GT-03

@RAJHARSH77

NEET GRAND TEST - 03 (12-02-2024)

SR ELITE (SET – 1)
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on side-1 and side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min duration and Text Booklet contains 200 questions. The test pattern comprises of two sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section-A will consist of 35 questions and Section-B will have 15 questions, out of
these 15 questions, candidate can chose to attempt any 10 questions.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4.
5.
SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & MPL
Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall.
The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
10. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
11. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
12. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over there Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
13. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
14. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination
Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination.
15. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

Learn more at https://infinitylearn.com

 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
BOTANY Pericycle &
SECTION - A conjunctive
1. Read the following statements C tissue iii Dicot stem
Statement – I : Consciousness is the most helpful is
obvious and technically complicated feature secondary
of living organisms. growth
Statement – II : In general,different Polyarch
organisms respond differently to the same D condition iv Monocot stem
stimulus. with medulia
(1) Both statements I and Statement II are A B C D
correct. (1) iv iii ii i
(2) iv iii i ii
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
(3) iii iv ii i
is correct.
(4) iv i iii ii
(3) Statement I is correct, statement II is
5. Match the following
incorrect.
Column - I Column - II
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
A Selaginella i Naked seeds
2. Read the following
& Equisetum
A) Aseptate and coenocytic mycelium
B Selaginella ii Strobilus
B) Asexual zoospores & sporangiospores
& Salvinia
C) Diploid sexual spores namely
zygospore and oospore. C Equisetum & iii Homospory
The above characters are related to which Dryopteris
genera ? D Cycas & iv Heterospory
(1) Ascomycetes Pinus
(2) Phycomycetes A B C D
(3) Basidiomycetes (1) ii iii iv i
(4) Deuteromycetes (2) ii iv iii i
3. Pick the wrong match from the following (3) iv ii iii i
(1) Medicinal : Muliathi, belladonna, Aloe (4) iv iii ii i
(2) Ornamental : Lupin, Petunia, Tulip 6. Which biosynthetic cycle occurs in all
(3) Fodder : Sesbania & Trifolium photosynthetic plants ?
(4) Dye yielding : Nicotiana (1) C 4 pathway
4. Match the following and select the correct (2) C 3 pathway
answer. (3) Cyclic electron transport
Column - I Column - II (4) Photo respiration
Water 7. Which is the densely stained reticular
storing structure present near the nucleus that is
A cavities in i Monocot root helpful in cell secretion?
vascular (1) RER
bundle (2) Ribosome
All three (3) Golgi complex
types of (4) Lysosome
B simple ii Dicot root
tissues
2
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
8. “A four carbon organic acid that accepts two (2) CO 2
carbon compound in the first step is (3) NAD
ultimately regenerated again in the last step “. (4) FADH 2
The above statement refers to a process
15. Read the following statements
occurring in
A) RNAi is a post transcriptional gene
(1) C 4 cycle
regulation observed in prokaryotes.
(2) C 3 cycle B) Downstream processing includes
(3) Kreb‟s cycle genetic engineering and bioprocess
(4) Photo respiration engineering.
9. In which of the following synthesis of C) Lac operator is present only in lac
ribosomes takes place? operon and it interacts specifically with lac
(1) ER repressor.
(2) Nucleolus D) Seed formation is more dependable
(3) Golgi complex since pollination and fertilization are
(4) Mitochondria independent of water in flowering plants.
10. Which among the following is NOT a surface The correct statement are
structure in bacteria ? (1) A and B
(1) Glycocalyx (2) B and C
(2) Flagella (3) C and D
(3) Pili (4) A and D
(4) Fimbrie 16. Read the following statements
11. Which part of insect gut is damaged or A) Taxonomic categories are distinct
punctured due to disruption of plasma biological entities and not merely
membrane by Bt toxin ? morphological aggregates.
(1) Respiratory track B) Cellular organisms like viruses &
(2) Mouth parts acellular organisms like lichens did not find
(3) Epithelial cells of mid gut place in Whittaker‟s classification
(4) Sense organs C) Fertilisation is oogamous in members of
12. What is the purpose of sampling ports in a brown alga occur in water (or) in female sex
bioreactor ? organ called oogonium.
(1) to provide aeration D) In coconut, the pericarp of drupe fruit is
(2) to ensure even mixing differentiated into outer thin epicarp, a
(3) to control temperature middle fleshy edible mesocarp and inner
(4) to check the growth status of bacteria stony hard endocarp
13. Which microbe produces a bioactive Pick the correct pair
molecule (immuno suppressor) and at the (1) A and D
same time act as bio control agent (2) B and C
eliminating root borne pathogens ? (3) B and D
(1) Monascus (4) A and C
(2) Saccharomyces 17. Cleistogamy is observed in all except
(3) Baculo viruses (1) Commelina
(4) Trichoderma (2) Oxalis
14. Kreb‟s cycle do not produce (3) Vallisnaria
(1) ATP (4) Viola
3
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
18. Blue white screening method of selection of Plant Pollination
transformed cells is based on inactivation of agent
a gene producing (1) Vallisnaria Water
(1) Ampicillin
(2) Sea grass Wind
(2) Tetracyclin
(3) Beta galactosidase (3) Rafflesia Flies
(4) Kanamycin
(4) Yucca Moth
19. Biosafety aspects of GMO in India are
regulated by 26. Which process represent the polymerasation
(1) USPTO of nucleotides ?
(2) KVIC (1) Capping
(3) GEAC (2) Transcription
(4) WHO (3) Splicing
20. Laminarin is a (4) Translation
(1) Brown alga 27. Read the following statements.
(2) Reserve food in alga A) Ground tissue of ground tissue system
(3) Cell wall material in alga consists of simple tissues such as
(4) Pigment in alga parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma
21. Which is commonly produced in glycolysis, B) The proton gradient is broken down due
link reaction & Krebs cycle ? to movement of protons across the membrane
(1) ATP from lumen to the stroma, whose moving
(2) CO 2 force is ultimately used to synthesize ATP.
(3) NADH+H  during chemiosmosis in chloroplast.
C) Respiratory organs namely stomata,
(4) FADH 2
lenticels help in aerobic respiration in plants
22. What is a genus on which Engelmann
D) In dicots and gymnosperms,apical
worked to explain action spectrum ?
meristems namely vascular cambium and
(1) Chlorella
cork cambium help in secondary growth
(2) Mint plant
The correct statements are
(3) Cladophora
(1) A and B
(4) Spirulina
(2) B and D
23. Which enzyme is DNA template dependent
(3) A and D
and primer independent ?
(4) B and C
(1) DNA polymerase
28. What is NOT true regarding RNA ?
(2) RNA polymerase
(1) Primitive genetic material
(3) DNase
(2) High mutation rate
(4) RNase
(3) Direct role in gene expression
24. Effluent from secondary setting tank in STP
(4) Genetic material in all organisms
is send into after disinfection
29. Viruses can act as
(1) Aeration tank
(1) Biofertilisers
(2) Anaerobic sludge digestors
(2) Biocontrol agents
(3) Large water bodies
(3) Synthesis of bioactive molecules
(4) Primary setting tank
(4) Biogas producers
25. Pick the wrong match

4
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
30. Fruits can be left on trees for long so as to B) During translation aminoacids are
increase market period as this hormone delay activated in the presence of ATP and later
senescence in them. Which PGR it is ? linked to their cognate t-RNAs
(1) Auxin C) Antibiotic resistant genes in pBR 322
(2) GA help in controlling copy number of plasmid
(3) ABA D) Secondary treatment in STP is
(4) Ethylene biological as microbes are involved unlike
31. GTP synthesis occur during the primary treatment.
(1) Glycolysis (1) A and C
(2) Kreb‟s cycle (2) B and C
(3) Calvin cycle (3) B and D
(4) Photorespiration (4) A and D
32. Match the following SECTION – B
Column - I Column - II 36. The quasi fluid nature of “A” enable lateral
Early seed movement of “B” with in the overall bilayer
A production in i Ethylene of plasma membrane. What is “A” & “B” ?
conifers (1) Cholesterol & lipids
(2) Lipids & Proteins
Xylem
(3) Proteins & lipids
B differentiation ii GA (4) Proteins & cholesterol
Tolerance to 37. Which cell undergoes meiosis in alga and at
C various iii Auxin the same time undergoes mitosis in higher
stresses plant ?
D Fruit ripening iv ABA (1) Spore
(2) Gamete
A B C D
(3) Zygote
(1) iii ii iv i
(4) Pollen
(2) ii iii iv i 38. Pick the wrong match
(3) ii iii i iv (1) Crick : Central dogma of molecular
(4) i i iii iv biology
33. Ovary is inferior in flowers of (2) Taylor : Semi conservative type of
(1) China rose chromosome replication
(3) Avery : DNase is transforming
(2) Peach
principle
(3) Sunflower (4) Jacob & Monod : Lac operon
(4) Datura 39. How many ATP are needed in regeneration
phase of calvin cycle to produce 12 RuBP ?
34. Nuclear membrane is absent in (1) 36
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) 18
(2) Nostoc (3) 12
(3) Agaricus (4) 24
(4) Aspergillus 40. Choose the incorrect match in relation to
35. Read the following statements disease and its causal organism
A) Pollination agents are needed for both self (1) Root knot in tobacco : Meloidogyne
pollination and cross pollination (2) Curly top – Virus
(3) White rust in mustard : Agaricus
(4) Cancer in citrus : Xanthomonas
5
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
41. Which character is NOT related to Pisum (2) Selectable marker helpful in selection
sativum ? of transformants
(1) Non endospermic seed (3) Many recognition sites for one type of
(2) Vexillary aestivation in petals restriction enzyme
(3) Stem tendrils (4) Easy to isolate and reintroduce
(4) Diadelphous stamens 47. Which one among the following is not a
42. Gymnosperms possess all characters except defining feature observed in living organisms
(1) Cones ?
(2) Triploid endosperm in seeds (1) Metabolism
(3) Archegonia inside ovule (2) Growth
(3) Consciousness
(4) Naked ovules
(4) Cellular nature
43. White phenotype of fruit fly in Morgan‟s 48. Which one doesn‟t accommodate any cell
cross represents organelles ?
(1) Cell sap of vacuole
(1) Wild eye colour
(2) Protoplasm in bacteria
(2) Dominant body colour (3) Protoplasm in cyanobacteria
(3) Recessive eye colour (4) Cytoplasm in a fungal cell
(4) Recessive body colour 49. What is the ground tissue in leaf ?
44. Which among the following possesses (1) Xylem
vascular tissue in its anatomy? (2) Phloem
(1) Moss capsule (3) Epidermis
(2) Fern prothallus
(4) Mesophyll
(3) Rhizome in horse tails
(4) Frond in brown alga 50. Separation and purification of foreign gene
45. Pick the correct statements product is called
A) Spores are the only walled structures in
(1) Southern blotting
slime moulds.
B) Leaves in gymnosperms are well (2) Downstream processing
adapted to withstand extreme temperatures (3) Spooling
C) In hypogynous flowers the margin of (4) Elution
thalamus grows upwards enclosing the ovary ZOOLOGY
completely and getting fused with it SECTION – A
D) During photosynthesis,in the
51. The hormones of ---------- gland promote
biosynthetic phase, the first stable product is
production of antibodies to provide humoral
a 3C compound in sugar cane and 4C
immunity
compound in tomato
(1) A and B (1) thyroid gland
(2) B and C (2) pineal gland
(3) B and C (3) pituitary gland
(4) C and D
46. Cloning vectors used in genetic engineering (4) thymus gland
need to possess all characters except
(1) Ori supporting high copy number
6
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
52. Which of the following statements are (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct? correct explanation of A.
(a) Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the
(2) A is true but R is false.
basis of genetic mapping of human genome
(b) Polymorphism is not the basis of DNA (3) A is false but R is true.
fingerprinting
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) Polymorphism (variation at genetic level)
explanation of A.
arises due to mutations
(d) Satellite DNA very high degree of 56. Match List I with List II.
polymorphism List I List II
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
A. Inspiratory II. Expiratory reserve
(1) (a) and (b) only capacity volume + Inspiratory
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only capacity
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only B. Expiratory capacity II. Expiratory reserve
(4) (c) and (d) only volume + Inspiratory
53. Stanford ecologist Paul Ehrlich was related capacity
to
C. Functional residual III. Tidal volume +
(1) rivet popper hypothesis
capacity Inspiratory
(2) outdoor plot experiments
reserve volume
(3) popularized the term „biodiversity‟
(4) observed species-area relationships
54. Metagenesis refers to D. Vital capacity IV. Tidal volume +
(1) sloughing of cancer cells Expiratory
reserve volume
(2) conversion of larva into adult
(3) alternation of generations
(4) cryptic colouration to protect from Choose the correct answer from the options
predator given below:
55. Given below are statements: one is labelled (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Reason R.
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Assertion (A): Transmission of an impulse
across electrical synapses is very similar to (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
impulse conduction along a single axon. 57. Which of the following is NOT a limitation
Reason (R): At electrical synapses, the of ecological pyramid?
membranes of pre- and post-synaptic neurons
are in very (1) Placing an omnivore
distantly placed. (2) Accommodation of food web
In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) Placing saprophytes
the correct answer from the options given
below: (4) Arrangement of a simple food chain
7
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
58. Match List I with List II. (3) A, C and D only (4) D only
List I List II 61. If the woman is with blood group „AB‟ and
A. Amensalism I. (+) and (0) her husband is with blood group „A‟, she
B. Commensalism II (–) and (0) cannot give birth to --------- child

C. Parasitism III. (–) and (–) (1) AB (2) O

D. Competition IV. (+) and (–) (3) A (4) B

Choose the correct answer from the options 62. Read the following three columns
given below: Column-A Column-B Column-C
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (a) XX-XY (i) Male (p) Poultry
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III method heterogamety fowl
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (b) ZW-ZZ (ii) Female (q)
method heterogamety Grasshopper
59. Given below are two statements
(c) XX-XO (r) Human
Statement I: Corticotrophin stimulates the
method
synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones
called glucocorticoids from the adrenal (1) (a)-(i)-(r); (b)-(ii)-(p); (c)-(i)-(q)
cortex. (2) (a)-(i)-(r); (b)-(ii)-(p); (c)-(ii)-(q)
Statement II: Corticotrophin is a steroid (3) (a)-(i)-(q); (b)-(ii)-(p); (c)-(i)-(r)
hormone and can stimulate the synthesis and (4) (a)-(ii)-(r); (b)-(i)-(p); (c)-(i)-(q)
secretion of glucocorticoids. 63. 10 percent law is related to
In the light of the above statements, choose (1) nutrient cycling
the correct answer from the options given
(2) synthesis of food by plants
below:
(3) transfer of energy in trophic levels
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are
false (4) availability of solar radiation to plants
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is 64. The types of epithelia that line bronchioles
false
and alveoli of respiratory system respectively
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true are
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are true (1) compound and squamous
60. Which of the following are NOT provided (2) squamous and cuboidal
with similar type of synovial joints? (3) columnar and cuboidal
A. Elbow joint and knee joint (4) ciliated and squamous
B. Between carpals and between tarsals 65. A triangular structure in the circulatory
C. Shoulder joint and hip joint system of frog that receives blood from
D. Between atlas and axis and between venacavae and pours in right ventricle is
carpal and metacarpal of thumb (1) sinu-atrial node
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (2) conus arteriosus
options given below: (3) sinus venosus
(1) A, B and C only (2) A and D only (4) ductus arteriosus
8
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
66. Match List I with List II with respect to 69. The substitution of amino acid in the globin
human brain. protein results due to the single base
List I List II substitution at the sixth codon of the beta
A. Hypothalamus I. Auditory system globin gene from GAG (I) to GUG (II)

B. Limbic system II. Pneumotaxic I and II code the amino acids respectively are

centre (1) valine and glutamic acid

C. Pons III. Olfaction (2) glutamic acid and valine

D. Cerebellum IV.Body (3) valine and glycine

temperature (4) glycine and valine

Choose the correct answer from the options 70. Given below are two statements:
given below: Statement-I: No energy that is trapped into an
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I organism remains in it forever.

(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
67. Match List I with List II.
List I
(A) Artificial insemination
(B) Nirodh
(C) Vasectomy
(D) Coitus interruptus
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
68. If a woman had given a male and a female
offspring as twins, such twins are to be called
(1) identical twins
(2) monozygotic twins
(3) Siamese twins
(4) fraternal twins
Statement-II: Death of the organism is the
beginning of detritus food chain.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
List II (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false
(I) Ligature
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
of genital duct false.
(II) Low sperm (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
count true
(III) withdrawal (4) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is
true
of penis
71. Match List I with List II
(IV) Barrier
List I List II
method
A. Flagellar movement I. Monocyte
B. Ciliary movement II. permatozoon
C. Amoeboid movement III. Uterine wall
D. Muscular movement IV. Bronchiolar
cell
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
72. The synaptic vesicles of synaptic knob are
filled with
(1) interleukins (2) neurotransmitters
(3) interferons (4) neurohormones
9
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
73. Match List I with List II. (2) The first sign of growing foetus may be
List I List II noticed by listening to the heart sound
A. Angitensinogen I. Kidney carefully

B. Renin II. Hypothalamus (3) The first movements of the foetus are
usually observed during the fifth month
C. Aldosterone III. Liver
(4) By the end of second trimester, the body
D. Vasopressin IV. Adrenal gland
is covered with fine hair
Choose the correct answer from the options
78. Match List - I with List – II
given below:
List - I List – II
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(a) Proboscis, collar (i) Locusta
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
and trunk
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(b) Head, thorax (ii) Balanoglossus
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
and abdomen
74. All have 14 bones except
(c) Head and trunk (iii) Macaca
(1) face (2) hand digits
(d) Head, neck, trunk (iv) Rana
(3) foot digits (4) cranium
and tail
75. Read the following with respect to the
country and the status of animal in Red Data Choose the correct answer from the options
Book given below:

Mauritius: Dodo :: Australia: …… (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Fill the blank with an appropriate animal (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(1) Giraffe (2) Kangaroo (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3) Quagga (4) Tasmanian wolf (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
76. Match List I with List II.
79. In cockroaches, the formed sperms in male
List I List II and received sperms by female are stored
A. Typhoid I. Lung infection respectively in
B. Pneumonia II. Fungal disease (1) seminal vesicles and spermathecae
C. Malaria III. Widal test (2) seminal vesicles and ovisacs
D. Ringworm IV. Mosquito bite
(3) spermathecae and seminal vesicles
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: (4) sperm sacs and ovisacs
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 80. Read the following equation

= rN 
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV dN K-N

(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III dt  K 
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II The above equation is applicable for
77. Which of the following is INCORRECT with (1) logistic growth curve
respect to the time table of the development
(2) exponential growth curve
of human?
(1) After a trimester of pregnancy, the (3) density independent curve
embryo‟s heart is formed (4) J-shaped curve
10
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
81. Match List I with List II. In the light of the above statements, choose
List I List II the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. Dryopithecus I. Brain size 900cc.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
B. Homo erectus II. 15 mya false
C. Australopithecus III. First human- (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is
like being false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is
D. Homo habilis IV. Lived in East
true
African grasslands (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Choose the correct answer from the options true.
give below: 84. Match List I with List II.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV List I List II
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A. ECG I. Purification of
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I Blood
B. Dialysis II. Electric activity
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
of heart
82. Given below are two statements:
C. Immunosuppressant III. Emphysema
Statement-I: Biological response modifiers D. α-1 antitrypsin IV. Autoimmune
such as α-interferon activate cancer patient‟s disorder
immune system and help in destroying the
Choose the correct answer from the options
tumor. give below:
Statement-II: Tumor cells have been shown (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
to avoid detection and destruction by (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
immune system. (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
In the light of the above statements, choose (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
the most appropriate answer from the options 85. Intercostal muscles are found between
given below: (1) lungs (2) vertebrae
In the light of the above statements, choose (3) ribs (4) sternebrae
the correct answer from the options given SECTION-B
below: 86. Which of the following statements are
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct regarding hormonal action to perform
false gluconeogenesis by the cells?
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is A. Action of cortisol requires intracellular
false receptors
(3) Statement I false but Statement II is true B. Action of glucagon requires a secondary
messenger
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
C. Action of epinephrine requires
true
intracellular receptors
83. Given below are two statements: D. Action of growth hormone doesn‟t require
Statement-I: The stroke volume multiplied by secondary messenger
the heart rate gives the cardiac output. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Statement-II: The cardiac output of an athlete options given below:
will be much higher than that of an ordinary (1) A and B only (2) A, B and C only
man. (3) A, C and D only (4) A and D only
11
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
87. Given below are statements: one is labelled
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion (A): To maintain a desired
osmolarity in the kidney matrix, the urea is
retained by humans.
Reason (R) : Urea is the chief nitrogenous
waste material in humans as like frogs and
sharks.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
88. Which of the following is NOT a uricotelic
animal?
(1) Land snail
(2) Tree lizard
(3) Aquatic insect
(4) Green parrot
89. Which of the following is an INCORRECT
combination?
(1) Liver fluke: An acoelomate helminth
parasite
(2) Sea hare: A segmented aquatic mammal
(3) Tree lizard: A vertebrate with epidermal
scales
(4) Ostrich: A flightless bird with reduced
feathers
90. Read the following statements with respect to
connective tissue
(a) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly
packed
(b) Orientation of fibres show a regular or
irregular pattern
(c) Most abundant fibres are collagen fibres
12
(d) This tissue is specially made for linking
and supporting other tissues
The above statements are most appropriately
suitable for
(1) elastic connective tissue
(2) dense connective tissue
(3) adipose tissue
(4) areolar tissue
91. Male germ cells complete their second
meiotic division in
(1) epididymis
(2) vasa efferentia
(3) testis
(4) vas deferens
92. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Evolution is not a directed
process in the sense of determinism.
Statement-II: Evolution is a stochastic
process based on chance events in nature and
chance mutation in the organisms.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true
(4) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is
true
93. Which of the following hormones are in their
high levels during ovulation?
(1) Estrogen, progesterone, LH
(2) FSH, LH only
(3) Estrogen and progesterone only
(4) FSH, LH and estrogen
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
94. Given below are statements: one is labelled (1) stabilizing selection
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (2) directional selection
Reason R. (3) disruptive selection
Assertion (A): GIFT is preferable to the
female who cannot produce ovum, but can (4) centrifugal selection
provide suitable environment for fertilisation
98. The four basic processes that involve to
and further development.
Reason (R) : In GIFT, in vitro fertilization increase in population density ----(1)---- and
is practiced. ----(2)---- and to decrease ----(3)---- and ----
In the light of the above statements, choose
(4)---- respectively are
the correct answer from the options given
below: (1) (1)-Natality; (2)-Mortality; (3)-
(1) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
Immigration; (4)-Emigration
correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false. (2) (1)-Natality; (2)-Immigration; (3)-
(3) A is false but R is true. Mortality; (4)-Emigration
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. (3) (1)-Natality; (2)-Emigration; (2)-
95. Which of the following are usually used by Mortality; (4)-Immigration
sportspersons?
(4) (3)-Mortality; (2)-Emigration; (3)-
(1) Cannabinoids (2) Coke alkaloids
Natality; (4)-Immigration
(3) Opioids (4) Barbiturates
99. The largest human gene is located on
96. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Innate immunity is a specific (1) X-chromosome
type of defence. (2) Y-chromosome
Statement-II: Innate immunity is enabled by (3) 1st chromosome
B-cells and T-cells.
(4) 21st chromosome
In the light of the above statements, choose 100. Which of the following statements are
the correct answer from the options given
correct?
below:
(a) Sacred groves are useful in conserving
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false rare and threatened species
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is (b) Shifting cultivation is the main protecting
false method of ex situ conservation
(3) Statement I false but Statement II is true (c) Maximum nutritional diversity is found in
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are Animalia rather than Plantae
true (d) In America, New York has maximum
97. There is a population of multicolored lemurs number species of birds than Colombia
on Crazy Island. This particular population of
lemurs has been observed by scientists, and Choose the correct answer from the options
they have noticed the following changes in given below:
the lemur‟s color. If the lemurs are darker (1) (a) and (c) only
and lighter, they were both easier to spot by
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only
predators. The light and dark lemurs have
almost disappeared, while the middle brown (3) (a), (b) and (c) only
lemurs have increased. This type of natural (4) (b) and (d) only
selection is considered as
13
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
PHYSICS 106. A tennis ball is thrown to a height h above
SECTION –A the ground. If the coefficient of restitution is
101. One centimetre on the main scale of vernier e, what height will the ball achieve after the
callipers is divided into ten equal parts. If 10 third collision?
divisions of vernier scale coincide with 8 (1) he6 (2) he2
small divisions of the main scale, the least (3) he3 (4) he9
count of the callipers is 107. If the system is released, then the
(1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.02 cm acceleration of the centre of mass of the
(3) 0.05 cm (4) 0.005 cm system is
102. A particle moves along a straight line. Its
position at any instant is given by
8t 3
x  32t  w
3
here x is in metres and t in seconds. Find the
instant when particle comes to rest and
reverses its direction
(1)1 s (2) 2 s
(3)3 s (4)4 s
g g
103. Two stones are projected with the same (1) (2)
4 2
speed but making different angles with the
(3) g (4) 2g
horizontal. Their horizontal ranges are equal.
108. A thin circular disc is in the xy plane as
 shown in the figure. The ratio of its moment
The angle of projection of one is and the
3 of inertia about z and z ' axes will be
maximum height reached by it is 102 m.
Then the maximum height reached by the
other in metres is
(1) 76 (2) 84
(3) 56 (4) 34
104. A particle at rest start moving along a circle
 20  (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
of radius   m with constant tangential (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 5
  109. A ballet dancer spins about a vertical axis at
acceleration. If the velocity of the particle is 60 rpm with his arms closed. Now he
80 m/s at the end of the second revolution stretches his arms such that M.I increases by
after motion has begun, the tangential 50%. The new speed of spin would be
acceleration is (1) 80 rpm (2) 40 rpm
(2) 640 m / s
2 2
(1) 40 m / s (3) 90 rpm (4) 30 rpm
(3) 160 m / s (4) 40 m / s
2 2 110. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the
105. Fuel is consumed at the rate of 50 kg/s in a earth. How much will it weigh half way
rocket. The velocity of exhaust gases is 2 down to the center of the earth
km/s. The thrust on rocket is
(1) 250 N (2) 100 N
(1) 2 104 kg  wt (2) 1104 kg  wt
(3) 150 N (4) 200 N
(3) 1105 kg  wt (4) 2 105 kg  wt
14
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
111. The bob of a simple pendulum of period T is
given a negative charge. If it is allowed to
oscillate with an identical charge at the point
of suspension. The new time period will be
(1) equal T
(2) more than T
(3) less than T
(4) infinite.
112. Elongation „e‟ of string varies with restoring
force „F‟ as shown in the figure, where e is
taken along the X-axis and F along the Y-
axis. The area of triangle OAB represents
(1) stress
(2) strain energy density
(3) Young‟s modulus
(4) energy stored in the string
113. Due to thermal expansion, with rise in
temperature
(a) Metallic scale reading becomes lesser
than true value
(b) Pendulum clock goes fast
(c) A floating body sinks a little more
(d) The weight of a body in a liquid increases
(1) only (a) is correct
(2) (a) & (b) are correct
(3) (a), (b) & (d) are correct
(4) (a), (c) & (d) are correct
114. An ideal gas has molecules with 5 degrees of
freedom. The ratio of specific heats at
constant pressure CP  and at constant
volume CV  is
7 of the fork will be :
(1) 6 (2)
2 (1) 195 Hz
5 7
(3) (4)
2 5
15
115. A glass full of hot milk is poured on the
table. It begins to cool gradually. Which of
the following is correct?
(a) The rate of cooling is constant till milk
attains the temperature of the
(b) The temperature of milk falls off
exponentially with time.
(c) While cooling, there is a flow of heat
from milk to the surrounding as well as from
surrounding to the milk but the net flow of
heat is from milk to the surrounding and that
is why it cools
(d) All three phenomenon, conduction,
convection and radiation are responsible for
the loss of heat from milk to the
surroundings.
(1) a and b only (2) b, c and d only
(3) b and c only (4) c and d only
116. Heat energy absorbed by a system in going
through a cyclic process shown in figure is
(1) 107 J (2) 104 J
(3) 102 J (4) 103 J
117. A tuning fork having frequency of 340 Hz is
vibrated just above a cylindrical tube. The
height of the tube is 150 cm. Water is slowly
poured in. What is the minimum height of
water required for resonance?[v=340m/s]
(1) 25 cm (2) 45 cm
(3) 75 cm (4) 125 cm
118. 5 beats/second are heard when a turning fork
is sounded with a sonometer wire under
tension, when the length of the sonometer
wire is either 0.95 m or 1 m. The frequency
(2) 251 Hz
(3) 150 Hz (4) 300 Hz
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
119. A beam of monochromatic light is incident at incident beam. For the first minimum of the
i = 50° on one face of an equilateral prism, diffraction pattern the phase difference
the angle of emergence is 40°, then the angle between the rays coming from the edges of
of minimum deviation is the slit is
(1) 30° (2) < 30° (1) 2 (2) 
(3)  30° (4)  30° 
(3) (4) 0
120. From the figure shown here, establish a 2
relation between 1 ,  2 and  3 124. The electric field due to a uniformly charged
non-conducting sphere of radius R as a
function of the distance from its centre is
represented graphically by

(1) 1   2  3
(1)
(2) 3  2 ; 3  1
(3) 3  2 ; 3  1
(4) 1   2  3
121. In an experiment a convex lens of focal (2)
length 15 cm is placed coaxially on an
optical bench in front of a convex mirror at a
distance of 5 cm from it. It is found that an
object and its image coincide, if the object is
placed at a distance of 20 cm from the lens.
The focal length of the convex mirror is (3)
(1) 27.5 cm (2) 20.0 cm
(3) 25.0 cm (4) 30.5 cm
122. Statement(A): Due to scattering of light, the
clouds having water droplets are generally
white, as size of droplets << wave length of (4)
light.
125. A parallel plate capacitor is charged from a
Statement(B): In young's pin hole cell then isolated from it. The separation
experiment, the fringes are nearly straight between it‟s plates is now increased then
lines, when distance of screen from plane of
(A) The force of attraction between the plates
slits very large compared to band width. will decrease
(1) Statement A is true, statement B is false (B) The field in the region between the plates
(2) Statement A is false, statement B is true will not change
(3) Both statements A and B are true (C) The energy stored in the capacitor will
(4) Both statement A and B are false increase
123. A parallel monochromatic beam of light is (1) Statements A, B are true
incident normally on a narrow slit. A (2) Statements B, C are true
diffraction pattern is formed on a screen (3) Statements C, D are true
placed perpendicular to the direction of
(4) Statements A,B,C,D are true
16
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
126. If E denotes electric field in a uniform 129. A current of 1A is flowing on the sides of an
conductor, I is corresponding current through equilateral triangle of side 4.5  102 m . The
it and v d is drift velocity of e  , then the magnetic field at the centre of the triangle
correct graph is will be:
(1) 4  105Wb / m2 (2) Zero
(3) 2  105Wb / m2 (4) 8  105Wb / m2
130. The potential differences across the
resistance, capacitance and inductance are
80V, 40V and 100V respectively in an L-C-R
(1) circuit. The power factor of this circuit is
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.8 (4) 1.0
131. In photo picture of light, the intensity of light
at a frequency is determined by
(1)square of amplitude
(2) (2) Number of photons crossing per unit area
per unit time
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Density of medium through which light
posses
132. If the Broglie wavelengths associated with a
(3) proton and an   particle are equal, then the
ratio of velocities of the proton and the  
particle will be:
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
12
133. The binding energy per nucleon for C is
13
(4) 7.68MeV and that for C is 7.47 MeV. The
127. A uniform wire of length l and radius r has a energy required to remove a neutron from
resistance of 100 . It is recast into a wire of 13
r C is
radius . The resistance of new wire will be
2 (1) 0.21 MeV (2) 2.52MeV
(1) 1600 (2) 400 (3) 4.95MeV (4) 2.75 MeV
(3) 200 (4) 100 134. The main cause of zener breakdown is
128. Two electric bulbs rated P1 watt-V volt and (1) high electric field due to heavy doping
P2 watt –V volt are connected in parallel and (2) collision ionisation by thermal
V volt are applied to it. Total power will be Excitation
PP (3) Low electric field due to heavy
(1) 1 2 watt (2) PP1 2 watt
P1  P2 doping
P1  P2 (4) collision ionisation due to heavy
(3)  P1  P2  watt (4)
P1 P2 Doping
17
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
135. The Boolean expression P + PQ , where P (3) equal to the work done by air friction in
and Q are the inputs of the logic circuit, the second 100 m
represents (4) we cannot say
(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate 141. Assertion-(A): When a bottle of cold
(3) NOT gate (4) OR gate carbonated drink is opened, a slight fog
forms around the opening.
SECTION - B
Reason-(R):Adiabatic expansion of the gas
136. A physicist performs an experiment and
causes lowering of temperature and
takes 200 readings. He repeats the same
condensation of water vapours.
experiment and now takes 800 readings. By
doing so the probable error (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) remains the same (2) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) is four times (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) is halved
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(4) is reduced by a factor of ¼
correct explanation of (A)
137. The shaft of a motor is making 1260 rpm.
142. While measuring the speed of sound by
The torque supplied by the motor is
performing a resonance column experiment,
100Nm. The power of motor is
a student gets the first resonance condition at
(1) 100km (2) 21kw
a column length of 18 cm during winter.
(3) 13.2 kw (4) 4.8 kw Repeating the same experiment during
138. A uniform metre scale balances at the 40-cm summer, the measures the column length to
mark when weights of 10 g and 20 g are be x cm for the second resonance, then
suspended from the 10-cm and 20-cm marks (1) 18 > x (2) x > 54
respectively. The weight of the metre scale is (3) 54 > x > 36 (4) 36 > x > 18
(1) 50 g (2) 60 g
143. In absence of dielectric medium, capacity of
(3) 70 g (4) 80 g
a parallel plate capacitor is C 0 . A sheet of
139. A satellite is revolving near the earth‟s
surface. Its orbital velocity depends on its dielectric constant K and thickness of one
mass „m‟ as third of the plate separation is inserted
0
(1) m (2) m between the plates. If new capacity is C,
2 3
(3) m (4) m then
140. A small sphere of mass m is dropped from a
C 3K
great height. After it has fallen 100 m, it has (1) 
attained its terminal velocity and continues to
C0 2K  1
fall at that speed. The work done by air C 2K
(2) 
friction against the sphere during the first 100 C0 3K  1
m of fall is
C 3K  1
(1) greater than the work done by air friction (3) 
in the second 100 m C0 2K
(2) less than the work done by air friction in C 2K  1
(4) 
the second 100 m C0 3K
18
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
144. Choose the correct alternative.
(I) Alloys of metals usually have greater
resistivity than that of their constituent
metals
(II) Alloys usually have much lower
temperature coefficients of resistance than
pure metals
(III) The resistivity of the alloy manganin is
nearly independent of temperature
(1) greater for 1
(IV) The resistivity of a typical insulator
(e.g., amber) is greater than that of a metal by (2) greater for 2
a factor of the order of 1022 (3) same for both
(1) I, II and III (4) data are insufficient to decide
(2) I, II and IV 148. Suppose you are given a chance to repeat the
 -particle scattering experiment using a thin
(3) II, III and IV
sheet of solid hydrogen in place of the gold
(4) I, II, III and IV
foil. (Hydrogen is a solid at temperatures
145. Two long conductors, separated by a distance below 14K) What results do you expect?
'd' carry current I1 and I2 in the same
(1) the  -particle bounce back
direction. They exert a force F on each other.
(2) the  -particle scatter through large angle
Now the current in one of them is increased
to two times and its direction is reversed. (3) the  -particle is absorbed in the sheet
The distance is also increased to 3d. The (4) the  -particle scattered like a heavier
value of the force between them is particle collides a lighter particle
F 149. A parallel plate capacitor made of circular
(1) –2F (2)
3 plates each of radius R = 6.0 cm has a
2F F
(3)  (4)  capacitance C = 100 pF. The capacitor is
3 3
connected to a 230 V ac supply with a
146. When a coil is connected to a D.C source of
emf 12V, a current of 4 amp flows in it. If (angular) frequency of 300 rad s 1 . The rms
same coil is connected to 12V, 50Hz AC value of the displacement current is
source, the current is 2.4 A. The self
inductance of the coil is
1 1
(1) (2)
20  10 
1 1
(3) (4)
25 5
147. Two identical inductances carry currents that
vary with time according to linear laws (as
shown in figure). Among the two (1) 6.9 A (2) 6.9 mA
inductances, the self induced emf is
(3) 6.9 A (4) 2.3  A

19
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
150. The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in 156. pH of 0.1 M weak mono basic and is 4. Then
the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse the percentage dissociation of that acid is
bias resistance is (1) 0.1 (2) 0.01
(3) 0.001 (4) 1
157. Assertion (A): Copper cannot displace H2
from dilute HCl but can displace H2 from
conc. HCl
Reason (R): Among 3d series element Eo
M+2/M least for Cu
(1) 10 (2) 106 (1) A and R are true, R explains A
(2) A and R are true, R does not explain A
(3) 106 (4) 100
(3) A is true R is false
CHEMISTRY (4) A and R are false
SECTION –A 158. Statement – I: Molarity is an intensive
151. The correct order of energies of sub shells in property
Helium atom is Statement – II: Molality does not depend on
(1) 1s < 2s (2) 1s = 2s temperature
(3) 1s > 2s (4) 1s < 2s = 2p (1) Both S – I, S – II are true
152. The most polar molecule among the (2) Both S – I, S – II are false
following is (3) S – I is true S – II is false
(1) BF3 (2) BeF2 (4) S – I is false S – II is true
(3) H2O (4) H2S 159. 1st order reaction among the following is
153. Oxidation number of nitrogen is least in (1) Thermal decomposition of H2O2
(1) NF3 (2) NH3 (2) 2NO + O2 –– 2NO2
(3) N3H (4) N2O5 (3) Decomposition of NH3 on metal surface
154. Assertion (A): All exothermic reactions are at high temperature
feasible at all temperature (4) CHCl3 + Cl2 –– CCl4 + HCl
Reason (R): Evaporation of water can occur 160. Incorrect statement regarding carbohydrates
only at high temperature. is
(1) A and R are true, R explains A (1) All monosaccharides are reducing sugars
(2) A and R are true, R does not explain A (2) Sucrose is a non-reducing non sugar
(3) A is true R is false (3) Amylopectin is water insoluble
(4) A and R are false (4) Fructose is water soluble
155. Select the correct statements 161. Wavelength of an electron in hydrogen atom
a) When Q > Kc, then rate of forward reaction is 6.66 Ao. The orbit to which an electron
dominates back ward reaction belongs to
b) When Q = Kc, the system is in equilibrium (1) 1st (2) 2nd
c) The value of Kc or Kp is influenced by (3) 3rd (4) 4th
initial concentration of reactants 162. Assertion (A) : In gaseous C2 molecule the
d) The value of Kc is not influenced by bond order is 2, with two pi bonds
catalyst Reason (R) : Isolated bonds never exist
(1) a,b,c,and d are correct according to M.O.T
(1) A and R are true, R explains A
(2) Only b and d are correct
(2) A and R are true, R does not explain A
(3) Only a, b and d are correct (3) A is true R is false
(4) Only „b‟ is correct (4) A and R are false
20
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
163. Cl 2 OH Cl ClO3 In the reaction, 169.
the equivalent weight of chlorine is [M =
i NaI , H 3 PO4
Mol.wt of chlorine] ii Mg , Dry ether
H 3C CH (OH ) CH 2 CH 3 iii D2O
3M 3M
(1) (2) | Product
4 5
M Product [X] formed in the above reaction is
(3) (4) M (1) H 3C CH ( D) CH 2 CH 3
2
164. Thermochemical equation, for standard (2) H 3C CH (OD) CH 2 CH 3
enthalpy of formation is (3) H 3C CH 2 CH CH 2
(1) 2H2 g O2 g 2H2O
(4) H 3C CH CH CH 3
(2) H OH H2 O 170. The transition metal ions responsible for
aq aq l
colour in ruby and emerald are, respectively
1
(3) CO g O2 g CO2 g (1) Co3 and Cr 3 (2) Co3 and Co3
2
1 (3) Cr 3 and Cr 3 (4) Cr 3 and Co3
(4) C O2 CO g 171. The f-orbitals are half and completely filled,
Graphite 2 g
respectively in lanthanide ions
165. 4 mole of PCl5 is heated in a 2L vessel to
(Given: Atomic no. Eu, 63; Sm, 62; Tm, 69;
establish an equilibrium
Tb, 65; Yb, 70; Dy, 66)
PCl5 PCl3 Cl2 . At equilibrium (1) Eu 2 and Tm 2 (2) Sm 2 and Tm3
g g g
(3) Tb4 and Yb2 (4) Dy 3 and Yb3
molar concentration of Cl2 is one. The value 172. Among (a,b,c and d) the complexes that can
of Kc for the above equilibrium is display geometrical isomerism are
1 1
(1) mole/L (2) mole/L a) Pt NH 3 3 Cl b) Pt NH 3 Cl5
6 3
2
(3) 1 mole/L (4) 2M c) Pt NH3 2 Cl NO2 d) Pt NH 3 4 ClBr
166. The equivalent weight of H2SO4 in lead
(1) (b) and (c)
storage battery during discharge is
(2) (d) and (a)
(1) 98 (2) 49
3 98 (3) (c) and (d)
(3) 98/3 (4)
4 (4) (a) and (b)
167. Elevation in boiling point Tb is highest 173. Assertion A: Aqueous solution of Mohr‟s salt
for exhibits the test for NH4+, Fe+2 and SO42-
(1) 0.1 m NaCl
ions.
(2) 0.1 m MgCl2
(3) 0.1 m Al2(SO4)3 Reason R: Mohr‟s salt is double salt.
(4) 0.1 m urea (1) A is false but R is true.
168. 90% of a 1st order reaction is completed in
(2) A is true but R is false.
120 sec. The time required for 99% of the
(3) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct
reaction to be completed in minutes is
explanation of A.
(1) 240 (2) 360
(4) Both A and R are true, and R is NOT the
(3) 4 (4) 8
correct explanation of A.
21
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
174. Match the complex species given in Column-
I with the possible isomerism given in
Column-II and assign the correct code:
Column-I Column-II (1) (2)
(Complex species) (Isomerism)
+
(a) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] (i) optical
+
(b) cis-[Co(en)2Cl2] (ii) ionization
(c) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl (iii coordinatio (3) (4)
2 ) n 179. The difference in energy between the actual
(d) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN) (iv) geometrical structure and the lowest energy resonance
6] structure for the given compound is
(v) linkage (1) electromeric energy
(1) (a)-(i) (b)-(iii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii) (2) ionization energy
(2) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i) (3) hyperconjugation energy
(3) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii) (4) resonance energy
(4) (a)-(iv) (b)-(i) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii) 180. Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy
175. The correct decreasing order for acid strength decreases across a period.
is: Reason R: The increasing nuclear charge
(1) NO2CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > outweighs the shielding across the period.
CNCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH (1) A is false but R is true
(2) FCH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > (2) A is true but R is false
NO2CH2COOH > ClCH2COOH (3) Both A and R are true, and R is the
(3) CNCH2COOH > NO2CH2COOH > correct explanation of A
FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) NO2CH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > correct explanation of A
FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH 181. The arenium ion which is not involved in the
176. R CN
i DIBAL H
R Y Consider the bromination of Aniline is _____
ii H 2O

above reaction and identify “Y”

(1) –CH2NH2 (2) –CONH2
(3) -CHO (4) -COOH
177. The order of basicity of the compounds (1) (2)

(3) (4)
is 182. Appearance of blood red colour, on
(1) IV > I > III > II (2) I > III > II > IV treatment of the sodium fusion extract of an
(3) III > I > IV > II (4) II > I > III > IV organic compound with FeSO4 in presence of
178. Which one of the following compounds is concentrated H2SO4 indicates the presence of
inactive towards S N 1 reaction? element/s
(1) N and S (2) N
(3) S (4) Br
22
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
183. Phenolic group can be identified by a 189. Assertion (A): The Tb value of 0.1 m urea
positive is same as that of 0.1 m glucose aqueous
(1) Phthalein dye test (2) Lucas test solution.
(3) Tollen's test (4) Carbylamine test Reason (R): The value of colligative property
184. The technique used for purification of steam of a solution depends on the number of
volatile water immiscible substances is: nonvolatile solute particles.
(1) Fractional distillation (1) A and R are true, R explains A
(2) Fractional distillation under reduced (2) A and R are true, R does not explain A
pressure (3) A is true R is false
(3) Distillation (4) A and R are false
(4) Steam distillation 190. Units for rate constant for a zero – order
185. Correct statement regarding amino acids is reaction are
a) Glycine is exist in L - configuration (1) M. sec–1 (2) L. mole–1 sec–1
b) Argenine is a basic amino acid (3) sec–1 (4) Li2 mole–2 sec–1
c) All amino acids are water insoluble 191. Law of mass action is not applicable to the
d) Essential amino acids should be taken following equilibria
through diet (1) CaCO3 s CaO s CO2 g
(1) all are correct
(2) H2O H2O g
(2) Only b and d are correct
(3) only b, c and d are correct (3) PCl5 g PCl3 g Cl2 g
(4) only a, b and d are correct (4) N2 g 3H2 g 2NH3 g
SECTION - B
186. Number of molecular violating octet rule 192. Major product formed in the following
from the list given below reaction is a mixture of
1) CO 2) CO2
3) BF3 4) BeCl2
5) SF6 6) PCl5
7) SCl4 8) CCl4
9) IF7 10) O2
(1) 7 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
187. A2B g 2A g Bg H = 200 K (1)

Cal/mole and S = 100 Cal/mole

The process is spontaneous at
(1) 1000k (2) 1100k (2)
(3) 900k (4) 600k
188. 2L of 1M CuSO4 aqueous solution is
electrolyzed using inert electrodes. If 1F of
charge is used up, the concentration of cupric
(3) and (CH3)3COH
ions left out: [ assume that vol. of the
solution remain same ]
(1) 0.5 M (2) 0.75 M
(3) 1.25 M (4) 1.5 M

(4)
23
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
193. Given below are two statements: 196. Which of the following complex is
Statement (I): Oxygen being the first member homoleptic?
2
(1)  Ni  CN  4 
of group 16 exhibits only -2 oxidation state.
Statement (II): Down the group 16 stability of
+4 oxidation state decreases and +6 oxidation (2)  Ni  NH 3  2 Cl2 
state increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose (3)  Fe  NH3 4 Cl2 
 
the most appropriate answer from the options 
given below: (4) Co  NH3 4 Cl2 
 
(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is 197. Which of the following compound will most
incorrect easily be attacked by an electrophile?
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are CH3
correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) (2)
incorrect Cl OH
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
is correct
194. The incorrect statement regarding (3) (4)
conformations of ethane is: 198. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
(1) Ethane has infinite number of
(Reactions)
conformations
A)
(2) The dihedral angle in staggered
conformation is 60°
CH 3  CH 2 5  C  OC2 H 5  CH 3 CH 2 5 CHO
(3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable ||
conformation O
(4) The conformations of ethane are inter-
convertible to one-another. B) C6 H 5COC6 H 5  C6 H 5CH 2C6 H 5
195. Given below are two statements one is C) C6 H5CHOC6 H5CH OH  CH3
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
D)
labelled as Reason (R).
CH3COCH2COOC2 H5 CH3CH OH  CH2COOC2H5
Assertion (A): Haloalkanes react with KCN
to form alkyl cyanides as a main product
List-II
while with AgCN form isocyanide as the
(Reagents)
main product.
I) CH 3MgBr , H 2O
Reason (R): KCN and AgCN both are highly
II) Zn  Hg  and conc. HCl
ionic compounds.
In the light of the above statements, choose III) NaBH 4 , H 
the most appropriate answer from the options IV) DIBAL  H , H 2O
given below: Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct given below:
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
the correct explanation of (A)
24
 NEET GT-03 (12-02-24)
199. Among the following oxides of p-block
elements, number of oxides having
amphoteric nature is
Cl2O7 , CO, PbO2 , N 2O, NO, Al2O3 , SiO2 , N 2O5 , SnO2

(1) Four (2) Five

(3) Three (4) Two
200. In the given reactions identify A and B

(1) A:n-Pentane B: Cis-2-butene

(2) A: 2-Pentyne B: Cis-2-butene
(3) A: n-Pentane B: trans-2-butene
(4) A: 2-Pentyne B: trans-2-butene

25
Learn more at https://infinitylearn.com