English

(1001CMD303054230146) *1001CMD303054230146* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 15-03-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX,
MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 28 pages.

L1 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
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Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
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Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
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16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

 2 English

Topic : SYLLABUS-1

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 5. In eubacteria, a cellular component that

resembles eukaryotic cell is -
1. Statement-I : All plants, animals, fungi and (1) Cell wall
microbes exhibit metabolism.
Statement-II : Metabolic reactions can be (2) Cell membrane
demonstrated outside the body in cell-free system. (3) Nucleus
(1) Only Statement-I is correct. (4) Ribosome
(2) Only Statement-II is correct. 6. Select the correct statement regarding bacterial
(3) Statement-I and II both are incorrect. cell :-
(4) Statement-I and II both are correct. (1) Pili play important role in movement
2. Given organisms belongs to how many families ? (2) Polysome translates the r-RNA into protein
Wheat, Mango, Brinjal, Potato, Datura, Lion, Cat, Dog (3) The inclusion bodies are bound by
(1) Seven membrane
(2) Six (4) Plasma membrane is selectively permeable
(3) Five 7. Which of the following help in DNA replication
in bacterial cell ?
(4) Four
(1) Lipopolysaccharide wall
3. Identify the incorrect statement :-
(2) Peptidoglycan wall
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin and
printed in italics. (3) Mesosome

(2) First word in biological name represents (4) Ribosome

the Generic name while the second 8. What is 'X' in the structure of Nostoc.
component denotes the specific epithet.
(3) Both the words in biological name, when
handwritten, are separately underlined.
(4) In biological name first word denoting
Generic name starts with small letter while
specific epithet starts with capital letter.
4. Cytotaxonomy is based on cytological
information like-
(1) Chromosome number (1) Plasmodium
(2) Chromosome structure (2) Pseudopodia
(3) Chromosome behaviour (3) Heterocyst
(4) All of the above (4) Photosynthetic cell
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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9. Match the column I to column II and select the 14. Assertion (A) : Dinoflagellates appear yellow,
correct option given below. green, brown, blue or red colours.
Column – I Column – II Reason (R) : Colour of Dinoflagellate depending
on the main pigments present in their cells.
A. Phycobiont i ssRNA
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
B. Prions ii Algal part of lichen
explanation of A.
C Mycobiont iii Infectious protein particles
(2) A is true but R is false.
D T.M.V. iv Fungal part of lichen
(3) A is false but R is true.
(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i (4) Both A and R are true and R is correct
(2) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i explanation of A.
(3) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv 15. The imperfect fungi which are decomposer of
litter and help in mineral cycling belong to :-
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
(1) Basidiomycetes
10. Which of following character is similar in both
Archaebacteria and Mycoplasma ? (2) Deuteromycetes
(1) Structure of cell wall (3) Phycomycetes
(2) Structure of cell membrane (4) Ascomycetes
(3) Prokaryotic cell organisation 16. Fungi are divided into four classes on the basis of -
(4) All of the above (1) Structure of mycelium and sexual reproduction
11. Which of the following lack cell wall but is (2) Structure of cell and sexual reproduction
prokaryotic in nature ? (3) Stored food and asexual reproduction
(1) Protozoans (2) Slime moulds (4) Structure of cell wall and asexual reproduction
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Archaebacteria 17. Which of the following ascomycetes is the
12. Select the correct statement with respect to source of antibiotics ?
Euglenoids :-
(1) Neurospora
(1) They have two short flagella
(2) Penicillium
(2) They have two long flagella
(3) Claviceps
(3) They have two flagella, a short and a long one
(4) Puccinia
(4) They have two flagella, one lies 18. Choose the incorrect match out of following :-
longitudinally and the other transversely.
(1) Albugo - Parasitic fungi on mustard
13. Multinucleated plasmodium and saprophytic
(2) Neurospora - Used in genetic works
mode of nutrition are characteristics of :-
(1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Truffles - Edible fungi

(3) Slime moulds (4) Fungi (4) Ustilago - Rust on wheat

PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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19. Choose correct statement :- 24. Vegetative reproduction in mosses is by ______

(1) Virus that infect animals generally have ssDNA and _____ in the secondary protonema.
(1) Fragmentation, spore formation
(2) A virus contains both DNA and RNA
(2) Fragmentation, budding
(3) Virus are obligate saprophyte
(3) Spore formation, budding
(4) Virus that infect plants generally have ssRNA
(4) Gemmae, budding
20. In five kingdom classification, which of the
25. Branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are
following group of organisms is placed in the
characteristics of :-
same kingdoms ?
(1) Chlorella, Amoeba, Paramoecium, Spirogyra (1) All bryophytes (2) Mosses
(2) Chlamydomonas, Amoeba, Gonyaulax, Chlorella (3) Algae (4) Liverworts
(3) Spirogyra, Nostoc, Anabaena, Mycoplasma 26. Match column – I with column – II and select the
(4) Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas, Euglena, Nostoc correct option from the codes given below.
21. Statement I : Being photosynthetic, algae
increase the level of dissolved oxygen in their Column – I Column – II
immediate environment. (A) Psilopsida (i) Psilotum
Statement II : In algae a few of marine forms
(B) Lycopsida (ii) Equisetum
such as kelps, form massive plant bodies.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. (C) Sphenopsida (iii) Selaginella
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. (D) Pteropsida (iv) Dryopteris
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct. (1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct. (2) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (ii)
22. Statement-I : The red thalli of most of the red (3) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv)
algae are multicellular. (4) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (ii)
Statement-II : Members of Rhodophyceae, store 27. Consider the following statements regarding
food as floridean starch. gymnosperms and choose the correct option.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (I) In gymnosperms, the male and female
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. gametophytes have an independent existence.
(II) The multicellular female gametophyte is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
retained within the megasporangium.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (III) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
23. True for bryophytes is/are - Of these statements
(1) Free living gametophyte (1) (I) and (II) are true, but (III) is false
(2) Sporophytes depends on gametophyte (2) (I) and (III) are true, but (II) is false
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (II) and (III) are false, but (I) is true
(4) Sporophyte bear sporophylls (4) (II) and (III) are true, but (I) is false
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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28. Megaspore mother cell divides ___A___ to give 31. Read the following statements (I-IV) and find how
rise ___B___ megaspores. many of the given statements are correct ?
(I) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes
Identify the A and B and choose correct option.
are free-living.
(1) A – mitotically; B – two (II) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterospores.
(III) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and
(2) A – meiotically; B – four Albugo is oogamous.
(IV) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate
(3) A – amitotically; B – four than that in mosses.
(4) A – mitotically; B – six (1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
29. In gymnosperms, the microspores develop into a
32. Match the following column I with column II
male gametophyte generation, which
and choose the correct option.
(1) is highly reduced and confined to only a Column I Column II
limited number of cells (A) Chlamydomonas (i) Moss
(2) is highly developed (B) Cycas (ii) Pteridophyte
(3) has an independent existence (C) Selaginella (iii) Algae
(D) Sphagnum (iv) Gymnosprem
(4) Both (1) and (3)
Codes
30. Match the Column I with Column II and choose (1) A → (i), B → (ii), C → (iii), D → (iv)
the correct option :
(2) A → (iii), B → (iv), C → (ii), D → (i)
Column I Column II
(3) A → (iv), B → (iii), C → (ii), D → (i)
(A) Floridean starch (i) Phaeophyceae (4) A → (i), B → (iii), C → (ii), D → (iv)
(B) Chlorophyll a and b (ii) Chlorophyceae 33. Kingdom Organism
(C) Pear shaped gamete (iii) Cyanobacteria Archaebacteria, Eubacteria,
(i) Monera
blue green algae, Euglenoids
(D) Heterocyst (iv) Rhodophyceae
Diatoms,
(ii) Protista
Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids
(A) (B) (C) (D) Albugo, Mucor, Penicillium,
(iii) Fungi
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Slime-moulds

(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Which one is/are correct match ?
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (3) Only (iii) (4) All are correct
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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34. Consider the following statements (A-D) 37. Which of the following group of organisms
(A) Heterocysts are important sites for nitrogen
belong to the same genus ?
fixation
(B) Cell wall of diatoms is indestructible due to (a) Monkey, Tiger and Gorilla
presence of calcium carbonate (b) Brinjal, Potato and Makoi
(C) In fungi cell wall is made up of chitin
(c) Tiger, Lion and Leopard
(D) Algae show isogamous, anisogamous and
oogamous type of sexual reproduction (d) Mango, brinjal and Potato
How many of the above statement (s) is/are not
correct? (1) b and c only

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (2) a and d only
35. Assertion : In five kingdom (3) a and c only
classification kingdom protista brought together
Chlorella and Paramoecium, which in earlier (4) a and b only
classification were placed in different kingdom.
Reason : Criteria for different classification are 38. Characters given below are related to :-
different in many aspects. Cell type - Eukaryotic
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Cell wall - Present in some
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Nuclear membrane - Present
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. Body Organisation - Cellular
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. Mode of nutrition - Autotrophic (Photosynthetic)
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. and heterotrophic
SECTION-B ( BOTANY ) (1) Kingdom Monera and Protista
36. Match the column I with column II and select (2) Only Kingdom Protista
correct answer :-
Column-I Column-II (3) Only Kingdom Fungi
A Planaria i Budding (4) Kingdom Monera and Plantae
B Hydra ii Asexual spores 39. The chemical composition of cell wall in
C Fungi iii True regeneration Archaebacteria :-
D Protonema of moss iv Fragmentation (1) Is similar to that of fungi
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii (2) Is similar to that of plants
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (3) Is not similar to other members of group
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv monera
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) Is identical to cell wall of animals
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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40. Which of the following statements is not correct 46. How many of the following members belong to
for methanogens ? phaeophyceae :-
Chara, Ectocarpus, Porphyra, Dictyota,
(1) They are archaebacteria.
Gelidium, Sargassum, Fucus
(2) They live in marshy areas. Choose the correct option :

(3) They are responsible for the production of (1) Only three (2) Only two
methane (biogas) from the dung of animals. (3) Only four (4) Only five
(4) They are present in the guts of all animals. 47. In bryophytes zygote divides and produce a
multicellular body known as :-
41. Diatomaceous earth is cell wall deposits of :-
(1) Sporophyte
(1) Desmids
(2) Gametophyte
(2) Diatoms
(3) Prothallus
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Sporophylls
(4) Euglenoids
48. Horse tails and ferns :-
42. In class phycomycetes, the mycelium is :-
(1) Lack archegonia
(1) Coenocytic and aseptate
(2) Possess vascular tissue in main plant body.
(2) Coenocytic and septate
(3) Show diplontic type of life cycle.
(3) Unicellular and aseptate (4) Produce non-motile male gametes.
(4) Multicellular and septate 49. Evolutionary important character of Selaginella is ?
43. In basidiomycetes, karyogamy and meiosis take (1) Heterosporous nature
place in ? (2) Vivipary
(1) Basidium (2) Conidium (3) Megaphylls
(3) Basidiospore (4) Dikaryon (4) Homospory
44. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) 50. Assertion (A) : Gymnosperms are naked seeded
disease is caused by :- plants.
(1) Prion (2) Viroid Reason (R) : In gymnosperms, ovules are not
covered by any ovarian wall before and after
(3) Virus (4) Mycoplasma
fertilization.
45. Usually the members of chlorophyceae are grass
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
green due to dominance of pigments :-
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) Chlorophyll a & d
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(2) chlorophyll c & d
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(3) chlorophyll b & c
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(4) chlorophyll a & b Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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Topic : SYLLABUS-1

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 56. Which one of the following option is correct

about "Nereis".
51. Which of the following is not a homeothermal (1) Bilateral symmetry, Non-chordate,
animal? Complete digestive tract
(1) Aptenodytes (2) Radial symmetry, Non-chordate,
(2) Testudo Incomplete digestive tract
(3) Delphinus (3) Asymmetrical, Non-chordate, complete
(4) Neophron digestive tract

52. Which one of the following animal show (4) Radial symmetry, Non-chordate, closed
metagenesis ? circulation

(1) Obelia 57. Which animals shed their scales as skin cast ?
(1) Birds and snakes
(2) Aurelia
(2) Snakes and lizards
(3) Hydra
(3) Lizards and birds
(4) Sycon
(4) Birds and mammals
53. Choose the odd one with respect to cyclostomes :-
(1) Sucking and circular mouth 58. Which of the following is commonly known as
'Bath sponge' ?
(2) Absence of jaws
(3) Scales are absent (1) Euplectella

(4) Presence of paired fins (2) Sycon

54. Chordates may not have a :- (3) Spongilla

(1) Vertebral column (4) Euspongia

(2) Dorsal nerve cord 59. Which of the following option is not applicable
(3) Gill slits to coelenterates ?

(4) Notochord (1) Choanocytes

55. Choose the correct statement from the following - (2) Coelenteron
(1) Cnidarians are aquatic and radially (3) Radial symmetry
symmetrical animals
(4) Nematoblasts
(2) Cnidarians exhibit tissue level of
60. Which of the following cell type is capable of
organization and are diploblastic
giving rise to other cell types in sponges?
(3) Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms
called "polyp" and "medusa" (1) Archaeocytes (2) Pinacocytes
(4) All of the above (3) Choanocyte (4) Porocyte
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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61. Here two basic forms of coelenterates (Obelia) 64. Which junction/junctions help to stop substances
are given which one option is correct about from leaking across a tissue?
them? (1) Tight junctions (2) Adhering junctions
(3) Gap junctions (4) Both (1) and (2)
(A) 65. The major constituent of connective tissue is :
(1) Cholesterol (2) Carbohydrate
(3) Collagen (4) Fat
66. Brush bordered simple cuboidal epithelium is
(B) found in –
(1) PCT (2) Alveoli of lungs
(3) Iris (4) Choroid
(1) (A) and (B) both are free swimming
67. Endocrine glands are ___A___ and their
(2) (A) produce (B) asexually and (B) produce secretions are ___B___ .
(A) sexually Find A & B.
(3) (A) is medusa and (B) is polyp (1) A = Unicellular, B = Hormone
(4) (A) and (B) both are sessile (2) A = Unicellular, B = Mucus
(3) A = Multicellular, B = Saliva
62. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
assertion (A) and the other is labelled as reason (R) : (4) A = Multicellular, B = Hormone
Assertion (A) : Hemichordata was earlier considered 68. Which tissue face either a body fluid or outside
as a sub-phylum under phylum chordata. environment and this provide a covering or a lining ?
Reason (R) : Now it is placed as a separate phylum (1) Muscular Tissue (2) Epithelium Tissue
under non-chordata. (3) Connective Tissue (4) Nervous Tissue
In the light of the above statements choose the most 69. Select the incorrect statement with respect to cartilage–
appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Perichondrium is outermost covering
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (2) Matrix is solid and non-pliable
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Blood supply is absent in matrix
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (4) Cartilage producing cells are chondroblast
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect 70. Junction, which perform cementing to keep
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the neighbouring cells together is :-
correct explanation of (A) (1) Interdigitation (2) Gap Junction
63. Which of the following is false ? (3) Adhering junction (4) Tight junction
(1) Adipose tissue is located mainly below skin 71. Which one is a correct match :-
(2) Tendon consists of white fibrous tissue (1) Loose connective tissue – Pubic symphysis
(3) Tendon connects a bone with another bone (2) Areolar connective tissue – Spongy nature
(3) Liquid connective tissue – Skin
(4) Ligaments connect a bone with another
bone (4) Specialised connective tissue – Tendons and blood
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 10 English

72. Match the given column-A with column-B :- 78. Which of the following statement is correct for
Column-A Column-B the head of cockroach ?
Wall of Compound (1) It is triangular in shape
(A) (i)
blood vessels epithelium
Lining of stomach Simple cuboidal
(2) It is connected with thorax by a short
(B) (ii) extension of mesothorax
and intestine epithelium

(C)
Moist surface of
(iii)
Simple columnar (3) Head capsule bears a pair of anal cerci
buccal cavity epithelium
(4) Anterior end of head bears piercing and
Simple squamous
(D) Duct of glands (iv) sucking type of mouth parts
epithelium

(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii) 79. Sinus venosus in the heart of frog joins the

(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv) (1) Left atrium (2) Ventricle

(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) (3) Truncus arteriosus (4) Right atrium

(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) 80. Common Indian bull frog is :-

73. Spiracles found in cockroach are :- (1) Rana tigrina (2) Rana essulenta

(1) 2 pairs in thorax and 8 pairs in abdomen (3) Rana silvatica (4) Rana goliath

(2) 2 pairs in thorax and 10 pairs in abdomen 81. Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence
of :
(3) 2 pairs in thorax and 6 pairs in abdomen
(1) Sound producing vocal sacs
(4) 2 pairs in thorax and 4 pairs in abdomen
74. Brood or genital pouch in female cockroach is (2) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore
formed by :- limbs
(1) 7th, 8th and 9th Terga (3) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind
(2) 7th, 8th and 9th Sterna limbs
(3) 7th Terga, 8th and 9th Sterna (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) 7th Sterna, 8th and 9th Terga 82. A hibernating frog respires with :-
75. Genital pouch of female cockroach contains : (1) Lung
(1) Gonopore (2) Spermathecal pore (2) Diaphragm
(3) Phallic aperture (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Buccal epithelium
76. Blood vascular system of cockroach is an : (4) Skin
(1) Close type (2) Open type 83. Fore - brain of frog includes
(3) Absent (4) Rudimentary type (1) Olfactory lobes
77. Another name of Labrum ? (2) Paired cerebral hemisphere
(1) Upper lip (2) Lower lip (3) Unpaired diencephalon
(3) Upper jaw (4) Lower jaw (4) All of these
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84. Read the following statement w.r.t frogs : 90. Body cavity of Hydra is known as :
(i) They are cold blooded (1) Schizocoelom
(ii) They perform camouflage to hide from their
enemies (2) Enterocoelom
(iii) They undergo hibernation but no aestivation (3) Pseudocoelom
(iv) The frog drinks water
(4) Gastrovascular cavity
(v) The skin usually remains dry
How many of the above statements are correct ? 91. Statement I : Cyclostomates are ectoparasites on
some fishes.
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Five (4) Three
Statement II : They have a sucking and circular
85. Small group of worm like, exclusive marine mouth with jaws.
animals is known as :- Select the correct option?
(1) Ctenophora (2) Hemichordata (1) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
(3) Echinodermata (4) Annelida (2) Statement II is correct and I is incorrect
SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY ) (3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
86. The excretory organ of hemichordates is :
92. The origin of connective tissue is :
(1) Flame cells (2) Solenocytes
(1) Ectoderm
(3) Kidneys (4) Proboscis gland
(2) Endoderm
87. Examples of economically beneficial insect is
(3) Mesoderm
(1) Limulus (2) Apis
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Anopheles (4) Locusta
93. The sketch given below represent a type of
88. In sponges the correct sequence of water in canal
animal tissue.
system is?
(1) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia
(2) Ostia → Osculum → Spongocoel
(3) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum
(4) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum
89. These animals have an endoskeleton of calcareous Which of the following statement is not related
ossicles. All are marine with organ-system level of with above tissue ?
organisation. The adults are radially symmetrical
but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, such (1) It has a limited role in secretion and absorption
organisms are included under :- (2) It's main function is to provide protection
(1) Phylum Mollusca against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(2) Phylum Echinodermata (3) Cells are compactly pakcted with little
intercellular matrix.
(3) Phylum Arthropoda
(4) It is found in the lining of stomach and
(4) Phylum Hemichordata
intestine.
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94. Assertion : The ground substance make bone 97. In the diagram given below, identify the parts
hard, nonpliable and give strength to the bone. labelled as A, B, C & D and select the right
Reason : The ground substance of bone is rich in option about them.
Ca-salts and collagen fibres.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False. Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D
Anterior Heart Alary Anal
95. Observe the given table and select appropriate (1)
aorta chambers muscles cerci
answer.
Anal Alary Heart Anterior
Diagram Feature Function (2)
cerci muscles chambers aorta
Multi layered
Main role in Anterior Alary Heart Anal
cells, (3)
(1) secretion and aorta muscles chambers cerci
Compound
absorption Heart Anal Anterior Alary
epithelium (4)
chambers cerci aorta muscles
Multicellular
Secretion of 98. In male cockroach, genital pouch is formed by
(2) and exocrine
hormone the fusion of-
gland
(1) 7th, 8th and 9th terga
Columnar Move particles or
epithelium, mucus in a (2) 8th and 9th sterna
(3) free surface specific direction (3) 9th terga and 10th sterna
may have over the (4) 9th and 10th terga, and 9th sterna
microvilli epthelium
99. Which type of teeth is found in frog ?
Fat stored
(1) Acrodont
area, located Fats stored in this
(4) (2) Homodont
beneath the tissue
skin (3) Polyphyodont

96. Which of the following structures is unpaired in (4) All of these

Cockroach? 100. Choose the incorrect statement for frog
(1) Labrum (1) Body of frog divisible into Head and Trunk
(2) Mandibles (2) Tympanum receives sound signals
(3) Maxillae (3) Hind limbs bear four digits with web
(4) Antennae (4) Fore limbs bear four digits
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Topic : SYLLABUS-1

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 106. log Kp + 2 log RT = 0 is true relationship for

Kc
101. 2g of hydrogen is ignited with 2g of oxygen. The which of the following reaction :-
weight of water formed is :- (1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(1) 4.5g (2) 2.25g (2) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) 2.5g (4) 3.5g (3) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)
102. Which of the following figures does not (4) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
represent 1 mole of O2 gas at NTP ?
107. Assertion : Introduction of inert gas in any gaseous
(1) 32 grams of O2 gas reaction at equilibrium, keeping pressure constant,
(2) 22.4 litres of O2 gas always shifts the equilibrium in forward direction.
Reason : Due to introduction of inert gas at
(3) 6.022 × 1023 O2 molecules constant pressure, the partial pressures of various
(4) 16 grams of O2 gas reactants and products decrease.
103. The percentage of nitrogen in urea (NH2CONH2) (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
is :- reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason
(1) 38.4 (2) 46.6 is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) 59.1 (4) 61.3 (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
104. 6g of a base whose equivalent weight is 60 reacts (4) Assertion is false but reason is true
completely with 2g of an acid. The equivalent 108. Match column-I with column-II
weight of the acid is :- Column-I Column-II
(1) 10 (2) 80 (P) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) (I) Kp = Kc (RT)
(3) 40 (4) 20 (Q) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) (II) Kp = Kc (RT)2
105. Statement-I : At STP 10 mL CO2(g) and 10 mL (R) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (III) Kp = Kc (RT) – 2
CH4(g) contain equal number of molecules.
(S) NH4Cl(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + HCl(g) (IV) Kp = Kc
Statement-II : Equal volumes of all gases at the
same temperature and pressure contain equal (1) P-(IV), Q-(II), R-(I), S-(III)
number of molecules. (2) P-(IV), Q-(III), R-(I), S-(II)
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true (3) P-(III), Q-(IV), R-(I), S-(II)
and statement-II is the correct explanation
(4) P-(III), Q-(IV), R-(II), S-(I)
of statement-I.
109. Which is most stable oxide :-
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
but statement-II is not the correct (1) 2NO2⇌ N2 + 2O2 , K = 6.7 × 1016
explanation of statement-I. (2) 2NO ⇌ N2 + O2 , K = 2.2 × 1030
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false. (3) 2N2O3⇌ 2N2 + 3O2 , K = 1.2 × 1034
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true. (4) 2N2O ⇌ 2N2 + O2 , K = 3.5 × 1033
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110. For a reaction A(g) ⇌ 2B(g), the equilibrium 114. The Ksp of PbCl2 is 4 × 10 – 6. Its solubility
constant (KC) is 1.4 at 400°C. If 3 moles of A and in 0.1 M NaCl solution is :-
2 moles of B are mixed in 2L container, then the (1) 4 × 10 – 4 M
direction in which the reaction proceed will be :
(2) 4 × 10 – 5 M
(1) Backward direction
(3) 4 × 105 M
(2) Forward direction
(4) 4 × 10 – 7 M
(3) At equilibrium
115. The hydrogen ion concentration in a given
(4) Can't be predicted
solution is 5 × 10 – 4 M. Its pH will be :-
111. In the following equilibrium,
(1) 5
I : A + 2B ⇌ C ; Keq = K1
II : C + D ⇌ 3A ; Keq = K2 (2) 4
III : 6B + D ⇌ 2C ; Keq = K3 (3) 3.3
Correct relationship will be :- (4) 3.7
(1) 3K1K2 = K3 116. pKa for HNO2 at certain temperature is 3.35. The
(2) K13 K22 = K3 pOH of acidic buffer containing equimolor
(3) 3K1 K22 = K3 concentration of HNO2 and NaNO2 will be :-
(4) K13 K2 = K3 (1) 3.35
112. For an equilibrium, H2O(s) ⇌ H2O( ℓ ) which of (2) 10.65
the following statement is true :- (3) 4.35
(1) The pressure changes do not affect the (4) 9.65
equilibrium
117. Match the Column-I and Column-II
(2) More ice melts if pressure on the system is
Column-I Column-II
increased
1/7
(a) Al(OH)3 (p) Ksp
(3) More of liquid freezes if pressure on the s=( )
6912
system is increased 1/3
(b) BaCrO4 (q) Ksp
s=( )
(4) Temperature changes do not affect 4
equilibrium Ksp
1/4
(c) Zr3(PO4)4 (r) s=( )

113. 0.01 N NaX solution is 1% hydrolysed. Find out 27

the ionisation constant of weak acid HX ? (d) Hg2I2 (s) s = (Ksp)1/2

(1) 10 – 4 (1) (a) → (r); (b) → (s); (c) → (p); (d) → (q)
(2) 10 – 8 (2) (a) → (s); (b) → (p); (c) → (r); (d) → (q)
(3) 10 – 6 (3) (a) → (p); (b) → (q); (c) → (s); (d) → (r)
(4) 10 – 10 (4) (a) → (q); (b) → (r); (c) → (p); (d) → (s)
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118. Assertion :- pH of water increases with increase 122. I2(s) ⇌ I2(g) ; Δ H = + 40 kcal, Δ S = 80 cal/K.
in temperature. The sublimation point of I2(s) will be :-
Reason :- Dissociation of water into H+ and (1) 100°C
OH – ion is an endothermic reaction. (2) 127°C
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (3) 227°C
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. (4) 500°C

(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 123. During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas,
which is correct ?
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true. (1) Temperature increases
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (2) Temperature remain constant
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (3) q = 0
119. Which salt can furnish H+ in its aqueous solution ? (4) Δ E = 0
(1) NaH2PO2 124. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
(2) Na2HPO3 Assertion (A) : In equation ΔrG = –nFEcell, value of
(3) Na2HPO4 Δ rG depends on n.
Reason (R) : Ecell is an extensive property and ΔrG is
(4) All of these
an intensive property.
120. Combustion of octane takes place in an In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
automobile engine. The homogeneous equation answer from the options given below :
of combustion is :- (1) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
25 correct explanation of A.
C8H18(g) + O2(g) → 8CO2(g) + 9H2O(g)
2
The signs of Δ H, Δ S and Δ G for the reaction (2) A is true but R is false
will be :- (3) A is false but R is true
(1) +ve, – ve, +ve (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) – ve, +ve, – ve explanation of A.
(3) – ve, +ve, +ve 125. The gas absorbs 100 J and is simultaneously
(4) +ve, +ve, – ve compressed by a constant external pressure
121. One mol of an ideal gas at 300 K expands of 1.50 atm from 8 lit to 2 lit volume. Hence Δ U
isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 1L will be :
to xL. The work done is – 1381.8 cal then value (1) – 812 J
of x will be :- (2) 812 J
(1) 10 L (2) 2L (3) 1011 J
(3) 5 L (4) 100 L (4) 911 J
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126. The correct thermochemical equation is :-
(1) CO2 → C + O2 ; Δ H = – 94 kcal
(2) CO2 → C + O2 ; Δ H = + 94 kcal
(3) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ; Δ H = – 94 kcal
(4) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ; Δ H = +94 kcal
127. The enthalpy of dissolution of BaCl2(s)
and BaCl2.2H2O(s) are – 20 and 8 kJ/mol. The
enthaply of hydration for
BaCl2(s) + 2H2O → BaCl2.2H2O(s)
(1) – 28 kJ/mol
(2) +28 kJ/mol
(3) – 12 kJ/mol
(4) +12 kJ/mol
128. The enthalpy changes at 298 K in successive
breaking of O – H bonds of H – O – H are
H2O(g) → H(g) + OH(g), Δ H = 498 kJ mol – 1
130. H+ + Cr2O72 – + SO32 – → Cr+3 + SO42 – + H2O
In balanced reaction, coefficient of H+ and
SO42 – will be respectively :-
(1) 3, 8
(2) 3, 4
(3) 4, 1
(4) 8, 3
131. Consider the following reaction :
3Br2 + 6CO32– + 3H2O → 5Br– + BrO3– + 6HCO3–
Which of the following statements is true regarding this
reaction ?
(1) Bromine is oxidized and the carbonate
radical is reduced.
(2) Bromine is reduced and the carbonate
radical is oxidized.
(3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized.

OH(g) → H(g) + O(g), Δ H = 428 kJ mol – 1 (4) Bromine is both reduced and oxidized.

The average bond enthalpy of the O – H bond is 132. Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

(1) 498 kJ mol – 1 Zn undergoes :-

(2) 463 kJ mol – 1 (1) Reduction

(3) 428 kJ mol – 1 (2) Oxidation
(4) 70 kJ mol – 1 (3) Both oxidation and reduction
129. S(rhombic) + O2(g) → SO2(g); Δ H = – 71.1 kcal (4) Neither oxidation nor reduction
S(monoclinic) + O2(g) → SO2(g); Δ H = – 71.7 kcal 133. Review the reaction :-
Heat of transition S(rhombic) → S(monoclinic) would 3Br2 + 6OH – → 5Br – + BrO3 – + 3H2O and
be : indicate the eq. wt. of Br2
(1) – 142.8 kcal (1) M/2
(2) +142.8 kcal (2) [M/2 + M/10]
(3) – 0.6 kcal (3) M/10
(4) +0.6 kcal (4) M/6
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134. Number of moles of MnO4 – required to oxidize 138. Match the column :-
one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic Column-I Column-II
medium will be:- 36.132 × 1023 atoms of
(A) 8.8 g of CO2 (P)
oxygen
(1) 7.5 moles
5.6 L of CO2 at 12.044 × 1022
(B) (Q)
(2) 0.2 moles STP molecule
(C) 96 g of O2 (R) 0.25 mol
(3) 0.6 moles
(D) 49 g of H2SO4 (S) 0.5 mol
(4) 0.4 moles (1) A→Q, B→R, C→S, D→P
135. Which of the following reactions is a (2) A→Q, B→R, C→P, D→S
decomposition redox reaction ? (3) A→P, B→R, C→S, D→Q
(1) 2 Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2 PbO(s) + 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) (4) A→P, B→R, C→Q, D→S
(2) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g) 139. In a reversible reaction A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + 2D(g)
initially 1 mole of each reactant is taken in 2 L
(3) Cl2(g) + 2OH – (aq) → ClO – (aq) + Cl – (aq)
container, if at equilibrium 20% of A reacts with
+ 4H2O( ℓ )
B. Then what will be equilibrium constant KC for
(4) P4(s)+3OH – (aq)+3H2O( ℓ ) → PH3(g) + the reaction :
3H2PO2 – (aq) (1) 0.05
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) (2) 0.025

136. Aspirin has the formula C9H8O4. How many (3) 0.25

atoms of oxygen are there in a tablet weighing (4) 0.5

360 mg ? 140. AB3(g) dissociates as

AB3(g) ⇌ AB2(g) + 1 B2(g)
(1) 1.2 × 1023 2
When the initial pressure of AB3 is 800 torr and the
(2) 1 × 1022 total pressure developed at equilibrium is 900 torr.
(3) 1.2 × 1024 What percentage of AB3(g) is dissociated?
(4) 4.8 × 1021 (1) 10 % (2) 20 %
137. 50g sample of CaCO3 on heating gives 17.6g of (3) 25 % (4) 30 %
CO2. Calculate % purity of sample ? 141. Which of the following mixtures will act as buffer ?
(1) 80% (1) HCl + NaOH (1.5 : 3 molar ratio)
(2) 20% (2) HCN + NaOH (1.0 : 2 molar ratio)
(3) 30% (3) NH4OH + HCl (4 : 1 molar ratio)
(4) 50% (4) NH4OH + HCl (4 : 5 molar ratio)
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142. Assertion (A) : In the acid-base titration 146. Calculate Δ H (kJ/mol) for the reaction :-
involving a strong base and a weak acid methyl 2FeO(s) + 1 O2 (g) → F e2 O3 (s)
orange can be used as an indicator. 2
Given :-
Reason (R) : Methyl orange changes its colour in
(i) Fe2O3(s) + 3C(graphite) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO(g)
pH range 3.1 to 4.4.
Δ H = + 492 kJ/mol
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(ii) FeO(s) + C(graphite) → Fe(s) + CO(g)
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason Δ H = + 156 kJ/mol
is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect (iii) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ,
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct Δ H = – 393 kJ/mol

143. 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas initially at

1
25°C and 2 atm are heated at constant pressure (iv) CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ,
2
to a temperature of 100°C. Calculate Δ H. Given Δ H = −283 kJ/mol
5R (1) 290 (2) – 290
CP = (R = 2 Cal/K-mol) :-
2
(1) – 750 cal (2) 750 cal (3) 580 (4) – 580
(3) 0 cal (4) 375 cal 147. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia
is – 46.0 kJ mol – 1 . The internal energy
144. For a reaction : X → Y + Z
change for the reaction :-
Absolute entropies are X = 120 J K–1 mol–1, 2NH 3 (g) → N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) at 300 K is
Y = 213.8 J K–1 mol–1 and Z = 197.9 J K–1mol–1.
(1) 46.0 kJ mol – 1 (2) 92.0 kJ mol – 1
What will be the entropy change for reaction at 298 K
and 1atm ? (3) – 87.0 kJ mol – 1 (4) 87.0 kJ mol – 1
(1) 291.7 J K – 1 148. 200 cm3 of 0.1M H2SO4 is mixed with 150 cm3
of 0.2M KOH. Find the value of evolved heat.
(2) 255 J K – 1
(1) 1.7 kJ (2) 2.7 kJ (3) 9.2 kJ (4) 3.2 kJ
(3) 213.8 J K – 1
149. The oxidation states of Sulphur in the anions
(4) 257.3 J K – 1
SO32 – , S2O42 – and S2O62 – follow the order :
145. Enthalpies of formation of CO(g), CO2(g), N2O(g)
(1) S2O62 – < S2O4 – 2 < SO32 –
and N2O4(g) are – 110, – 393, 81 and 9.7 kJ mol – 1 (2) S2O42 – < SO32 – < S2O62 –
respectively. Find the value of Δ H for the reaction : (3) SO32 – < S2O42 – < S2O62 –
N2O4(g) + 3CO(g) → N2O(g) + 3CO2(g)
(4) S2O4 – 2 < S2O62 – < SO32 –
(1) +778 kJ mol – 1 150. In the following structure, the oxidation number
(2) – 211.7 kJ mol – 1 on carbon will be : H – N →= C :-
(3) +211.7 kJ mol – 1 (1) 0 (2) – 2
(4) – 778 kJ mol – 1 (3) + 2 (4) + 1 or – 1
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Topic : SYLLABUS-1

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 155. In an experiment to find out thickness of a sheet

using screw gauge, the following observation were
151. The sides of a rectangle are (10.5 ± 0.2) cm and noted
(5.2 ± 0.1) cm. Then its perimeter with error (a) Screw moves 1 mm on main scale in two
limits is :- complete rotations.
(1) (31.4 ± 0.6) cm (b) Total divisions on circular scale = 50
(c) Main scale reading is 1.5 mm
(2) (31.4 ± 0.3) cm (d) 35th division on circular scale coincide with
(3) (51.6 ± 0.6) cm pitch line.
(4) (51.6 ± 0.3) cm (e) Instrument has negative zero error of 0.02 mm.
Thickness of plate will be :
152. In a certain system of unit one unit of mass is 50 g,
one unit of length is 10 cm & 1 unit of time is 5 s then (1) 0.67 mm
in this system 1 unit of pressure equals to :- (2) 0.87 mm
(1) 50 Pa (3) 0.53 mm
(2) 1/50 Pa (4) 1.87 mm
(3) 100 Pa 156. In a vernier calliper of least count 0.10 mm and
(4) 1/100 Pa zero error ( – 0.3 mm), the reading of diameter of
sphere on main scale is 6 mm and 5th division of
153. The equation of stationary wave is verneir scale coincides with one of main scale
2 π vt 2πx
y = 2A sin( ) cos( ) division. The correct diameter of sphere is :-
λ λ
Which of the statement is wrong ? (1) 6 mm
(1) The unit of v t is same as that of λ (2) 6.2 mm
(2) The unit of x is same as that of λ (3) 6.5 mm
(3) The unit of 2 π v is same as that of 2 π x (4) 6.8 mm
λ λt
→ +B
157. If A → +C → = →0 and → = |B|
|A| → = |C|
→ =a then
v x
(4) The unit of is same as that of
λ λ → + B|
value of |A →
154. Which of the following sets cannot enter into the
(1) a (2) 2a (3) 3a (4) zero
list of fundamental quantities in any newly
→ = ^i − ^j + 2k^ along
158. The component of a vector A
proposed system of units?
(a) length, mass and velocity vector B→ = ^i − ^j is :
^ ^
(b) pressure, density and velocity (1) i −j
(c) force, velocity and time (2) ^
i
(d) force, momentum and time ^ ^
(3) 2(i − j )
(1) a and c (2) b and d
(4) 1 ^ ^
(i − j )
(3) only d (4) only a 2

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→ +B
159. The angle between A → and A
→ ×B
→ is : 163. A boy walks to his school along straight line
(1) Zero at a distance of 6 km with constant speed of
2.5 km/hr and walks back with a constant
(2) π
2 speed of 4 km/hr. His average speed for round
(3) π trip expressed in km/hr is
(4) 2 π 24
(1)
160. → = 2i^ − ^j + 3k^
→ → 13
B when a vector C is added to B 40
(2)
we get a unit vector along z-axis find the value 13
→ → (3) 3
of C and also find the unit vector along C ?
(4) 1
^ ^ ^
^ 2i − j − 2k 2
(1) 2i^ − ^j + 2k,
3 164. 2 bodies starts from same point with speed 2u
^ ^ ^
−2i + j − 2i and 3u in straight line and both experiences same
(2) −2i^ + ^j − 2i^,
√ 3 retardation. Then find ratio of distances travelled
^ ^ ^ by bodies before coming to rest :-
(3) ^ ^ −2i + j − 2k
^
−2i + j − 2k,
3 (1) 2 : 3
^
^ 2i^ − ^j + 3k
(4) 2i^ − ^j + 3k, (2) 4 : 9
√ 14
161. A boat is moving in direction of vector −4i^ + 3j^ (3) √ 3 : √2

(4) 5 : 2
with a speed of 10 m/sec. Velocity vector of
165. A body freely falling from rest has a velocity v
boat can be expressed as :
after it falls through distance 4 m. The distance it
(1) −40i^ + 30j^ has to fall down further in meter for its velocity
^ ^ to become triple is
(2) −8i + 6j
4^ 3^
(1) 16 m
(3) − i+ j
5 5 (2) 32 m
(4) ^ ^
−6i + 8j
(3) 48 m
162. A vector in xy plane has an x-component of 4 and (4) 64 m
y component of 10 if is then rotated in x-y plane 166. A ball falls from a height 200 m. At the same
such that its x-component is doubled then its new time, another ball directly below it, is projected
upwards from ground with 40 m/s. Then the two
y component will be :- balls will cross each other after an interval of :-
(1) 20 (1) 4 s
(2) 7.2 (2) 5 s
(3) 5.0 (3) 10 s
(4) 4.5 (4) 2 s
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 English 21
167. Position-time graph of a particle is given, then 170. Figure shows two ships moving in x-y plane with
velocities VA and VB. The ships move such that
find its average speed in time t = 0 to t = 15 sec.
VA
B always remains north of A. The ratio is
VB
equal to :-

(1) 5 m/s
5 (1) cos θ (2) sin θ
(2) m/s
3
(3) sec θ (4) cosec θ
(3) 2 m/s
171. Three books (X, Y and Z) rest on a table. The
2
(4) m/s weight of each book is indicated. The net force
3
168. For a projectile the ratio of maximum height acting on book Y is:

reached to the square of flight time is :

(1) 5 : 4

(2) 5 : 2 (1) 4N down (2) 5N up

(3) 9N down (4) Zero
(3) 5 : 1
172. One end of massless rope, which passes over a
(4) 10 : 1 massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook
C while the other end is free. Maximum tension
169. A river is 300 m wide. It is flowing at speed
that the rope can bear is 840 N. With what value
of 3 m/s. A man who can swim in still water of maximum safe acceleration (in ms – 2) can a
at 3 m/s crosses the river always directing his man of 60 kg climb on the rope?
motion perpendicular to the flow with respect
to water. How long will he take to cross the
river?
(1) 50 s

(2) 100 s

(3) 150 s (1) 16 (2) 6

(4) 200 s (3) 4 (4) 8
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 22 English

173. A horizontal force of 10 N is acted upon three
blocks A, B and C of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 5 kg
kept on a horizontal smooth surface as shown in
figure. Find the net force acting on 2 kg block.
(1) 8 N (2) 10 N (3) 2 N (4) 5 N
174. Three blocks A, B and C of equal mass 'm' are
arranged with the help of ideal string and pulley
as shown in the figure. Find acceleration of the
system :-
176. The coefficient of static friction between the box
and the train's floor is 0.2. The maximum
acceleration of the train in which a box lying on its
floor will remain stationary is :- (Take g = 10 ms – 2)
(1) 2 m s – 2
(2) 4 m s – 2
(3) 6 m s – 2
(4) 8 m s – 2
177. The coefficient of static friction μ s between
block A of mass 2kg and the table as shown in
the fig. is 0.2 what should be the maximum mass
value of block B so that the two blocks do not
move. string and pulley assumed to be massless
and frictionless (g=10m/s2) :

g
(1) g (2) (1) 2.0 kg
3
2g (2) 4.0 kg
(3) 2g (4)
3
(3) 0.2 kg
175. In the figure shown, a block of weight 10 N
resting on a horizontal surface. A force of 3.5 N (4) 0.4 kg
will keep the block in uniform motion, once it has 178. Because of a force, position of a particle is given
been set in motion. If a horizontal force of 3 N is by x = (t – 3)2 ; then find work done in first six
applied to the block, then the block will seconds. (mass of particle = m)
(1) 18m (2) 0
(3) 9m/2 (4) 36 m

(1) Move over the surface with constant 179. Which of the following statement is correct ?
velocity (1) Kinetic energy of a system can be changed
(2) Move having accelerated motion over the without changing it's momentum
surface (2) Momentum of a system can't be changed
(3) Not move without changing it's kinetic energy

(4) First it will move with a constant velocity (3) A system cannot have energy without
for some time and then will have having momentum
accelerated motion (4) None of these
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
1001CMD303054230146 15-03-2024
 English 23
180. Two springs have their force constant as k1 and 184. If U = x2y3, then force will be :
k2(k1 > k2). When they are stretched by the same (1) x2y3^i + x2 y 3 ^j (2) 2xy3^i + 3x2 y 2 ^j
force up to equilibrium -
(3) 3x2y2 ^i + 2xy3^j (4) – 2xy3 ^i – 3x2y2^j
(1) No work is done by this force in case of
both the springs 185. Statement-1 : On rainy day, it is difficult to drive
a car or bus at high speed.
(2) Equal work is done by this force in case of
Statement-2 : The value of coefficient of friction
both the springs
is lowered due to wetting of the surface.
(3) More work is done by this force in case of
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true
second spring
(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(4) More work is done by this force in case of
first spring (3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
181. Velocity – time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false
moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )
Work done by all the force on the particle is :-
186. If force (F) length (L) and time (T) are taken as
the fundamental quantities, then what will be the
dimension of density ?
(1) [F L – 4 T2] (2) [F L – 3 T3]
(3) [F L – 3 T2] (4) [F L – 5 T2]
(1) 400 J (2) – 400 J
→ × B|
187. If |A → =4 → ⋅
and |A → =3
B| find the value of
(3) – 200 J (4) 200 J → + B)
→ :
(A
182. A man of mass 80 kg runs up a staircase in 15 s.
(1) 8AB
Another man of same mass runs up the same √ A2 + B 2 +
5
staircase in 20 s. The ratio of the powers
(2) 6AB
developed by them will be :- √
A2 + B 2 +
5
(1) 1 4 2 5 8AB
(2) (3) (4) (3) √
A2 + B 2 −
3 3 4 5
183. In the fig. shown, all surfaces are smooth. In first 6AB
(4) √ A2 + B 2 −
2 seconds of motion total work done by tension 5
on both the blocks is :- 188. If the velocity of a particle is given by
1
V = (12 + 6x) 2 m/s, then its acceleration (in m/s2)
will be :-
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
800 1600 400 (4) Zero (4) 1
(1) J (2) J (3) J
3 3 3
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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 24 English

189. A body is falling from a height of 100 m. The 193. In the following figure, two masses P and Q are
time taken for first 50 m is t1 and remaining 50 m joined with a string. The tension in the string in
is t2 then find ratio of t1 and t2 :- between PQ in newton will be :-
1 1
(1) (2) 1+
√ 2−1 √2
1
(3) √ 2 (4) 1−
√ 2
190. The maximum height reached by a projectile is
4 meter and the horizontal range is 12 meter.
Velocity of projection is : (g is acceleration due
to gravity) :-
(1) g (2) g/15
(1) 5 g/2 m/s
√
(3) 16g/15 (4) 32g/15
(2) 3√g/2 m/s 194. In the arrangement shown in the figure (sin 37º = 3/5) :-
(3) 1√
g/2 m/s
3
(4) 1√
g/2 m/s
5
191. If a stone is thrown horizontally from top of a
tower with 10m/s then it hits ground at 37° with
horizontal then height of tower is :
(1) Direction of force of friction is up the plane
(1) 5.62 m (2) 2.81 m
(2) The magnitude of force of friction is zero
(3) 7.5 m (4) 1.4 m
(3) The tension in the string is 20 N
192. A force F is applied on the block as shown in
figure. If g = 10 m/s2 then the acceleration of the (4) Magnitude of force of friction is 56 N.
block is :- 195.

For the given arrangement; find force of friction

on the block. (g = 10m/s2)
(1) 2 m/s2 (1) 24 N
(2) 4 m/s2 (2) 12.8 N
(3) 6 m/s2 (3) 4 N
(4) Zero (4) 12 N
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1001CMD303054230146 15-03-2024
 English 25
196. Find work done by force F in 1 sec :- 199. A time varying power P = 2t is applied on a
particle of mass 3kg. The change in kinetic
energy of the particle from t = 0 to t = 4 sec is :-
(1) 4 J (2) 8 J (3) 16 J (4) 24 J
(1) 60 J (2) 210 J 200. Match the column
(3) – 50 J (4) None of these Column I Column II
197. A uniform chain has a mass m and length ℓ . It is Work done by Path
A. P.
ℓ conservative force dependent
held on a frictionless table with ( ) of its
6 Work done by
length hanging over the edge. The work done in Positive,
B. non-conservative Q.
just pulling the hanging part back on the table negative, zero
force
is:-
Work done by Change in
mg ℓ mg ℓ mg ℓ mg ℓ C. R.
(1) (2) (3) (4) friction force kinetic energy
72 36 12 6
198. A pump motor is used to deliver water at a Work done by all Path
D. S.
certain rate from a given pipe. To obtain thrice forces independent
as much water from the pipe in the same time (1) A-P,Q; B-Q,R; C-R,S; D-S,P
power of the motor has to be increased :-
(2) A-Q,S; B-P,Q; C-P,Q; D-Q,R
(1) 3 times (2) 9 times
(3) A-P,R; B-P,S; C-Q,S; D-P,Q
(3) 27 times (4) 81 times
(4) A-P,Q; B-P,R; C-P,R; D-Q,S

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 26 English

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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 MAJOR TEST PLAN FOR LEADER & ACHIEVER : (PLAN-C)
(MAZL , MAZS , MAZT , MAZU , MAZW , MAZG , MAZH ,
MAZI , MAZJ, MLH , MLI , MLJ , MLK , MLM, MLX)
(Session : 2023-2024)
TEST NO. TEST DATE DAY SYLLABUS
1 15-03-2024 FRIDAY SYLLABUS -1
2 20-03-2024 WEDNESDAY SYLLABUS -2
3 26-03-2024 TUESDAY SYLLABUS -3
4 31-03-2024 SUNDAY SYLLABUS -4
5 05-04-2024 FRIDAY SYLLABUS -5
6 10-04-2024 WEDNESDAY SYLLABUS - 6
7 14-04-2024 SUNDAY SYLLABUS - 1+2+3
8 18-04-2024 THURSDAY SYLLABUS - 4+5+6
9 21-04-2024 SUNDAY FULL SYLLABUS (A.I.O.T)
10 24-04-2024 WEDNESDAY FULL SYLLABUS
11 28-04-2024 SUNDAY FULL SYLLABUS
12 02-05-2024 THURSDAY FULL SYLLABUS

SYLLABUS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY

Physics and Measurement, Kinematics,
The Living world,
Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power
Some basic concepts of chemistry, Biological classification,
Experimental Skills :
Equilibrium, Plant kingdom,
SYLLABUS 1 * Vernier Calipers-Its use to measure the internal and
Chemical Thermodynamics, Structural organisation in animals (Animal Tissue),
external diameter and depth of a vessel. * Screw Gauge-
Redox reactions Animal kingdom,
Its use to determine thickness/ diameter of thin
Cockroach, Frog
sheet/wire.

Center of mass and collision, Circular motion, Rotational

Cell : The unit of life,
motion, Gravitation,
Cell cycle and cell division,
Properties of solids and liquids.
Biomolecules, Enzyme,
Experimental Skills :
Atomic structure, Excretory products and their elimination
* Young'S modulus of elasticity of the material of a
SYLLABUS 2 metallic wire.
Classification of elements and periodicity in properties, Chemical (Excretory System)
bonding & Molecular structure Breathing and exchange of gases
* Surface tension of water by Capillary rise and effect of
(Respiratory System)
detergents,
Body fluids and circulation
* Co-efficient of viscosity of a given viscous liquid by
(Circulatory System)
measuring terminal velocity of a given spherical body.

Thermodynamics, Kinetic theory of gases,

Oscillations and Waves Photosynthesis in higher plants,
Experimental Skills : Plant growth and development,
* Simple pendulum-dissipation of energy by plotting a Respiration in plants,
graph between the square of amplitude and time. Some basic principles of organic chemistry, Neural control and co-ordination
SYLLABUS 3 * Metre scale - the mass of a given object by the principle Hydrocarbons, (Nervous System),
of moments. Purification and characterisation of organic compounds. Chemical co-ordination and integration
* Speed of sound in air at room temperature using a (Endocrine System),
resonance tube, Locomotion and movement
* Specific heat capacity of a given (I) Solid and (II) (Muscles, Skeletal System)
Liquid by method of mixtures.
Chemical Kinetics, Solutions, Electrochemistry,
Principles related to Pratical Chemistry :-
The chemistry involved in the titrimetric exercises-Acids, Bases
Electrostatics & Capacitor, and the use of indicators, oxalic acid vs KMnO4, Mohr’s salt vs
Current Electricity,
KMnO4. Sexual reproduction in flowering plants,
Experimental Skills :
Chemical principles involved in the following experiments. Morphology of flowering plants,
* The resistivity of the material of a given wire using a
SYLLABUS 4 metre bridge.
1. Enthalpy of solution of CuSO4. Anatomy of flowering plants,
2. Enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid Human reproduction,
* The resistance of a given wire using Ohm'S Law.
and strong base. Reproductive health
* Resistance and figure of merit of a Galvanometer by
Half Deflection Method. 3. Preparation of lyophilic and lyophobic sols.
4. Kinetic study of the reaction of iodide ions
with hydrogen peroxide at room temperature.

p-block elements, d & f-block elements,

Magnetic effects of current and magnetism,
SYLLABUS 5 Electromagnetic induction and Alternating currents,
Electromagnetic waves
Coordination compounds.
Principles Related to Pratical Chemistry :-
1. The chemistry involved in the preparation Principles of inheritance and variation,
of Inorganic compound; Mohr’s salt, potash alum. Molecular basis of inheritance,
2. Chemical principles involved in the Microbes in human welfare,
qualitative salt analysis. Biotechnology : Principles and processes,
Biotechnology and its applications
3. Cation – Pb2+, Cu+2, Al3+, Fe3+, Zn+2, Ni2+ Ca2+, Ba2+, Mg2+, NH4+
4. Anions – CO32–, S2– , SO42–, NO2−, Cl−, Br−, I–
(Insoluble Salt Excluded)

Optics, Dual nature of matter and radiation,

Atoms and nuclei, Electronic devices
Experimental Skills :
Organic Compounds Containing Halogens,
* The focal length of ;
Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen,
(I) Convex mirror (II) Concave mirror
Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen, Biomolecules
(III) Convex lens, Using the parallax method. Organisms and Populations,
Principles Related to Pratical Chemistry :-
* The plot of the angle of deviation Vs angle of incidence Ecosystem,
1. Detection of extra elements (Nitrogen, Sulphur, halogens)
for a triangular prism. Biodiversity and Conservation,
SYLLABUS 6 * Refractive index of a glass slab using a travelling
in organic compounds.
Demography,
2. Detection of the hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic),
microscope. Biology in human welfare : Human Health and Disease,
carbonyl (aldehyde and ketones) , carboxyl and amino
* Characteristic curves of a P-N junction diode in Origin and Evolution
Functional groups in organic compounds.
forward and reverse bias.
3. The chemistry involved in the preparation of Acetanilide ,
* Characteristic curves of a zener diode and finding
p-nitro, acetanilide, aniline yellow and iodoform.
reverse break down voltage.
* Identification of diode, Led, Resistor,
A Capacitor from a mixed, Collection of such items.

Note : All tests will be available in Both ONLINE & OFFLINE modes.
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