos is used as a catalyst for Lyophilic possesses solvent loving nature and thus,
56. (3) [NCERT 141]
Ostwald's process for the manufacture of nitric
u te a thin layer of dispersed phase is formed around
tit
acid. sol particles.
57. (2) [NCERT 138] s
n (3)
69. [NCERT 143]
I t6
Iron will react with water at electric arc conditions ht57. (2) The phenomenon of converting freshly [NCERT 138]
precipitated h
because water turns to steam at this stage. ig ig
mass into colloidal state by the action of solvent
L is called peptization.
L
58. (2) w
[NCERT 134-135]
e e w
Oxidation of chloroform is retardedNby adding 58. (2) 70. (2) [NCERT N
134]
[NCERT 134-135] 7
alcohol to it. The osmotic pressure measurements give mol.
59. (3) [NCERT 138] mass of aggregated molecule.
The method involves both dispersion and 71. (2) [NCERT 134]
condensation. The intense heat of arc vapourises 59. (3) [NCERT 138]
some of the metal which condenses under cold Soap solutons act as emulsifier to remove grease 7
water. via emulsification of grease in water.
60. (4) [NCERT 123] 72. (2) [CBSE-2005]
According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm, Dodecyl trimethyl am monium chloride
60. (4) [NCERT 123] 7
C 12 H 25 (CH 3 ) 3 NCl on dissolution formes
x
 kP1/ n C 12 H 25 (CH 3 ) 3 N + and Cl – ions. The form er
m possesses hydrophilic (–N+) and hydrophobic
x
Taking log on both sides, [C12kP
H1/25n(CH3)3–] parts. 7
m
73. (4)
x 1
log    log k  log P
Inphysical
x 1
adsorption, the gas molecules are held
m n log  m   log k  n log P
on solid
 surface by Vander Wall’s forces
61. (3) [NCERT 122] 7
61.
74. (3)(2) [NCERT 122]
x  x 1 1
 kp1/ n ; log    In k  In p; slope   0 xColloidal  x  is used
antimony 1 for curing "Kalaazar'
1
m  m n n  kp1/ n ; log    In k  In p; slope   0
 m
75. (1) m n n 137]
[NCERT
x Colloidal solution of starch, protein, gum are 7
Thus,  kp0 x
m macromoleculalr
Thus,  kp0 colloid.
m
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76. (4) [Mod. NCERT 152] 76. (4) [Mod. NCERT 152]
88. (4) [NCERT 162, 163] 8
CaCO3 . MgCO3 ¾¾® CaO + MgO + 2CO2 CaCO . MgCO
Al cannot
3
¾¾® CaO
be 3 obtained
D by+ the
MgOelectrolysis
+ 2CO2 of
D
aqueous solution of its salt.
77. (4) [NCERT 166]
77. (4) [NCERT 166]
89. (4) [NCERT 159]
[Impure  Ti]  2I2 (s) 
523 K
 TiI4 (g) 
1700 K
 Ti(s)  2I2 (g)
Calcination 8
Sample
[Impure  Ti]  2I2 (s)is
carried
523 K out
 TiI below
1700 Kthe melting point
4 (g)   Ti(s)  2I2 (g)
Sample
Ni, Ti are purified by vapour phase refining. and impurities removed in the form of elemental 9
Ni,vapour.
Ti In calcination non redox reaction takes
78. (4) [Mod. NCERT 152]
78. (4) place. [Mod. NCERT 152]
Ag2S, HgS, PbS are sulphide ore. 90. (4) [Mod. NCERT 163]
Ag2S, HgS, PbS
79. (3) [Mod. NCERT 154] CaCO3 is a basic flux it is used for removing the
79. (3) [Mod. NCERT 154]
acidic impurities like SO2.
During calcination non redox reaction takes place. 9
Impurities of Fe2O3 (red bauxite) is removed by
80. (2) [Mod. CBSE]
80. (2) Bayer’s process. [Mod. CBSE]
(Al + Fe2O3) is known as Thermite mixture.
91. (4)
(Al + Fe2O3) [NCERT 154]
81. (1) [NCERT XII 154, 155] Self reduction, Froth floatation process, Carbon 9
81. (1) reduction process is[NCERT
used forXII 154, 155]of lead
extraction
Generally reactions occuring during calcination are
from galena.
example of non-redox reaction. Depressants are
used to separate two sulphide ores. Fa is the forth 92. (4) [NCERT 167]
t e
itu The
most abundant element in the earth crust. During
formula of copper pyrites is CuFeS , i.e., it
roasting oxidation occurs.
st Fe two different metals, copper and iron.
9 2
82. (2) [Mod. CBSE]

t In has
t
g h 93. (3) [NCERT 164, 165]
g h
Li Li 9
Chromite = FeCr2O4 (Fe+2 +3
, Cr ) 82. (2) [Mod. CBSE]
It is fact.
83. (3) [NCERT 154] w = FeCr O (Fe , Cr ) w+2 +3
N e 94. (2) [NCERT 165]e

2 4
N
9
In froth floatation process, collector enhance the 83. (3) [NCERT 154]
Titanium forms TiI4, volatile compound with I2 which
non-wettability of ore particle towards water.
decomposes to given Ti.
84. (1) [NCERT 155, AIIMS 2012] 9
95. (1) [NCERT 167]
4NaCN + ZnS  Na2[Zn(CN)4]+Na2S 84. (1) [NCERT 155, AIIMS 2012]
2Cu2O++ZnS
4NaCN S 
Cu2 Heat
 6Cu]+Na
Na [Zn(CN) + SOS
2
2 4 2
85. (4) [NCERT 163]
85.
96. (4)(2) [NCERT 163]
[NCERT 161]
Cryolite (Na3AlF6) 9
(Na3AlF
Impurities )
of carbon
6 is maximum in pig iron while
minimum in wrought iron.
SECTION-B 97. (4) SECTION-B [NCERT 154, 155]
86. (4) [Mod. NCERT 150, 151] 86. (4) [Mod.
In Halls process ore NCERT 150,
is heated with 151]
sodium 9
Element maximum - carbonate. -
Earth crust. – Oxygen (O2) 98. (4) – (O2) [Mod. NCERT]
Atmosphere – Nitrogen (N2) 9
Pb is –
obtained from
(N2)their sulphide ore - PbS
Universe – Hydrogen (H2) 99. (1) – (H2) [NCERT 154, 155, 163,165]
87. (4) [Mod. CBSE] These are fact.
87. (4) [Mod. CBSE] 1
Composition of carnallite mineral KCl. MgCl2.6H2O
100. (3) [NCERT
KCl. MgCl2
.6H2152]
O
Azurite is an ore of copper.
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105. (2) [NC-II-87] 1
BIOLOGY
The sex determination in honey bee is based on
BOTANY the number ofBOTANY
sets of chromosomes an individual
receives. An offspring formed from the union of a
SECTION–A SECTION–A
sperm and an egg develops as a female (queen or
101. (2) [NC-II-83] 101. (2) worker), and an unfertilised egg develops as a male
[NC-II-83]
Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in (drone) by means of parthenogenesis. This means
Drosophila to study gene that were sex-linked. The that the m ales have half the number of
chromosomes than that of a female. The females 1
crosses were similar to the dihybrid crosses car-
ried out by Mendel in peas. For example Morgan are diploid having 32 chromosomes and males are
hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to haploid, i.e., having 16 chromosomes. This is called
brown-bodied , red-eyed males and intercrossed as haplodiploid sex-determination system and has
their F1 progeny. He observed that the two genes special characteristic features such as the males
did not segregate independently of each other and produce sperms by mitosis (Figure 5.13), they do
not have father and thus cannot have sons, but 1
the F2 ratio deviated very- significantly from the 102. (2) [NC-II-83, 84]
9:3:3: 1 ratio (expected when the two genes are have a grandfather and can have grandsons.
independent). 106. (2)XwXw = [NC-II-77]
Morgan and his group knew that the genes were
n
located on the X chromosome (Section 5.4) and Xw+Y=n  1 
saw quickly that when the two genes in a dihybrid 2 1
cross were situated on the same chromosome, +
107. (3)W = ( ) [NC-II-85]
the proportion of parental gene combinations were
much higher than the non-parental type. Morgan It is the case of polygenic inheritance.
W= ( )
attributed this'due to the physical association or The genotype with all the dominant allele
linkage of the two genes and coined the term link-
u te (AABBCC) will have the darkest skin colour and 1
age to describe this physical association of genes it t that with all the recessive alleles (aabbcc) will have
ns
on a chromosome and the term recombination to · Xw+the
Y lightest skin XwXw
x colour.
describe the generation of non-parental gene com- I
binations.
g ht 108. (2) X X X X [NC-II-91] t
g h1
102. (2) i
[NC-II-83,L84]
w+ w
-Thalassemia
w+
is
w
controlled by a single gene i
HBB
L
on chromosome 11 of each parent and occurs due
w XY w
XY w
w
Ne
XwXw = White eye female to mutations of one or both the gene. e
Xw+Y = Red eye male 109. (2)
N
[NC-II-89]
2 – Xw+ Xw = 1
+
W = Red eye (dominant) The myotonic dystrophy is Autosomal dominant
W = White eye (recessive) 2–trait.
XwY =
Male fruitfly Female fruitfly 110. (4) [NC-II-91, 92]
0%
Xw+Y x XwXw In diploids two sets of chromosome are present.
103. (4)
111. (1) [NC-II-91, 85]
[NCERT-II-70] 1
w+ w w+ w
X X X X Gregor Mendel used first time statistical analysis
w w and mathematic logic in biology.
XY XY
104. (4) [NC-II-83]
112. (3) [NCERT-II-72]
2 – Xw+ Xw = Red eye female
A gene is said to be dominant if it expresses it's
2 – XwY = White eye male effect both in homozygous and heterozygous
Hence 0% female will have white eyes. condition 1
103. (4) [NC-II-91, 85] TT = Tall
Phenylketonuria is the inborn error of metabolism Tt = Tall

is also inherited as the autosomal recessive trait. 113. (2) 1 [NCERT-II-91, 92]
It is example of pleiotropy  
Trisomy = 2n + 1
104. (4) [NC-II-83]
Klinefelter syndrome
1
1 1 Downs syndrome 
Linkage   %
mapunits or distance % of cros sin g Edwards syndrome
b/w two gene over
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114. (2) [NCERT-II-79, 80] 120.(2)(2)
114. [NCERT-II-83, 84, 85, 86]
[NCERT-II-79, 80] 1
I - male drosophila = XY
4 4
Seed with RrYy genotype =  100  25% RrYy  100  25%
16 II - Female drosophila = XX
16
115. (4) [NCERT-ll-71] • Males are heterogametic so they determine the
115. (4) sex of progeny [NCERT-ll-71]
The dominant flower colour studied by Mendel in
pea is violet and the recessive flower colour is white. • Number of chromosomes are same in both male
and female.
116. (2) [NCERT-ll-71]
• T.H. Morgan used in experimental genetics
116. (2) [NCERT-ll-71]
121. (4) [NCERT-II-95]
dwarf gsVjkstand
Both DNA kbxlRNA are the
gksegenetic
kstkbxl material
X yEck eVj dk ckSuk eVj dk 1
122. (3) ikS/kk ikS/kk [NCERT-II-96]
Tt tt X
Tt tt
Haploid content of human genome is 3.3 × 109
123. (1) [NCERT-II-99] 1
Histones areTt rich

Tt with amino
tt tt acids lysine and
arginine 50% yEck 50% ckSuk 1
124. (2) [NCERT-II-103]
117. (1) [NCERT-II-77] 117. (1) [NCERT-II-77]
As compared to DNA RNA is
A
e  More reactive than DNA 1
I i t
I
B A B
II
B
Ii t tu Less stable than DNA
i
i Ii
A
ii Ins  Mutate at a faster rate than DNA
g ht 125. (4) [NCERT-II-101] h
g
t
Li i
A B
II Blood group A B
B
Ii Blood group B  monod AB
I IJacob A B
and francis Jacob elucidate theLlac
1
A ew operon
e w
Ii Blood group A N Ii  B
B N
ii 126. (1) [NCERT-II-101]
Blood group O
 unequivocal
IAiThe A proof that DNA is the genetic
material came from the experiments of Alfred 1
118. (3) [NCERT-II-79] 
ii Hershey andOmartha chase
 Among 16 – 1 is green wrinkled 118.
127.(3)(1) [NCERT-II-79]
[NCERT-II-109]
 1 – 1/16 In Bacteria single types of DNA-dependent RNA 1
polymerase that catalyses transcription of all type
 800 – 1/16 × 800 = 50
of1 RNA in bacteria
= 1/16
119. (3) [NCERT-II-90] 128. (2) [NCERT-II-118]
 800 = 1/16 × 800 = 50
Some of the important goals of HGP were as follows:
119. (3) [NCERT-II-90]
1
(i) Identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes
in human DNA
(ii) Determine the sequences of the 3 billion chemical
base pairs that make up human DNA.
(iiii) Store this information in databases.
(iv) Improve tools for data analysis.
(v) Transfer related technologies to other sectors, such
A representative figure showing an individual inflicted as industries.
with Down’s syndrome and the corresponding
chromosomes of the individual (vi) Address the ethical, legal, and social issues (ELSI)
that may arise from the project.
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129. (1) [NCERT-II-96,97] 129.
137.(1)(1) [NCERT-II-96,97]
[NC-II-7] 1
Between A and T - 2 bond A In plants
T the units of vegetative propagation such
as runner rhizome, sucker, tuber, offset, bulb, are
G and C - 3 bond G all capable
C of giving rise to new offspring. These
By counting these base pair number of bond structures are called vegetative propagules. 1
DNA
calculated in DNA.
138. (1) [NC-II-6]
130. (4) [NC-II-115]
130. (4) [NC-II-115]
The given diagram is gemmule of sponge. Sponge
300 Amino acids = 900 bases
is animal. 1
=
3 bases = stop codon
139. (3) [NC-II-11, 13]
600 bases = total UTR. =
Pistillate flower - Unisexual
131. (3) [NC-II-121] = UTR
131. (3) Antherozoid - Type of gamete
[NC-II-121]
In a person DNA from saliva, skin, bone, sperm,
blood, hair follicle show same degree of Homothallic - Bisexual DNA
polymorphism.
Meiocytes - Gamete mother cell
132. (1) [NCERT-II-115] 1
132.
140.(1)(2) [NCERT-II-115]
[NC-II-6]
The ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA in
bacteria is the enzyme- ribozyme) for the forma- 23S rRNA
The given diagram is Conidia of Penicillium.
tion of peptide bond.
141. (4) [NC-II-72, 73]
133. (1) [NC-II-119] 1
133. (1) [NC-II-119]
Types of genotypes = 3n
There are many non human model organisms which
1
genome have also been sequenced - =3
e
Example : Drosophila, Yeast, Bacteria, Rice,
i tut =3
t
ns (3)
Arabidopsis, Caenorhabditis elegans. (a free living
142. [NCERT-II-83] 1
non pathogenic nematode)
t I
134. (4) [NC-II-99] h 134. (4) Morgan attributed this due to the physical ht
[NC-II-99]
ig ig
association or linkage of the two genes and coined
We know that a typical nucleosome containsL 200 the term linkage to describe this physical L
bp of DNA helix.
e w association of genes on a chromosomeeand
DNA w the
N
Total Number of bp
N
term recombination to describe the generation of
{kkj ;qXeksa dh dqy la[ ;k
1
Number of nucleosome = non-parental gene =combinations.
200 200
143. (1) [NCERT-II-83]
6.6  109  109 chromosome
6.6same
Tightly linked genes =on the
= = 3.3×107 = 3.3×107
200 show very few recombinations 200
135. (2) [NCERT-II-109] 135.

144.(2)(2) [NCERT-II-109]
[NCERT-II-73]
Phenotypic ratio ––– 3 : 1 1
3
Tall plant = 4  100 = 75%
1
Dwarf plant = 4  100  25%
SECTION–B
SECTION–B
136. (3) [NC-II-7] T75% tall and 25% dwarf plants in F2 progeny
136. (3) [NC-II-7]
When offspring is produced by a single parent with 145. (4) [NCERT-II-92]
or without the involvement of gamete formation. The 1
reproduction is asexual. It is faster than sexual Klinefelter’s Syndrome : This genetic disorder is
reproduction. also caused due to the presence of an additional
copy of Xchromosome resulting into a karyotype of
The offspring that are produced by asexual 47, XXY. Such an individual has overall masculine
reproduction are not only identical to one another development, however, the feminine development
but are also exact copies of their parent. The term (development of breast, i.e., Gynaecomastia) is also
clone is used to describe such morphologically and expressed. Such individuals are sterile.
genetically similar individuals.
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146. (3) [NCERT-II-99] 146.
155.(3)(1) [NCERT-II-99]
[NCERT-II-53] 1
One nucleosome octamer = Two sets of histone Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and
H2A, H3, H4, H2B
present produces several hormones.
1
= (H2A, H3, H4, H2B). 156. (4) [NCERT-II-49,50,51,43]
147. (2) [NCERT-II-99] Interstitial cells = Leydig cells
Distance between two bp is 3.4 Å 157. (3) [NCERT-II-43, 47, 50, 51] 1
147. (2) [NCERT-II-99]
8.5 Menstrual flow – 3 – 5 days.
Number of base pair = 3.4 A0
3.4  10 10 158. (2) [NCERT-II-54] 1
= 2.5×1010 Heart formation – One month

8.5
 10
148. (3) [NCERT-II-110, 111] Innercell mass  10Stem
3.4 – cells
Spliceosomes help removal of itrons. They will not Parturition = 2.5 –
× 10Neuroendocrine
10
occur in prokaryotes because prokaryotes do not mechanism
have introns and thus, processig does not require 148. (3) [NCERT-II-110, 111]
Colostrum – Antibodies
splicing of mRNA. 1
149. (1) [NCERT-II-103] 159. (3) [NCERT-II-49, 53, 54]
RNA is the genetic material virus TMV, HIV, First polar body, second polar body – oogenesis.
1
Poliovirus, QB bacteriophage. 160. (2) mRNA [NCERT-II-60]
150. (2) [NCERT-II-104, 105, 106]
Condom, cervical caps – Barriers.
It is now proven that DNA replicates 1
149.
161.(1)(2) [NCERT-II-103]
semiconservatively it was shown first in E.coli and
u te [NCERT-II-42]
subsequently in higher organisms, such as plants
and human cells. Matthew meselson and franklin stit RNATransfer
TMV, of
QBsperms into theHIV,
called insemination
female genital tract is
stahl performed experiment by using heavy isotope n

I162. 1
of nitrogen (N15). ht (4) [NCERT-II-44] t
h
g 150. (2) Seminal vesicles = 2 [NCERT-II-104, 105, 106]ig
• Li
A experiment involing use of radioactive thymidine L
to detect distribution of newly synthesisedwDNA in DNA w
Ne faba by Ne
Prostate = 1
the chromosomes was performed on vicia
Taylor and colleagues in 1958. The experiments Bulbourethral glands = 2
proved that the DNA in chromosomes also replicate 1
163. (2) [NCERT-II-46]
semiconservatively.
Labia minora is a part of female external genitalia
ZOOLOGY ZOOLOGY
164. (3) [NCERT-II-48] 1
SECTION–A SECTION–A
151. (4) NCERT-II-50 151. (4) Antrum is fluid filled cavity in tertiary follicle
NCERT-II-50
165. (4) [NCERT-II-49] 1
At the time of ovulation LH, FSH level are peak. LH
surge means release of secondary oocyte from full Changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced
mature graffian follicle 152. (4) [NCERT-II-51]
by changes in the levels of pituitary and ovarian
152. (4) [NCERT-II-51] hormones
High levels of estrogen and progesterone, secreted 166. (3) [NCERT-II-52]

1
by the corpus luteum or placenta during pregnancy Second meiotic division of secondary oocyte results
inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and prevent in one ovum and one secondary polar body
ovulation.
167.(1)(2)
153. [NCERT-II-52]
[NCERT-II-43]
153. (1) [NCERT-II-43] 1
XY = male
Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by
two types of cells called male germ cells and sertoli XX = female
cells.
168.(3)(2)
154. [NCERT-II-52]
[NCERT-II-48]
154. (3) [NCERT-II-48] 1
The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a
The function of secretion of prostate gland is to morula
stimulate sperm activity.
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169. (4) [NCERT-II-53] 182.(4)(2)
169. [NCERT-II-54]
[NCERT-II-53] 1
The placenta is connected to the embryo through Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine
an umbilical cord mechanism
170.
183.(3)(1) [NCERT-II-53]
[NCERT-II-51]
170. (3) [NCERT-II-53]
In humans being fertilisation takes place at
After implantation the inner cell mass differentiates ampullary region 1
into three layers 184. (3) [NCERT-II-49, 50, 51]
171. (4) [NCERT-II-53] 171. (4) All events are related with human [NCERT-II-53]
female
Increased production of several hormones is 185. (3) [NCERT-II-46-47,50-51]
essential for supporting the fetal growth, metabolic Oxytocin - Myometrium of uterus 1
changes in the mother and maintenance of FSH - Sertoli cells
pregnancy GnRh - Anterrior pituitary
172. (4) [NCERT-II-54] LH - Mature graffian follicle
1
172. (4) for ovulation
[NCERT-II-54]
The first movements of the foetus and appearance
LH - Leydig cells
of hair on the head are usually observed during the
fifth month
SECTION–B
173. (1) [NCERT-II-54]
186.(1)(2) [NC-II-129] 1
The milk produced during the initial few days of 173. [NCERT-II-54]
lactation is called colostrum which contains several Embryological support for evolution was proposed
antibodies absolutely essential to develop by Ernst Heckel.
resistance for the new born babies 187. (1) [NC-II-134]
1
174. (4) [NCERT-II-59] Picture showing convergent evolution of australian
u te
174. (4) marsupials and placental mamals.[NCERT-II-59]
tit MTPs, IVF
MTPs and IVF are not contraceptive methods
175. (4) [NCERT-II-60] s
In
Lactational amenorrhea (absence of menstruation) t175. (4)
method is based on the fact that ovulation and gh
[NCERT-II-60]
g ht
L i
therefore the cycle do not occur during the period Li
of intense lactation following parturition w w
176. (4) Ne
[NCERT-II-63]
176. (4)
N e
[NCERT-II-63]
Some of these infections like hepatitis-B and HIV
can also be transmitted by sharing of injection
needles, surgical instruments, etc. with infected 177. (4) [NCERT-II-63]
persons, transfusion of blood, or from an infected
mother to the foetus too STIs
177. (4) [NCERT-II-63] 178. (4) [NCERT-II-50]
All are required to remain protected from STIs
LH, FSH
178. (4) [NCERT-II-50]
At the time of ovulation of LH, estrogen, FSH are at
179. (1) [NCERT-II-46]
peak level.
179. (1) [NCERT-II-46]
Presence of hymen structure in human female is
not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual
experience 180. (4) [NCERT-II-53]
180. (4) [NCERT-II-53]
Relaxin hormone in human female secreted from
ovary and placenta
181. (4) [NCERT-II-53]
181. (4) [NCERT-II-53]
All are extraembryonic membrane
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188. (3) [NC-II-135] 196.(3)(1)
188. [NCERT-II-133, 134]
[NC-II-135] 1
Evolution for darwin as gradual while devries believed Placenta absent in marsupials mammals.
mutation caused speciation and hence called It
saltation (single step large mutation). 189. (2) [NC-I-340]
189. (2) [NC-I-340]
In human body steroid and Iodothyronine hormones

interact with intracellular receptors mostly gene
expressions or chromosome function by the
interaction of hormone receptor complex with the
genome.
=
Steroid hormone = Progesteron, estrogen, cortisol
aldosterone, androgen.
Iodothyronines = Thyroxine. =
190. (1) [NC-I-304] 190. (1) [NC-I-304]
The correct sequence of organisation of skeletal

muscles is myofibrils  Muscles fiber  Fascicles
   
 Skletal muscle.
u te
tit
191. (1) [NC-I-42]
191.s(1) [NC-I-42]
Reproductive events in hum an fem ale
t In
Gametogenesis  Insemination  Fertilisation  h
g g ht
Implantation  Gestation. Li    Li
192. (3) e w
[NC-II-140] 197. (1) ew
[NCERT-II-126,127,128]
N N 1
About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and H.M.S beagle - Darwin
192. (3) [NC-II-140]
Ramapithecus were existing. Ramapithecus was S.L. miller - Simulation experiment
more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-
Stellar distances - Light years
like.Homo habilis.The brain capacities were between
Oparin  - Chemical evolution

650-800cc. They probably did not eat meat. Fossils
discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, 198. (4) [NC-II-137]
i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus 1
Mutation – Source of new alleles
had a large brain around 900cc. 193. (2) [NCERT-II-53]
Gene flow – Immigration, emigra
193. (2) [NCERT-II-53] tion change allele
frequencies.
Cortisol - Adrenal gland
194. (1) Natural selection – [NCERT-II-52]
Differences in survival
194. (1) [NCERT-II-52]
and reproduction
In human being during cleavage in zygote gradually among variant
daughter cells are formed these daughter cells are individuals.
called blastomeres
Genetic – Changes in
195. (4) [NCERT-II-138]
195. (4) [NCERT-II-138] population's drift
allele frequencies due
Palaeozoic Era = Devonian =
to chance alone.
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199. (3) [NCERT-II-136, 137] 199. (3) [NCERT-II-136, 137]
Number of individiuals with genotype AA are
increased. So directional type of natural selection AA
takes place.
Hardy weinberg equilibrium is not maintained.
200. (1) [NCERT-II-132]
The excessive use of herbicides pesticides etc. has
only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a
much lesser time scale. This is also true for 200. (1) [NCERT-II-132]
microbes against which we employ antibiotics or
drugs against eukaryotic organism/cell. Hence, •
resistant organism/cells are appearing in a time
scale of months or years and not centuries.
u te
stit
t In
gh g ht
Li Li
ew ew
N N
NLI / 26 NLI / 2
All India Score Booster Test - 10 [Solution] CRACK NEET 2021 / 13-Aug-2021
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 28

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All India Score Booster Test - 10 [Paper] All India

The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not fo

TEST DATE : 13-08-2021

• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another st

• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.

• Video of all tests' solution available on

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2021

2. The effect due to uniform magnetic field on a freely 2. (3) 8 J

(2) Torque is present but no net force u te (2)(1) The earth

4. Two points A and B are situated alog the extended 4. 2 3 A B

(3) q2R (3) q2R  

(3) H (4) H (3) H 2 (4) H 3

(3) no force on each other (3)

(4) a rotational torque on each other (4)(4) LB/i

19. A proton, a deutron and an a-particle accelerated 19.

metre. Then the magnetic induction at the centre

(4) 1/x3 (4)(4)1/x

(1) Moves in the direction of the field (1)

(2) Remains stationary (2)

(1) Repulsion between A and B, attraction between A VQ B 1

(2) West (2)(3) 2R 3

(3) North (3)

(1) zero (2)  (1) (2) 

it 25l RIgauss (4)

(4) Acceleration of the particle remains unchanged (4)

(4) Data is insufficient to decide

(3) It is reversible in nature gh

(2) Electrostatic forces (2)(2) 2ZnS + 3O  2ZnO + 2SO

(3)B. Depressants and activator are used to sepa-

77. Which method of purification is represented by 77. (4) A, B and D

(1) Cupellation (1)(2) +2

(3) Feldspar (3)(3) Magnetic separation is used for cassitarite.

a. Moond’s process i. Purification of silver

(2) Zn (2)(2)Zna-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(3) Cu (3)(3)Cua-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

(4) Al (4)(4)Ala-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

(4) iron (4)s. Zone refining iv. Extraction of Au

(2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i, s-v

(4) Cu2SO3 (4)(1)CuMagnetite

(1) coke (1)

(2) calcium carbonate (2)

(3) sodium hydroxide (3)

(4) sodium carbonate (4)

98. Which of the following examples is not correctly 98.

(2) Linkage (2) n

(4) Linkage and crossing over (4) n

(2) It expresses it's effect only in heterozyguos (2)(2) a & c

(b) Klinefelters syndrome In

(2) 25% (2) 25%

(1) Yellow (1)

(3) White (3)(3) Down’s Syndrome with 47 chromosome

(4) Violet (4)(4) Edward’s Syndrome with 47 chromosome

(i) d. Mutate at a slower rate than DNA

u te (4) Jacob monod

gh 121. (1) Alfred Hershey and martha chase

(3) 3.3 × 109 (3)(4)3.3

130. In a mRNA strand UTR contains total 600 130. (4)mRNA

(II) Linkage help to hold the parental character

(III) Linkage is inversely proportional to crossing

(IV) Linkage is broken down due to phenomena

144. In Mendel's experiment the study of inheritance

(1) All plants are tall in F2 progeny

(1) i and ii (1) a, c, d, e