NEET Test Series: Key Revision for Pre-Medical Exams

Test Booklet Test ID : 000
Series
NEET Test-01
A Test CODE :
ALL INDIA NEET TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23
TEST DATE : 07-08-2022
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :

• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:
I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022

All India NEET Test–01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Series-A / 07-AUG-2022
INSTRUCTION
• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
te
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
u
• t
ti Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test
s
t In
igh
L
w
Key Points of New Light NeTest Series :
• Rapid Fire Revision of all tests Live Classes available on "New LIght Institute"
Channel ( ) before the scheduled test.
• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.
• Chat support 24×7 available for the students on "New Light Institute" App.
• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.
For lattest update on NEET, PDF sheets, other examinations and class schedule.
Please Subscribe our –
Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur
Youtube Channel - New Light Institute
NLI / 2
TOPIC : Unit & Measurement

SECTION-A SECTION-A
a 2b 4 a 2b 4
1. In the expression Y = , percentage errors in 1. Y= , a 2%, b
c6 c6
a is 2%, in b is 3% and in c is 1%. Then percentage 3% c 1%. y
error in y is :
(1) 22%
(1) 22%
(2) 11%
(2) 11%
(3) 9% (3) 9%
(4) 10% (4) 10%.
2. If error in measuring diameter of a circle is 3%, 2. 3%,

the error in measuring radius of the circle would
be :
(1) 2 %
(1) 2 %
(2) 8 %
(2) 8 %
u te
(3) 3 %
ti t
(3) 3 %
s
(4) 1 %
t In (4) 1 %
B igh B
3. If V = At +
t +C
is dimensionaly L 3.
correct then V = At + A/B
w t +C
dimension of A/B :
Ne
(1) [LT–1] (1) [LT–1]
(2) [T–2] (2) [T–2]
(3) [LT–2] (3) [LT–2]
(4) [T–1] (4) [T–1] `
4. Displacement travel by a particle in nth second is 4. nth

given by Sn = u + 1/2 a(2n–1) is : Sn = u + 1/2 a(2n–1)
(1) Dimensionaly correct (1)
(2) Dimensionaly incorrect (2)
(3) Equation incorrect (3)
(4) None of these (4)
5. Which of the following physical quantities are 5.

dimensionless :
(1)
(1) Strain
(2)
(2) Angle
(3)
(3) Solid Angle
(4)
(4) All of these.
NLI / 3
6. If the unit of M, L are doubled, then the unit of 6. M L
kinetic energy becomes : :
(1) 8 times (1) 8

(2) 16
(2) 16 times
(3) 4
(3) 4 times
(4) 2
(4) 2 times
b  x2
7. Power P is related to distance x and time t as 7. P x t P=
at
b  x2 b a :
P= . Find the dimensional formula for b
at
and a: (1) [L], [M1L0T2]
(1) [L], [M1L0T2] (2) [L2],[M–1L0T2]

(2) [L2],[M–1L0T2] (3) [L2], [M1L1T–2]
(3) [L2], [M1L1T–2] (4) [L2],[M–1L1T2]
2 –1 1 2
(4) [L ],[M L T ]
8. CR
8. Dimensions of CR are those of :
(1)
(1) Frequency
(2) Energy
(2)
u te
(3)ti t
(3) Time period
s
(4) Current. t In (4)
9. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y andigh9. x, y z
z as follows : x = Ay + B tan Cz, where A, B andLC x = Ay + B tan Cz, A, B
w
the same dimensions :
Ne have
are constants. Which of the following do not C
(1) x B
(1) x and B
(2) C z–1
(2) C and z–1
(3) y B/A
(3) y and B/A
(4) x and A. (4) x A.
10. Which of the following pair does not have similar 10.
dimensions :
(1)
(1) Stress and pressure
(2)
(2) Angle and strain
(3)
(3) Tension and surface tension
(4) Planck's constant and angular momentum. (4)
11. According to Joule's law of heating, heat 11. H = I2Rt
produced H = I2Rt; where I is current, R is resistance I, R t I, R t
and t is time. If the errors in the measurement of I,
R and t are 3%, 4% and 6%, respectively then the 3%, 4% 6%, H
error in the measurement of H is :
(1) ±17% (1) ±17%
(2) ±16% (2) ±16%
(3) ±19% (3) ±19%
(4) ±25. (4) ±25.
NLI / 4
12. The velocity of a freely body changes as gphq, 12. gphq
where g is acceleration due to gravity and h is g h p q
the height. The values of p and q are :
(1) 1, 1/2
(1) 1, 1/2
(2) 1/2, 1/2
(2) 1/2, 1/2
(3) 1/2, 1
(3) 1/2, 1
(4) 1, 1
(4) 1, 1
13. What will be the SI unit of c in the equation 13. S = a + bt + ct2 c
S = a + bt + ct2 if the units of S and t are meter and S t
second respectively :
(1)
(1) meter
–1
(2)
(2) meter sec–1
–2
(3)
(3) meter-sec–2
(4) meter-sec. (4)
14. The dimensions of permittivity 0 are : 14. 0
(1) A2T2M–1L3 (1) A2T2M–1L3
(2) A2T4M–1L–3 (2) A2T4M–1L–3
u te
(3) A–2T–4ML3 t (3) A–2T–4ML3
ti A T M
s
(4) 2 –4 –1 –3
L .
In
2 –4 –1 –3
(4) A T M L .
15.
t
The physical quantity that has no dimensions is : h15.
L ig
(1) angular velocity (1)
ew
(2) linear momentum N (2)
(3) angular momentum (3)
(4) strain. (4)
V V
16. If the resistance R = where V = 50 ± 4 volts and 16. R= V = 50 ± 4 volts, i = 20 ± 0.2
i i
i = 20 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the total percentage R :
error in R :
(1) 9%
(1) 9%
(2) 5.2%
(2) 5.2%
(3) 7%
(3) 7%
(4) 5/2% (4) 5/2%
17. Write down the unit of energy in terms of 17.

fundamental units :
(1) kg m–1 s–2
(1) kg m–1 s–2
(2) kg–1 m2 s–2
(2) kg–1 m2 s–2
(3) kg2 m2 s–2
(3) kg2 m2 s–2
(4) kg m2 s–2 (4) kg m2 s–2
NLI / 5
18. In the S.I. System, the unit of work is : 18.
(1) erg (1)
(2) joule (2)
(3) calorie (3)
(4) electron volt (4)
19. If E, M, J and G are respectively energy, mass 19. E, M, J G

angular momentum and gravitational constant,
M6G2/EJ2
then the dimensions of M6G2/ EJ2 are equivalent in
the dimesions of : (1)
(1) length
(2)
(2) mass
(3)
(3) angle
(4)
(4) time
20. Match the following : 20.
Column-I Column-II -I -II
(1) Electrical resistance (p) [M–1L–2T4A2] (1)

u te (p) [M–1L–2T4A2]
(2)ti
t (q) [ML2T–2A–2]
(2) Capacitance (q) [ML2T–2A–2] s
(3) Magnetic field (r) [ML2T–3A–2] t In (3) (r) [ML2T–3A–2]
(4) Inductance (s) [MT–2A–1] igh (4) (s) [MT–2A–1]

L
w (1) a-q, b-p, iii-s, iv-q
Ne
(1) a-q, b-p, iii-s, iv-q
(2) a-p, b-r, iii-s, iv-q (2) a-p, b-r, iii-s, iv-q
(3) a-r, b-s, iii-p, iv-q (3) a-r, b-s, iii-p, iv-q
(4) a-r, b-p, iii-s, iv-q (4) a-r, b-p, iii-s, iv-q
21. If velocity v, acceleration A and force F are chosen 21. v, A F

as fundamental quantities, then the dimensional
v, A F
formula of angular momentum in terms of v, A
and F would be : (1) FA–1v
(1) FA–1v
(2) Fv3A–2
3 –2
(2) Fv A
(3) Fv2A–1
(3) Fv2A–1
(4) F2v2A–1. (4) F2v2A–1.
22. If the length of rod A is 3.25 ± 0.01 cm and that of 22. A 3.25 ± 0.01 cm B
B is 4.19 ± 0.01 cm, then the rod B is longer than 4.19 ± 0.01 cm B A
rod A by :
(1) 0.94 ± 0.02 cm
(1) 0.94 ± 0.02 cm
(2) 0.94 ± 0.01 cm
(2) 0.94 ± 0.01 cm
(3) 0.94 ± 0.00 cm (3) 0.94 ± 0.00 cm
(4) 0.94 ± 0.05 cm (4) 0.94 ± 0.05 cm
NLI / 6
23. If momentum (M), area (L) and time (T) are taken 23. (M), (L) (T)
to be fundamental quantities, then the energy has
the dimensional formula :
(1) [M1 L–1 T1]
(1) [M1 L–1 T1]
(2) [M2 L1 T1]
(2) [M2 L1 T1]
(3) [M1 L–1/2 T1] (3) [M1 L–1/2 T1]
(4) [M1 L1/2 T–1] (4) [M1 L1/2 T–1]
24. Significant figure in 1.0030 is: 24. 1.0030
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 3. (4) 3.
25. Significant figure in 1.00 is: 25. 1.00
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) 2 u
(2) 2 te
ti t
(3) 1 s
(3) 1
t In
gh
(4) 3. (4) 3.
i
L 26.
26. The radius of a ball is (5.2 ± 0.2) cm. The percentage (5.2 ± 0.2) cm
w
error in the volume of the ball is :
Ne
(1) 11% (1) 11%
(2) 4% (2) 4%
(3) 7% (3) 7%
(4) 9%. (4) 9%.
27. Dimension of Plank's constant is same as that of : 27.
(1) Momentum (1)
(2) Torque (2)
(3) Angular momentum (3)
(4) Moment of inertia (4)
28. 1 micro meter    is : 28. 1  

(1) 10–9 meter (1) 10–9 meter
(2) 10–12 meter (2) 10–12 meter
(3) 10–6 meter (3) 10–6 meter
(4) 10–13 meter (4) 10–13 meter
NLI / 7
29. The dimensional fourmula for impulse is : 29.
(1) MLT–2 (1) MLT–2
(2) MLT–1 (2) MLT–1
(3) ML2T–1 (3) ML2T–1
(4) M2LT–1 (4) M2LT–1
30. If dimensions of critical velocity v c of a liquid 30. vc [x y rz]

flowing through a tube are expressed as [x y rz], ,  r
where , and r are the coefficient of viscosity of
x, y
liquid, density of liquid and radius of the tube
respectively, then the values of x, y and z are given z
by :
(1) –1, –1, –1
(1) –1, –1, –1
(2) 1, –1, –1
(2) 1, –1, –1
(3) 1, 1, 1
(3) 1, 1, 1
(4) –1, –1, 1. (4) –1, –1, 1.

2
 2)
y  10(ax
2
 2) 31. a
31. Find the dimension of a in equation y  10(ax
te
:
(1) L2 (1)itLu 2
n s(2)t L
(2) L–2
t I –2
(3) L3 igh (3) L 3
L
(4) L–3 w (4) L–3
32. In the S.I. System the unit of force is : Ne 32. S.I.
(1) watt (1) watt
(2) dyne (2) dyne
(3) newton (3) newton
(4) poundal (4) poundal
33. SI unit of magnetic flux is : 33. SI
(1) Tesla (1)
(2) Oersted (2)
(3) Weber (3)
(4) Gauss. (4)
34. If force between two particles at distance r is given 34. r F = F0e–r

by F = F0e–r. Then dimension of  is : 
(1) [L–1] (1) [L–1]
(2) [L0] (2) [L0]

(3) [L] (3) [L]
(4) [MLT–1] (4) [MLT–1]
NLI / 8
35. If frequency (f) depends upon tension (T) length () 35. (f) (T) R
and mass per unit length (m) and are related as (m) f  T x y m z x, y
f  Tx y mz value of x, y and z are: z
1 1 1
(1) x = , z = – , y = –1 1
2 2 (1) x = , z = – , y = –1
2 2
(2) x = 1, z = 1, y = –1 (2) x = 1, z = 1, y = –1
(3) x = 2, y = 3, z = 2 (3) x = 2, y = 3, z = 2
(4) x = 2, z = 1, y = 1 (4) x = 2, z = 1, y = 1
SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. Match List–I with List–II 36. –I –II
List–I List–II –I –II
(a) h (Planck's constant) (i) [MLT–1]
(a) h ( ) (i) [MLT–1]
(b) E (Kinetic energy) (ii) [ML2T–1]
(b) E ( ) (ii) [ML2T–1]
(c) V (Electric potential) (iii) [ML2T–2]
(c) V ( ) (iii) [ML2T–2]
2 –1 –3
(d) P(Linear momentum) (iv) [ML I T ]
Choose the correct answer from the options given u te

(d) P( ) (iv) [ML2I–1T–3]
tit
ns(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
below:
I
(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
g ht
(2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i Li (2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
w
Ne
(3) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii (3) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
(4) a–iii, b–ii, C–iv, D–i (4) a–iii, b–ii, C–iv, D–i
37. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and 37. 0.01 mm
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The 50
pitch of the screw gauge is:
(1) 1.0 mm (1) 1.0 mm
(2) 0.01 mm (2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.25 mm (3) 0.25 mm
(4) 0.5 mm (4) 0.5 mm
38. Choose the incorrect statement out of the 38.

following:
(1)
(1) Every measurement by any measuring instrument
has some error (2)
(2) Every calculated physical quantity that is based

on measured values has some error (3)
(3) A measurement can have more accuracy but more
precision and vice versa
(4)
(4) The precentage error is different from relative error
NLI / 9
39. In C.G.S system the magnitude of the force is 100 39. C.G.S 100
dyne. In another system where the fundamental
physical quantities are kilogram, metre and
minute, the magnitude of the force is:
(1) 0.036 (1) 0.036
(2) 0.36 (2) 0.36
(3) 3.6 (3) 3.6
(4) 36 (4) 36
40. Assertion: Parallax method cannot be used for 40. : 100
measuring distances of stars more than 100 light

years away
Reason: Because parallax angle reduces so much :

that it cannot be measured accurately
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason (1)
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3)
te
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
tu
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false
sti (4)
41. Assertion: The graph between P and Q is straight 41.In :P Q

t
line, when P/Q is constant
igh P/Q
Reason: The straight line graph means thatLP : P, Q

w
Ne
proportional to Q or P is equal to constant P Q
multiplied by Q.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (3)

(4) It the assertion and reason both are false (4)
42. Assertion: When we change the unit of 42. :
measurement of a quantity, its numerical value
changes
Reason: Smaller the unit of measurement smaller :

is its numerical value
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (3)

(4) It the assertion and reason both are false (4)
NLI / 10
43. If the time period of oscillation of a pendulum is 43.
measured as 2.5 second using a stop watch with 2.5 1/2
the least count 1/2 second, then the permissible
:
error in the measurement is:
(1) 10%
(1) 10%
(2) 30%
(2) 30%
(3) 15% (3) 15%
(4) 20% (4) 20%
44. Which two of the follow ing fiv e physical 44.

parameters have the same dimensions
(A) Energy density (A)
(B) Electric field (B)
(C) Dielectric constant (C)
(D) Young's modulus (D)
(E) Magnetic field (E)
u te
(1) A and D
ti t(1) AD
(2) A and E Ins(2) A E

g ht (3) B D
Li
(3) B and D
(4) C and E
N ew (4) C E
45. S = A(1–e –Bxt ), where S is speed and x is 45. S = A(1–e–Bxt), S x B

displacement The unit of B is:
(1) m–1s–1 (1) m–1s–1
(2) m–2s (2) m–2s
(3) s (3) s
(4) s–1 (4) s–1
46. In an experiment, the percentage of error 46. A, B, C D

occurred A in the measurement of physical 1%, 2%, 3% 4%
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
1
respectively. Then the maximum percentage of A 2B 2
X X=
1 1
A 2B 2 C 3 D3
error in the measurement X, when X = ,
1
3 3
C D
will be :
 3  3
(1)  %
(1)   %
 13   13 
(2) 16% (2) 16%

(3) –10% (3) –10%
(4) 10%. (4) 10%.
NLI / 11
47. In an experiment, to measure the height of a 47.
bridge by dropping stone into water underneath,
2s
if the error in measurement of time is 0.1s at the
end of 2s, then the error in estimation of height of 0.1 s
bridge will be :
(1) 0.49 m (1) 0.49 m
(2) 0.98 m (2) 0.98 m
(3) 1.96 m (3) 1.96 m
(4) 2.12 m (4) 2.12 m
hc 5 hc 5
48. f f= c
48. A quantity f is given by f = where c is speed G
G
of light, G universal graviational constant and h is G h
the Planck's constant. Dimension of f is that of : f
(1) Momentum (1)
(2) Area (2)
(3) Energy (3)
(4) Volume
u te
(4)
i t
49. If speed V, area A and force F are chosen as 49. st V, A F
fundamental units, then the dimension of Young's In
modulus will be :
g ht
2
(1) FA V –3 Li (1) FA V 2 –3
w
Ne
2 –1
2
(2) FA V –1 (2) FA V
(3) FA2V–2 (3) FA2V–2
(4) FA–1V0. (4) FA–1V0.
1 E 1 1 E 1
50. The quantities X = ,Y= and Z = are 50. X= ,Y= Z=
μ0 0 B CR μ0 0 B CR
defined where C-capacitance, R-Resistance, C- R- , L- , E- ,

L-Length, E-Electric field, B-magnetic field and
B- 0 0
0 ,  0 – free space permittivity and permeability
respectively. Then :
(1) Only Y and Z have the same dimension (1) Y Z
(2) Only X and Y have the same dimension (2) X Y
(3) Only X and Z have the same dimension (3) X Z
(4) Only X, Y and Z have the same dimension (4) X, Y Z
NLI / 12
TOPIC : PERIODIC TABLE AND PROPERTIES

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A SECTION-A
51. Greatest amount of energy involves in the 51.
transformation of :
(1) Ca+  Ca+2 + e–
(1) Ca+  Ca+2 + e–
(2) K+  K+2 + e–
(2) K+  K+2 + e–
(3) Na+  Na+2 + e–
(3) Na+  Na+2 + e–
(4) Ba+  Ba+2 + e– (4) Ba+  Ba+2 + e–
52. Incorrect statement is/are : 52.
a. Maximum element containing group is third a.
b. Law of octave is valid only upto atomic no. 20. b.
c. Li-Mg pair shows diagonal relationship. c. Li-Mg

(1) a, b c
(1) a, b and c
te
(2)itbu c
(2) b and c
t
(3) a and b Ins(3) a b
g ht (4)
Li 53.
(4) None of these
53. Given below are two statements : w

Statement I: Ne I:
Mendeleev's periodic table was based on atomic

numbers.
II :
Statement II :
Modern periodic table is based on atomic masses.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II
54. Reactivity of s-block elements increase as we go 54. s-

down to group due to mainly in :
(1) increase in electron affinity (1)

(2) decrease in ionization enthalpy (2)
(3) increase in ionization enthalpy (3)
(4) decrease in electron affinty (4)
NLI / 13
55. Arrange the following elements in the increasing 55.
orders of their metallic character : Li, Na, K, Be
Li, Na, K, Be
(1) Li < Be < Na < K (1) Li < Be < Na < K
(2) Be < Li < Na < K (2) Be < Li < Na < K
(3) K < Na < Li < Be (3) K < Na < Li < Be
(4) Na < Be < Li < K (4) Na < Be < Li < K
56. Second ionization enthalpy will be higher than 56.
the first ionization enthalpy it is due to :
(1) It is more difficult to add an e– to a +vely charged (1)
ion
(2) It is more difficult to remove an e– from a positively
charged ion (2)
(3) Due to increase in effective nuclear force in mono

valent cation. (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) (3)
57. Correct order of screening effect for electrons 57.
present in different sub shell will be :
(1) s > p > d > f
te
(1) s > p > d > f
u
(2) p > s > d > f
ti t
(2) p > s > d > f
(3) s > d > p > f s
In (4) f > p > s > d
(3) s > d > p > f
(4) f > p > s > d t
58. Given below are two statements : igh58.
L
Statement I :
N ew I:
elements of the same group have similar valence
shell electronic configuration and therefore,
exhibit similar chemical properties.
II :
Statement II :
Four types of elements can be recognized in the
periodic table on the basis of their electronic (s- p-
configuration (s-block, p-block, d-block and f-block). d- f- )
below :
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Stalement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (3) I II
59. Which of the following obeys triad law : 59.
(1) Li, Na, K

(1) Li, Na, K
(2) H, Li, K
(2) H, Li, K
(3) Cl , Br , I
(3) Cl , Br , I
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) (3)
NLI / 14
60. Nature of Cl2O7 is : 60. Cl2O7 :
(1) Acidic (1)
(2) Basic (2)
(3) Amphoteric (3)
(4) None (4)
61. The formation of the oxide ion O2–(g) require first 61. O2–(g)
an exothermic and then an endothermic step as
shown below :
O(g) + e–  O(g)–; H0 = –142 kJ mol–1 O(g) + e–  O(g)–; H0 = –142 kJ mol–1
O–(g) + e–  O2– (g); H0 = 844 kJ mol–1 O–(g) + e–  O2– (g); H0 = 844 kJ mol–1
This is because : (1)

(1) oxygen is more electronegative (2) O –
(2) O– ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen
atom
(3) O–
(3) O– ion will tend to resist the addition of another
electron
(4) Oxygen has high electron affinity.

u te (4)
i t
62. Given below are two statements : 62. st
Statements I : t In I:
h
Lig
Silicon is group 14 element with a valence of 4;
bromine belongs to the halogen family with
ew a
valence of 1. Hence the formula of the compound
formed would be SiBr4.
N SiBr4
Statements II : II :
Aluminium belongs to group 13 with a valence of
3; sulphur belongs to group 16 elements with a
valence of 6. Hence, the formula of the compound
formed would be Al6S3.
Al6S3
most appropritate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
63. The screening effect of inner electrons on the 63.
nucleus causes :
(1) A decrease in the ionization potential (1)
(2) An increase in the ionization potential (2)
(3) No effect on the ionization potential (3)
NLI / 15
64. Four elements are given, choose the correct order 64.
of their first ionisation potential :
a. 1s2, 2s22p63s1 b. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p6
a. 1s2, 2s22p63s1 b. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p6
c. 1s2, 2s2 2p63s23p2 d. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p1
c. 1s2, 2s2 2p63s23p2 d. 1s2, 2s22p63s23p1
(1) a > b > c > d
(1) a > b > c > d
(2) d > c > b > a (2) d > c > b > a
(3) b > c > d > a (3) b > c > d > a
(4) b > d > c > a (4) b > d > c > a
65. The correct order of electron affinity of the 65.

elements of oxygen family in the periodic table is:
(1) O > S > Se (1) O > S > Se
(2) S > O > Se (2) S > O > Se
(3) S > Se > O (3) S > Se > O
(4) Se > O > S (4) Se > O > S
66. Given below are two statements : 66.
Statement I : I:
Metals comprise more than seventy eight per cent

u te
of the known elements. t
ti II :
s
Statement II :
t In
Nonmetals, which are located at the top of the h
periodic table, are more than twenty in number.ig
L
w
In the Light of the above statements, choose the
most appropnate answer from the options
below :
Ne given
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are Incorrect.
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Incorrect.
67. Consider the isoelectronic series : Na+, O2–, F– and 67. Na+, O2–, F– Mg2+
Mg2+, the radii of the ions decrease as :
(1) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (1) Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
(2) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+ (2) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+
(3) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ (3) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+
(4) Na+ >Mg2+ > O2– > F– (4) Na+ >Mg2+ > O2– > F–
68. Atomic radii are :
68.
(1) directly proportional to square of effective nuclear
charge (1)
(2) inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge (2)

(3) inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear (3)
charge
(4)
(4) directly proportional to effective nuclear charge
NLI / 16
69. Element, the electronic configuration of which is 69. 1s2, 2s2 ,2p6 ,3s2, 3p6 , 3d10, 4s2, 4P6 4d10, 5s2
1s2, 2s2 ,2p6 ,3s2, 3p6 , 3d10, 4s2, 4P6 4d10, 5s2 belongs
to the following group of the Periodic Table.
(1) II B
(1) II B
(2) V B (2) V B
(3) III B (3) III B
(4) VII B (4) VII B

70. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 70. (A)
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R).
(A) :
Assertion(A):
Electronegativity is measurable quantity.
Reason(R): (R) :
The electronegativity of any given element is not
constant, it varies depending on the element to
which it bound.
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct u te(A)
exaplanation of (A) t
ti (A)
(1) (R) (R)
s
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
t In
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct g h (2) (A) (R)
Li
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(3) (A) (R)
w
Ne
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
71. The discovery of which of the following group of 71.
elements gave death to the Newland's law of
octaves?
(1) Inert gases (1)
(2) Alkaline earth metal (2)
(3) Rare earth metal (3)
(4) Actinides (4)

72. In which of the following arrangement the order 72.
is not correct according to property indicated
against it?
(1) : Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < O–2
(1) Increasing size : Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < O–2
(2) IE1 : B < Be < O < N
(2) Increasing IE1 : B < Be < O < N
(3) EA1 : I < F < Br < Cl
(3) Increasing EA1 : I < F < Br < Cl
(4) Increasing electronegativity I < Br < Cl < F (4) : I < Br < Cl < F
73. Electron affinity of Cl is more than F due to : 73. Cl F

(1) Greater inner electronic repulsion in chlorine (1)
(2) Lesser inner electron repulsion in chlorine (2)
(3) Lesser inner electronic repulsion in F (3)
(4) None of these
(4)
NLI / 17
74. A plot of v (frequency) against atomic number 74. v (z)

(z) gave a :
(1)
(1) Straight line
(2)
(2) Curve
(3)
(3) Parabola
(4) hyperbola (4)
75. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 75. (A)
as : (R)
–
Assertion(A): Boron can only form [BF4] , whereas
(A) : [BF4]–
aluminium forms [AlF6]3–.
[AlF6]3–
Reason(R): The first member of a group of
elements in the s- and p-block shows anomalous (R) : s- p-
behaviour.
below:
(1) Both(A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R)
correct explanation of (A).
u te
(A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. ti t
s
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. t In
gh
(3) (A) (R)
i
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
L
explanation of (A). (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
w
76. By what name the elements after Uranium Ne are 76.
called :
(1)
(1) Transition elements
(2)
(2) Lanthanoids
(3) Actanoids (3)
(4) Transuranium elements (4)
77. The removal of an electron from an atom results 77.

in the formation of a :
(1)
(1) Anion
(2)
(2) Catalyst
(3) Cation (3)
(4) Corrosion (4)
78. Which of the following element is amphoteric in 78.

nature :
(1) Al
(1) Al
(2) Zn
(2) Zn
(3) Cu (3) Cu
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
NLI / 18
79. Eka-aluminium was later called : 79.
(1) Boron (1)
(2) Scandium (2)
(3) Gallium (3)
(4) Germanium (4)
80. In mendeleef’s periodic table which group is not 80. A B
divided into sub group A and B :
(1) First (1)

(2) Seventh (2)
(3) Eights (3)
(4) All of these (4)
81. Digonal relation ship is due to : 81.
(1) Similar ionic potential (1)
(2) Similar atomic mass
(2)
(3) Similar atomic number
te
(3)
(4) None of these tu
sti (4)
82.In
82. Given below are two statements:
Statement I :
g ht I:
Energy is released when an electron is addedLto
i
wstate
Ne
neutral isolated gaseous atom in its ground
to give monoanion and this is known as EA, or
EA egH
egH.
Statement II :
II :
The greater the amount of energy releases the
greater is the EA. EA

below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

83. As positive charge on cation decreases radii ........? 83.
(1) Increases (1)
(2) Decreases (2)
(3) Remains constant (3)
NLI / 19
84. Nature of As2O3 is : 84. As2O3 :
(1) Acidic (1)
(2) Basic (2)
(3) Amphoteric (3)

85. Electronegativity of element depends on : 85.
(1) radii (1)
(2) z-effective (2)
(3) charge on species (3)
SECTION-B SECTION-B
86. Given below are two statements : 86.
Statement I :
I:
In the periodic table oxides formed of the elements
on the right are basic and of the elements on the
u te
left are acidic in nature. t
ti II :
s
Statement II :
t In
In the periodic table oxides of elements in the h
g
centre are amphoteric or neutral.
Li
w the
Ne
In the light of the above statements, choose
below:
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
87. Cylindrical table of elements given by de 87. 1862

Chancourtois in 1862. This table is based on :
(1) increasing atomic number (1)
(2) increasing atomic weight (2)

(3) decreasing atomic number (3)
(4) increasing atomic size (4)
th th
88. Total number of elements of 6 and 7 period 88. 6th 7th
which have been placed outside the periodic table:
(1) 32 (1) 32
(2) 18 (2) 18
(3) 14 (3) 14
(4) 28 (4) 28
NLI / 20
89. IUPAC name of the element having atomic 89. 119 IUPAC
number 119 is :
(1) Ununnonium (uun)
(1) Ununnonium (uun)
(2) Oneunnonium (Oun)
(2) Oneunnonium (Oun)
(3) Unnilennium (une)
(3) Unnilennium (une)
(4) Ununennium (uue) (4) Ununennium (uue)
90. The ionic radii (in Å) of N 3–, O 2– and F – are 90. N3–, O2– F– (Å )
respectively:
(1) 1.36, 1.40 1.71
(1) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
(2) 1.36, 1.71 1.40
(2) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
(3) 1.71, 1.40 1.36
(3) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
(4) 1.71, 1.36 1.40
(4) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
91. Which of the following is correct for actinoids : 91.
(1) Actinoids are after At. No. 89 upto At. No. 103 (1) 89 103
(2) These belongs to 7th period th
te7
(2)
(3) 5f subshell is the main for receiving the last
ti
(3)tu 5f
ns(4)
electron.
I
(4) All
g ht
92. Li 92.
After the discovery of element of atomic number 120
120, which group and period respectively,w will it
belongs to : Ne
(1) 8, 9
(1) 8, 9
(2) 1, 8
(2) 1, 8
(3) 2, 8 (3) 2, 8
(4) 2, 9 (4) 2, 9
93. 4th period has 18 elements because filling of : 93. 18
(1) 3s 3p 3d (1) 3s 3p 3d
(2) 4s 3d 4p (2) 4s 3d 4p
(3) 4s 3f 4p (3) 4s 3f 4p
(4) 3s 4f 5d (4) 3s 4f 5d
94. Representative elements are : 94.
(1) s-block elements (1) s-
(2) p-block elements (2) p-
(3) f-block elements (3) f-
(4) s and p-block elements (4) s p-
NLI / 21
95. Which of the following transformation least 95.

energy is required :
(1) F–(g)  F(g) + e– (1) F–(g)  F(g) + e–

(2) P–(g)  P(g) + e– (2) P–(g)  P(g) + e–
(3) S–(g)  S(g) + e– (3) S–(g)  S(g) + e–
(4) Cl–(g)  Cl(g) + e– (4) Cl–(g)  Cl(g) + e–
96. Radii of noble gases should be measured by : 96.
(1) Metallic radius (1)
(2) Covalent radius (2)
(3) Vander wall radius (3)
97. Select incorrect statment : 97.
(1) Formation of Cl– ion is exothermic whereas O2– is (1) Cl–
endothermic from their respective elements. O2–
te
(2) Noble gases have highest ionisation energy in their (2)
respective period.
tu
sti
(3) In general successive electron gain enthalpy of
elements will be negative. t In (3)
(4) F atom has less electron affinity the Cl atom. Li
gh
(4) F Cl
w
Ne
98. Electron affinity of He is equal to : 98. He
(1) C (1) C
(2) Cl (2) Cl
(3) O (3) O
99. The correct order of electron affinity of Cl, S, F, O 99. Cl, S, F O

is :
(1) F > Cl > O > S
(1) F > Cl > O > S
(2) Cl > F > O > S
(2) Cl > F > O > S
(3) Cl > F > S > O
(3) Cl > F > S > O
(4) S > O > F > C (4) S > O > F > C
100. The element having very high ionization enthalpy 100.

but zero electron affinity is :
(1) H (1) H
(2) F (2) F
(3) Ne (3) Ne
(4) Be (4) Be
NLI / 22
TOPIC : The Living World, Biological Classification

SECTION–A– [Part-1] SECTION–A– [Part-1]
101. Assertion : In the single celled organisms, we are 101. :

not very clear about the uses of two terms - growth
and reproduction.
:
Reason : In single celled organisms, reproduction
is synonymous with growth (increase in number
of cells). (1)
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason

is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2)
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4)
102. Twin characteristics of growth are :
102.
(1) Increase in mass
(1)
te
(2) Increase in number of individuals
(2)
tu
(3) Increase in mass and increase in number of organism
sti
(3)
(4) Increase in cells mass and decrease in number of
t In
gh
cells (4)
103. Budding takes place in which of the following
i
L 103.
unicellular group w
(1) Planaria and yeast
Ne
(1)
(2) Yeast and Hydra (2)
(3) Yeast and Saccharomyces (3)
(4) Taenia and Hydra (4)
104. Regeneration observe in 104.
(1) Planaria (1)
(2) Bacteria and all multicellular organism (2)
(3) In organisms like yeast and Human (3)
105. Reproduction is not defining property of living 105.

organism because
(1)
(1) Mules and sterile worker bees do not reproduce
(2)
(2) Mostly human couple reproduce
(3)
(3) Drones and Queens of honey bees not reproduce
NLI / 23
106. The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema 106.

of mosses, all easily multiply by
(1) Budding (1)
(2) Fission (2)
(3) Fragmentation (3)
(4) Sexual fusion (4)
107. Which of the following is defining feature of living 107.

organism :
(1)
(1) Cellular organisation
(2)
(2) Growth
(3)
(3) Reproduction
108. Which contain information on any one taxon of 108.

u te
ti t
plant or animal: s
t In
gh
(1) Flora (1)
Li
(2) Manuals w (2)
Ne (3)
(3) Monograph
(4) Catalogue (4)
109. The number of species that are known and 109.

described range between
(1) 1.7 – 1.8
(1) 1.7-1.8 billion
(2) 1.7-1.8
(2) 1.7-1.8 million
(3) 2.7 – 2.8
(3) 2.7-2.8 billion
(4) 2.4 - 3.1 million (4) 2.4 – 3.1
110. The science of arrangement of the plant into 110.

different group is known as
(1) Nomenclature (1)
(2) Taxonomy (2)
(3) Classification (3)
(4) Identification (4)
NLI / 24
111. Match the following option : 111.
a) Metabolism - Sum total of all the
a) –
chemical reactions
occurring in our
body.
b) Consciousness - The ability of
organism to sense b) –
their surroundings or
environment and
respond
c) Growth - Permanant, c) –
irreversible
change in mass and
volume of the living
organism.
d) –
d) Reproduction - Process of
regenarating organ
or body of organism (1) a b
(1) Only a and b are correct
u te a, b
ti t
(2) c
(2) Only a, b and c are correct
s
(3) Only c and d are correct t In (3) c d
(4) All a, b, c and d are correct igh (4) a, b, c d

L
112. The naming system given by Carolus Linnaeus is w 112.
being practised by biologists Ne
(1) In some country (1)
(2) All over the World (2)
(3) All over the western country (3)
(4) All over the south Indian states (4)
113. The scientific names ensure that 113.
(1) Each organism has only correct name. (1)
(2) Each organism has only one name. (2)
(3) Each organism has only one word correct name. (3)
(4) Each organism has only two word correct name. (4)
114. In the two word scientific names the author’s 114.

name can be
(1)
(1) Abbreviated
(2)
(2) Small letter
(3)
(3) Capital letter
(4) 1st and 3rd (4)
NLI / 25
115. Lowest catagory of taxonomic hierarchy among 115.
the following is (1)
(1) Kingdom
(2)
(2) Phylum
(3)
(3) Class
(4)
(4) Species
116. Both the words in a biological name, when 116.

handwritten, are
(1)
(1) Underlined in combined
(2)
(2) Separately underlined
(3)
(3) Separated by comma
117. Find the correct matching and choose correct 117.

option :
a) -
a) Species - Highest category of
plant b) -
b) Taxon - Group of real u te
organism, ti t
s
represent living
t In
organism
igh c) -
c) Kingdom - Broad category L d) -
w
Ne
d) Systematic - Arrangement of
organisms (1) a b
(1) Only a and b are correct (2) a, b c

(2) Only a, b and c are correct (3) b, c d
(3) Only b, c and d are correct
(4) a, b, c d
(4) All a, b, c and d are correct
118. Panthera belongs to order 118.
(1) Hervivora (1)
(2) Primata (2)
(3) Carnivora (3)
(4) Felis (4)
119. In which of the following animals, belongs to 119.

same order ?
(1) Fishes, amphibians, reptiles (1)

(2) Cat, gibbon, rat (2)
(3) Monkey, gorilla and gibbon (3)
(4) Tiger, cat and rat (4)
NLI / 26
120. Petunia, tomato, potato and Datura are placed in 120.
how many family
(1) One (1)

(2) Two (2)
(3) Three (3)
(4) Four (4)
121. Which one of the following animals is correctly 121.
matched with its particular named taxonomic
category?
(1)
(1) Housefly – Musca, an order
(2) Tiger – tigris, the species (2)
(3) Housefly – Insecta, a phylum (3)
(4) Humans – Primata, the family (4)
122. Dog belongs to family 122.
te
(1) Felidae (1)
tu
(2) Canidae
sti
(2)
(3) Carnivora t In (3)

igh
(4) Panthera
L (4)
w
Ne
123. The next higher catagory which includes fishes. 123.
amphibians. reptiles. birds along with mammals is
(1) Class (1)

(2) Order (2)
(3) Phylum (3)
(4) Kingdom (4)
124. Taxonomy is connected with
124.
(1) Collection of plants and animals
(1)
(2) Classification of organisms
(2)
(3) Identification, nomenclature and classification of
(3)
organisms
(4) All the above. (4)
125. In the scientific name of Mangifera indica Linn. 125.
(1) Letter Linn signifies latin language (1)

(2) The name is reverse with Indica preceeding (2)
mangifera
(3)
(3) Letter Linn signifies taxonomist Linnaeus
(4) Letter Linn is superfluous. (4)
NLI / 27
126. First act in taxonomy is 126.
(1) Description (1)
(2) Identification (2)
(3) Naming (3)
(4) Classification (4)
127. Read the following statements and choose correct 127.

answer:
(i)
(i) Biological name are generally in latin and
written in italics
(ii) The First word in biological name represent (ii)

species while the second word represent
genus
(iii)
(iii) Both word in biological name saparately
underlined when hand written
(iv) Both word in biological name start with capital (iv)

letter
u te
(1) i, ii, iii iv
(1) i, ii, iii correct and iv incorrect
t
ti i, ii
s(2) iii, iv
(2) i, ii correct and iii, iv incorrect
t In
(3) ii, iii correct and i,iv incorrect
g h (3) ii, iii i,iv
(4) i, iii correct and ii,iv incorrect Li (4) i, iii ii,iv

w
128. If hyphae are continuous tube Ne with
filled 128.
multinucleated cytoplasm is known as
(1) Septate hyphae

(1)
(2) Coenocytic hyphae
(2)
(3) Mycelium
(3)
(4) None
(4)
129. Number of broad categories is 129.
(1) 9 (1) 9
(2) 7 (2) 7
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 3 (4) 3
130. Hierarchy of categories was introduced by 130.
(1) Linnaeus (1)
(2) De Candolle (2)
(3) Ernst Mayr (3)
(4) John Ray. (4)
NLI / 28
131. Which one of the following animals is correctly 131.
matched with its particular named taxonomic

category? a) -
a) Mango - Mangifera indica. b) -
b) Potato - Solanum tuberosum c) -

c) Tiger - Panthera tigiris d) -
d) Leopard - Panthera leo
(1) a b
(2) a, b c
(3) b, c d
(3) Only b, c and d are correct
(4) a, b, c d
132.
132. Binomial nomenclature is
(1)
(1) Not applicable to cyanobacteria
(2)
(2) Not accepted by a number of countries
(3) Universal with one specific name to each organism

u te(3)
ti
(4)t
(4) Universal with two specific names to each organism. s
133. Species is t In
133.
igh
(1) Group of individuals occurring in a geographicalL (1)
w
Ne
area
(2)
(2) Population of different type
(3)
(3) Population or populations of individuals with similar
genotypic and phenotypic traits
(4)
(4) Population or populations of interbreeding individuals.
134.
134. Common names are
(1)
(1) Nonscientific
(2)
(2) Scientific
(3)
(3) Morphological
(4)
(4) Universal.
135.
135. The category family is between
(1)
(1) Genus and species
(2)
(2) Order and genus
(3)
(3) Phylum and genus
(4)
(4) Kingdom and class.
NLI / 29
SECTION–B– [Part-1] SECTION–B– [Part-1]
136. Assertion : Cellular organisation of the body is 136. :

defining feature of life forms
Reason : Metabolic reaction can not be :

demonstrated out side the body in cell - free
system
(1)
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is (2)
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3)

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (4)
137. Statement -I : Slime moulds are saprophytic 137. -I :
protists
-II:
Statement -II: Spores are dispersed by water
currents (1) I II
(1) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
u
(2) te I II
(2) Statement I & II both are correct ti t
n s
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct I
(4) Both statement are incorrect
g ht (4)
138. Statement -I : Higher the taxa, more Li 138.
the -I :
w
Ne
characteristic that members within the taxon
share.
-II:
Statement -II: Lower the categories greater is the
difficulty of determining the relationship to other
taxa at same level. (1) I II
(1) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect (2) I II
(2) Statement I & II both are correct (3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(4)
139.
139. Keys are required for
(1)
(1) Phylogenetic classification
(2)
(2) Natural classification
(3)
(3) Identification of organisms
(4) Both 2 and 3. (4) 2 3
140. Which one is a taxonomic aid 140.

(1) Manual (1)
(2) Monograph (2)
(3) Museum (3)
(4) All the above. (4)
NLI / 30
141. Zoological parks contain 141.
(1) Stuffed animals (1)

(2) Animal skeletons (2)
(3) Live wild animals (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2. (4) 1 2
142. Collection and preservation of animals and plants
142.
is meant for
(1) Decoration (1)
(2) Posterity as the present forms are going to change (2)

due to evolution
(3) First hand information and study (3)
(4) Display in museum.
(4)
143. Select correct answer from following statements:
143. :
(i) Properties of tissues are present in constituent
cell (i)
(ii) Properties of cellular organells are present (ii)

in molecular constituent of organells.
u te
ti t
(iii) Properties of tissue arise as the result of s(iii)
interaction among cells
t In
(iv) Properties of cellular organells arise as thegh
result of interaction among the molecularLi (iv)
component comprising the cells w
(1) i and iii correct Ne (1) i iii
(2) i and ii correct (2) i ii
(3) iii and iv correct (3) iii iv
(4) i and iv correct (4) i iv

144. Euglenoids have protein rich layer instead of cell 144.
wall this layer is called:
(1) Pellicle (1)
(2) Chitin (2)
(3) Cellulose (3)
(4) Pectin (4)
145. NBRI is located in 145. NBRI
(1) Kolkata (1)
(2) Chennai (2)
(3) Lucknow (3)
(4) Darjeeling. (4)
NLI / 31
146. Match the following with respect to disease in 146.
different organism :
a) Cholera - Vibreo cholrae

a) -
b) Typhoid - Salmonella
typhimurium b) -
c) Tetanus - Clostidrium tetani c) -
d) Citrus canker - Xanthomonas citri d) -
(1) Only a and b are correct (1) a b
(2) Only a, b and c are correct (2) a, b c
(3) Only c and d are correct (3) c d
(4) All a,b,c and d are correct (4) a, b, c d
147. :
147. Which of the following is/are correct:
A. Bacteria are most abundant microorganism A.
B. Bacteria are individualy show most extensive B.
metabolic diversity
u te
ti
C.
t
C. Bacteria are very simple in behaviour but s
t In
gh
complex in structure
Li D.
D. Bacteria may be photosynthetic autotrophic
w
or chemosynthetic autotrophic Ne (1) A,B
(1) A,B only
(2) B,C
(2) B,C only
(3) A,D
(3) A,D only
(4) A,B,C D
(4) A,B,C and D
148. Several genera resembling one another in their 148.

major anatomical and reproductive characters are
placed together in (1)
(1) Species
(2)
(2) Genus
(3)
(3) Family
(4) Order. (4)

149. Match the incorrect option in the following with 149.
respect to reproduction. (1) -
(1) Yeast - Budding
(2) -
(2) Protonema of mosses - Fragmentation
(3) -
(3) Planaria - True regeneration
(4) Hydra - Binary fission (4) -
NLI / 32
option :
a) Scientific names - Based on Agreed a) -
principles and
criteria
b) -
b) Abbreviated form - Name of the author
written c) -
c) Taxonomy - process of
classification of
organism d) -
d) Hierarchy - Graded organisation (1) a b
of organism
(2) a, b c
(2) Only a, b and c are correct (3) c d
(3) Only c and d are correct
(4) a, b, c d
SECTION–A– [Part-2] SECTION–A– [Part-2]
151. In phycomycetes 151.
t-Ie:
Statement -I : Asexual reproduction is by zoospore
and Aplanospores .
itu
t
Statement -II: The mycelium is aseptate and
Ins -II:
ht (1)
coenocytic.
(1) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect ig I II
L (2) I II
(2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
ew
(3) Statement I & II both are correct N (3) I II
(4)
152. Assertion: The scientific terms for the categories 152. :

like dogs, cats, mammals, plants, animals etc. is
taxa.
:
Reason: The taxa can indicate categories at very
different level
(1)
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (2)
is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false (3)
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false (4)

153.
153. Kingdom monera includes
(1)
(1) Bacteria
(2)
(2) Nostoc
(3)
(3) Archaebacteria
(4)
(4) All of these
NLI / 33
154. Which of the following is most smaller in size 154.
(1) Bacteria (1)
(2) Virus (2)
(3) Amoeba (3)
(4) Paramecium (4)
155. Most of the bacteria are 155.
(1) Chemo-autotrophs (1)
(2) Photo-autotrophs (2)
(3) Heterotrophs (3)
(4) Holozoic (4)
156. Aristotle classified plants in herbs, shrubs and 156.
trees on the basis of
(1) Anatomical feature (1)

(2) Morphological characters (2)
(3) Physiological characters (3)
(4) Biochemical characters u te
ti t
(4)
157. Whittaker’s kingdom are s
In
157.
t
gh (1)
(1) Plantae and Animalia
(2) Monera and Protista Li (2)

w
(3) Fungi
Ne (3)
(4) All (4)
158. What is common to bacteria, mosses and fungus? 158.
(1) It is mode of nutrition (1)
(2) Presence of cell wall (2)
(3) Autotrophic (3)
(4) Body organization (4)
159. Growth is indefinite in 159.
(1) Monera (1)
(2) Protista (2)
(3) Plantae (3)
(4) Animalia. (4)
160. Kingdom protista contain 160.
(1) Blue green algae (1)
(2) fungi (2)
(3) Unicellular eukaryotes (3)
(4) All (4)
NLI / 34
161. Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramoecium and 161.
Amoeba are placed in w hich kingdom of
Whittker’s classification?
(1)
(1) Monera
(2) Plantae (2)
(3) Fungi (3)
(4) Protista (4)
162. Archaebacteria can live in some of the most harsh 162.

habitats because of
(1) Presence of mesosome (1)

(2) High power of multiplication (2)
(3) Special cell wall structure (3)
(4) All of the above
(4)
163. Two kingdom classification does not distinguish
163.
between
u te
ti
(1) t
(1) Eukaryote and prokaryote s
t In (2)
gh (3)
(2) Unicellular and multicellular organism
L i
(3) Photosynthetic (green algae) and non-photosyn
w
Ne
thetic (fungi) organism
(4) All (4)
164. Vegetative reproduction in fungus can takes place 164.

by
(1)
(1) Fragmentation
(2)
(2) fission
(3)
(3) Budding
(4) All (4)
165. Match the following with respect to nutrition in 165.

different organism :
a) Cyanobacteria - Oxygenic a) -
photoautotrophs
b) Archaebacteria - Heterotrophs b) -
c) Nitrosomonas - Chemoautotrophs c) -
d) Nostoc - Saprophytes d) -
(1) Only a and b are correct (1) a b
(2) Only a, b and c are correct (2) a, b c
(3) Only c and d are correct (3) c d
(4) All a, b, c and d are correct (4) a, b, c d
NLI / 35
166. Match the Column: 166. :
Column I Column II I II
A. Salty area 1. Thermoacidophil
A. 1.
B. Hot spring 2. Methanogen
B. 2.
C. Marshy area 3. Halophiles
C. 3.
(1) A-3, B-1, C-2
(1) A-3, B-1, C-2
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3 (3) A-2, B-1, C-3
(4) A-2, B-2, C-1 (4) A-2, B-2, C-1
167. Which of the following statements is true about 167.

cyanobacteria?
(1) It is found in fresh water only. (1)

(2) It may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous (2)
(3) They often form bloom in non-polluted fresh water (3)
bodies
(4) Colonies are not surrounded by gelatinous sheath

u te (4)
i t
168. Select the total number of disease from the 168. st
following caused by bacteria
t In
Mumps, Smallpox, Citrus canker, Cholera,gh
Typhoid, Tetanus, Sleeping sickness, Malaria L
i
w
(1) 2
Ne (1) 2
(2) 4
(2) 4
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 6 (4) 6
169. Which one is correct about reproduction in 169.

bacteria?
(1)
(1) Mainly by binary fission
(2) Spores are formed under unfavorable condition (2)
(3) Sexual reproduction by transfer of DNA from one

to another (3) DNA
(4) All (4)

170. Life cycle in plant has generally two distinct phase 170. _____
the _____ sporophytic and the _____ gametophytic
_____
that alternate with each other. This phenomenon
is called alternation of generation.
(1) diploid, diploid (1)
(2) diploid, haploid (2)
(3) haploid, diploid (3) ,
(4) haploid, haploid (4) ,

NLI / 36
171. Following features belong to 171.
A. Complete lacking of cell wall A.
B. Anaerobic B.
C. Smallest living cell

C.
D. Many of them are pathogenic to plants and ani-

D.
mals
(1)
(1) Chrysophytes
(2)
(2) Prions
(3) Viroids (3)
(4) Mycoplasma (4)
172. In earlier classification (like two kingdoms), the 172.

following are included in kingdom plantae
A. Bacteria, blue green algae, fungus A.

u te
ti t
sB.
In
B. Mosses and fern
t
C. Gymnosperms and angiosperm
igh C.
L
(1) A only w (1) A
Ne (2) B C
(2) B and C only
(3) C only (3) C
(4) All (4)
173. Ascomycetes are mostly 173.
(1) Acellular (1)
(2) Unicellular (2)
(3)
(3) Multicellular
(4)
(4) All
174.
174. Unicellular ascomycetes is
(1)
(1) Penicillium
(2) Alternaria (2)
(3) Saccharomyces (yeast) (3)
(4) Agaricus (4)
NLI / 37
175. Select correct statement from the following for 175.
kingdom fungi
A.
A. They are heterotrophic
B.
B. They show less diversity in morphology and
habitat.
C. Yeast is an unicellular fungus. C.
D. They prefer to grow in warm and humid D.

places.
(1) A D
(1) A and D only
(2) C D
(2) C and D only
(3) A, C and D only (3) A, C D
(4) A and B only (4) A B
176. Characters belong to slime moulds are 176.
A. Saprophytes. A.
B. Forms plasmodium under favourable condi B.

tion.
u te
C. Spores posses true walls. ti t C.
s
D. Spores are dispersed by water. t In D.
igh E.
E. L
Body move along decaying twigs and leaves
engulfing organic matter. w
(1) All except E Ne (1) E
(2) All except D (2) D
(3) All except C and E (3) C E
(4) All except B (4) B
177. Asexual reproduction in fungus occurs by spores 177.

known as
(1) Conidia
(1)
(2) Sporangiospores (2)
(3) Zoospores (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
178. Karyogamy and meiosis occur in basidium 178.

produces _____ basidiospores _____
(1) One (1)
(2) Two (2)
(3) Three (3)
(4) Four (4)
NLI / 38
179. Basidiospores are produced on basidium 179.
(1) Endogenously (1)
(2) Exogenously (2)
(3) Both (3)
(4) None (4)
180. Find out the correct matching:
180.
(1) Ustilago-Smut
(1)
(2) Puccinia-Rust
(2)
(3) Agaricus-Mushroom
(3)
(4) All
(4)
181. Match the following with respect to cell wall in
181.
different organism
a) -
a) Monera - Non-cellulosic
b) -
b) Protista - Present in some
c) -
c) Fungi - Made of Chitin
d)
u te -
d) Plantae - Cellulosic
i t
s(1)t a, b c
t In (2) a ,b c
gh (3)
(3) Only c and d are correct Li c d
w
Ne
182. Arrange the following in descending similar 182.

charactor:
(i) Family (i)

(ii) Class (ii)
(iii) Species (iii)
(iv) Genus (iv)
(1) Family > Species > Genus > Class (1) > > >
(2) Species > Genus > Class > Family (2) > > >
(3) Species > Genus > Family > Class (3) > > >
(4) Family > Species > Genus > Class (4) > > >
183. Which of the following contain actual account of 183.
habitate and distribution of plant in given area:
:
(1) Flora
(1)
(2) Manuals (2)
(3) Catalogue (3)
(4) Monograph (4)
NLI / 39
184. Golden algae is the Common name of Algae 184.
belong to :
(1) Chrysophytes (1)
(2) Euglenoid (2)
(3) Protozoans (3)
(4) Dinoflegellates (4)
185. Who showed that virus can be crystallized out? 185.
(1) Ivanowsky (1)
(2) Beijerinek (2)
(3) Stanley (3)
(4) Pasteur (4)
SECTION–B– [Part-2] SECTION–B– [Part-2]
186. Virus contains 186.
(1) Protein u te
ti t(1)
s
(2) DNA
t In (2) DNA
(3) RNA
igh (3) RNA
L
(4) Two of these w (4)
187. Ciliated protozoan possess Ne 187.
(1) Thousands of cilia (1)
(2) Gullet that opens outsides to cell (2)
(3) Coordinated movement of rows of cilia (3)
(4) All (4)

option :
a) -
a) Aristotle - Earliest scientific
attempt of
classification
b) -
b) Linnaeus - Two Kingdom system
of classification c) -
c) R. H. Whittekar - Five Kingdom
d) M.W. -
Classification
d) M.W. Beijerinek - Discovered prions (1) a b
(1) Only a and b are correct (2) a, b c
(3) c d
(3) Only c and d are correct
NLI / 40
189. Sporozoans possess 189.
(1) Spore like stage in life cycle (1)
(2) Are infectious (2)
(3) Are motile (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
190. Which is not a correct matching : 190.
(1) Rust - Puccinia (1) -
(2) Yeast - Bread and beer (2) -
(3) Chrysophyte - Diatomaceous earth (3) -
(4) Penicillium - Red tide (4) -
191. In Archaebacteria 191.
Statement -I : They differ from other bacteria in -I :

cell wall structure.
e
t-II:
Statement -II: They survive in extreme habitats
tu
such as extreme salty areas
s ti
(1) Both statement are incorrect t In (1)
(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect igh (2)
L I II
w
Ne
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct (3) I II
192. Assertion: Cyanobacteria are unicellular and 192. :

colonial.
:
Reason: Blue green algae are chemosynthetic.
(1)
(2)
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
(3)
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
193.
193. In Euglenoids
-I :
Statement -I : Majority are fresh water organisms.
-II:
Statement -II: They have lipid rich layer called
pellicle
(1) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect (1) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both statement are incorrect (4)
NLI / 41
194. Kingdom fungi divided into various classes on 194.
the basis of
(1) Morphology of mycelium (1)
(2) Mode of spore formation (2)
(3) Type of fruiting bodies (3)
(4) All (4)
195. Habitats of phycomycetes are 195.
(1) Aquatic (1)
(2) Decaying wood in moist and damp place (2)
(3) Obligate parasite in plant (3)
(4) All (4)
196. Which of the following is extensively used in 196.

biochemical and genetic work?
(1) Aspergillus (1)

(2) Claviceps u te
t
(2)
ti
s
In
(3) Neurospora (3)
t
(4) Penicillium
igh (4)
197. L 197.
Which of the following are found in extreme saline
w
Ne
conditions ?
(1) Eubacteria (1)

(2) Cyanobacteria (2)
(3) Mycobacteria (3)
(4) Archaebacteria (4)
198. Mad cow disease in cattle caused by an agent 198.
which has:
(1) Polyhedraly arrenged protein (1)
(2) Smaller size than bacteria (2)
(3) Abnormally folded protein (3)
(4) 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
199. Viroids differ trom viruses in having; 199.
(1) DNA molecules without protein coat (1) DNA
(2) RNA
(2) RNA molecules with protein coat
(3) RNA
(3) RNA molecules without protein coat
(4) DNA
(4) DNA molecules with protein coat
NLI / 42
200. Match the following with respect to protists : 200.
a) Chrysophytes i) Saprophytes a) i)
b) Dinoflagellats ii) Mixotrophic nutrition b) ii)
c) Euglenoids iii) Two, equal flagella c) iii)
d) Slime moulds iv) Planktons d) iv)
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
u te
ti t
s
t In
igh
L
w
Ne
NLI / 43

NEET Test Series: Key Revision for Pre-Medical Exams

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

NEET Test Series: Key Revision for Pre-Medical Exams

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test Booklet Test ID : 000

ALL INDIA NEET TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

TEST DATE : 07-08-2022

Please read the instructions carefully :

• The important points to note:

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022

• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.

• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.

Please Subscribe our –

Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur

Youtube Channel - New Light Institute

TOPIC : Unit & Measurement

(4) 10% (4) 10%.

2. If error in measuring diameter of a circle is 3%, 2. 3%,

(2) [T–2] (2) [T–2]

(3) [LT–2] (3) [LT–2]

(4) [T–1] (4) [T–1] `

4. Displacement travel by a particle in nth second is 4. nth

5. Which of the following physical quantities are 5.

(1) 8 times (1) 8

(1) [L], [M1L0T2] (2) [L2],[M–1L0T2]

14. The dimensions of permittivity 0 are : 14. 0

(1) A2T2M–1L3 (1) A2T2M–1L3

(2) A2T4M–1L–3 (2) A2T4M–1L–3

(3) angular momentum (3)

(4) strain. (4)

(4) 5/2% (4) 5/2%

17. Write down the unit of energy in terms of 17.

(4) kg m2 s–2 (4) kg m2 s–2

(1) erg (1)

(2) joule (2)

(3) calorie (3)

(4) electron volt (4)

19. If E, M, J and G are respectively energy, mass 19. E, M, J G

Column-I Column-II -I -II

(1) Electrical resistance (p) [M–1L–2T4A2] (1)

(4) Inductance (s) [MT–2A–1] igh (4) (s) [MT–2A–1]

21. If velocity v, acceleration A and force F are chosen 21. v, A F

(4) 0.94 ± 0.05 cm (4) 0.94 ± 0.05 cm

(3) [M1 L–1/2 T1] (3) [M1 L–1/2 T1]

(4) [M1 L1/2 T–1] (4) [M1 L1/2 T–1]

24. Significant figure in 1.0030 is: 24. 1.0030

25. Significant figure in 1.00 is: 25. 1.00

(4) Moment of inertia (4)

28. 1 micro meter    is : 28. 1  

(2) 10–12 meter (2) 10–12 meter

(3) 10–6 meter (3) 10–6 meter

(4) 10–13 meter (4) 10–13 meter

(1) MLT–2 (1) MLT–2

(2) MLT–1 (2) MLT–1

(3) ML2T–1 (3) ML2T–1

(4) M2LT–1 (4) M2LT–1

30. If dimensions of critical velocity v c of a liquid 30. vc [x y rz]

(4) –1, –1, 1. (4) –1, –1, 1.

(3) L3 igh (3) L 3

32. In the S.I. System the unit of force is : Ne 32. S.I.

(1) watt (1) watt

(2) dyne (2) dyne

(3) newton (3) newton

(4) poundal (4) poundal

33. SI unit of magnetic flux is : 33. SI

(1) Tesla (1)