Sbrts 11 (Eng)

All India Score Booster Test - 11 [Paper] AllCRACK
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- 11 [Paper]
Test Booklet Code Test ID : 961
Test - 11
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4. In the adjoining figure what is the final value of
current in the 10 ohm resistor when the plug of
key K is inserted:
TOPIC : Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current
SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. Figure shows two bulbs B1 and B2 , resistor R and 1. B1 , B2 , R L
an inductor L. When the switch S is turned off :
S
R B1 B1
R
B2 S B2 S
L (1) (3/10) A
L
(2) (3/20) A
(3) (3/11) A
(4) Zero
5. A coil of inductance 8.4 mH and resistance 6 is
(1) both B1 and B2 die out promptly (1) connectedB1to a B12 V battery. The current in the
2
coil is 1A at approximately at time :
(2) both B1 and B2 die out with some delay (2) B1 B2
(1) 500 s
(3) B1 dies out promptly but B2 with some delay
u te (3) B1 B2
tit
(2) 20 s
(4) B dies out promptly but B with some delay
2 1 s (4) B2 B1
The ratio of turns in the primary and secondary t2.

In (3) 35 ms
2.
g h (4) 1 ms g ht
coils of a transformer is 20, then assuming the
transformer to be ideal the ratio of their emfs L
i
and Li
6. The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to
ew are
the ratio of the currents flowing through them
e w with
its plane and directed into the paper varies
respectively : N N
time t (in second) according to the relation :
2 1 20 1 2 1 20 1
(1) , (2) , (1) , = (5 t2 + 10 t + 1) (2)
weber ,
1 2 1 20 1 2 1 20
The magnitude of emf induced in coil at t = 2 sec
1 20 200 1 1 20 200 1
(3) , (4) , (3) is : , (4) ,
20 1 1 200 20 1 1 200
(1) 15 volt
3. A coil of area 80 square cm and 50 turns is rotating 3. 80 cm2 0.05 Tesla
with 2000 revolutions per minute about an axis (2) 30 volt 2000
perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.05 tesla.
(3) 45 volt
The maxmum value of the emf developed in it is:
(4) 10 volt
(1) 200  volt (1) 200 
7. A bicycle generator creates 2.0 V when the bicycle
10 is travelling at a speed of 10 km/hr. The emf
10
(2) volt (2) generated when the bicycle is travelling at 20 km/
3 3
hr is :
4 (1)42.5 V
(3) volt (3)
3 3
(2) 3.0 V
2 (3)2 5.0 V
(4) volt (4)
3 3
(4) 4.0 V
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8. An emf of 1.0 V is developed in the secondary coil 8. 13. The current in primary coil is reduced from 10 A to
when current in the primary coil changes from 4.0 zero uniformly in 1 millisecond. If the coeffcient of
A to 2.0 A in 1 sec. The mutual inductance of two mutual inductance is 4 henry then change in flux
coils is: linked with each turn of secondary coil which has
(1) 500
1.0turns :
(1) 1.0 H
(2) (1)
0.5– 8.0 weber
(2) 0.5 H
(3) 1.5 H (3) (2)

1.5– 80 weber
(4) 2.5 H (4) (3)

2.5– 0.08 weber
9. If the distance between two coaxial coils is 9. (4) 1.0 weber

increased then mutual inductance of a pair of coils
: 14. The current in an inductor is given by i = (4 + 10t)
(1) amp. where t is in second. The self induced emf in
(1) Increases it is 10 volt. Then the self inductance & energy
(2) stored in the inductor at t = 1 sec respectively are:
(2) Decreases
(3) (1) 2.0 H, 50 J
(3) May increase or decrease
(4) (2) 1.0 H, 98 J
(4) Neither increase nor decrease
(3) 5.0 H, 78 J
10. In electromagnetic induction the induced charge 10.
does not depend upon :
u te (4) 4.0 H, 80 J
(1) Resistance of coil s titIf the number of turns of a solenoid is becomes

15.(1)
t In four times, keeping the other factors constant, then t

(2) Change in flux
g h (2)self inductance becomes with respect to initialgh
(3) Time
Li (3)
value is :
Li
ew (1) Four times e w
(4) None of these
N (4) N
(2) One-fourth
11. A solenoid has N turns. Its self inductance is L. 11. N L
(3) Sixteen times
Then :
N 2 times
(1) (4)L Nine
(1) L  N 2
16. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed
1
(2) L  N 1
(2) L  N inside a large square current carrying (i) loop of
wire of side L (L > l). The loops are coplanar and
(3) L  N LN
(3) their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of
the system is proportional to:
(4) L  N 2 (4) L  N 2
L
12. A conducting coil of 600 turns has a self-inductance 12. (1)
l
of 108 mH. The self inductance of a second similar
coil of 500 turns will be : L2
(2)
l
(1) 130 mH (1) 130
2
(2) 155 mH 155l
(2) (3)
L
(3) 75 mH (3) 75
l
(4) 90 mH (4) (4)
90 L
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17. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the 17.21. Two circular conducting loops of radii a1 and a2
situations shown in the figure. Their mutual are placed in a plane, having a common centre.
inductance will be :
If a 1 >> a 2 , then their mutual inductance is
proportional to:
a1 a2
(1) (2)
(i)a2 (ii)
a1
(iii)
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) a22 (i) a12
(1) Maximum in situation(i) (3) (4)
a1 a2
(2) (ii)
(2) Maximum in situation (ii)
22. Two coils of self inductance 2H and 4H are placed
(3) Maximum in situation (iii) (3) (iii)
so close that the effective flux in one is completely
(4) The same in all situations (4) linked with other. The mutual inductance M
18. A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated about a 18. between
4l them is : AC O

point O in a uniform magnetic field B directed into (1) 4H
the paper. AO = I and OC = 3 l . Then: AO = I OC = 3 l :
(2) 2 2 H
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × ×
A C (3) A 2H C
× × × O× × × × × × O× × ×
× × × × × ×
u te (4) 8×H × × × × ×
23. itA coil has an inductance of 2.5 henry and a
B l 2 7 s t resistanceBofl 0.5 ohm. If the coil7 is suddenly
2
(1) e A  eO  (2) eO  eC  B l 2
n connected
(1) e e  (2) e  e  B l
2
2 2
t I 2
A
across 6.0
O
volt battery,2then the time t
O C
g h g
required for the current to rise to 0.63 of its final h
i i
 B l L L
9 9
(3) value is : (4) e  e  B l
2
(4) eC  eO
2
(3) e A  eC  4 Bl 2 e  e  4 B l 2
2 w A C 2 w C O
Ne Ne
(1) 3.5 sec
19. A steel wire of length L has a magnetic moment 19. (2)L 4.0 sec M
M. It is then bent into a semi-circular are; the
(3) 4.5 sec
magnetic moment will be :
(4) 5.0 sec
(1) M (2) 2M/ 24.(1) The
M south pole of a magnet ismove away from a
(2) 2M/
metallic ring . The direction of the induced current
(3) M/L (4) M×L (3) M/L (4) M×L
in the ring will be :
20. A rectangular coil is moving away a linear 20.
current-carrying conductor parallel to its longer (1) Clockwise
side, as shown. The direction of current induced
in the coil will be : (2) Anticlockwise
(3) May be (1)i & (2)

i
(4) None of above
25. A coil of 20  resistance and 5 Henry inductance

connect with 100 V battery. The energy stored in
coil is :
(1)
(1) Anticlockwise (1) 62.50 J
(2) (2) 75 J
(2) Clockwise
(3) Depending upon the speed of coil (3) (3) 31.25 J
(4) Current will not induce (4) (4) 125 J
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26. The minimum value of inductances which can be 3H of6H
26.31.2H,Which the following statements is correct :
obtained using three inductances of values
2Henry, 3Henry and 6 Henry is : (1) The core of a transformer is laminated so that the
(1) 1 H (1) 1 Hratio of the voltage in the primary and secondary

may be increased
(2) 1/6 H (2) 1/6 H
(2) Power on high voltage is generally transmitted over
(3) 1/3 H (3) 1/3long
H distance using high current
(4) 11 H (4) (3)11 In

H a transformer a large altermating current at low
voltage can be transformed into a small current
27. The mutual inductance of a pair of coil if a current 27.
of 3 ampere in one coil causes the flux change alternating at high voltage
6 x 10–4
6 x 10–4 weber/turn of secondary coil having 2000 (4) Hot wire ammeter can not be used to measure
turns is DC current.
(1) 14 H 32.(1) Use
14 Hof eddy currents is done in the following
(2) 40 H (2) except:

40 H
(1) Moving coil galvanometer
(3) 0.4 H (3) 0.4 H
(2) Electric brakes
(4) 2 × 10–4 H (4) 2 × 10–4 H
(3) Induction motor
28. Assertion : The induced current flows so as to 28. (4) : Dynamo
oppose the cause producing it. 33. The average emf induced in a coil when a current
Reason : Lenz's law is based on energy changes from 0 to 2A in 0.05 sec is 8 V. The
:
conversation.
u te self- inductance of the coil is :
tit(2) 0.2 H
(1)(1) 0.1 H
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
s
is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
t In (3) 0.4 H
gh (2)(4) 0.8 H
If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reasoniis g ht
(2)
L Li
not a correct explanation of the Assertion
e w (3) ew loop
34. Current i flows through a long wire. A square
(3) N
If Assertion is True but the Reason is False N
made of conducting wire held below the wire in
the same vertical plane is released and allowed
(4) Both, Assertion and Reason are false. (4) to fall under gravity. If acceleration of the loop is
a, then :
29. Assertion : There may be an induced emf in a loop 29. :
without induced current. i
Reason : Induced current depends on the :
resistance of the loop as well.
(1)(1) A current is induced in anticlockwise direction and
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
a>g
is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (2) Current is induced in the clockwise direction and a
(2) <g
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is
not a correct explanation of the Assertion (3) Current is induced in anti-clockwise direction and
a<g
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False (3) (4) No current is induced in the loop and a = g
(4) Both, Assertion and Reason are false. 35.(4) In an inductor of self - inductance L = 2 mH, current
changes with time according to relation. i = t2 e–t.
30. Flux (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 30. 10  ( )
At what time emf is zero :
10 ohm varies with time t (in sec) according to the t  = 6t2 – 5t + 1
equation:  = 6t2 – 5t + 1. What is the magnitude of (1) 4 s
t = 0.25
the induced current at t = 0.25 sec : (2) 3 s
(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.8 A (1) (3)1.22As (2) 0.8 A

(4) 1 s
(3) 0.6 A (4) 0.2 A (3) 0.6 A (4) 0.2 A
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SECTION-B SECTION-B
40. If instantaneous voltage & current characteristic
are shown in fig. Then circuit may contains :
36. In the series L-C-R circuit, the voltmeter and 36. L-C-R
ammeter readings are :
V i
t
/6
(1) Only resistance R
(2) Only inductance L

(1) v = 100 volt, l = 2 amp
(1) v = 100 volt, l = 2 amp (3) R – L
(2) v = 100 volt, l = 5 amp
(2) v = 100 volt, l = 5 amp (4) R – C
(3) v = 1000 volt, l = 2amp 41.(3) If vin= a1000 volt,

series R l–L
= 2amp
circuit voltage across resistance
is 300 volt & across inductor is 400 V then power
(4) v = 300 volt, l = 1 amp (4) v = 300 volt, l = 1 amp
factor of the circuit is
37. A step -down transformer converts a voltage of 37. (1) 0.4 2200 220
2200 volt into 220 volt in the transmission line.
u te0.6 5000
Numbers of turns in primary coil is 5000. tit(2)
n s (3) 0.8 90%
t I (4) 0.75
Efficiency of the transformer is 90% and its output
ht
8
power is 8 kilowatt. What is input power :
g h g
(1) 8 kilowatt Li (1) 8 Li
42. A graph of A.C. voltage is shown in fig. Then RMS
(2) 5 kilowatt ew (2) voltage
5 for full cycle is : e w
(3) 8.9 kilowatt
N N
(3) 8.9
V
(4) 11 kilowatt (4) 11
38. Principle of A.C. generator based on : 100 V
38.
(1) Gauss Law (1)
T/2 T tim t
(2) Coloumb’s law (2)
—100 V
(3) faraday law of electromagnetic induction
(3)
(4) Mutual inductaion
(4)
39. If A.C. voltage of 220 volt, 50 Hz is given to a circuit. (1)
39. 220100 V 50 Hz AC
volt,
Then average voltage for half cycle is :
(2) 100 2
220 2
(1) volt 220 2
 (1) (3) 100 /volt
2

220 (4) 200 volt
(2) volt 220
 43.(2) If instantaneous

volt voltage & current equation for A.C.
circuit is v = V0 sin (t – /4) & i = i0 sin (t + /4) .
440 2 The440average
2 power loss in a full cycle is :
(3) (3)
 
(1) I/2 V0 I0 (2) V0I0 / 4
(4) 0 (4) 0
(3) V0I0 (4) 0
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44. The reactance of a capacitor of capacitance C is 44.49. A coil having
C an area Ao is placed
X in a magnetic
X. If both the frequency and capacitance be field which change from B o to 4 Bo in a time
halved, then new reactance will be : interval t. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will be :
(1) X 3 AoBo
(1) X (1) – Volt
t
(2) 2X
(2) 2X AoBo
(2) Volt
(3) 4X 3t
(3) 4X 3t
(4) (3)X/4 A B Volt
(4) X/4 o o
AoBo
45. An inductor may store energy in : 45. (4) Volt
t
50.(1)For a series LCR circuit, the power loss at
(1) its electric field resonance is :
(2) its coils (2)

V2
(3)(1)  1 
L C 
(3) its magnetic field
(4) both in electric and magnetic fields (4)

(2) I2L
46. In an A.C circuit, the current flowing is I = 5 sin 46. A.C , I = 5 sin (100 t – /2)
(100 t – /2) ampere and the potential difference (3) I2R V = 200 sin (100t)
is V = 200 sin (100t) volts. The power consumption
u te
is equal to :
s tit(4) V 2
t In (1) 20 W C
ht
(1) 20 W
igh (2) 0 W g
(2) 0 W
L Li
(3) 1000 W ew (3) 1000 W
ew
N N
(4) 40 W
(4) 40 W
47. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a 47. 20 mH 100 F

resistor 50 are connected in series across a 50 V = 10 sin 314 t
source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in
the circuit is :
(1) 0.79 W
(1) 0.79 W
(2) 0.43 W
(2) 0.43 W
(3) 2.74 W
(3) 2.74 W
(4) 1.13 W (4) 1.13 W
48. Faradays's laws are consequence of conservation 48.

of :
(1)
(1) energy
(2)
(2) energy and magnetic field
(3) charge (3)
(4) magnetic field (4)
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56. Correct statement will be :
TOPIC : The p-Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17, & 18), The d-and f-Block Elements
a. Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen will be least
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24,in
negative P=31,
theirS=32, Cl=35.5,
group.
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
b. N2O will be example of sub-oxide
SECTION-A SECTION-A
c. In the see-saw gemetory of SF 4, lone pair
51. The hydrolysis of NCl3 by water produces : 51. NCl3occupies equatorial position
(1) HNO2 and HCl (1) HNO2 HCl
d. On partial hydrolysis of 1 mole of Marshells
(2) NH2NH2 and HCl (2) NH NH12 mole
acid,
2
HClof H O will obtained.
2 2
(3) NH3 and HOCl (3) NH3 HOCl
(1) a and b only
(4) NH2Cl and HOCl (4) NH2Cl HOCl
(2) a, b and c only
52. Given are H3PO3, H3PO4 and H4P2O7. Which of the 52. H3PO3, H3PO4 H4P2O7
above oxoacids results into one series of salts : (3) b and c only
(1) H4P2O7 (4) Ha,4Pc2O

(1) and
7
d only
(2) H3PO3 57. (2) H3PO
Select the
3 incorrect statement about the following:
(3) H3PO4 (3) H3PO4

(1) O3 is used as germicide for purification of water
(4) None of these (4)
(2) In O3, O–O bond length is shorter than that of
53. After reaction with base which of the following 53. molecular oxygen
oxides gives more than one type of salts :
u te
(1) N O
2 5
s tit (3) O3 molecule is angular in shape
(1) N2O 5
(2) N O
2 3 t In (2) N O of these
(4) None
2 3
t
g h 58. (3)WhenN O PCl reacts with H SO , sulphuryl chloridegh
(3) N O
2 4
L i 2 4 5 2 4
L i
(SO Cl ) is formed. This shows that sulphuric acid:
(4)
(4) All of these
ew 2 2
e w
54. Ncontains
Which pair of oxyacids of phosphorus 54. (1) has great affinity for water N
P–H
P–H bonds : (2) has two hydroxyl groups in its structure
(1) H3PO4, H3PO3 (1) H3PO4, H3PO3
(3) is a derivative of SO2
(2) H3PO5, H4P2O7 (2) H3PO5, H4P2O7
(4) None of the above
(3) H3PO3, H3PO2 (3) H3PO3, H3PO2
59. The number of -bond and basicity in thiosulphuric
(4) H3PO2, HPO3 (4) H3PO2, HPO3
acid are respectively :
55. Match List I with List II and select the correct 55. I II
answer using the codes given below the lists (1) 2 and 2
List I List II I 1
(2) 2 and II
(A) Peroxide (1) C3O2 (A)

(3) 1 and 2 (1) C3O2
(B) Superoxide (2) PbO2 (B) (2) PbO2

(4) 4 and 2
(C) Dioxide (3) KO2 (C) (3) KO2
60. In trimeric structure of SO3 the number and type
(D) Suboxide (4) H2O2 (D) (4) H2O2
of -bond present :
Codes : :
(1) 3 bond (3p–p + 3 p–d)
(1) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 (1) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
(2) 8 bond (6p–p + 6 p–d)
(2) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4 (2) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
6 bond
(3) A-4
(3) B-2(6p–p
C-3 + 0 D-1
p–d)
(3) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
(4) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 (4) 6 bond
(4) A-4 B-1(0p–p
C-2 + 6 D-3
p–d)
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61. Which of the following is incorrect for interhalogen 61.65. Commericial source of helium is :
compound: (1) Natural gases
(1) ICl is more reactive than I2 (2) Air
(1) ICl , I2
(2) In BrF 3 molecule the lone pair occupies axial (3) Radio active minerals
(2) BrF3
position (4) None of these
(3) Among interhalogen compounds maximum number (3)
66. Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give.
of atoms are present in iodine fluoride.
(1) HOI
(4) All of these (4)(2) HI
62. Select the correct order for the given : 62. (3) HOIO2
a. ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4– – Bond angle a. (4)ClO
HOIO
2
–
< ClO
3
3
–
< ClO4– –
b. ClO– < ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4– – Stability in aqu. 67. Which of the following order is not correct :
b. ClO– < ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4– –
medium (1) Cl3– > Br3– >I3– Stability
c. ClO– < ClO2– < ClO4– – Increasing oxidation no. (2) HCl > HBr > HI > HF Vapour pressure
c. ClO– < ClO2– < ClO4– –
d. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 – Oxidising (3) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO oxidising power
power d. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 –
(4) All of these
(1) a and d 68.(1)Which
a d
fluoride is isostructural with ICl – : 2
(2) a, b and c
u te
(2)(1)a, XeF
b 4 c
(3) b and d
s tit(2)b XeFd
(3) 6
t In (4)(3) XeFd
ht
2
(4) Only d
igh 63. ICl(4) XeF 2–
g
Li
8
63. In the hydrolysis reaction of ICl , the hybridisation
3 L 3
69. XeF act as fluoride acceptor with:
w
and oxidation state of central element in oxoanion 4
w
will be : Ne (1) PF
(1) sp3d –1
5 N e
(1) sp3d and –1 (2) SbF5
(2)(3)sp3KF +3
(2) sp3 and +3
(3) sp3 and –1 (3)(4)sp3All of–1

these
70. The2number of S–O–S bond in SO3 in solid state :
(4) sp2 and +1 (4) sp +1
(1) three
64. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect 64. SO2
(2) four
for SO2 gas :
a. (3) one
a. It acts as dry bleacher
b. (4)
SOzero
2
S
b. In the formation of SO2, S, utelises its 2nd
71. Group 16 element have lower value of first
excited state
ionisation enthalpy as compared to group 15
c. It has one p–d and one p–p along with –d : p–p
c. element pbecause -
two -bond (1) half filled p-orbital in group 15 element are more
d.
stable.
d. It act as mixed anhydride
(1) (2)
a, b,
group d16 element have smaller size than group 15
(1) a, b, and d elements
(2) a, c d
(2) a, c and d (3) group 16 elements contain double bond while group
(3) c 15 delement have triple bond
(3) c and d only
(4) group 16 element have more number of electrons
(4) Only c (4) c
in p-orbital.
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72. Choose the incorrect statement regarding group 72.78. The noble gas which forms maximum number of
16th : compounds is
(1) All the hydrides except water possess reducing (1)
(1) Ar
property
(2) H2O H2Te
(2) He
(2) The acidic character increases from H2O to H2Te
(3) (3)SFXe
(3) SF6 is exceptionally stable for steric reasons 6
(4) None of these (4) (4) Ne
73. The incorrect statement regarding tetrahalide of 73.79. Among the fluorides below,
16 the one which does
group 16th is : not exist is
(1) SF4 SeF4
(1) XeF4
(1) SF4 is a gas and SeF4 is a liquid
(2) (2) HeF sp3d
3
(2) These fluorides have sp d hybridisation 4
(3) (3)TeF
SF4 4
(3) TeF4 is a solid
(4) (4) CF4
(4) Geometry of halide is "see saw" and also one lone
pair is present at the axial position. 80. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent in its reaction with :
74. Which of the following formula represent fuming 74. (1) Ba(OH)2
sulphuric acid (oleum) :
(2) H2C2O4
(1) H2S2O4 (1) H2S2O4
(3) KOH
(2) H2SO5 (2) H2SO5
u te (4) Zn
titWhich of the following process is not feasible
(3) H2S2O7 (3) H2S2O7
(4) H S O s
81.
n (4)spontaneously
2 2 8
t I HSO
ht
2 2 8
:
75. High concentration of ozone can be dangerously h 75.
g g
explosive because : Li (1) F + H O  HF + O 2 2 Li 2
(1) Ozone is thermodynamically unstable e

w (2) Cl + H O  HCl + HOCI e w
N (1) 2
N2
(2) Formation of oxygen from ozone is exothermic (3) Br + H O  HBr + HOBr

(2) O3 2O2 2
reaction
(4) I2 + H2O  HI + HOI
(3)
(3) Gibbs energy change for conversion of ozone into
oxygen is large negative 82. Which of the following process can not give Cl,
gas :
(4) All (4)
(1) Electrolysis of aqueous NaCI
76. Which of the following bonds has the highest 76.
energy : (2) Oxidation of Conc. HCl by KMnO4
(1) Se – Se
(1) Se – Se (3) Oxidation of Conc., HCl by MnO2
(2)(4)Te By
– Te
the reaction of NaCl and Conc. H2SO4
(2) Te – Te
(3) S – S 83.(3)Select
S – S inter halogen compound which is/are not
exist :
(4) O – O (4) O – O
i. IF3 ii. CIF7
77. Among H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te the one with 77. H2O, H2S, H2Se H2Te
highest boiling point is : iii. CIF3 iv. BrF4
(1) H2O
(1) H2O because of hydrogen bonding (1) i and iii
(2) H2Te
(2) H2Te because of higher molecular weight (2) ii and iv
(3)(3)H2S
ii only
(3) H2S because of higher molecular weight
(4) H2Se
(4) H2Se because of lower molecular weight (4) ii and iii
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84. When chlorine is passed slow over dry slaked lime 84.89. Among d-block elements,
Ca(OH)2 the most abundant
Ca(OH)2 at room temperature, the main product is : element in earth crust belongs to :
(1) CaCl2 only (1) (1) 4 d-series
CaCl2
(2) CaOCl2 (2) (2)

CaOCl
3 d-series
2
(3) Ca(ClO2)2 (3) (3)

Ca(ClO )
5 d-series
2 2
(4) Ca(OCl)2 only (4) (4) 6 d-series

Ca(OCl)2
85. Nonpolar interhalogen fluoride is : 85.90. The correct order of ionic radii of Ce, La, Pm and
(1) ClF3 (1) Yb in +3 oxidation state is :

ClF 3
3+
(2) (1)
BrFLa < Pm 3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+
(2) BrF5 5
(2) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+

(3) I2Cl6 (3) I2Cl6
(3) Yb3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < La3+
(4) IF7 (4) IF7
(4) Yb3+ < Pm 3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
SECTION-B SECTION-B
91. Which is correct order of stability of halides of
86. Which order is wrong : 86. elements :
(a) Electron Affinity order F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (a)(1) PbCl2 < SnCl2F<2 GeCl
> Cl2 2><Br
SiCl>2 I
2 2
(2) NF3 > NCl3 > NBr3> NI3

(b) Thermal stability HF > HCl > HBr > HI
u te (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) Oxidising nature HClO < HClO < HClO < HClO
2 s
3
tit 4 (c)
(3) GeCl2 < SnCl2 < PbCl2 < SiCl2
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
t In (4) PbCl2 < GeCl2 < SiCl2 < SnCl2

ht
– – – –
(d) Stability order ClO < ClO < ClO < ClO
gh
2 3 4 (d) ClO– < ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4–
i 92. The atomic number of V, Cr, Mn and Fe are g
(1) a and c L (1) respectively
a c 23, 24, 25 and 26. Which one of these Li
w w
Ne e
may be expected to have the highest second
(2) b and d (2) ionisation
b d enthalpy : N
(3) c and d (3) (1)
c V d
(4) a and b (2) Cr

(4) a b
(3) Mn
87. By which of the following reaction, HI is not
87. HI
obtained : (4) Fe
93.(1) Which the following statement is not correct :

H2 + I2of
(1) H2 + I2 
(2) PI3 + H2O  (2) (1)

PI3La(OH)
+ H 2O 
3
is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(2) In lanthanoid series, ionic radius of La +3 ion
(3) NaI + H3PO4  + H3PO4 
(3) NaIdecreases
(3) La is an elements of transition series rather than
(4) NaI + Conc. H2SO4  (4) NaI + Conc. H2SO4 
lanthanoid series
88. Which of the following acid can form, two type of 88. (4) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of
salts: lanthanoid contration
(1) HF
(1) HF 94. In Cr2O72– ............. :
(2) (1)
HCl4 Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(2) HCl
(3) (2) 6 Cr–O bonds are equivalent
HNO 3
(3) HNO3 (3) All Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(4) H3PO2
(4) H3PO2 (4) None of these
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95. Most of the transition metal compounds are 95. TOPIC : Human Health and Disease, Strategies for Enh
coloured generally due to :
(1) d-d Welfare + Previous Topics
(1) d-d transition
(2) BOTANY
(2) small size
(3) variable oxidation state (3) SECTION–A
101. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial
96. Which of the following statement concerning 96. infarction in general, he is treated with :
lanthanide elements is false :
(1) (1) Cyclosporin - A
(1) All lanthanides are highly dense metals
(2) More characteristic oxidation state of lanthanide (2) +3
(2) Statins
elements is +3 (3)
(3) Lanthanides are separated from one another by (3) Penicillin
ion exchange method
(4) (4) Streptokinase
(4) Ionic radii of trivalent lanthandies steadily increases
with increase in the atomic number. 102. In our stomach, the Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) play
97. The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+ 97. Y3+very
, La3+beneficial
, Eu3+ Lu 3+
role in :
and Lu3+ is (Atomic nos. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, (Atomic nos. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu = 71):
(1) Production of butter from milk
Lu = 71):
(1) Y3+ < La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+
(1) Y3+ < La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ (2) Prohibit disease causing microbes.
(2) Y3+ < Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+
(2) Y3+ < Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ (3) Digestion of casein of milk
(3) Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ < Y3+
u te (3) Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ < Y3+
(4) Neutrilisation of HCl of gastric juice
tit La < Eu < Lu < Y
(4) 3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
3+ 3+
(4) La < Eu < Lu < Y 3+ 3+
s
In103. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a :
Four successive members of the first row transition t98.
ht
98.
elements are listed below with their atomic g h (1) Biological process g
numbers. Which one of them is expected to have Li Li
the highest third ionisation enthalpy : ew (2) Physical process
e w
(1) Vanadium (Z = 23)
N (1) Vanadium (Z = 23) N
(3) Mechanical process
(2) Chromium (Z = 24)
(2) Chromium (Z = 24)
(3) Manganese (Z = 25) (3)(4)Manganese
Chemical (Z
process
= 25)
(4) Iron (Z = 26) (4)Microbes

104. Iron (Z = 26)
are not used in :
99. More number of oxidation sates are exhibited by 99.
the actinoids than by the lanathanoids. The main I. Primary treatment of sewage
reason for this is :
(1) More active nature of the actinoids (1)II. Secondary treatment of sewage
(2) More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals (2)III.

5f Anaerobic
6d 4f 5d
sludge digesters
than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
IV. Production of biogas
(3) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6 d orbitals
(3) 5f 6d 4f 5d
than that of between 4f and 5d orbitals
Choose the correct option.
(4) Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than
that of the corresponding actionoids. (4)(1) I, II and III
100. Which one of the following ions is the most stable 100.
in aqueous solution : (2) I, III and IV
(At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25) (At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
(3) II, III and IV
(1) V3+ (2) Ti3+ (1) V3+ (2) Ti3+
(4) Only I
(3) Mn3+ (4) Cr3+ (3) Mn3+ (4) Cr3+
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105. The first antibiotic was discovered from 111. Flocs are related with :
105.
(1) Sewage treatment
(1) Algae (1)
(2) Control for radioactive pollution
(2) Fungi (2) (3) Control for air pollution
(3) Bacteria (3) (4) Tissue culture

112. Which one of the following are correct statements
(4) Actinomyces (4) with reference to the given diagram :
106. Biopesticides are 106.
(1) The chemicals which are used to destroy the pests (1)
(2) The living organism or their products which are used (2)
for pest control
(3) The organisms which destroy the crops (3)
107. A free – living fungi that are very common in the 107.
root ecosystems and are effectively used as
Biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens is :
(1) All are infectious agent
(1) Trichophyton
u te
(1)
tit(3) None are infectious agent
(2) Some are infectious agent
(2) Microsporum s(2)
t In (4) All are useful agent for human welfare
(3) Trichoderma
gh 113. Probiotics are :
(3)
g ht
Li Li
(4) Pencillium (4)
ew (1) cancer inducing microbes
ew
108. Which one of the following are notNbacterial 108. (2) new kind of food allergens N
disease:
(1) (3) live microbial food supplement
(1) Leprosy
(2) (4) safe antibiotics.
(2) Plague 114. Which one of the following are correct among
(3) Azotobacter, Anabaena and Nostoc :
(3) Whooping cough
(4) (a) All are biofertilizer
(4) None of these
(b) All are unicellular organism
109. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents : 109.
(c) All are member of monera
(1) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus (1) (d) All are heterotrophic organism
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, (2) (1) a, b, c
Aphids
(2) Only a
(3)
(3) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis (3) Only b, c
(4) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma (4)
(4) Only a, d
110. The adenovirus causes directly : 110.
115. A genetically engineered micro-organism used
successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a
(1) Respiratory infections (1) species of :
(2) Heart infections (2) (1) Trichoderma

(2) Xanthomonas
(3) Cancer (3)
(3) Bacillus
(4) Kidney infections (4)
(4) Pseudomonas
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116. What is the purpose of Yamuna Action Plan : 122. Which of the following alcoholic beverages is/
116.
are produced by distillation of the fermented
(1) To build up of large number of dam (1) broth:
(2) More pisciculture in yamuna river (2) (1) Brandy and beer
(3) (2) Wine andSTP
rum
(3) To build up a large number of STP
(4) (3) Whisky and brandy
(4) To build up more tourist place near river
(4) Wine and beer
117. Which of the following statements is not correct 117.
123. Penicillin was discovered by chance from
about microbes :
Penicillium notatum, which was seen to grow in
(1) Microbes cause a large number of diseases in (1)
an unwashed culture plate of Staphylococci.
human beings. Staphylococci is a :
(2)
(2) Microbes also cause diseases in plants and (1) Bacteria
animals.
(3) (2) Algae
(3) All microbes are harmful.
(3) Fungus
(4) Microbes can be grown in nutritive media to form (4)
colonies that can be seen with naked eyes. (4) Virus
124. Choose the drug correctly matched with its
118. What is the scientific name of baker's yeast : 118. producer and function:
(1) Saccharomyces octosporus (1) (1) Blood pressure controlling agent  Streptokinase
 produced by fungus
(2) Schizosaccharomyces ludwigii (2) (2) Immunosuppressant agent  Streptokinase 
u te produced by bacteria
tit (3) Blood-cholesterol lowering agent  Statins 
(3) Schizosaccharomyces octosporus (3)
s
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
t In (4) produced by yeast
119. A south Indian traditional drink 'Toddy' is a h 119.
g (4) Clot buster  Cyclosporin A  produced by g ht
fermentation product of : Li fungus Li
(1) Palm sap ew (1)
125. The chemical substances which are producedew by
N N
(2) some microbes and can kill or retard the growth
(2) Rice broth of other disease causing microbes, are known
(3) as :
(3) Coconut milk
(4) Bamboo shoot (4) (1) interferons
(2) antibodies
120. Which of the following cheese is ripened by using 120.
(3) antibiotics
a specific fungus for imparting a particular flavour:
(4) toxins
(1) Swiss cheese (1)
126. Match the industrial product listed under column
(2) Roquefort cheese (2) 'A' with their respective microbial producers listed
column 'B' :
(3) Cottage cheese (3)
Column A Column B
(4) Whey cheese (4) i. Citric acid M. Clostridium
121. The metabolic reaction which results in the 121. ii. Acetic acid N. Saccharomyces
production of ethanol by yeast is called : iii. Butyric acid O. Aspergillus
(1) fermentation (1) iv. Ethanol P. Acetobactor

(1) i -M; ii-P; iii-N; iv-O
(2) putrefaction (2)
(2) i-O; ii-P; iii-M; iv-N
(3) respiration (3)
(3) i-M; ii-P; iii-O; iv-N
(4) degradation (4) (4) i-P; ii-O; iii-M; iv-N
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127. The bottled fruit juices bought from the market 132. The anaerobic biological treatment of the sludge
127.
are clearer than those made at home because : produces an inflammable gas. What is the
(1) they are double filtered (1) composition of this gas :

(2) (1) CH4 + H2S + CO2
(2) they are triple distilled
(3) (2) CH4 + NO2 + CO2
(3) clarified by the use of pectinases and proteases
(4) (3) CH + H S + CO
4 2
(4) clarified by the use of amylases and hydrolases
(4) CH4 + SO2 + CO
128. Which of the following scientist(s) was/were 128.
awarded the Nobel Prize in 1945 for the discovery 133. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic fungal association with
of first antibiotic, extensively used to treat roots of few plants. How is it beneficial to the plant:
American soldiers wounded in World War II : (1) Mycorrhiza provides phosphorus to the plants from
(1) Alexander Fleming (1) the soil.
(2) Ernest Chain (2) (2) Make the plant resistant to root-borne pathogen.
(3) Howard Florey (3) (3) Increase tolerance to salinity and drought.
(4) All of the above (4)
(4) All of the above
129. Match the column with correct options : 129.
134. Sachets of dried spores was given to a farmer
Column A Column B which were to be mixed with water and sprayed
on to vulnerable plants such as brassicas and fruit
(i) Lady bird (a) Methanobacterium
(i) trees, which were being(a) eaten by the butterfly
(ii) Mycorrhiza (b) Trichoderma
u te larvae. The toxin was released in the gut of the
(ii) larvae and killed them,
(b) but left the other insects
(iii) Biological control (c) Aphids s tit(iii) unharmed. What did(c) the sachet contain :
(iv) Biogas (d) Glomus t In (1) Dried spores of bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis t
g h (iv) (2) Dried spores of fungus (d)
gh
(1) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a Li (1) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a
Trichoderma sps.
Li
w (3) Dried spores of baculoviruses w
(2) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
Ne (2) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
Ne
(4) Dried spores of bacteria Agrobacterium
(3) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c (3) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c
135. Which of the following statements is incorrect with
(4) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d (4) i - c, ii - b, to
reference iii -Nucleopolyhedrovirus
a, iv - d :
130. Match the following 130. (1) Used as biological control agents
a. Oscillatoria i. free living N2 fixer (a) (i) N2
(2) Attack insects and other arthropods
b. Trichoderma ii. Free living fungi (b) (ii)
(3) Are species specific and narrow spectrum
c. Rhizobium iii. N2–fixer cynobacteria (c) (iii) N2 –
d. Azotobacter iv. Symbiotic N2 fixer (d) (4) Have no negative
(iv) impact N
on plants, mammals,
2
(1) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i (1) a -birds,

iii, b -fish
ii, cor even
- iv, d - on
i target insects.
(2) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i (2) a - ii, b - iii, c - SECTION–B
iv, d - i
(3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i 136.(3)Which
a - iv,one
b - of
iii, the
c - ii,following
d-i is incorrect statement
(4) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii (4) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii
(1) Maize, Jowar and Bajra are collectively called
131. BOD is the measure of the organic matter present 131. Millets
in the water. During the biological treatment of
the sewage water, the process is carried out till : (2) Taichung Native-1 from Srilanka, it is a maize
(1) variety.
(1) BOD is elevated
(2) (3) Red rot of sugarcane caused by fungus
(2) BOD is increased exponentially
(3)
(3) BOD is reduced (4) Crop loss can often be significant upto 20-30% due
(4)
(4) BOD becomes zero to pathogens.
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137. Breeding crops with higher level of vitamin, 143. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
137.
minerals, higher protein healthier fat is called : (1) TMV - retrovirus
(1) Transmutation (1) (2) LAB - Microbes

(3) Toddy - Fermentation by
(2) Biofortification (2) Anchylostoma
(3) Biomagnification (3) (4) Fermentation - Bacteria
(4) Transplantation (4) Treatment of sewage is done by microbes which
144.
138. Which one of the following is developed by 138. are naturally present in it. These microbes are
mutation breeding : (1) mycoplasma
(1) Mungbean (1)
(2) autotrophic bacteria
(2) Parbhani kranti (2)
(3) heterotrophic bacteria
(3) Hybrid maize (3)
(4) Atlas 66 (4) prions
(4) 66
139. 24 chromosomes containing maize plant are 145.
139. 24 The part of primary treatment of sewage that is
developed through tissue culture. A part of this further taken for secondary treatment is
plant used as explant and scientist developed 1000
plant with very short duration of time. What is the (1) primary sludge
number of plant in which 24 chromosomes are 1000 24
present : (2) secondary sludge
(1) 900 (2) 500 (1) (3)900effluent (2) 500
(3) 750 (4) 1000
u te (3) (4)750activated sludge
(4) 1000
i t
t The correct order of tanks used in treatment of
140. Which one of the following is the incorrect match 140. s
146.
t In sewage in a sewage treatment plant is
with reference to biofortified crops
g h g ht
(1) Atlas 66 - High fats content Li (1) L i
(1) primary settling tank  aeration tank  anaerobic
w sludge digesters  secondary settling tankw
(2) Spinach
N e
- Calcium enrich (2) e
N digesters
(2) primary settling tank  anaerobic sludge
(3) Bathua - Calcium enrich (3)  aeration tank  secondary settling tank
(3) primary settling tank  aeration tank  secondary
(4) Carrots - Vitamin A enrich (4) A
settling tank  anaerobic sludge digesters
141. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with Azolla 141. (4) primary settling tank  anaerobic sludge digesters
in rice fields is :  aeration tank  secondary settling tank 
filtration tank
(1) Frankia (1)
147. Lady bird are useful to get rid of
(2) Tolypothrix (2) (1) bacteria
(3) Spirulina (3) (2) fungi

(3) aphids
(4) Anabaena (4)
(4) all of these
142. Full form of IPM 142. IPM
148. Microbe used to control butterfly catterpillars is
(1) Indian Pest Management
(1) Indian Pest Management (1) Escherichia coli
(2) Integrated Pest Management
(2) Integrated Pest Management (2) Salmonella typhi
(3) Indian Power Management
(3) Indian Power Management (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Indian Petrol Management
(4) Indian Petrol Management (4) Bacillus cereus
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149. How many matching are correct : 149.
154. An antibody molecule have
(a) Citric acid – Fungus (a) –
(1) 3 light chain and 1 heavy chain
(b) Yeast – Alchohol (b) –
(2) 1 light chain and 3 heavy chain
(c) Cyclosporin A – Virus (c) A –
(d) Statins – Bacteria (d)(3) 2 light chain and 2 heavy
– chain
(1) 4 (1) (4)4 2 light chain and 4 heavy chain
(2) 3 (2) 3
155. The exaggerated response of the immune system
(3) 2 (3) to2 certain antigens present in the environment is
(4) 1 (4) called
1
150. Which industrial products are not synthesised 150. (1) Immunity
directly from microbes:
(2) Passive immunity
I. Antibiotics
I.
(3) Innate immunity
II. Fermented beverages
II.
(4) Allergy
III. Egg
III.
156. Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid
IV. Honey IV.
organ
Choose the correct option.
(1) Peyer's patches
(1) I, II, III and IV
u te
(1) I, II, III IV
tit
(2) II, III and IV (2) Appendix
(2) II, III IV
s
(3) I, III and IV
t In (3) Tonsils
(3) I, III IV
(4) III and IV gh (4) Bone marrow
g ht
Li (4) III IV
Li
157. Ringworms is caused by which
ZOOLOGY
ew ZOOLOGY
ew
SECTION–A N (1) Bacteria SECTION–A N
151. The term 'immunity' refers to 151. (2) Helminths
(1) A fatal disease (1) (3) Viruses
(2) Ability of the parasite to survive within a host (2)
(4) Fungus
(3) Ability of the host to fight the disease causing (3)
organisms conferred by the immune system 158. Fertilisation of malaria parasite occurs where :
(4) All of the above
(4) (1) Man
152. Which of the following is the correct increasing
152.
order of immunoglobulin percentage in human (2) Mosquito
blood :
(1) IgD < IgE < IgM < IgA < IgG (1) (3)
IgDHousefly
< IgE < IgM < IgA < IgG
(2) IgE < IgD < IgM < IgA < IgG (2) (4)
IgE Butterfly
< IgD < IgM < IgA < IgG
(3) IgG < IgA < IgM < IgD < IgE (3) IgG < IgA < IgM < IgD < IgE
159. Cell mediated immunity is elicited by which
(4) IgE < IgD < IgA < IgM < IgG (4) IgE < IgD < IgA < IgM < IgG
153. Acquired Immunity is 153. (1) B lymphocyte
(1) Pathogen specific (1)
(2) Neutrophil
(2) Non specific (2)
(3) Characterised by memory (3) (3) T lymphocyte
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) (4)

1 Mast
3 cell
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160. Houseflies act as mechanical carriers for : 166. Which one of the following is not a type of physical
160.
carcinogenic agent :
(1) HIV (1) HIV
(1) X-rays
(2) Filariasis (2) (2) Gamma rays
(3) Amoebiasis (3) (3) UV rays

(4) None of these
(4) Malaria (4)
167. Marijuana is obtained from the fresh flowers of
161. Which one of the following is a kind of lymphoid 161.
which plant :
tissue :
(1) (1)CTCannabis sativa
(1) CT
(2) (2)MALT
Ocimum sanctum
(2) MALT
(3) Papaver somniferum
(3) RTI
(3) RTI
(4) Datura
(4) TCT (4) TCT
168. Which is responsible for the cirrhosis of liver :
162. Which of the following is a pair of bacterial dis- 162.
ease: (1) Sugar
(1) AIDS
(1) Common cold, AIDS (2) Hypercholesteremia
(2)
(2) Dysentary, common cold (3) Alcohol
u te (3)
t(4)it AIDS
(3) Typhoid, tuberculosis (4) Vitamin
s
(4) Ringworm, AIDS
t In169. Intestinal perforation may occur in severe cases t
gh 163. gh
of
163. In which type of barriers under innate immunity
i i
do the skin and mucus membrane belong: L (1) Dysentery L
w w
(1) Cellular barriers Ne (1) (2) Malaria Ne
(2) Physiological barriers (2) (3) Typhoid
(3) Physical barriers (3) (4) Both 1 and 3
(4) Cytokine barriers 170. Which of the following is incorrect for innate
(4)
immunity
164. If a person shows the production of interferons in 164. (1) Act as barriers
his body, chances are that he is not suffering from:
(2) Can phagocytose pathogens irrespective of
(1) Polio (1) antigenic specificity
(3) Is characterised by memory
(2) Diphtheria (2)
(4) Is present at the time of birth
(3) Plague (3)
171. Which of the following is correct for auto-immunity
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
(1) Memory based innate immunity
165. Treatment of snake bite by antivenin is an example 165.
of :
(1) (2) Based on the ability to differentiate pathogens from
(1) Artificially acquired active immunity self cells
(2)
(2) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(3) Allergy is a type of auto-immune disease
(3) Naturally acquired active immunity (3)
(4) Naturally acquired passive immunity (4) (4) Pneumonia fever is an auto-immune disease
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172. HIV enters into macrophages and produce viral 178.
172. Main source of infection of amoebiasis is
HIV
DNA by which enzyme (1) mosquitoe bite
DNA
(1) Hydrolytic enzyme (1) (2) contaminated water and food by faecal matter
(2) Transcriptase (2) (3) droplets ofnasal discharge of infected person
(4) all of these
(3) Pepsin (3)
179. For controlling mosquito vectors we introduced a
(4) Reverse transcriptase (4) organism in ponds that feed on mosquito larvae
173. Which of the following disease is not spread by this organism is a :
173.
mosquito (1) Fishes like Gambusia
(1)
(1) Malaria (2) Birds like Gambusia
(2)
(2) Filariasis (3) Reptiles like Gambusia
(3) Amoebiasis (3) (4) Amphibian like Gambusia
(4) Dengue (4) The -interferon called as :

180.
174. What causes shivering in malaria : 174. (1) Biological attackers for pathogen
(2) Immunity suppressor

(1) Toxin released by breakdown of infected RBC (1) RBC
u te (3) Biological response modifiers
tit(4) Anti-allergic
(2) Signet ring stage (2)
s
(3) Amoeboid stage
t In181.
(3)
Which one of the following is not a species of t
g h malaria causing Plasmodium : g h
(4) Gametocyte Li (4)
L i
a. P. falciparum
w w
Ne the Ne
175. Which of the following drug is used to reduce 175.
b. P. somniferum
symptoms of allergy :
c. P. belladona
(1) Histamine, Serotonin, Steroid (1) d. P. malayi
(2) Anti - histamine, Serotonin, Steroid (2) (1) Only b, c
(3) Anti-histamine, Adrenalin, Steroid (3) (2) b, c, d
(4) Adrenalin, Histamine, Steroid (4) (3) a, b, d

(4) Only c, d
176. Metastasis is the most feared property of : 176.
182. How m any of the following are congenital disease
(1) AIDS (1)
a. Haemophilia
(2) Benign Tumors (2)
b. Typhoid
(3) Malignant tumors (3)
c. AIDS
(4) Common cold (4)
d. Pneumonia
177. During multiple surgery what is the drug given to 177.
patient by doctor : e. Malaria
(1) Morphine (1) (1) 2
(2) Cocaine (2) (2) 3
(3) Charas (3) (3) 4
(4) Cellulose (4) (4) 1

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183. The plasmodium parasite reproduce in liver and 187. Which one of the following
183. RBCis the correct match:
RBC by which mode respectively : (1) Wombat – True Placenta
(1) Sexually, Asexually (2) Bandicoot – True Placenta

(1) ,
(3) Lemur – True Placenta
(2) Asexually, Asexually (2) ,
(4) Darwin finches – Convergent evolution
(3) Sexually, Sexually (3) ,
188. Which one of the following sequences was
(4) Asexually, Sexually (4) proposed, by Darwin and Wallace for organic
evolution :
184. Widal test is the confirmation test for 184.
(1) Natural selection, variations, constancy of
(1) Malaria (1) population size, over production
(2) Pneumonia (2) (2) Variations, constancy of population size,
(3) Common cold (3) overproduction, natural selection
(4) Typhoid (4) (3) Overproduction, constancy of population size,

variations, natural selection
185. Which of the following is an allergen 185.
(4) Variations, natural selection, overproduction,
(a) pollens (a) constancy of population size
(b) dust 189.

(b)According to Hardy-Weinberg’s law, if the
homozygous recessive allele frequency of given
(c) mites in dust
u te
(c) species in a population, is 16%, then find out the
tit
frequency of dominant allele. Also calculate the
(d) animal dander (d)
s percentage of heterozygous individuals in the
(1) Only a,b, d
t In (1) population.
a,b, d
gh (2)(1) Frequency of dom inant allele 0.4, % of

g ht
(2) Only a,c,d
Li a,c,d
heterozygous individuals 16% Li
(3) Only b,c,d
ew (3) (2) Frequency
b,c,d of dom inant allele 0.4, % of ew
(4) all of these N (4)
heterozygous individuals 60% N
(3) Frequency of dom inant allele 0.6, % of
SECTION–B SECTION–B
heterozygous individuals 60%
186. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect : 186. (4) Frequency of dom inant allele 0.6, % of
heterozygous individuals 48%
i. Homo erectus fossils discovered in Java i.
190. How many matching are correct :
ii. The Neanderthal man probably lived in East ii.
a. First cellular forms of – 2000 mya
and central Asia life appeared
iii. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by iii. b. Invertebrates – 5000 mya
ability of defend itself c. Sea weeds – 320 mya
iv. Industrial melanism was highlighted in Biston iv. d. Jaw less fish – 350 mya
betularia e. Dinosaurs disapeared – 165 mya
from earth.
(1) i and ii only (1) i ii
(1) 4
(2) iii and iv only (2) iii iv
(2) 3
(3) iii only (3) iii
(3) 2
(4) i, ii, iii and iv (4) (4)i, ii,1 iii iv
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191. Which of the following plant have hallucinogenic 191.
197. Opioids receptors are present in the body in
property
(1) Lungs
(1) Datura (1)
(2) Central nervous system
(2) Atropa belladona (2)
(3) Gastrointestinal tract
(3) Erythroxylum coca (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3
(4) all of these (4)
198. Chemical name of heroine or smack is
192. Nicotine stimulates which gland of body 192.
(1) triacetyl morphine
(1) pituitary gland (1)
(2) diacetyl morphine
(2) thyroid gland (2)
(3) dimethyl morphine
(3) adrenal gland (3)
(4) dihydroxymorphine
(4) prostate gland (4)
199. Morphine is obtained from which plant
193. For diagnosis of cancer X-rays are used in : 193. X- :
(1) Pisum sativum
(a) CT (a) CT
(b) MRI (b)(2)MRIMangifera indica
(c) Radiography (c) (3) Terminalia arjuna

(1) Only c (1) (4) Papaver
c
u te somniferum
(2) a, b
tit (2) a, b
200. Smack acts on body as a
s
(3) a, b, c
t In (3) a, b, c
(1) immunomodulator
(4) a, c
gh
(4) a, c
(2) depressent g ht
i
194. The Anxiety, Shakiness, Nausea are symptomsLof: 194. Li
ew (3) antidepressent
ew
(1) Withdrawal syndrome N (1) (4) bronchodilator N
(2) Turners syndrome (2)
(3) Down syndrome (3)
(4) Ringworms (4)
195. The contact inhibition is: 195.
(1) Only property of normal cells (1)
(2) Only property of cancerous cells (2)
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Property of HIV infected cell (4) HIV
196. Common approach for cancer treatment is 196.
(1) Surgery (1)
(2) Radiation therapy (2)
(3) Immunotherapy (3)
(4) All of these (4)
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NEW LIGHT
FULL SYLLAB
DATE DAY
16-Aug MONDAY PHYSICS MOD
17-Aug TUESDAY NEET MODEL
18-Aug WEDNESDAY SBRT
20-Aug FRIDAY SBRT
21-Aug SATURDAY NEET MODEL
24-Aug
e TUESDAY NEET MODEL
t
it tu
Ins 25-Aug WEDNESDAY SBRT
g ht 27-Aug FRIDAY NEET MODELg ht

Li Li
ew ew
N 28-Aug SATURDAY NEET
N MODEL
31-Aug TUESDAY NEET MODEL
2-Sep THURSADY BIO MODEL-N
3-Sep FRIDAY NEET MODEL
6-Sep MONDAY NEET MODEL
8-Sep WEDNESDAY NEET MODEL
10-Sep FRIDAY NEET MODEL
Contact Info :
117 / N / 57, Behind Kulwan
Kanpur, Uttar Pra
NLI / 43 NLI /
All India Score Booster Test - 11 [Solution] AllCRACK
India Score
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2021 /Test - 11 [Solution]
18-Aug-2021
Test Booklet Code PHYS
SECTION-A
A 1. (3) [NCERT-237] 1
Here, the bulb B1 will die out promptly but B2 with

some delay. The reason is that the branch of bulb
B2 contains inductance. Due to the effect of
inductance, the current in this branch continues to
flow for some time even when the switch S is turned
ALL INDIA SCORE BOOSTER REVISION TEST
off. SERIES-UG 2020-21
2. (2) [NCERT-260] 2
NP
 20
NS
Test ID : 961
NPPaper ID : Test- 11
li ity-cumte-
VP iS
   20
VS iP NS
b NEW tu
iL
st I
In
GH
VP iP 1
t   20, 
ht
gh
T
VS iS 20
i g
Li
INSTITUTE
ra
L
ew 3. (3) w
[NCERT- 207]
e 3
l
N N
A = 80 cm2 = 80×10–4m2
N = 50,
es t
Na  = 2×
2000
60
rad/ sec
B = 0.05 T
emax = NAB
TEST DATE : 18-Aug-2021 400

= 50 × 80 × 10–4 × 0.05 ×
6
4000 4
=     104 = volt
SOLUTION 3 3
4. (4) [NCERT-234] 4
Finally coil will behave as zero resistance wire.

This will make 10  resistance short circuited.
Hence current in 10  will become zero.
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5. (4) [NCERT-215] 5. 8. (4) (2) [NCERT-219] 8
[NCERT-215]
The induced emf is given by
L = 8.4×10–3 H, R = 6 , E = 12 V L = 8.4×10–3 H, R = 6 , E = 12 V
i = 1A i = e1A M di
2
dt
E E
i = (1–e–RT/L) i = (1–e–RT/L)
R R di 2  4
e2  1 V , =  2 Amp / sec
dt 1
12 3 12 / 8.4103
i= [1  e6t / 8.410 ] i =1 = –  ex6t(–
[1 M 2) ]
6 6
1
1 3 1 M   t /1.410 3
 1  e  t /1.410  1 2 e
2 2
M = 0.5 H
3
1 9. (2)  t /1.4103 = 1 [NCERT-220] 9
e  t /1.410 =
2 e 2
As distance increases change in flux decreases
3 so mutual
3 inductance decreases.
e t / 1.4 10 =2 e t / 1.4 10 =2
10. (3) [NCERT-215]
1
t
= loge 2 = 0.6931 Ast q =i log
.t 2 = 0.6931
1.4  103 1.4  103 e
e
t = 1.4 × 0.6931 × 0.97 × 10–3 sec  × .0.6931
t = 1.4 t × 0.97 × 10–3 sec
R
 1×10–3 sec = 1 ms  1×10–3 sec = 1 ms
6. (2) [NCERT-208] u te  1  .t
6. (2) [NCERT-208]
ti t R t
By faraday’s law the induced emf is given by
Ins
e
d
g ht q d

g ht
dt Li e
dt
R
Li
e w 11. (4) w
[NCERT-223]
e 1
d
  5t  10t  1 2 N Thed self inductance of solenoid is
  5t  10t  1 2 N
dt dt
 N2 A
 10t  10 L 0
 10t l 10
at t = 2 sec at t = 2 sec
So L  N2
e  10  2  10 12. (3)e  10  2  10 [NCERT-223] 1
The self inductance of circular coil is
 30 volt  30 volt 2
 N a
L 0
7. (4) [NCERT-213] 7. (4) 2 [NCERT-213]
The induced emf is given as
L  N2
e = Bvl e =LBvl N 2
So e  v
1
 1
So Le2  vN22
e1 v1
So  e1 v1600 2
108   
e2 v2 So
e  v 
L2  500 
2 2
2 10 2 10108  25

e2 20 L 
e2 2 20 36
e2  4.0 V  75
e2 L2 4.0 V mH
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13. (3) [NCERT-208] 13.16.(3) (3) [NCERT-208]
[NCERT-207] 1
According to faraday law L
l
 
e2  N e2  N i c
t t
i1  i1 
M  N Magnetic
M  Nfield at centre due to large square loop of
t t t L t
length
i1  i 0 8 2i
or M N MC  14 N L
B
t t t t
Flux linked with smaller loop
M  i1 M  i1
so    BA
N N
4   0  10  0 8 2i 2
 4  0  10  l
500  4 L
500
Campare with   Mi
4 4
 
50 50  8 2i 2 l2
M 0 l so M 
  0.08weber 4 L
  0.08weber L
17. (1) [NCERT-220] 1
14. (2) [NCERT-223]
u te
14. (2) st [NCERT-223]
In case 1 maximum flux changes than in other
tit
As i = 4 + 10 t Assituation
i = 4 + 10
sot mutual inductance is maximum in
s situation 1st
di
 10 t In di 1
dt
gh
18. (3)  10
dt
[NCERT-215]
g ht
Li × × × × × ×
Li
e 10 ×e × 10 × × ×
L  ew L A  C
ew
di / dt 10 N di×/ dt × 10× O × × × N
× × × × × ×
L  1.0 H L  1.0 H
1
t = 1 sec, i = 4 + 10 x 1 = 14 t =For
1 sec, i = 4 rod,
rotating + 10induced
x 1 = 14emf e = B l2 
2
& energy stored = 1/2Li2 = 1/2 x 1 x (14)2 = 1/2Li2 = 1/2 x 1 x (14)2
1
= 196/2 For part AO , e0A = e=0 –
196/2
eA = B l2 
2
U = 98 Joule U = 98
15. (3) [NCERT-223] 15. (3) 1 [NCERT-223]
For part OC , eOC = eO – eC = B (3l)2 
2
Self inductance of solenoid is given as
 eA – eC = 4 B l2 
0 N 2 A 19. (2)  N 2 A [NCERT-286]
L L 0
1
l l L
So L  N 2 m m
So L  N 2
2
M = mL ...(A) r = L
L1  N1  L1  N1 
2
     2L
L2  N2  L2 M'=Nm'
2 

2
L1  N1  L1 M'= N21 mL

2
   
L2  4N1  
L2  4N1 
2M
L2  16L1  16
L2 M' =L1

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20. (2) [NCERT-205] 20.26.(2) (1) [NCERT-222] 2
[NCERT-205]
By the law of EMI the direction of current will be For minimum inductance we take parallel
clockwise. combination .
21. (3) [NCERT-220]
21. (3) 1 1 1 1 [NCERT-220]
So   
L L1 L2 L3
a2
1 1 1 1 a2
a1   
L 2 3 6 a1
321 6
 0i = = = 1,
a1 6 6
B at centre due to coil of radius a1 
2a1
1 H 0i
L=
now flux through coil of radius a2  = B A
2a1
27. (3) [NCERT-225] 2
a2 i = 3 amp
Given N = 2000 =BA
i
 0  a22  =i 6×10–4
2a1
 0
 a22
2a1
N 2000  6  10 4
Compare with  = M i M   M  0.4H
=Mi I 3
M
0  a22
So, M 
a22
u te   a
28. (1) 2
[NCERT-210] 2
tit M Ifboth2aAssertion
2
2a1 a1 a
0

So, &MReason 2 2
n s a are True & the Reason

1 1
[NCERT-220] t I is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
[NCERT-220] ht
22. (2)
g h 22. (2)
M  L1 L 2  2 4  2 2H Li
29. (2)
L ig 2
[NCERT-210]
w M Ifboth L  &
L Assertion  4 are
2 Reason
1 2 True
2 w is
2 H but Reason
23. (4) N e
[NCERT-237] N
not a correct explanation of the Assertion
e
23. (4) [NCERT-237]
The time required for the current to rise to 0.63 of 30. (4) [NCERT- 212]
0.63 3
its final value is L/R = 2.5/0.5 = 5.0 sec.
 =L/R 2
6t =– 2.5/0.5
5t + 1 = 5.0 sec.
24. (2) [NCERT-210]
24. (2) d [NCERT-210]
 emf e = – = – (12t –5)
dt
N S t = 0.25 ,
N e = – (12+.25 –5)
Se = 2 volt
e 2
When south pole of a magnet moves away from a  i=   0.2A
ring then according to lenz’s law the direction of R 10
induced current will be anticlockwise.
31. (3) [NCERT-259] 3
25. (1) [NCERT-223]
25. (1) [NCERT-223]
In a transformer a large altermating current at low
V 100 voltage can be transformed into a small current
i=  =5 A V 100
R 20 
i = alternating =5 A
R 20 at high voltage
1 2 1 32. (4) [NCERT-223]
energy stored in coil U = Li = × 5 × 25 1 2 1 3
2 2 U= Li = × 5 × 25
2
eddy currents are not useful 2
in dynamo.
U = 62.50 Joule
U = 62.50
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33. (2) [NCERT-223] 33.38.(2) (3) [NCERT-207]
[NCERT-223] 3
i1 = 0, i2 = 2A , t = 0.05 sec, e = –8v i1 =faraday telectromagnetic
law, of
0, i2 = 2A induction
= 0.05 sec, e = –8v
i i
e=–L e=–L 3
t 39. (3) t [NCERT-235]
20 8  0.05  2  0  for half8cycle

 0.05 2V0
–8=–L  L= = 0.20 H – 8Average
= – L  voltage
L= = = 0.20 H

 0.05  2  0.05  2
40. (3) [NCERT-239] 4

34. (3) [NCERT-212] 34. (3) [NCERT-212]
 Phase difference is 30o leading
 R – L circuit
35. (3) [NCERT-223] 35. (3) [NCERT-223]
L = 2×10–3 H, i = t2 e–t L = 2×10–3 H, i = t2 e–t

4
41. (2) [NCERT-252]
di di di di
e=– L 0 0 e=– L  0 vR  0
dt dt dt dt
cos  = 2 2
VL  VR
d 2 –t d 2 –t
 t e =0  t e =0
dt dt
te
42. (1)2 –t
u [NCERT-235]
4
tit
t2 (e–t)(–1)+ e–t (2t) = 0 t (e )(–1)+ e–t (2t) = 0
e–t [–t2 +2t] =0 , e–t  0 s

n e [–t –t 1 , 2
T
e 0 –t
I V +2t]
 =0  v dT  100V 2
ht  t = 2t T ht
rms
 t2 = 2t g
2 0
g
 t = 2 sec Li 43. (4)
 t = 2 sec
Li 4
[NCERT-252]
ew Paverage = 0 ew
SECTION-B N SECTION-B N 4
44. (3) [NCERT-241]
36. (1) [NCERT-234] 36. (1) [NCERT-234]
If a capacitor of capacitance C is connected with
Here VL = VC . They are in opposite phase. Hence anVLAC
= Vsignal,
C
then reactance of that circuit is purely
they will cancel each other. Now, resultant potential capacitive .
=
difference The capacitive
=100 ractance is :
= applied potential difference =100 volt 1 1 1

X=
Z= R C  2fC or X 
fC
Z= R
X' fC f C
Vrms Vrms 100 l X Vf'C'
rms 

Vrms 100

 C/2  2amp
lrms     2amp  rms f /2
 Z R 50
Z R 50
x’ = 4x
37. (3) [NCERT-259] 37.45.(3) (3) [NCERT-259]
[NCERT-223] 4
output power An inductor stores energy in its magnetic field.

 
input power 1 2
Energy stored is given by: U  Li where Li is
2
8 8
magnetic flux.
= = 8.9
input power = = 8.9 kilowatt 0.9
0.9
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46. (2) [NCERT-252] 46.50.(2) (3) [NCERT-252]
[NCERT-244] 5
Current (I) = 5 sin (100t – /2) and voltage The
(I) impendance
= 5 sin (100t Z /2)
– of a series LCR(V)
circuit
= 200is sin
given
(V) = 200 sin (100t). Comparing the given equations, (100t).
with the standard equation, we find that phase by, Z  R2  (XL  XC )2

between current and voltage is    90o 1
2  is angular
where XL = L and XC =  ,  frequency
C  90o
2
Power consumption At resonance, XL = XC, hence Z = R
P = Irms Vrms cos  = Irms Vrms cos 90o = 0  VR = V (supply voltage)

P = Irms Vrms cos  = Irms Vrms cos 90o = 0
47. (1) [NCERT-244] 47. (1) VR V [NCERT-244]
 r.m.s current, I  
R R
Impedance Z in an ac circuit is AC Power loss = I2ZR = V2/R
Z  R 2  (XC  XL )2 , where X C = capacitive Z  R 2  (XC  XL )2 , XC =

reactance and XL = inductive reactance. XL =
1 1
Also, XC  and X:L = L XC  X:L = L
C C
2
 1   1 
2
 Z  (50)2    314  20  10 3   Z  (50)2    314  20  10 3 
 314  100  10 6 
u te  314  100  10 6 
or Z = 56.
stit Z = 56.
The power loss in the circuit is
t In
gh g ht
V 
Pav   rms  R
2
Li V 
2
Li
 Z  P  
rms
R
ew av
 Z 
ew
2
N N
 10   10 
2
 Pav     50  0.79W  Pav  
 ( 2)56    50  0.79W
 ( 2)56 
48. (1) [NCERT-207] 48. (1) [NCERT-207]
According to Faradays' law, it is the conservation

of energy.
49. (1) [NCERT-222] 49. (1) [NCERT-222]

dB = 4 B0 – Bo = 3Bo
dB = 4 B0 – Bo = 3Bo
Induced e.m.f. is given by
d d d d
e=– =– (BA) e=– =– (BA)
dt dt dt dt
dB dB
=–A =–A
dt dt
dB = 3 B0 & dt = t dB = 3 B0 & dt = t
3AoBo 3AoBo
e=– Volt e=– Volt
t t
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C H E M I S62.
T R(2)Y [NCERT 200] 6
Correct order of oxidising power :
SECTION-A SECTION-A
HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
51. (3) [NCERT 171] 51. (3) [NCERT 171]
63. (2) [NCERT 201] 6
The hydrolysis of NCl3 by water produces NH3 and NCl NH
3 3 + 2H2O  3HCl + HIO
ICl 3
HOCl
2
HOCl. Oxoanion IO2– is obtained in this hybridisation
52. (4) [NCERT 179]and
3
52. (4) [NCERT 179] oxidation state of iodine is sp and +3.
53. (3) [NCERT 172] 64. (1) [NCERT 207]

SO 2 gas acts as bleaching agent in moist 6
N2O4 is a mix an hydride so after reaction with base conditions and has one p–d and[NCERT
one p–p along
53. (3) 172]
it gives nitrate and nitrite, two types of salts. with two -bond
NO
54. (3) [NCERT 178] 65. (1) 2 4
6
54.66.(3) (3) [NCERT
[NCERT178]
198]
Us acid of phosphorus has at least one P–H bond. 6
H3PO (2P–H 3  )2HIOH
I2 + 210HNO +PO
10NO + 4H2O)
(1P–H
55. (1) 3 3 3 2
(1) Peroxide is H 2 O 2 (4 ) ; 55.67.(1)(1) [NCERT 199]

6
– – –
Correct stability order Cl3 < Br3 <I3 : It is due to
(1)dispersal of
= charge.
H 2 O 2 (4 ) ;
(2) Super oxide is KO 2 (3)
68. (2)
(3) = KO 2 (3) [NCERT 205]
(3) Dioxide is PbO 2 (2) ;
–
(3)ICl2 and XeF=2 both
PbO 2are
(2) ;lenear. 6
(4) Suboxide is C 3 O 2 (1)
69. (3) [NCERT 206]
56. (2) [NCERT 189]
u te (4) = C 3 O 2 (1)
Alkali metal fluorides act as fluoride ion donor 6
Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen will be least tit56. (2) accept LiF. [NCERT 189]
negative in their group.
In70.s (1) [NCERT 183]
In the see-saw gemetory of SF , lone pair occupies ht ht
4
g In solid state SO exist as (SO ) g
Li i 7
3 3 3
equatorial position
[NCERT L
NO 2
71. (1) 166]
On partial hydrolysis of 1 mole of Marshellsw
acid, 1 w
mole of H SO and 1 mole of H SO will
2 4 N2
e
obtained.
5
SF
Due to extra stability of half filled p-orbitaleof group
4
N
15 element, large amount of energy is required to 7
57. (2) [NCERT 185] 57. (2) remove electrons as compared to [NCERT
group 16 185]
element.
In ozone bond length will be larger than O2. O2
72. (4) [NCERT 183]
58. (2) [NCERT 187] 58. (2) [NCERT 187]
H2S is less acidic than H2Te due to decrease in
PCl5 is chlorinating reagent it replaces –OH group PClbond
5
–OHdown the –Cl
dissociation enthalpy group, acidic
by –Cl group. 7
character increases.
59. (1) [NCERT 189] 59. (1) [NCERT 189]
73. (4) [NCERT 183]
S S
Amongst tetrafluorides, SF4 is a gas, SeF4 a liquid
H–O–S–O–H and TeF 4 a solid. These fluorides have sp 3d
H–O–S–O–H 7
hybridisation
O and thus, have trigonal bipyramidal
O
structures in which one of the equatorial positions
60. (4) [NCERT 186] 60. (4) is occupied by a lone pair of[NCERT 186]This
electrons.
geometry is also regarded as see-saw geometry
O O O O 7
S 74. (3) S [NCERT 189]
–
–O
–
–O
–O
H2S2O 7 is formulae of oleum called as fuming

–O
–
–
O S–O–S O O sulphuric S O
S – O – acid.
O O 75. (4) O O [NCERT 186] 7
All the  bonds are p–d 2O3  3O

p2 –d
H = –ve
61. (2) [NCERT 202] 61. (2) S = +ve [NCERT 202]

These all are facts. So, G = –ve
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76. (3) [NCERT 182] 76.91.(3) (2) [NCERT
[NCERT 310] 182] 9
O–O bond through shortest but weak due to strong O–O O is
Stability of dihalides of 14th groups elements
lone pair - lone pair repulsion due to the small size increases downward in the group due to inert pair
of O atoms. effect. 9
77. (1) [NCERT 183] 92. (2) [NCERT-XII-215]
77. (1) [NCERT 183]
Due to hydrogen bonding in H2O it have highest E.C. of 25 Cr   Ar 3d5 4s1
boiling point. HO 9
93. (1) 2 [NCERT-XII-231]
78. (3) 'La' has bigger size than Lu and hence (1) is correct.
XeF 2 , XeOF 2 . XeF 4 , XeOF 4 . XeF 6 , XeO 3 .
78.94.(3) (2) [NCERT-XII-225]
XeF 2 , XeOF 2 . XeF 4 , XeOF 4 . XeF 6 , XeO 3 .
9
79. (2) The dicromate ion consist of two tetra hedral units
79. (2) in which 6 Cr–0 bonds are equvalent in nature.
80. (2) [NCERT 191]
80.95.(2) (1) [NCERT 191]
[NCERT-XII-222]
C12H22O11 
H2 SO4

 12C + 11H2O 9
d-d-transition C
is12main 
H2 SO4
H22O11cause 
 showing
for 12C + 11H O
colour
2
81. (4) [NCERT 196] nature. 9
81. (4) [NCERT 196]
Reaction of iodine with water is not spontaneous.
96. (4) [CBSE-1994]
82. (4) [NCERT 197] Ionic radii of trivalent lanthandies
82. (4) [NCERTsteadily
197]
2NaCl + Conc. H2SO4  Na2SO4 + 2HCl decreases
2NaCl + Conc.with
H2SOincrease
 NainSO
the+atomic
2HCl number.
4 2 4
83. (2) [NCERT 200] 83.97.(2) (2) [CBSE-2003]
[NCERT 200] 9
The type of inter halogen compounds are Radii of M+3 ion decreases as one move from Ce to
Lu.
XX1, Xx3, Xx5 and Xx7 in which the example of Xx7 is XX1, Xx3, Xx5 Xx7 IF7, Xx7
only one - IF7 te
98. (3)
84. (2)
u
[CBSE-2005]
[NCERT 201]
84. (2) [NCERT 201] tit Correct order of 3rd ionisation energy
9
When ever dry slaked lime react with Cl the Ins V < Cr < Fe < Mn
bleaching powder will be fundamental product.
g ht85.99.(4)(3) [CBSE-2005, 2006] ht
[NCERT 200]
g
85. (4) L
[NCERT 200] i It is due to lesser energy difference between i5f
IFL
and 6 d orbitals than that of between 4f and 5d 9 7
Due to regular geometry, absence of lonewpair IF w
is non polar. N e 7 orbitals
N e 1
100. (4) [CBSE-2007]
Due to more negative E for Cr3+.
0
SECTION-B SECTION-B
86. (1) 86. (1)

Electron Affinity order F2 < Cl2 > Br2 > I2 F2 < Cl2 > Br2 > I2
Oxidising nature HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
87. (4) 87. (4)
Due to being strong oxidizing conc. H2SO4 oxidizes H2SO4, I– I2
I– into I2.
88. (1)
88. (1)
Due to inter molecular halogen bonding HF get
HF, H2F2
dimarizes as H2F2
89. (2) [NCERT 217]
89. (2) [NCERT 217]
Iron is themost abundant d-block element it belongs
to 3d-series.
90. (4) [NCERT 231]
Lanthamide contraction decreases ionic sizes from 90. (4) [NCERT 231]
La3+ to Lu3+. Hence the correct order will be Yb3+ <
Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+.
Pm 3+ < Ce3+ < La3+.
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109. (3) [NCERT-II-187]
BIOL O G Y A biological control being developed for use in the 1
BOTANY treatment BOTANY
of plant disease is the fungus
Trichoderma. Trichoderma species are free-living
SECTION–A SECTION–A
fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems.
They are effective biocontrol agents of several plant
101. (4) [NCERT-II-183, AIPMT 2012] 101. (4) [NCERT-II-183, AIPMTthat
2012]
pathogens. Baculoviruses are pathogens attack
Streptokinase produced by the bacterium Strepto- insects and other arthropods. The majority of
baculoviruses used as biological control agents are
coccus and modified by genetic engineering is used
in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus. These viruses
as a ‘clot buster’ for removing clots from the blood are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow
spectrum insecticidal applications. They have been
vessels of patients who have undergone myocardial
shown to have no negative impacts on plants,
infraction leading to heart attack. 102. (2) mammals, birds, fish or even on non-target insects.
[NCERT-II-181]
This is especially desirable when beneficial insects
102. (2) [NCERT-II-181]
are being conserved to aid in an overall integrated
LAB play very beneficial role in checking disease pest management (IPM) programme, or when an
ecologically sensitive area is being treated.
causing microbes in our stomach.
Bt gene of bacillus thuringenesis provide resistence
103. (1) [NCERT-II-184, NEET 2017] for insect pest.
Primary treatment involve physical, chemical, 110. (1) [NCERT-II-180]
103. (1) [NCERT-II-184, NEET 2017] 1
mechenical process but secondary treatment is
Biological treatment.
104. (4) [NCERT-II-184] 104. (4)
u te [NCERT-II-184]
Primary treatment : These treatment steps basi-
stit
cally involve physical removal of particles – large
t In
and small – from the sewage through filtration and h ht
ig
sedimentation. These are removed in stages;Lini- 105. (2) Li
g
[NCERT-II-182]
e w filtra-
tially, floating debris is removed by sequential e w
N N
tion.
105. (2) [NCERT-II-182] 106. (2) [NCERT-II-186]
Alexander fleming find out a chemical produced by
the mould and he named it Penicillin after the mould
Penicillium notatum.
106. (2) [NCERT-II-186] 107. (3) [NCERT-II-187]
Biopesticides are living organism or their products
which are used for pest control.
107. (3) [NCERT-II-187]
111. (1) [NCERT-II-184]
Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are
Secondary treatment or biological treatments : The
very common in the root ecosystems. They are ef- 108. (4) [NCERT-II-183]
primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks
fective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens.
where it is constantly agitated mechanically and
108. (4) [NCERT-II-183]
All are bacterial disease. air is pumped into it. This allows vigorous growth of
Leprosy – Mycobacterium leprey useful aerobic microbes into flocs (masses of
Plague – Pasteurella pestis bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form 1
Whooping cough – Bordetella pertussis. mesh like structures).
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112. (1) [NCERT-II-180] 112. (1) (2)
120. [NCERT-II-180]
[NCERT-II-181] 1
All are virus so they are infectious agent. The 'Roquefort cheese' are ripened by growing a
specific fungi on them, which gives them a particular
flavour. The other three cheese are not ripened by
any fungus after production. Ripening is done to 1
add particular flavor.
121. (1) [NCERT-II-182]
In fermentation, say by yeast, the incomplete
oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic
conditions by sets of reactions where pyruvic acid 1
(product of glycolysis) is converted to CO2 and
ethanol.
122. (3) [NCERT-II-182]
Depending on the type of the raw material used for
1
fermentation and the type of processing with or
without distillation) different types of alcoholic drinks
are obtained. Wine and beer are produced without
distillation whereas whisky, brandy and rum are
produced by distillation of the fermented broth.
123. (1) [NCERT-II-182]
Alexander Fleming while working on Staphylococci 1
bacteria, once observed a mould growing in one of
his unwashed culture plates around which
113. (3) [AIPMT/NEET 2007]
u te Staphylococci could not grow. He found out that it
was due to a chemical produced by the mould and
Probiotics are live microbial food supplement.
s tit he named it Penicillin after the mould Penicillium
114. (1) [NCERT-II-188]
t In notatum.
t1
Azotobacter = Free living nitrogen fixer bacteria h h
124. (3) [NCERT-II-183]
g g
heterotrophic. Li Immunosuppressant agent  Cyclosporin A 
produced by fungus Li
115. (4) ew
[AIPMT/NEET]
113. (3)
Clot buster  Streptokinase  produced by ew
[AIPMT/NEET 2007]
N
A genetically engineered micro-organism used bacteria N
successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a 125. (3) [NCERT-II-182]
114. (1) [NCERT-II-188]
Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are
species of Pseudomonas. 1
produced=by some microbes and can kill or retard
116. (3) [NCERT-II-185] the growth of other (disease-causing) microbes.
The purpose of Yamuna Action Plan to build up a 126. (2) [NCERT-II-183]
115. (4) Citric acid – [AIPMT/NEET]
Aspergillus
large number of STP.
Acetic acid – Acetobactor
117. (3) [NCERT-II-179,180]
Butyric acid – Clostridium
All other three statements are correct for microbes, Ethanol – Saccharomyces
except that all microbes are harmful, because 127.
116. (3) (3) [NCERT-II-183]
[NCERT-II-185] 1
several microbes are useful to man and are used in Bottled fruit juices bought from the market are
STP
human welfare. clearer as compared to those made at home. This
is because the bottled juices are clarified by the
118. (4) [NCERT-II-181]
117. (3) use of pectinases and proteases.
[NCERT-II-179,180]
Saccharomyces cerevisiae used for bread-making, 128. (4) [NCERT-II-182]
and commonly called baker's yeast, is also used Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be discovered 1
118. (4) [NCERT-II-181]
from the mould Penicillium notatum. However, its
for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices, to
full potential as an effective antibiotic was
produce ethanol.
established much later by Ernest Chain and Howard
119. (1) [NCERT-II-181] 119. (1) [NCERT-II-181]
Florey. This antibiotic was extensively used to treat
American soldiers wounded in World War II.
'Toddy', a traditional drink of some parts of southern
Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded the Nobel
India is made by fermenting sap from palms. Prize in 1945, for this discovery.
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129. (2) [NCERT-II-187] 129. (2) SECTION–B [NCERT-II-187]
Lady bird - Aphids 136. (2) [NCERT-II-173] 1
Mycorrhiza - Glomus Taichung Native-1 (from Taiwan).
Biological control - Trichoderma 137. (2) [NCERT-II-176]
Biofortification – breeding crops with higher levels 1
Biogas - Methanobacterium
of vitamins and minerals, or higher protein and
130. (1) [NCERT-II-188] healthier fats – is the most practical means to
Oscillatoria – N2–fixer cynobacteria improve public health.
138. (1) [NCERT-II-174] 1
Trichoderma – Free living fungi 130. (1) [NCERT-II-188]
In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus
Rhizobium – Symbiotic N2 fixer and powdery mildew were N2- induced by mutations.
Azotobacter – free living N2 fixer 139. (4) [NCERT-II-177] 1
131. (3) [NCERT-II-184] No meiosis, fertilization takes place in tissue
BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would culture hence no change of chromosome
N2 in new
be consumed if all the organic matter in one litre of plants developed by tissue culture.
N2 1
water were oxidised by bacteria. The sewage water 140. (1) [NCERT-II-176]
is treated till the BOD is reduced. The BOD test Spinach - High vitamin A content
measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by micro- 131. (3) [NCERT-II-184]
Atlas 66 - High protein content 1
organisms in a sample of water and thus, indirectly,
BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in 141. (4) [NCERT-II-188]
the water. Nitrogen fixing microbes associated with azolla in
132. (1) [NCERT-II-184] rice field is anabaena.
142. (2) [NCERT-II-187] 1
In the anaerobic sludge digesters, other kinds of
132. (1) IPM - integrated pest management .
[NCERT-II-184]
te
bacteria, which grow anaerobically, digest the
143. (3) [NCERT-II-108,181]
bacteria and the fungi in the sludge. During this
u
digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such
as methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. stit Toddy - Fermentation by microbes yeast 1
These gases form biogas and can be used as

t In 144. (3) [NCERT-II-184]
source of energy as it is inflammable.
g h Treatment of waste water is done by the
 CHheterotrophic
+ H2S + CO2 microbes naturally present in the
g ht1
133.(4) [NCERT-II-188]L i 4
sewage. Li
133.(4) [NCERT-II-188]
w
Fungi are also known to form symbiotic associations 145. (3) w
[NCERT-II-184]
with plants (mycorrhiza). Many members Ne of the
genus Glomus form mycorrhiza. The fungal
N e
All solids that settle form the primary sludge, and
1
the supernatant forms the effluent. The effluent from
symbiont in these associations absorbs phosphorus the primary settling tank is taken for secondary
from soil and passes it to the plant. Plants having
such associations show other benefits also, such treatment.
as resistance to root-borne pathogens, tolerance 146. (3) [NCERT-II-184]
 1
to salinity and drought, and an overall increase in Primary settling tank  aeration tank  secondary
plant growth and development. settling tank  anaerobic sludge digesters

134. (1) [NCERT-II-187] 147. (3) [NCERT-II-187]
 The very familiar beetle with red and black markings
An example of microbial biocontrol agents that can 1
be introduced in order to control butterfly caterpillars – the Ladybird, and Dragonflies are useful to get rid
134. (1) [NCERT-II-187]
is the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (often written of aphids and mosquitoes, respectively.
as Bt). These are available in sachets as dried 148. (3) [NCERT-II-187]
spores which are mixed with water and sprayed 1
An example of microbial biocontrol agents that can
onto vulnerable plant such as brassicas and fruit
be introduced in order to control butterfly caterpillars
trees, where these are eaten by the insect larvae.
In the gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and is the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (often written
the larvae get killed. The bacterial disease will kill as Bt ). 1
the caterpillars, but leave other insects unharmed. 149. (3) [NCERT-II-183]
135. (4) [NCERT-II-182] Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma
polysporum (fungus)
Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects
and other arthropods. The majority of baculoviruses Statins – Yeast (Monascus
135. (4) [NCERT-II-182]
used as biological control agents are in the genus purpureus)
Nucleopolyhedrovirus. These viruses are excellent 150. (4) [NCERT-II-181]
candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum In industry, microbes are used to synthesise a num- 1
insecticidal applications. They have been shown to ber of products valuable to human beings. Bever-
have no negative impacts on plants, mammals, ages and antibiotics are some examples.
birds, and fish or even on non-target insects.
NLI / 21 NLI / 2
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18-Aug-2021
ZOOLOGY 164. (4) ZOOLOGY [NCERT-II-151]
1
SECTION–A Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called
SECTION–A
interferons which protect non-infected cells from
151. (3) [NCERT-II-150] 151. (3) [NCERT-II-150]
further viral infection
This overall ability of the host to fight the disease- 165. (2) [NCERT-II-152]
causing organisms, conferred by the immune
system is called immunity. When ready-made antibodies are directly given to
152. (2) protect the body against foreign [NCERT-II-151]
agents, it is called
152. (2) [NCERT-II-151] passive immunity.
IgE < IgD < IgM < IgA < IgG
Increasing order of immunoglobulin percentage in 166.
153. (4) (4) [NCERT-II-157]
[NCERT-II-151]
human blood IgE < IgD < IgM < IgA < IgG .
All are physical carcinogenic agent.
153. (4) [NCERT-II-151]
167. (1) [NCERT-II-159] 1
Acquired immunity, on the other hand is pathogen 
specific. It is characterised by memory. The flower tops, leaves and the resin of cannabis
 plant are used in various combinations to produce
154. (3) [NCERT-II-151] marijuana, hashish, charas and[NCERT-II-151]
ganja. Generally
154. (3)
Each antibody molecule has four peptide chains, taken by inhalation and oral ingestion, these are
two small called light chains and two longer called known for their effects on cardiovascular system of
heavy chains. the body.
168.
155. (4) (3) [NCERT-II-162]
[NCERT-II-153] 1
155. (4) [NCERT-II-153]
The exaggerated response of the immune system The use of alcohol during adolescence may also
to certain antigens present in the environment is have long-term effects. It could lead to heavy
drinking in adulthood. The chronic use of drugs and
called allergy.
u te
156. (4) alcohol damages nervous system and liver
[NCERT-II-154]
156. (4) [NCERT-II-154]
stit (cirrhosis). 1
After maturation the lymphocytes migrate to
In169. (3)
secondary lymphoid organs like spleen, lymph t157. (4)
[NCERT-II-146]
t
g h [NCERT-II- which h
149]
Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium
g
Li i
nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine
and appendix.
causes typhoid fever in human beings. These
L
157. (4) e w149] 158. (2) pathogens
[NCERT-II-
w them
generally enter the small intestine
e
[NCERT-II-147]
through food and water contaminated with
N N
and migrate to other organs through blood.
Many fungi belonging to the genera Microsporum,
Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness,
159. (3) stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of
[NCERT-II-151] 1
for ringworms which is one of the most common
infectious diseases in man. appetite are some of the common symptoms of
T
this disease. Intestinal perforation and death may
158. (2) [NCERT-II-147] occur in severe cases.
160. (3) [NCERT-II-148]
Fertilisation of malaria parasite occurs in mosquito 170. (3) [NCERT-II-150]
1
159. (3) [NCERT-II-151] Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence,
that is present at the time of birth. This is
The T-lymphocytes mediate CMI. 161. (2) [NCERT-II-154]
accomplished by providing different types of barriers
160. (3) [NCERT-II-148] to the entry of the foreign agents into our body.
MALT
Houseflies act as on mechanical carriers for Cellular barriers : Certain types of leukocytes
162. (3) [NCERT-II-147]
(WBC) of our body like polymorpho-nuclear 1
Amoebiasis.
leukocytesAIDS
(PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes and
161. (2) [NCERT-II-154] natural killer (type of lymphocytes) in the blood as
MALT = Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue. well as macrophages in tissues can phagocytose
and destroy microbes
162. (3) [NCERT-II-147]
171. (2) [NCERT-II-153] 1
Typhoid, tuberculosis is a pair of bacterial disease.
Memory-based acquired immunity evolved in higher
163. (3) [NCERT-II-150] 163. (3) vertebrates based on the ability to differentiate
[NCERT-II-150]
foreign organisms (e.g., pathogens) from selfcells.
Under innate immunity do the skin and mucus
membrane belongs from physical barriers Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many people in
our society is an auto-immune disease.
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172. (4) [NCERT-II-156] 185.
172. (4) (4) [NCERT-II-153] 1
[NCERT-II-156]
HIV virus enters into macrophages and uses reverse All are examples of allergens.
HIV
transcriptase enzyme before incorporating into host
DNA
cell's DNA.
173. (3) SECTION–B [NCERT-II-150]
173. (3) [NCERT-II-150]
186. (3) [NCERT-II-129] 1
Dengue, malaria and filaria by mosquitoes and =
amoebiasis-housefly acts as vector. The fitness, according to Darwin, refers ultimately
174. (1) [NCERT-II-147]
and only to reproductive fitness.
174. (1) [NCERT-II-147] RBC
187. (3) [NCERT-II-132, 133, 134]
Toxin (Haemozoin) released by breakdown of 1
infected RBC causes shivering in malaria. Placenta present in placental mammals
175. (3) [NCERT-II-153]
175. (3) [NCERT-II-153] – Wombat, Bandicoot = Marsupial mammal
The use of drugs like anti-histamine, adrenalin and – Wombat, Bandicoot = Divergent evolutions
steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy. – Darwin finches – Divergent evolutions
176. (3) [NCERT-II-157] 176. (3) [NCERT-II-157]
188. (3) [NCERT-II-128]
Metastasis is the most feared property of Malignant The sequence of organic evolution proposed by
tumors 1
177. (1) Darwin and Wallace [NCERT-II-159]
177. (1) [NCERT-II-159] Overproduction  constancy of population size 
Morphine is very effective sedative and pain killer, variations  natural selection
and is very useful in patients who have undergone 189. (4) [NCERT-II-136, 37, Mod. NEET 2019] 1
surgery. 178. (2) [NCERT-II-149]
Given frequency are recessive allele that is 16%.
178. (2) [NCERT-II-149]
u teq = 0.16
tit q = 0.4
2
Main source of infection of amoebiasis is

s
contaminated water and food by faecal matter.
t In (1) p = 0.6
179. [NCERT-II-150]
179. (1) [NCERT-II-150] h
g g ht
Li
For controlling mosquito vectors we introduced 2pq = 2 × 0.4 × 0.6 = 0.48
Li
Fishes like Gambusia in ponds that feed
ew on with respect to hundred 48%..
ew
mosquito larvae. N 190. (2)
180. (3)
N
[NCERT-II-128]
[NCERT-II-158] 1
180. (3) [NCERT-II-158]
• First cellular forms of – 2000 mya
Tumor cells have been shown to avoid detection 
life appeared
and destructions by immune system therefore the
patients are given substances called biological • Invertebrates – 500 mya
181. (2) [NCERT-II-147]
responses modifiers such as -interferons which • Sea weeds – 320 mya
activates their immune system and helps in
destroying the tumor. • Jaw less fish – 350 mya

181. (2) [NCERT-II-147] • Dinosaurs disappeared – 65 mya

Plasmodium, a tiny protozoans are responsible for from earth.
different types of malaria species of Plasmodium 
191. (4) [NCERT-II-159]
are Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malaria, 182. (4) [NCERT-II-154]
Plasmodium falciparum. All given plant have hallucinogenic property. 1
182. (4) [NCERT-II-154] 192. (3) [NCERT-II-160]
The congenital disease are genetic disease which Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland of body 1
are transfer from parents to progeny. They are
present since birth in the progeny example - 193. (4) [NCERT-II-157]
Haemophilia. MRI – Strong magnetic fields and non ionising 1
183. (2) [NCERT-II-148]
183. (2) [NCERT-II-148] radiation.
RBC
The plasmodium parasite reproduce in liver and RBC X-rays = CT and radiography.
by asexually and asexually respectively. 194. (1) [NCERT-II-161]
184. (4) [NCERT-II-146] 1
184. (4) [NCERT-II-146]
The Anxiety, Shakiness, Nausea are symptoms of
Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test withdrawal syndrome.
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195. (1) [NCERT-II-157] 195. (1) [NCERT-II-157]
Contact inhibition = Normal cells property.

196. (4) [NCERT-II-158]
196. (4) [NCERT-II-158]
Common approach for cancer treatment is surgery,

radiation therapy and immunotherapy.
197. (4) [NCERT-II-158]
Opioids receptors are present in the body in central 197. (4) [NCERT-II-158]
nervous system and gastrointestinal tract.
198. (2) [NCERT-II-158]

198. (2) [NCERT-II-158]
Chemical name of heroine or smack is diacetyl
morphine
199. (4) [NCERT-II-159]

199. (4) [NCERT-II-159]
Morphine is obtained from Papaver somniferum plant
200. (2) [NCERT-II-159] 200. (2) [NCERT-II-159]
Smack acts on body as a depressent

u te
stit
t In
gh g ht
Li Li
ew ew
N N
NLI / 27 NLI / 2
All India Score Booster Test - 11 [Solution] CRACK NEET 2021 / 18-Aug-2021
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 29

Sbrts 11 (Eng)

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All India Score Booster Test - 11 [Paper] AllCRACK

The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not fo

TEST DATE : 18-08-2021

• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another s

• Video of all tests' solution available o

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2021

The ratio of turns in the primary and secondary t2.

(3) 1.5 H (3) (2)

(4) 2.5 H (4) (3)

9. If the distance between two coaxial coils is 9. (4) 1.0 weber

(1) Resistance of coil s titIf the number of turns of a solenoid is becomes

t In four times, keeping the other factors constant, then t

(3) May be (1)i & (2)

25. A coil of 20  resistance and 5 Henry inductance

(1) 1 H (1) 1 Hratio of the voltage in the primary and secondary

(4) 11 H (4) (3)11 In

(2) 40 H (2) except:

(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.8 A (1) (3)1.22As (2) 0.8 A

(1) Only resistance R

(2) Only inductance L

(3) v = 1000 volt, l = 2amp 41.(3) If vin= a1000 volt,

n s (3) 0.8 90%

(2) its coils (2)

(4) both in electric and magnetic fields (4)

47. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a 47. 20 mH 100 F

(4) 1.13 W (4) 1.13 W

48. Faradays's laws are consequence of conservation 48.

(3) charge (3)

(4) magnetic field (4)

(1) H4P2O7 (4) Ha,4Pc2O

(3) H3PO4 (3) H3PO4

(A) Peroxide (1) C3O2 (A)

(B) Superoxide (2) PbO2 (B) (2) PbO2

(3) sp3 and –1 (3)(4)sp3All of–1

(4) None of these (4) (4) Ne

(1) Ozone is thermodynamically unstable e

(2) Formation of oxygen from ozone is exothermic (3) Br + H O  HBr + HOBr

(2) CaOCl2 (2) (2)

(3) Ca(ClO2)2 (3) (3)

(4) Ca(OCl)2 only (4) (4) 6 d-series

(1) ClF3 (1) Yb in +3 oxidation state is :

(2) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+

(2) NF3 > NCl3 > NBr3> NI3

t In (4) PbCl2 < GeCl2 < SiCl2 < SnCl2

(4) a and b (2) Cr

93.(1) Which the following statement is not correct :

(2) PI3 + H2O  (2) (1)

(4) Iron (Z = 26) (4)Microbes

(2) More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals (2)III.

(3) Bacteria (3) (4) Tissue culture

106. Biopesticides are 106.

(3) The organisms which destroy the crops (3)

(4) None of these (4)

(2) Heart infections (2) (1) Trichoderma

(1) fermentation (1) iv. Ethanol P. Acetobactor

(1) they are double filtered (1) composition of this gas :

(1) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i (1) a -birds,

(1) Transmutation (1) (2) LAB - Microbes

(3) Spirulina (3) (2) fungi

(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) (4)

(3) Amoebiasis (3) (3) UV rays

(3) Amoebiasis (3) (4) Amphibian like Gambusia