English (1001CMD303029230089) *1001CMD303029230089* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 22-01-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX

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Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 24 pages.

E9 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
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in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Biology (Botany and Zoology), Chemistry and Physics. 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to
185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
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will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( BOTANY ) 6. Which of the following structure of slime mould

possess true wall ?
1. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(1) Spores
(1) Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospore
and aplanospores in members of phycomycetes (2) Plasmodium
(2) All members of phycomycetes are obligate (3) Adult slime moulds
parasite on plants (4) Fruiting body
(3) In Albugo mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic 7. Racemose type of inflorescence is identified by :
(4) Some member of phycomycetes are aquatic (1) Acropetal arrangements of flower on peduncle
2. (2) Presence of sessile flowers on peduncle
(3) Continuous growth on (Peduncle) main axis
(4) Both 1 and 3
8. Drupe fruite is a character of -
Identify the above diagram - (1) Mango
(1) Pinus (2) Cycas (3) Taxus (4) Ginkgo (2) Tomato
3. In liverworts sporophyte is diffrentiated into – (3) Coconut
(1) Root, Leaves, Stem (4) Both 1 & 3
(2) Root, Stem, Rhizoids 9. Given diagrams A, B & C represents which
(3) Protonema, Capsule, Seta
type of vascular bundles, respectively ?
(4) Foot, Seta, Capsule
4. A plant having vascular tissue, producing spores
but lacking seeds is a -
(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Gymnosperm
(1) Radial, conjoint collateral close, conjoint
(4) Algae collateral open
5. Which of the following statement is incorrect
about chrysophytes? (2) Conjoint collateral close, conjoint collateral open,
radial
(1) Float actively in water currents
(2) They are immotile (3) Conjoint collateral close, conjoint collateral open,
concentric
(3) The walls are embedded with silica
(4) Bicollateral, concentric, radial
(4) Chief producers in the oceans
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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10. Statement - I : In angiosperm zygote is final 16. Which of the following statements about
product of sexual reproduction. functions of GA3 are correct except-
Statement - II : Black pepper and beet have (1) It promotes stem elongation
persistent nucellus which is called perisperm.
(2) It promotes dormancy
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) It promotes internode elongation
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) It promotes malting process
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
17. Cytokinins were discovered as -
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(1) a modified form of adenine
11. The total number of ATP produced by one
Acetyl Co – A ? (2) a modified form of pyrimidine
(1) 8 ATP (2) 12 ATP (3) an extract from fungi
(3) 16 ATP (4) 20 ATP (4) a volatile substance
12. First reaction of Kreb’s cycle is _______ to yield 18. Which of the following is incorrect about ABA :-
citric acid : (1) It is also known as stress hormone
(1) Dearboxylation (2) It induces abscission and senescence of leaves
(2) Condensation (3) It helps to open stomata during stress condition
(3) Oxidative de-carboxylation (4) It is generally a plant growth inhibitor
(4) Dehydrogenation 19. Satatement-1 : Introduction of alien species is
13. In Chloroplast, chlorophyll and carotenoid responsible for extinction of indigenous species.
pigments are present in :- Satatement-2 : Alien species have no natural
(1) Granal thylakoids (2) Stromal thylakoids predator.
(3) Stroma (4) Both 1 and 2
(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct
14. How many molecules of CO2 need to be fixed in
Calvin cycle for the synthesis of 1 molecule sucrose :- (2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(1) 6 CO2 (2) 12 CO2 (3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(3) 3 CO2 (4) 18 CO2
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect
15. All of the following can be used during tissue
culture experiment for callus differentiation 20. Which of the following is incorrect about a
along with auxins, except - predator ?
(1) Yeast extract, Kinetin (1) Predators help in maintaining species diversity.
(2) Coconut milk, old DNA (2) Predators keep prey populations under control.
(3) Extract of Gibberella, Human urine (3) Predators act as conduits for energy transfer.
(4) Extract of vascular tissue, Yeast extract (4) Predators over-exploit their prey.
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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21. Observe the following table
The correct order of a, b, c, d would be :
(1) Commensalism, Parasitism, Predation, Mutualism
25. A pyramid with pre-reproductive individuals being
more than reproductive individuals, the population
is said to be__a__with__b__age pyramid.
(1) (a) declining (b) urn shaped
(2) (a) expanding (b) triangular
(3) (a) stable (b) bell shaped
(4) (a) expanding (b) bell shaped

(2) Predation, Competition, Amensalism, Commensalism 26. The values of r for Norway rat and flour beetles
are respectively :-
(3) Amensalism, predation, commensalism, Parasitism
(1) 0.015, 0.0205 (2) 0.12, 2.71828
(4) Parasitism, Predation, Amensalism, Commensalism
(3) 0.015, 0.12 (4) 0.0205, 0.015
22. If two species compete for the same resource,
27. Which one of these is an in situ method of
they could avoid compitetion by choosing
conservation?
different times for feeding or different foraging
patterns. This phenomenon is called :- (1) National Park (2) Botanical garden
(1) Resource partitioning (3) Tissue culture (4) Genetic engineering
(2) Biotic potential
28. How many of the following are broadly utilitarian
(3) Brood parasitism reasons for conserving biodiversity?
(4) competitive release (a) Firewood
23. How many statement are incorrect ? (b) Fibres
(a) Cuscuta is a photosynthetic plant (c) Pollination
(b) Galapagos island was inhabited by goats and (d) Product of medicinal importance
goat were eliminated by Abingdon tortoise
(c) Calotropis weed produces cardiac glycoside (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
for defence 29. Which of the following is wrong about hotspots?
(d) Clown fish is benefitted when living with sea
anemone (1) They occupy less than 2% area of earth
(1) a, b (2) a, c, d (3) b, c, d (4) a, b, d (2) They show high degree of endemism
24. Assertion (A) : Lice on humans and ticks on (3) They are rich in biodiversity
dogs are ectoparasites. (4) They represent ex-situ conservation
Reason (R) : Ectoparasites feed on the external
30. How many characters related to colour were
surface of the host organism.
studied by Mendel in garden pea plant?
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason 31. A normal woman, whose father had colour blindness,
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. married a normal man. What is the chance of
occurrence of colour blindness in the progeny?
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 100% (4) 75%
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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32. The ratio in a dihybrid test cross between two SECTION - B ( BOTANY )
individuals is given by :-
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 36. How many of the following are the example
of chlorophyceae –
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 Chara, Fucus, Volvox, Ulothrix, Dictyota, Spirogyra.
33. A complete heavy nitrogen containing E.Coli is (1) Six (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three
allowed to grow into a medium with normal
14NH Cl for 1 hr. Then- 37. Curd making bacteria are :-
4
(1) Archaebacteria
(1) 50% progeny of E.Coli show hybrid
(2) Photosynthetic Autotrophs
density of DNA molecules.
(3) Chemosynthetic Autotrophs
(2) 25% progeny of E.Coli show hybrid (4) Heterotrophic bacteria
density of DNA molecules. 38. Which of the following is an incorrect match ?
(3) 6.25% progeny of E.Coli show heavy (1) Perigynous flower - Plum, rose and peach
density of DNA molecule
(2) Asymmetrical flower - Canna
(4) 87.5% progeny of E.Coli show heavy
density of DNA molecule. (3) Hypogynous flower - Chilli, mustard
34. In Griffith's experiment :- (4) Monoadelphous stamen - Pea, gram
(1) The protein coat from pathogenic cells was 39. Which of the following is not a common
able to transform non-pathogenic cells. function of root ?
(2) Heat killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia. (1) Absorption of water and minerals from soil
(2) Providing a proper anchorage to the plant part
(3) Some substance from pathogenic cells was
transferred to non-pathogenic cells that (3) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
caused transformation. (4) Food formation
(4) The polysaccharide coat of bacteria 40. In dicot root, initiation of lateral roots occurs from :-
transform nonpathogenic cell
(1) Cortex (2) Epiblema
35. Match the column I with column II.
Column I Column II
(3) Endodermis (4) Pericycle
(A) Curd production (I) LAB 41. Assertion : In dicot stem, endodermis is also
Monascus referred to as starch sheath.
(B) Ethanol (II) Reason : In dicot stem the cell of endodermis are
purpureus
Immunosuppressive rich in starch grains.
(C) (III) Yeast
Agent (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(D) Statins (IV) Cyclosporin A Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(2) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(4) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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42. In Angiosperm the parenchymatous mass of cells 47. Select the correct statement :-
enclosed with in the integuments to forms the
body of ovule is : (1) Reducing power required for CO2 fixation
in Calvin cycle comes from z-scheme only.
(1) Chalaza (2) Funicle
(2) The regeneration step involves phosphorylation
(3) Embryo sac (4) Nucellus of RuBP to form RuMP.
43. In which of the following plant, both Autogamy (3) Phosphoglycerate is the first sugar formed
and Geitonogamy are prevented ?
during C4-cycle.
(1) Date palm (2) Castor
(4) Carboxylation of RuBP requires ATP.
(3) Coconut (4) Maize
48. In a given food chain suppose the amount of
44. Find out the correct representation of the
energy at the fourth tropic level is 6 kJ, what will
diagram :
be the energy at producer level?
(1) 0.5 kJ (2) 60 kJ
(1) Link reaction (3) 600 kJ (4) 6000 kJ
(2) Lactic acid fermentation 49. The most popularly known blood grouping is the
(3) Alcoholic fermentation
ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC,
(4) Glycolysis
because "O" in it refers to having :
45. Select the incorrect option with respect to respiration :
(1) No antigens A and B on RBCs
(1) Number of ATP molecules synthesised
depends on the nature of e – donor. (2) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
(2) One molecule of NADH.H+ give rise to 2ATP (3) Overdominance of this type on the genes
(3) Role of oxygen is limited to terminal stage for A and B types
(4) Synthesis of ATP in mitochondria is (4) One antibody only-either anti-A or anti-B
oxidative phosphorylation on the RBCs
46. Match column – I and column – II to choose 50. Find out correct statement about transcription :
correct answer :
(1) In transcription of DNA only one strand is
Column – I Column – II
copied into RNA.
Invest of oxygen during Pathway taking place
A i (2) In all eukaryotes single DNA polymerase is
aerobic respiration in cytoplasm
In matrix of capable of catalysing all the three steps of
B Consumption of ATP ii transcription, which are initiation, elongation
mitochondria
C α – Ketoglutaric acid iii F1 particle and termination.
D Oxidative phosphorylation iv ETS (3) In all prokaryotes transcription and
(1) translation take place in the different
A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv
(2) compartments.
A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(3) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii (4) In all eukaryotes primary transcript contain
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv exons only.
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( ZOOLOGY ) 59. Carbon monoxide (CO) is poisonous gas for

human beings due to ?
51. The members of which of the following phyla (1) It affects the lungs activity
are primitive multicellular animals? (2) It affects the diaphragm and intercostal muscles
(1) Ctenophora (2) Coelenterata (3) Its affinity to Hb is greater than oxygen
(3) Porifera (4) Platyhelminthes
(4) Haemoglobin combines with carbon monoxide
52. Pseudosegmentation is found in :
instead of oxygen and its product cannot be
(1) Ascaris (2) Snail (3) Taenia (4) Hydra dissociated.
53. Read the following (A-D) four statements :-
(A) Mouth is located ventrally 60. Malpighian tubules are the excretory structure of :-
(B) Notochord is absent throughout the life (1) Prawn (2) Cockroach
(C) Gill slits are separate and without operculum (3) Earthworm (4) Planaria
(D) Air bladder is absent 61. Which ion is responsible for depolarisation ?
How many of the above statements are correct
for Chondrichthyes ? (1) K+ (2) Na+ (3) Cl – (4) P O3−
4
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One 62. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
54. ___ nucleus found at ___ of columnar cells :- (1) The origin of the nervous system is the ectodermal
(1) Round, apical part (2) Elongated, middle part (2) The speed of impulse transmission is inversely
(3) Elongated, basal part (4) Nucleus absent proportional to the diameter of the axon
55. Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells (3) High speed transmission is facilitated by
together, is the function of : saltatory propagation of the impulse at the
nodes of Ranvier
(1) Adhering junction (2) Tight junction
(3) Gap junction (4) All of these (4) Neurons have a resting potential across the
cell membrane
56. Function of epithelial tissue is :
(1) Diffusion (2) Secretion 63. Which is true for Invertebrates ?
(3) Supporting (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Complex neural system
(2) Complex endocrine system with few hormone
57. Oxygenated blood returns from lungs to the heart
(3) Simple endocrine system with few hormones
through :-
(4) No hormone is secreted
(1) Coronary vein (2) Pulmonary vein
64. Match column-I with Column-II :-
(3) Coronary artery (4) Pulmonary artery
Column-I Column-II
58. Which of the following is mismatched ?
(a) ADH (i) Glucocorticoids
(1) Lub = First heart sound associated with (b) ACTH (ii) Mineralocorticoids
closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves.
(c) Aldosterone (iii) Diabetes mellitus
(2) Cardiac output = Stroke volume multiplied
(d) Insulin (iv) Diabetes insipidus
by heart rate.
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) Dup = Second heart sound, due to opening (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
of semilunar valves. (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) Duration of cardiac cycle = 0.8 seconds (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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65. Which option best explains the location of the humerus ? 72. Assertion :- Interferons protect non-infected cells
from further viral infection.
(1) Knee to Ankle
Reason :- Fungus infected cells secrete glycoproteins
(2) Elbow to wrist (medial side) called interferons.
(3) Elbow to wrist (Lateral side) (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Shoulder to elbow
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
66. HCG is secreted during :- is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) Pregnancy (2) Menstrual cycle (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) Ovulation (4) Lactation
73. Identify the incorrect option :-
67. Antrum is characteristic of :- (1) Prokaryotes-2 bya
(1) Primary follicle (2) Tertiary follicle (2) Invertebrates - 500 bya
(3) Secondary follicle (4) Primordial follicle (3) Jawless fishes - 350 mya
(4) Sea weeds - 320 mya
68. Column-A Column-B
74. Cytoskeleton is made up of :-
(a) Mons pubis Cushion of fatty tissue
(1) Proteinaceous filaments
(b) Labia majora Fleshy folds of tissue (2) Calcium carbonate granules
(c) Labia minora Paired folds of tissue (3) Callose deposits
(d) Clitoris Tiny finger-like (4) Cellulosic microfibrils
In the above matching-pair table how many pairs 75. Which pair is true ?
are correct ? Structure Presence
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) Cristae Chloroplast
69. Which method of contraception has high failure rate ? (2) Cisternae Golgi body
(1) Natural method (2) Sterilization (3) Grana Mitochondria
(3) I.U.D. (4) Barrier method (4) Tubule Lysosome
70. Identify the figure shown below :- 76. Which of the following is called as semi-
autonomous cell organelle ?
(1) Ribosome (2) Chloroplast
(3) Golgi body (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
77. In the given structure R1, R2 and R3 are represented by :-
(1) Cannabis sativa (2) Datura
(3) Opium poppy (4) Coca plant
71. Which of the following cannot be detected in a
developing foetus by amniocentesis?
(1) Sex of the foetus (2) Down syndrome (1) Nitrogen bases (2) Fatty acids
(3) Jaundice (4) Klinefelter syndrome (3) Nucleosides (4) Lecithin
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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78. Which of the following sets contains polysaccharides? 84. What is the correct order of 3 steps of PCR ?
(1) Glucose, fructose, lactose (1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(2) Starch, glycogen, cellulose (2) Extension, denaturation, Annealing
(3) Sucrose, maltose, cellulose (3) Annealing, Extension, denaturation
(4) Galactose, starch, sucrose (4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
79. Which of the following is not a technique of 85. Which of the following is not a cloning vector ?
molecular diagnosis :- (1) YAC (2) pBR322 (3) Probe (4) BAC
(a) Serum analysis
(b) PCR SECTION - B ( ZOOLOGY )
(c) ELISA
86. Which of the following statement is/are correct
(d) Urine analysis
regarding phylum coelenterata ?
(e) Recombinant DNA Technology
(A) They are aquatic mostly marine, sessile or free
(1) a, b, c, e (2) b, c, e swimming, radially symmetrical animals.
(B) They have a central gastro-vascular cavity with
(3) a, d (4) a, b, c, d, e
a single opening on hypostome.
80. Now a days which of the following technique is (C) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
used routinely to detect HIV infection? (D) Examples are Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia
(1) Southern blotting (2) ELISA (1) A and B (2) A and D
(3) A, B and C (4) All of these
(3) MMR (4) SCID
87. Find the mismatch :-
81. The term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by
(1) Coronary artery disease - Affects the vessels
multinational companies and other organisations that supply blood to brain
without proper authorisation from the countries and
people concerned without compensatory payment is (2) Heart failure - Heart is not pumping blood
effectively enough to meet the needs of the body
(1) Bioprospecting (2) Biopiracy
(3) Angina pectoris - Hypoxia in cardiac muscles
(3) Biofortification (4) Bioinformatics
(4) Hypertension - Persistent increased systolic
82. Statement-I : Toxicity testing in GM animals and diastolic pressure of blood
will allow us to obtain results in more time.
Statement-II : Transgenic mice can not be used 88. Sound box in human is called as ?
to test the safety of the polio vaccine. (1) Larynx (2) Syrinx
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct. (3) Epiglottis (4) Uvula
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect. 89. The chemical causing the transmission of nerve
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct. impulse across synapses is ?
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect. (1) Acetylcholine (2) Cholinesterase
83. 'Transgenic' plants are produced by :- (3) Choline (4) Acetic acid
(1) Inducing gene mutation 90. Somatostatin is secreted from ?
(2) Arresting spindle fibre formation (1) Liver and adrenal gland
(2) Hypothalamus and liver
(3) Deleting sex chromosomes (3) Hypothalamus and cells of islets of Langerhans
(4) Introducing foreign genes (4) Cells of islets of Langerhans and Pineal gland
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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91. Assertion : The male sex accessory ducts include rete
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.
Reason : The epididymis leads to vas-deferens that
ascends to the abdomen and loops over the urinary
bladder.
(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason
is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.
92. Assertion : Immune response, provided by antibodies
is called as humoral immune response.
Reason : Antibodies are found in blood.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
93. Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first form
of life could have come from
(1) Pre-existing living organisms
(2) Pre-existing non-living matter
(3) Pre-existing nonliving organic molecules
(4) Panspermia
94. The rough endoplasmic reticulum bears
(1) Lysosome (2) Centriole
(3) Ribosome (4) Peroxisome
95. Choose the incorrect statement ?
(1) Phospholipid molecule is amphipathic in nature
(2) Head of Phospholipid is Hydrophobic
(3) Tail of Phospholipid is Hydrophobic
(4) According to sandwich model Lipid bilayer
is 35Å thick
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96.
Phospholipid bilayer, Glycoprotein, Glycolipid,
integral protein cholesterol molecule.
Choose the correct regarding to A, B, C, D, E
(1) A-Phospholipid bilayer, B-Glycoprotein,
E-Glycolipid
(2) A-Glycoprotein, E-Cholesterol molecule,
D-Integral protein
(3) A-Phospholipid bilayer, D-Glycoprotein,
E-Cholesterol molecule
(4) A-Cholesterol molecule, C-integral protein,
E-Glycolipid
97. How many of the following statements [A-D] are
correct :-
(A) Tyrosine & Valine are neutral amino acids
(B) Lysine & Arginine are basic amino acids
(C) Alanine is basic amino acid
(D) Tryptophan is the simplest amino acid
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
98. Which of the following is not a genetically
modified plant ?
(1) Bt-Cotton (2) Flavr Savr tomato
(3) Pusa Swarnim (4) Golden Rice
99. In gel-electrophoresis, all the DNA fragment
move towards the base of the gel with variable
velocities because :-
(1) DNA is positively charged
(2) DNA is negatively charged
(3) DNA fragments have different molecular weights
(4) Both 2 and 3
100. What is true for molecular diagnosis ?
(1) It is traditional process.
(2) It involves drawing of serum for the test
(3) It can be used in the initial stages of the of diseases.
(4) All of the above
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 109. Which of the following oxidation process is incorrect :

(1) I – −K−2−
Cr2 O7
−−→ I2
101. Give IUPAC name of the newly discovered
element present in 7th period & 16th group : (2) CH3CH2OH −K−2−
Cr2 O7
−−→ CH3COOH
(1) Unnilpentium (2) Unnilhexium K Cr O
(3) Cl – −−2−−2 −→
7
Cl2
(3) Ununhexium (4) Unniloctium
(4) S – 2 −K−2−
Cr2 O7
−−→ S
102. Which of the following ion will be of smallest
size while achieving noble gas configuration : 110. Which of the following ion will not exhibit
(1) Al+3 (2) Na+ (3) Mg+2 (4) N – 3 colour in aqueous solution ?
(1) Ti+3 (2) Mn+2 (3) La+3 (4) Cr+3
103. Which following order is correct for acidic nature ?
(1) HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 111. Which ion can act as reducing agent ?

(2) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (1) Ga+ (2) Pb+4 (3) Sn+4 (4) All

(3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 112. An aqueous solution of given salt, when treated
with dil. HCl, gives colourless gas with smell
(4) H2S > H2Se > H2Te like rotten eggs, is indicator of presence of :
104. Which one contain maximum number of (1) CO3 – 2 (2) S – 2 (3) NO2 – (4) All
unpaired electrons in its ABMO (Antibonding
molecular orbital) 113. Which of the following reagents is used for the
following conversion?
(1) N2 (2) N2 – 2 (3) O2 – (4) O2 – 2
CH3 − CH = CH − CHO →
105. In which of the given compounds excitation CH3 − CH = CH − CH2 OH
energy is required for the bond formation ?
(1) Red P + HI
(1) BeCl2 (2) PH3 (3) NH3 (4) H2O
(2) Zn − Hg/HCl
106. Select the compounds/species those can exist :
PI6 – , BI4 – , OF2, PF3Cl2, SOF2, CCl6 – 2 (3)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (4) LiAlH4

107. Which pair of complexes are inner orbital complexes ? 114. Correct order of boiling point
(1) [Zn(NH3)6]+2 & [Zn(H2O)6]+2 (1) CH3–Cl > CH3–CH2–Cl > CH3–CH2–CH2–Cl
(2) [Fe(CN)6] – 3 & [IrF6] – 3
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Br <
(3) [CoF6] – 3 & [CoCl6] – 3
(4) [Sc(H2O)6]+3 & [FeF6] – 3
108. Which element do not show more than one
oxidation state ? (3)

(1) Sc (2) Zn
(4) None of the above
(3) Mn (4) 1 and 2
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115. 119. Which of the following is an example of

nucleophilic addition reaction ?
(1) Reaction of benzene with Cl2/FeCl3
Product (A) is:
(2) Reaction of acetylene with Cl2/H2O
(3) Reaction of propane with conc. HNO3
(1) (2)
(4) Reaction of acetone with ethanol in
presence of dry HCl
120.
(3) (4)

116. In Lassaigne's extract of an organic compound,

A & B are respectively :
both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives
blood red colour with Fe3+ due to the formation of-
(1) NaSCN
(1)
4−
(2) [ F e(CN)5 NOS ]

(3) [F e (SCN)]2+

(4) F e4 [F e (CN6 )]3 . xH2 O

(2)
117. Which of the following compound does not give
Isocyanide test.
(1) CH3 – CH2 – NH2
(2) C6H5 – NH2 (3)
(3) CH3 – NH2
(4) (CH3)2NH
118.
, (4)

B compound is - 121. Which of the following will not give benzoic

acid on reaction with KMnO4/H+ ?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

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122. In the qualitative analysis of organic compound 127. How many among the following are correctly
Lassaigne's test is used for detection of ? matched :
(1) Nitrogen, Sulphur, Oxygen Aqueous solution
pH
(2) Nitrogen, Sulphur, Hydrogen at 25°C
(3) Nitrogen, Sulphur, Halogen (i) 10 – 8 M HCl 8
(4) Halogen, Oxygen, phosphorous
(ii) 10 – 2 M NaOH 12
123. Which of the following reagent may be used to
(iii) 10 – 2 M CH3COOH 2
distinguish between phenol & benzoic acid ?
(iv) Pure water 7
(1) Victor Meyer test (2) Neutral FeCl3
(1) Only i
(3) Aqueous NaOH (4) Tollen's reagent
(2) ii and iv
124.
(3) i and iii
(4) All are correctly matched
128. 50 mL, 0.10 M ammonia solution is treated with
25 mL, 0.10 M HCl solution. pH of resultant
(1) (2) solution will be :
(Kb of ammonia = 1.77 × 10 – 5)
(1) 9.24 (2) 10.36 (3) 4.76 (4) 3.64
(3) (4)
129. Assertion : For the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g);
if volume of system is changed at equilibrium the
125. Which of the following statement is incorrect for reaction is neither shifted to forward nor backward
ground state of Zn ? and reaction remains in equilibrium.
(1) Number of electrons having ℓ = 2 are 10 Reason : For the reaction having Δng = 0, change in
(2) Number of electrons having m ℓ = 0 are 8 volume of system at equilibrium does not alter
(3) Number of electrons having n + ℓ = 4 are 8 concentrations of reactants and products.
1 (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(4) Number of electrons having ℓ = 1 and ms = +
2
are 6 is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
126. Which of the following statement is correct : (2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(1) Enthalpy change for dissolution of same (3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
amount of anhydrous copper sulphate and (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
hydrated copper sulphate is same Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Solubility of all compounds in water
130. For the process
always increases on increasing temperature
H2O [ℓ, 1atm, 373.15 K] → H2O [g, 1atm, 373.15 K]
(3) Litmus can be used as indicator in the which of the following is incorrect :
permanganate titration
(1) Δ Ssystem is positive (2) Δ H is positive
(4) KMnO4 solution is not regarded as primary
standard (3) Δ G is negative (4) Δ Suniverse is zero
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131. Bond enthalpies of H – H, Br – Br and H – Br are 137. Which compound having maximum conductance ?
430, 200 and 350 kJ/mol respectively. Δ H for (1) PtCl2.2NH3 (2) PtCl4.2HCl
the reaction H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g) is :
(3) CoCl3.4NH3 (4) CoCl3.3NH3
(1) – 280 kJ (2) – 130 kJ
138. What will be the correct order for the wavelength
(3) – 70 kJ (4) 30 kJ
of absorption in the visible region ?
132. Ionisation constant of a weak acid (like CH3COOH) (1) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ > [Ni(NO2)6] – 4 > [Ni(NH3)6]+2
in terms of Λ M and Λ oM is : (2) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ > [Ni(H2O)6]+2 > [Ni(NO2)6] – 4
C Λ oM (3) [Ni(H2O)6]+2 > [Ni(NH3)6]+2 > [Ni(NO2)6] – 4
(1) Ka =
Λ M − Λ oM (4) None of these
C Λ 2M 139. Select the incorrect statement on the basis of
(2) Ka =
Λ oM ( Λ oM − Λ M ) following conversion :
Na2 CO3 H +

C ( Λ oM )
2
X −−−−−→ Y −−
→ Z +X
oxidi sin g
air
(3) Ka = agent
Λ oM (Λ
o
− ΛM )
M (1) X is an ore of Fe
C( Λ M )2 (2) Y is an yellow coloured solution
(4) Ka =
Λ M ( Λ oM − Λ M ) (3) Y is K2CrO7
133. How much charge is required to oxidise 0.2 moles (4) Y is stable in basic medium
of Mn3O4 into MnO2− in alkaline medium ? 140. Salt + MnO −Conc H2 SO4
.
4
2 −−−−−−−→ X (greenish yellow
(1) 0.5 F (2) 1 F (3) 2 F (4) 4 F colour gas)
134. If 'a' is the initial concentration of a substance which Incorrect statement :
reacts according to zero order kineties and k is rate (1) Released gas is Cl2
constant, the time for the reaction to go to completion is : (2) X has pungent smell
a a k (3) X does not show bleaching property
(1) Inifinite (2) (3) (4)
k 2k a (4) X has oxidising property
135. Assertion : When NaCl is added to pure water
depression in freezing point is observed. 141. Given below are two statements :
Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of Statement - I : The product of reaction of phenol
solvent causes depression in the freezing point. with bromine depends on the nature of solvent.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason Statement - II : Reaction of phenol with bromine in
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. CHCl 3 gives monosubstituted bromo derivative
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false. whereas reaction of phenol with bromine water
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true. yields trisubstituted bromo derivative of phenol.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
appropriate answer from the options given below:
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY )
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement – II are correct
136. Which one contain maximum number of 90° angle
among the following ? (3) Both Statement-I and Statement–II are incorrect
(1) PCl5 (2) SF6 (3) IF7 (4) XeF6 (4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
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142. The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence :- 146. The volume of 0.1 M H2C2O4 • 2H2O that can
are :- be completely oxidised by 20 mL of
0.025 M KMnO4 solution in acidic medium is :
(1) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2 (1) 12.5 mL (2) 25 mL
(2) C2H5Br, CH ≡ CH, CH2=CHBr (3) 37.5 mL (4) 125 mL
147. Following reaction is found at equilibrium at 500 K.
(3) C2H5Br, CH2=CH2, PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
At equilibrium 1 mole of PCl5, 2 moles of PCl3 and
(4) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, Br – CH2 – CH2 – Br
2 moles of Cl2 are found at total pressure 8.21 atm.
143. Find Kc.
(1) 6.57 (2) 0.16 (3) 26.9 (4) 2.69
148. For a first order reaction : A → P, the temperature
(T) dependent rate constant (k) was found to
Relation between M & N is :-
follow the equation log k = – (2000) 1 + 6.0.
(1) Functional group isomer T
The preexponential factor (A) and the activation
(2) Identical
energy (Ea), respectively are :
(3) Chain isomer
(4) Position isomer (1) 1.0 × 106s – 1 and 9.2 kJ mol – 1
144. (2) 6.0 s – 1 and 16.6 kJ mol – 1
(3) 1.0 × 106s – 1 and 16.6 kJ mol – 1
Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(4) 1.0 × 106s – 1 and 38.3 kJ mol – 1
(1) A is Toluene
149. x % w
(2) Formation of A is Decarboxylation H2NCONH2(aq) solution is isotonic with
V
(3) B is benzoic acid. 0.585% w NaCl(aq) solution at 27°C. If NaCl is
V
100% ionised, find x :-
(4) Formation of A is Friedel Craft reaction
w w
(1) 4.2% (2) 2.4%
145. V V
w w
(3) 1.2% (4) 0.6%
Product D is : V V
150. How many of the following statements are correct :
(i) Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets
converted into colloidal solution is called peptization.
(1) (2) (ii) Both As2S3 sol and Fe(OH)3 sol are negatively
charged.
(iii) Lyophilic sol are highly solvated as particles
have great affinity for solvent.
(iv) Lyophobic sols are reversible sols so special
(3) (4) methods are required to prepare them.
(1) Only i (2) i and iii
(3) ii and iv (4) All of these
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( PHYSICS ) 155. An ammeter is connected in _____ with the circuit.

151. In a region of uniform electric field E→ , a hemispherical
body is placed in such a way that the field is parallel to
its base as shown in the figure. The flux linked with
the curved surface of the hemisphere is-
(1) π R2E (2) 2 π R2E (3) π R2 E (4) Zero
2 (4) both energy and momentum do not change
152. The equivalent capacitance across AB in the
adjoining circuit is-
(1) parallel
(2) series
(3) both parallel and series
(4) None of the above
156. When a charged particle enters perpendicular to
direction of a magnetic field B→ and moves with
uniform speed v inside the magnetic field, then-
(1) the energy and momentum both change
(2) only energy changes, momentum does not change
(3) only momentum changes, energy does not change
157. The variation of magnetic susceptibility ( 𝛘 ) with
absolute temperature (T) for a ferromagnetic
substance is represented by the graph:

(1) C (2) 5C (3) 3C (4) C

2 6 2
153. Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2 are
connected in parallel. If a charge Q is given to
the combination, the charge gets shared. The
ratio of the charge on the capacitor C1 to the
charge on the capacitor C2 is :
(1) C1C2 (2) C2/C1 (1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)
(3) C1 + C2 (4) C1/C2 158. Assertion : Gauss law in magnetism reads
154. In the circuit shown in the adjoining figure, the ∮B→ . d →S = 0.
reading of ammeter A is : Reason : A single isolated magnetic pole does
not exist.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(1) 1A (2) 2A (3) 3A (4) 4A (4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
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159. The figure shown has two coils of wires placed in 161. In the electrical circuit shown in the adjoining
close proximity. The current in primary coil P is figure, the voltmeter reading across resistance are :
made to vary with time as shown in the graph.
Which of the following graph best represents the
variation of the emf induced in the secondary coil S?

(1) 100 V (2) 200 V

(3) 150 V (4) 173 V
162. When a plane e.m. wave travels in vacuum,
(1)
the average electric energy density is given by :
1 1
(1) ε 0 E02 (2) ε 0 E02
4 2

(2) (3) 2 ε 0 E02 (4) 4 ε 0 E02

163. A ray of light passes through four transparent
media with refractive indices μ 1, μ 2, μ 3 and μ 4
as shown in the figure. The surfaces of all media
(3) are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to
the incident ray AB, we must have :

(4)

160. Two coils are placed close to each other as shown

in the figure. When the key is pressed so that (1) μ 1 = μ 2 (2) μ 2 = μ 3
current builds up in one coil along ABC, then :
(3) μ 3 = μ 4 (4) μ 4 = μ 1
164. nth bright fringe of red light ( λ 1 = 7500 Å)
coincides with (n + 1)th bright fringe of green
light ( λ 2 = 6000 Å). The value of n = ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
165. A metal emits electrons when green light is
(1) a current flows along A' B' C' in the another coil
incident on it but not with yellow light. Emission
(2) a current flows along C' B' A' in the another coil is possible with :
(3) no current flows in the another coil (1) Orange light (2) Red light
(4) an alternating current flows in the another coil (3) Blue light (4) None of these
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166. What is the number of α and β -particles emitted 171. Assertion : For an isolated system, mechanical
in the following radioactive decay? energy is not conserved.
200 168
90X → 80Y Reason : For an isolated system internal energy
(1) 6 and 6 (2) 8 and 8 is constant.

(3) 8 and 6 (4) 6 and 8 (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
167. The I-V characteristics of a semiconductor diode
is shown in the figure. The resistance of diode at (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
V = – 8 V and Id = 10 mA are respectively is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
172. The potential energy of a body of mass 2.5 kg is given
by U = 3x – 4y, where x , y are the co-ordinates of the
body. The acceleration of the body is:
(1) 3 units (2) 4 units
(1) 8M Ω , 20 Ω (2) 8M Ω , 0 Ω (3) 5 units (4) 2 units
(3) 8K Ω , 20 Ω (4) 20K Ω , 8 Ω 173. A particle crosses the topmost point C of a
168. A zener diode when used as a voltage regulator vertical circle with critical speed; then the ratio
is connected : of velocities at points A, B and C is :-
(i) in forward bias
(ii) in reverse bias
(iii) in parallel with load
(iv) in series with load
(1) (i) and (ii) are correct
(2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(3) only (i) is correct (1) 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 5 : 3 : 1
(4) only (iv) is correct (3) 52 : 32 : 12 (4) √ 5 : √3 : √1
169. A particle is moving along x-axis whose
174. Assertion : Work done by the centripetal force in
position is given by x = – 3t + t3 where x in
moving a body along a circle is always zero.
metre and t is in second. The displacement of
the particle for t = 1sec to t = 3sec is Reason : In circular motion the displacement of
the body is along the force.
(1) + 16 m (2) – 16 m
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(3) +20 m (4) – 20m Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
170. A projectile is given an initial velocity of ^i + 2j^. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
The cartesian equation of its path is: (g = 10 m/s2) is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) y = 2x – 5x2 (2) y = x – 5x2 (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) 4y = 2x – 5x2 (4) y = 2x – 25x2 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
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175. Gas escapes from the surface of a planet because 178. An object of mass m is performing simple
it acquires an escape velocity. The escape harmonic motion on a smooth horizontal surface
velocity will depend on which of the following as shown in figure. Just as the oscillating object
factor reaches its extreme position another object of
(I) Mass of the planet mass 2 m is placed gently on the oscillating
(II) Mass of the particle escaping object, which sticks to it.
(III) Temperature of the planet
(IV) Radius of the planet
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below :
Consider the following statements :
(1) I and II (a) Amplitude of oscillation remain unchanged
(2) II and IV (b) Time period of oscillation remain unchanged
(c) Total mechanical energy of the system does
(3) I and IV not change
(4) I, III and IV (d) The maximum speed of oscillating object
176. The liquids shown in the U-tube of uniform changes
cross-section are water and mercury. If the Which of the above statements are correct ?
difference of the heights of the mercury (1) Only a, b
column is 2 cm, then the height h of the water (2) Only a, c, d
column is :-
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) Only a, d
179. 2A2 B1/2
In mathematical expression X = ,
C 5/2
percentage error in measurement of A, B and C
are 0.5%, 0.3% and 0.2% respectively, then find
out percentage error in measurement of X :-
(1) 6.8 cm (1) 1.55% (2) 1.60%
(2) 13.6 cm (3) 1.65% (4) 3.30%
(3) 27.2 cm 180. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
(4) 5.4 cm symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
177. The thermodynamic variables for a gas filled in jar sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which
of the following physical quantities would remain
A are P, V and T and another jar B filled with
constant for the sphere ?
another gas are 2P, V/4 and 2T, where the symbols
have their usual meaning. The ratio of the number (1) Angular velocity
of molecules of jar A to those of jar B is : (2) Moment of inertia
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) Rotational kinetic energy
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 (4) Angular momentum
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181. The dimensions of two wires A and B are the SECTION - B ( PHYSICS )
same. But their materials are different. Their
load-extension graphs are shown. If YA and YB 186. Eight equal charges 'q' are placed at each corner
are the values of Young's modulus of elasticity of a cube of side 'a' each. Work done in carrying
of A and B respectively then
a charge – 'q' from its centre to infinity is-
(1) zero
3√2q 2
(2)
π ε 0A
(1) YA > YB (2) YA < YB √ 2q 2
(3)
π ε 0a
(3) YA = YB (4) YB = 2YA
4q 2
182. Water rises to height of 2 cm in a capillary tube. (4)
√ 3 π ε 0a
If the tube is tilted 30º from vertical then water
187. Case-1 : Five identical point charges of
will rise in the tube to a length :-
magnitude Q are kept at the corners of a regular
(1) 4 cm (2) 2 cm pentagon of centre to corner distance a.
4 Case-2 : One charge is now removed. Match the
(3) cm (4) 1 cm
√ 3 following for above two cases :
183. One centimetre on the main scale of Verneir Callipers Column-I Column-II
is divided into ten equal parts, if 20 divisions of
Verneir scale coincide with 18 small divisions of the Electric field at the
main scale then what will be the least count of the 1 Q×5
(A) centre of pentagon in (P)
callipers. 4π ε0 a
case-1
(1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.2 mm
Electric potential at
(3) 0.01 mm (4) 0.02 mm (B) the centre of (Q) Zero
184. A meter scale is placed on a sharp wedge pentagon in case-1
centrally. A 100 g mass is suspended at one end
Electric field at the
and unknown mass at 30 cm from another end in 1 Q
balanced condition of scale. Unknown mass is (C) centre of pentagon in (R)
4 π ε 0 a2
case-2
(1) 100 g (2) 250 g
Electric potential at
(3) 120 g (4) 80 g 1 Q
(D) the centre of (S) ×4
185. The equation of transverse wave in stretched string is 4π ε0 a
pentagon in case-2
t x
y = 5 sin 2 π [ − ]
0.04 50 (1) (A → Q); (B → P); (C → R); (D → S)
Where distances are in cm and time in second. The
wavelength of wave is : (2) (A → P); (B → Q); (C → S); (D → R)
(1) 15 cm (2) 10 cm (3) (A → S); (B → Q); (C → P); (D → R)
(3) 25 cm (4) 50 cm (4) (A → R); (B → Q); (C → P); (D → S)
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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188. In the adjoining circuit, when key is switched on, 193. In Young's experiment, the intensity of maxima
the value of V0 is- is I. If the width of each slit is doubled, the
intensity of maxima will be :
(1) I
(2) 4I
(3) 2I
(4) I
2
194. A string of neglible mass going over a clamped
(1) 15V (2) 12V (3) 9V (4) 7V pulley of mass m supports a block of mass M as
189. What is the relation between figure of merit (k) shown in the figure. The force on the pulley by
and current sensitivity (Si) ? the clamp is given by :-
–1 k
(1) Si = k (2) Si =
2
(3) Si = kV (4) Si = (k)I
190. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the
form of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and b
respectively. When a current i passes through the
(1) √ 2Mg
coil, the magnetic field at the centre is-
(2) √ 2mg
μ 0 Ni 2 μ 0 Ni
(1) (2)
b a (3) (√
2
(M + m) + m2 ) g
μ 0 Ni b 2 μ 0 Ni b
(3) ln( ) (4) ln( )
2(b − a) a (b − a) a 2
(4) (
√
(M + m) + M 2 ) g
191. An ideal coil of 10 H is joined in series with
a resistance of 5 Ω and a battery of 5 V. Two 195. Match the column
seconds after joining, the current flowing in Column I Column II
ampere in the circuit will be : Body lying on a is a self adjusting
A. P.
1 horizontal surface force
(1) (2) e
e is maximum value
1 B. Static friction Q.
(3) 1 – e (4) ( 1− )
of static friction
e
is less than limiting
192. A thin biconvex lens has focal length 30 cm. The C. Limiting friction R.
friction
lens is immersed in water of refractive index 4 . D. Dynamic friction S. force of friction = 0
3
The refractive index for the material of lens is
(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
1.5. The focal length of the lens in water is :
(2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(1) 30 cm (2) 7.5 cm
(3) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(3) 15 cm (4) 120 cm
(4) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
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196. Find moment of inertia of a rod of mass M & 199. In a cyclic process shown on the P-V diagram,
length L about axis AA'. the magnitude of the work done is :-

7ML2 ML2 ML2 9ML2

(1) (2) (3) (4)
36 12 3 36 2
197. In the given figure, the collision is head-on: P2 − P 1
(1) π ( )
2
2
V2 − V 1
(2) π ( )
2
π
The maximum impulse of deformation (impulse till (3) (P2 – P1) (V2 – V1)
4
maximum deformation) for the collision will be :
(4) π (P2V2 – P1V1)
(1) 4 N-s (2) 8 N-s (3) 12 N-s (4) zero
200. A tuning fork and a sonometer give 5 beats/s
198. The root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules when the length of the wire is 1 m and 1.05 m,
at 300 K is 1930 m/s. Then the r.m.s. velocity of
the frequency of the fork is :-
oxygen molecules at 1200 K will be :
(1) 420 Hz (2) 410 Hz
(1) 482.5 m/s (2) 965.0 m/s
(3) 210 Hz (4) 205 Hz
(3) 1930 m/s (4) 3860 m/s

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 English 23
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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