BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.

-2023

(ALL INDIA BIO TOPIC TEST SERIES-UG 2023-2024)

BTS-22
TEST-ID : 322
DURATION : 60 Minutes DATE : 25-11-2023 MARKS : 360

Topic Covered

Biology : NCERT-II Organisms and Populations

(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:

• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________

NLI / 1
 Entrance NEET

Corona Pandemic
SELECTION

NCERT - XI (346) pages NCERT - XII (285)

Pages Total 631 pages 28 pages compress
SET-H4 74 Questions

NEET-2024 80+ Questions

Morning 09
(AM) Online Test Attend

Physics & Chemistry Important Formule

(Best of Luck)
 INSTRUCTION

• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

• Rapid Fire Revision of all tests Live Classes available on "New LIght Institute"
Channel ( ) before the scheduled test.
• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.
• Chat support 24×7 available for the students on "New Light Institute" App.
• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.
For lattest update on NEET, PDF sheets, other examinations and class schedule.
Please Subscribe our –
Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur
Youtube Channel - New Light Institute

For Today's Paper Discussion - Scan the QR code -

• Youtube Channel Link :

https://www.youtube.com/@newlightprayaas2583

• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas

 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023

TOPIC : NCERT-II Organisms and Populations

PART-1 (SECTION-A)
Attempt All 35 Questions 35
1. Which one of the following is the correct match: 1.
(1) Regulator – Tiger (1) –
(2) Conformer – Mustard (2) –
(3) CAM pathway – Adaptation (3) CAM –

(4) All of these (4)

2. What is incorrect about a keystone species : 2.
(1) A species which makes up only a small proportion (1)
of the total biomass of a community, yet not has a
huge impact on the community's organization and
survival.
(2) A common species that has plenty of biomass, (2)
yet has a fairly low impact on the community's
organization.
(3)
(3) A rare species that has minimal impact on the
biomass and on other species in the community
(4) All of these (4)
3. Which one of the following is/are not conformer : 3.
(a) Cycas (a)
(b) Marchantia (b)
(c) Rabbit (c)
(d) Tomato (d)
(e) Siberian bird (e)
(1) a, b, c, d, e (1) a, b, c, d, e

(2) Only c, e (2) c, e

(3) Only a, d (3) a, d

(4) Only a, b (4) a, b

4. Which one of the following are correct in between 4.
lichen and mycorrhizae :
(a) Both are example of mutualism (a)
(b) Both are symbiotic association
(b)
(c) Both are non symbiotic association
(c)
(d) In both fungi is one of the partner
(d)
(1) a, b, d
(1) a, b, d
(2) a, c, d (2) a, c, d
(3) a, d (3) a, d
(4) a, b (4) a, b
NLI / 4
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
5. If the female bee colour pattern change even 5.
slightly for any reason during evolution then what
is the effect on orchid Ophrys.

(1) No effect (1)

(2) Number of flower in orchids highly increased (2)
(3) One petal of orchid flower also change to maintain (3)
the resemblance

(4) One sepal of the orchid flower are also change to (4)
maintain the resemblance.
6. If in a pond there were 50 water Hyacinth plant 6. 50
last year and through reproduction 10 new plants 10 60
are added, taking the current population to 60.
What is the birth rate for this plant :
(1) 0.4
(1) 0.4 offspring per plant per year
(2) 0.2
(2) 0.2 offspring per plant per year
(3) 0.5 offspring per plant per year (3) 0.5

(4) 0.167 offspring per plant per year (4) 0.167

7. Which kind of adaptation for thermoregulation in 7.
desert lizard :

(1) Physiological (1)

(2) Behavioural (2)

(3) Biochemical (3)

(4) None of these (4)

8. ................ are restricted to narrow range of 8. ................
temperatures, ....................... thrive in a wide .......................
range of temperatures :
(1)
(1) Eurythermal - stenothermal
(2)
(2) Mesothermal - eurythermal
(3) Eurythermal - Mesothermal (3)

(4) Stenothermal - Eurythermal (4)

9. Match the following corretly : 9.

a. Desert plants i. Internal fat oxidation a. i.
b. Kangaroo rats ii. CAM pathway b. ii. CAM
c. Bears iii. Aestivation
c. iii.
d. Snails & fish iv. Hibernation
d. iv.
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii (4) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
NLI / 5
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
10. Integral form of the exponential growth equation 10.
is :
(1) Nt = Noet
(1) Nt = Noet
(2) Nt = Noeo
(2) Nt = Noeo
(3) Nt = No ert (3) Nt = No ert
(4) No = Nter (4) No = Nter
11. Which growth model is considered more relatistic 11.
(1) Exponential growth model (1)

(2) Logistic growth model (2)

(3) Both 1 & 2 are equally realistic (3) 1 2

(4) None of the above (4)

12. Which association does not exemplify 12.

commensalism
(a)
(a) Orchid and mango
(b)
(b) Egret and insect
(c)
(c) Clown fish and adamsia
(d)
(d) Barnacle and balaenoptera
(1) b
(1) b only
(2) c, d
(2) c, d only
(3) a, c, d only (3) a, c, d

(4) All of these (4)

13. Thick walled spores are formed to survive 13.
unfavourable conditions in:

(1) Bacteria (1)

(2) Fungi (2)

(3) Lower plants (3)

(4) All of these (4)

14. If N is the population density at time t, then its
density at time t +1 is:
(1) Nt + 1 = Nt [(B + I) – (D – E)]
(2) Nt + 1 = Nt [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(3) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
14. N t
t +1
(1) Nt + 1 = Nt [(B + I) – (D – E)]
(2) Nt + 1 = Nt [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(3) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]

(4) None of these (4)

15. Brood parasitism is found in : 15.
(1) Only reptiles (1)
(2) Birds (2)
(3) Only amphibans (3)

(4) Plants (4)

NLI / 6
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
16. Example of exotic species is : 16.
(1) Goats in galapagos islands (1)
(2) The mediterranean orchid Ophrys (2)
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2

(4) None of these (4)

17. Sexual deceit is employed by which plant to get 17.
pollination done :

(1) Fig (1)

(2) Opuntia (2)

(3) Ophrys (3)

(4) Pea (4)

18. Match the following 18.
i. Fungi a. Aestivation i. a.
ii. Fish b. Spores ii. b.
iii. Zooplankton c. Diapause
iii. c.
iv. Very few vertebrates d. Regulator
iv. d.
e. Conformers
e.
(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-e
(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-e
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-e (3) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-e
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
19. Warblers "resource partitioning" was explaind by 19.
whom:
(1)
(1) Gause
(2)
(2) Connell
(3) MacArthur (3)

(4) Tilman (4)

20. Success of mammals is largely due to : 20.
(1) Predation (1)
(2) Thermoregulation (2)
(3) Bipedal locomotion (3)

(4) Well developed brain (4)

21. Verhulst - Pearl logistic growth can be described 21.
by the equation :
(1) dN/dt = rN
(1) dN/dt = rN
 K N 
 K N (2) dN/ dt  rN  
(2) dN/ dt  rN    K 
 K 
(3) Nt = Noert (3) Nt = Noert
(4) dN/dt = rN (N/K) (4) dN/dt = rN (N/K)
NLI / 7
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
22. Altitude sickness includes : 22.
(1) Nausea (2) Fatigue (1) (2)
(3) Heart palpitation (4) All of these (3) (4)
23. Populations evolve to maximise their reproductive 23.
fitness this is called Darwinian fitness. This is
represented by :

(1) Low 'r' value

(2) High 'r' value (2) r

(3) Moderate 'r' value

(4) None. (4)

24. Match the following : 24.
Column-I Column-II (i) (a)
(i) Regulation (a) Body temperature
changes as per
environment (ii) (b)
(ii) Conforming (b) Maintain
homeostasis (iii) (c)
(iii) Migration (c) Temporary (iv) (d)
movement
(iv) Suspension (d) Survive
unfavourable (1) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
condition
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(1) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(4) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c.
(4) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c.
25. In all of the major biomes which among these has 25.
minimum variation in annual temperature
(1) Desert (1)
(2) Tropical forest (2)
(3) Coniferous forest (3)
(4) Temperate forest (4)
26. Which among the following is not included in the 26.
basic levels of biological organisation to which
ecology is concerned
(1)
(1) Organisms
(2) Population (2)

(3) Biomes (3)

(4) Biosphere (4)
27. Which of the following is incorrect statement 27.
(1) Temperature in polar region is sub zero to few (1)
(2) In summer in tropics desert > 50 0C (2) > 50 0C
(3) In hydrothermal vents temperature exceeds 100 0C (3) 100 0C
(4) Mango cannot grow in tropical country (4)
NLI / 8
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
28. Many desert plants have a thick cuticle on their 28.
leaf surfaces and have their stomata arranged in
deep pits, ......(a).....they also have a special pho- .........
tosynthetic pathway ......... (b) ........... (b) ...........

(1) (a) minimise water loss through transpiration, (b) (1) (a)
C4 type (b) C4

(2) (a) CAM, (b) minimise water loss through (2) (a) CAM, (b)

transpiration.

(3) (a) minimise respiration and (b) C3 type (3) (a) , (b) -C3

(4) (a) minimise water loss through transpiration, (b) (4) (a)
(b) CAM
CAM
29. Match the following 29.
a) >500C. i) Thermal springs
a) >500C. i)
and deep-sea
hydrothermal vents
b) Average temperatures ii) Temperature in b) ii)
exceed 100° C at
100°
Tropical deserts in
summer.
c) At 25°C tem. iii) Constant body
temperature of c) 25°C iii)
mammals
d) 37°C iv) Person is able to
perform his/her d) 37°C iv)
best

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
30. Match the following with respect to salt 30.
concentration in different habitat

a) Less than 5% i) In inland waters. a) 5% i)

b) 30-35% ii) some hypersaline
b) 30-35% ii)
lagoons.

c) > 100% iii) In the sea c) > 100% iii)

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii

(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii (3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii

(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i

NLI / 9
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
31. Given below are two statements : 31.
Statement I : -I:
Monarch butterfly acquires special chemical
during its catepillar stage.
Statement II :
- II :
Calotropis plant produces highly poisonous
cardiac glycoside.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
32. Given below are two statements : 32.
Statement I : -I:
Regional and local variations within each biome
lead to formation of a wide variety of habitats.
Statement II :
- II :
The levels of thermal tolerance of different species
determine to a short extent their geographical
distribution.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
33. Match the following height, times and number 33.
based options
a) >3,500m Height i) Siberian cranes at
a) >3,500 i)
Bharatpur wetlands
in
any year
b) > 100 times ii) Partheniun b) > 100 times ii)

c) < 10 iii) Pressure at great c) < 10 iii)

depths in the ocean

d) 200 iv) Altitude sickness d) 200 iv)

e) Millions of v) Chlamydomonas in a e) v)
pond
(1) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii, e-i (1) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i, e-ii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i, e-ii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-v, e-iii (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-v, e-iii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii, e-v (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii, e-v
NLI / 10
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
34. Population growth curve of last 100 year is ....... 34.
Gather from Government Census for India

(1) J shaped (1) J

(2) S shaped (2) S

(3) Pyramidal (3)

(4) Z shaped (4) Z

35. Given below are two statements : 35.

Statement I : -I:
Interspecific interactions arise from the interaction
of populations of two different species.
Statement II : - II :
Parasites that feed on the external surface of the
host organism are called ectoparasites.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
PART-1 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
15 15
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking. 10
36. Bt toxin is coded by gene 36. Bt
(1) Bt (1) Bt
(2) cry (2) cry
(3) Btry (3) Btry
(4) By (4) By
37. Meloidegyne incognitia infects which plant 37.
(1) Cotton (2) Pea (1) (2)

(3) Tobacco (4) Rice (3) (4)

38. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and 38.
flavour. How many documented varieties of
Basmati are grown in India?
(1) 30 (1) 30
(2) 27 (2) 27
(3) 118 (3) 118
(4) 52 (4) 52
NLI / 11
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
39. Reasons of infertility are 39.
(1) physical or congenital diseases (1)
(2) drugs, immunological (2)
(3) psychological (3)

(4) all of these (4)

40. Which of the following diseases is caused by 40.
viruses:
(1)
(1) Herpes
(2)
(2) Stunted growth
(3) Yellowing (3)

(4) All of these (4)

41. Sexually transmitted infections can also be 41.
transmitted by :
(1)
(1) Surgical instruments
(2)
(2) Transfusion of blood
(3) Sharing of injection needles (3)

(4) All of these (4)

42. MTPs are relatively safe during : 42. MTPs
(1) First trimester (1)
(2) 12 weeks (2) 12

(3) 3 months (3) 3

(4) All of these (4)

43. A single human cell has approximately 43.
(1) Two metre long thread of DNA (1) DNA
(2) 46 metre long thread of DNA (2) 46 DNA

(3) 23 metre long thread of DNA (3) 23 DNA

(4) 10 cm long thread of DNA (4) 10 DNA

44. Match the following and choose the correct option: 44.
A. Housefly i. Dicotyledonae A. i.
B. Wheat ii. Felidae
B. ii.
C. Mango iii. Poales
C. iii.
D. Cat iv. Genus
D. iv.
E. Solanum v. Diptera
E. v.
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii , D-iv, E-v
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii , D-iv, E-v
(2) A-v, B-iii, C-i , D-ii, E-iv
(2) A-v, B-iii, C-i , D-ii, E-iv
(3) A-v, B-i, C-iii , D-ii, E-iv (3) A-v, B-i, C-iii , D-ii, E-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i , D-v, E-iv (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i , D-v, E-iv
NLI / 12
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
45. What would be the DNA content in the cell at G1, 45. DNA 40 Pg
G2, anaphase stage, when the content after mitotic
G1, G2
phase is 40Pg:
(1) G1 = 40 Pg, G2 = 80 Pg, = 60 Pg
(1) G1 = 40 Pg, G2 = 80 Pg, Anaphase = 60 Pg
(2) G1 = 40 Pg, G2 = 80 Pg, = 80 Pg
(2) G1 = 40 Pg, G2 = 80 Pg, Anaphase = 80 Pg
(3) G1 = 80 Pg, G2 = 40 Pg, Anaphase = 40 Pg (3) G1 = 80 Pg, G2 = 40 Pg, = 40 Pg

(4) G1 = 80 Pg, G2 = 40 Pg, Anaphase = 80 Pg (4) G1 = 80 Pg, G2 = 40 Pg, = 80 Pg

46. The spherical, oval or cylindrical, highly thickened 46.
dead cells found in seed coat of legume is

(1) Parenchyma (1)

(2) Collenchyma (2)

(3) Sclerenchyma (3)

(4) All of these (4)

47. The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema 47.
of mosses, all easily multiply by

(1) Budding (1)

(2) Binary fission (2)

(3) Fragmentation (3)

(4) Sexual fusion (4)

48. Identify this plant carefully 48.

(1)
(1) Laminaria
(2) Fucus (2)

(3) Chara (3)

(4) Polysiphonia (4)

49. Transgenic plants are produced by 49.
(1) Inducing gene mutation (1)
(2) Arresting spindle fibre formation (2)

(3) Deleting sex chromosome (3)

(4) Introducing foreign genes (4)

NLI / 13
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
50. Body divided into head, foot and visceral hump 50.
related to :
(1)
(1) Arthropoda
(2)
(2) Mollusca
(3)
(3) Annelida
(4) Aschelminthes (4)

PART-2 (SECTION-A)
Attempt All 35 Questions 35
51. 51.

In which of the following interactions both partners

are adversely affected?

(1) Parasitism (1)

(2) Mutualism (2)
(3) Competition (3)
(4) Predation (4)
53. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, 53.
which mechanism the competing species might
have evolved for their survival? :
(1) Competitive release (1)
(2) Mutualism (2)
(3) Predation (3)
(4) Resource partitioning (4)
54. One of the following bears, uncanny resemblance 54.
to the female bees in size, colour and markings.

(1) Sepels of Ophrys (1)

(2) Stamen of Ophrys (2)
(3) Petal of Ophrys (3)
(4) Carpel of Ophrys (4)
55. CAM helps the plants in 55. CAM
(1) Reproduction and respiration (1)
(2) Conserving water and carbon dioxide (2)
(3) Secondary growth (3)
(4) Disease resistance (4)
NLI / 14
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
56. The tiger census in our national parks and tiger 56.
reserves is often based on :

(1) Pug marks and fecal pellets (1)

(2) Only pug marks (2)

(3) Pug marks and directly counting by seeing (3)

(4) Only fecal pellets (4)

57. If a new habitat is just being colonised which 57.
process may contribute more significantly to
population growth :
(1)
(1) Birth rates
(2)
(2) Immigration
(3) Emigration (3)

(4) Mortality (4)

58. Carnivorous animals lions and leopards, occupy, 58.
the same niche but lions predate mostly larger
animals and leopards take smaller ones. This
mechanism of competition is referred to as –

(1) Character displacement (1)

(2) Altruism (2)

(3) Resource partitioning (3)

(4) Competitive exclusion (4)

59. Which one of the following is categorised as a 59.
parasite in true sense :
(1) The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from
(1)
humans
(2)
(2) Human fetus developing inside the uterus draws
nourishment from the mother
(3) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as (3)
laying eggs on human hair
(4) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow's nest. (4)
60. A population has certain attributes. This attributes 60.
are :
(a)
a. Death
(b)
b. Birth
(c)
c. Death rate
d. Birth rate (d)

e. Sex ratio (e)

(1) a, b, c, d, e (2) c, d, e (1) a, b, c, d, e (2) c, d, e

(3) Only e (4) Only c, d (3) e (4) c, d

NLI / 15
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
61. If in a population 61.
200 individuals – Pre reproductive 200 –
300 – 400 individual – Reproductive 300 – 400 –
150 – 100 individual – Post reproductive 150 – 100 –
Then which type of age pyramid are represented:

(1) Expanding (1)

(2) Stable (2)
(3) Declining (3)

(4) All of these (4)

62. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity 62.
is called as :
(1) (2)
(1) Biotic potential (2) Immigration
(3) Carrying capacity (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) (4) (2) (3)
63. An association of individuals of different species 63.
living in the same habitat and having functional
interactions is :
(1)
(1) Only competition
(2)
(2) Population
(3) Ecological niche (3)

(4) Biotic community (4)

64. Which one of the following is not regulator : 64.

(1) Snake (1)
(2) Sparrow (2)

(3) Kangaroo (3)

(4) Tiger (4)

65. Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of 65.
biological organisation these are :

(1) Macromolecules, cells, tissues organs (1)

(2) Organisms, populations, communities, ecosystem (2)

(3) Organisms, population, communities, biomes (3)

(4) Organs, organisms, populations, communities (4)

66. Arctic & Alpine tundra biome is situated in : 66.
(1) Maximum annual precipitations & minimum annual (1)
temperature zone

(2) Minimum annual precipitation & maximum annual (2)

temperature zone

(3) Minimum mean annual temperature zone (3)

(4) None of the above (4)

NLI / 16
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
67. Which of the following statement is incorrect : 67.
(1) Temperature, water, light & soil are the key (1)
elements that lead to so much variations in the
physical and chemical conditions of different
habitats
(2)
(2) Temperature is the most ecologically relevant
environmental factor
(3) The habitat includes biotic & abiotic components (3)

(4) The physico - chemical components alone (4)

characterise the habitat of an organism completely.
68. The salt concentration of water is measured as : 68.
(1) Salinity in parts per million (1)
(2) Salinity in parts per thousand (2)
(3) salinity in parts per hundred (3)
(4) pH (4) pH
69. Many fresh water animals can’t live for long in sea 69.
water & vice versa because of the problems they
would face :

(1) Temperature problems (1)

(2) Osmotic problems (2)
(3) Feeding problems (3)
(4) None of these (4)
70. State the correct statement : 70.
(1) 99% of animals & nearly all plants cannot maintain (1) 99%
a constant internal environment – These are
regulators
(2) Majority animals & all plants can maintain a (2)
constant internal environment – These are
conformers
(3) 99%
(3) 99% of animals & nearly all plants cannot maintain
a constant internal environment, these are
conformers
(4) Majority of animals & nearly all plants cannot (4)
maintain a constant internal environment – these
are partial regulators
71. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area, 71.
small animals tend to :
(1)
(1) Loose body heat slowly when it is cold outside

(2) Loose body heat very fast when it is cold outside (2)

(3) Gain body heat when it is cold outside

(3)
(4) None of these (4)
NLI / 17
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
72. Keoladeo National park (Bharatpur) is situated in : 72.
(1) Bihar (1)
(2) Gujarat (2)

(3) Madhya pradesh (3)

(4) Rajasthan (4)

73. Which of the following is a major biome of India 73.
(1) Tropical rain forest (1)
(2) Deciduous forest (2)

(3) Desert (3)

(4) All of these (4)

74. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 74. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (R)
Reason (R). (A) :
Assertion (A) : Desert plants have a special photosyn- (CAM)
thetic pathway (CAM)

Reason (R) : That enable their stomata remain closed (R) :

during day and night time.

In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
explanation of (A)

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false

(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true (3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
explanation of (A)
75. Which of the following trend of human population 75.
explains stable population

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NLI / 18
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
76. Find the correct ones : 76.
(1) Kangaroo rat meets its water requirement by (1)
internal fat oxidation

(2) Opuntia does not have leaves – they are reduced (2)
to spine

(3) Some species have ability to regulate internal (3)

environment over a limited range of environmental
conditions beyond which they are conformers

(4) All of these (4)

77. dN/dt = rN equation is related to 77. dN/dt = rN
(a) Exponential growth (a)
(b) Geometric growth (b)
(c) S- Shaped curve (c) S-
(d) Nt = No e rt (d) Nt = No ert

(1) only a, b (1) a, b

(2) only b, c (2) b, c

(3) only a, b, d (3) a, b, d

(4) All of these (4)

78. Which among these breeds only once in its life 78.
time

(1) Pacific salmon fish (1)

(2) Pelagic fish (2)

(3) Bamboo plant (3)

(4) 1 and 3 (4) 1 3

79. Defence against herbivores are found in 79.
(a) Acacia (b) Cactus (a) (b)
(c) Calotropis (d) Monarch butterfly (c) (d)

(1) a, b only (2) a, b, c (1) a, b (2) a, b, c

(3) b, c only (4) All of these (3) b, c (4)

80. Match the following 80.
i. Flamingoes a. Abingdon i. a.
ii. Galapagos b. South America
ii. b.
iii. Scotland c. Ophrys
iii. c.
iv. Mediterranean d. Connell
orchids iv. d.
(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (1) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c (3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
(4) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d (4) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
NLI / 19
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
81. A biologist studied the population of rats in a born. 81.
He found that the average natality was 250, 250,
average mortality 240, immigration 20 and
240, 20 30.
emigration 30. The net increase in population is :
(1) 05 (1) 05
(2) zero (2)
(3) 10 (3) 10
(4) 15 (4) 15
82. In a growing population of a country : 82.
(1) Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the (1)
reproductive individuals

(2) Reproductive individuals are less than the post (2)

reproductive individuals

(3) Reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are (3)

equal in number

(4) Pre-reproductive individuals are less than the (4)

reproductive individuals. .
83. On planet Earth, life exists not just in a few 83.
favourable habitats but even in extreme and harsh
habitats. Which of the following are such type of
habitat :
(a)
(a) Thermal springs
(b)
(b) Human intestine
(c)
(c) Torrential streams
(d) Stinking compost pits (d)

(1) Only a, c, d (1) a, c, d

(2) Only c, d (2) c, d

(3) a, b, c, d (3) a, b, c, d

(4) Only a, b, c (4) a, b, c

84. In animals, the organism, if unable to migrate 84.
might avoid the stress by escaping in time which
of the following are example :
(a) Hibernation (a)
(b) Aestivation (b)
(c) Diapause (c)
(d) Mimicry (d)
(1) Only a, b, d
(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, b, c (3) a, b, c
(4) Only a, b (4) a, b
NLI / 20
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
85. In nature in interspecific competition, they point 85.
out that species facing competition might evolve
mechanism that promote co-existence rather than
exclusion. One such mechanism is :

(1) Parasitism (1)

(2)
(2) Resource partitioning
(3)
(3) Commensalism
(4)
(4) Amensalism
PART-2 (SECTION-B) -B

This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can

15 15
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking. 10
86. What is the probe : 86.
a. A single stranded DNA tagged with radioactive a.
molecule.

b. A single stranded RNA tagged with radioactive b.

molecule.
c. DNA
c. A ds DNA tagged with radioactive molecule.

d. A ds RNA tagged with radioactive molecule.

d. RNA
(1) a, b, c, d
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b
(2) a, b
(3) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) c, d (4) c, d
87. Which one of the following animal is 87.
homoiothermus :
(1)
(1) Exocoetus
(2)
(2) Ichthyophis
(3) Alligator (3)

(4) Struthio (4)

88. A typical flower has four different kind of whorl, 88.

arranged successively on the swollen end of the
stalk called :
(1)
(1) Receptacle
(2) Carpel (2)

(3) Pedicel (3)

(4) Calyx. (4)
NLI / 21
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
89. Match the following columns : 89.
Column–I Column–II I II
(Placentation) (Example)
a. Marginal i. Dianthus
(1) i-
b. Parietal ii. Marigold
(2) ii-
c. Free central iii. Fabaceae
(3) iii-
d. Basal iv. Mustard
(4) iv-
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
90. Mature cells result due to divisions in : 90.

(1) Primary meristem cells only

(1)
(2) Seconary meristem cell only
(2)
(3) Primary & secondary meristem cells
(3)
(4) Cortex (4)
91. In the given figure what is 'A' 91.

(1) Air cavity (1)

(2) Substomatal cavity (2)

(3) Stomatal cavity (3)

(4) Vacuole (4)

92. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are 92.
collectively called :

(1) Phellem (2) Phelloderm (1) (2)

(3) Phellogen (4) Periderm (3) (4)

93. Which of the following is sac fungi : 93.
(1) Morels (1)
(2) Truffles (2)
(3) Aspergillus (3)
(4) All of these (4)
NLI / 22
 BTS–22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 25-Nov.-2023
94. The adenosine deaminase is crucial for the : 94.
(1) Heart beating (1)
(2) Hair fall (2)
(3) Immune system (3)
(4) Hearing (4)
95. Stilt root is found in 95.
(1) Carrot (2) Sweet potato (1) (2)
(3) Maize (4) Banayan (3) (4)
96. The bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl 96.
group of sugar, in nucleic acid is
(1) Glycosidic bond (1)
(2) Peptide bond (2)
(3) Ester bond (3)
(4) Hydrogen bond (4)
97. Inulin is polymer of 97.
(1) Glucose (1)
(2) Fructose (2)
(3) Galactose (3)
(4) Amino acids (4)
Pick out the correct statements.
(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease. (a)
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy. (b)
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive (c)
gene disorder.
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive
(d)
gene disorder.
(1) (a), (c) and (d) are correct. (1) (a), (c) (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (2) (a), (b) (c)
(3) (a) and (d) are correct. (3) (a) (d)
(4) (b) and (d) are correct. (4) (b) (d)
99. Important characters of tapetum are : 99.
(1) Nourishes the egg (1)
(2) Middle layer of megasporangium (2)
(3) Multinucleate (3)
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4)
100. Find the correct matching with respect to blood 100. ABO
group ABO
a) i)
a) Genes i) Two
b) ii)
b) Alleles ii) Six
c) Phenotype iii) Four c) iii)
d) Genotype iv) Three d) iv)
e) Co-dominant allele v) One e) v)
(1) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii (1) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii (2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
NLI / 23