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BOTANY

Q.108 (CST-09) [Transport in Plants: Mechanism 2. The plant which has shorter photoperiod than a
of Opening and Closing of Stomata] critical period and generally flowers in winter is
1. Which of the following phenomena is concerned known as
with closing of stomata in dark? (1) Short day plant only
(1) Increase in concentration of CO2 in sub- (2) Long day plant only
stomatal cavity (3) Day neutral plant only
(2) Dissociation of malic acid into malate ions (4) Both long day and day neutral plant
and proton (H+) in the guard cell 3. Long day plants require
(3) Increase in turgor pressure of guard cell due (1) Photoperiod shorter than critical period
to endosmosis (2) No correlation with period of exposure of
(4) Storage of potassium malate in vacuoles of light
guard cell (3) Photoperiod is just a flash of light
2. Refer the given statements and select the (4) Photoperiod longer than critical period
correct option.
Q.123 (CST-09) (Biological Classification: Fungi)
Statement A: Transportation of H+ from guard
cells to the epidermal cells and K+ from 1. Albugo candida fungus belongs to
epidermal cells to guard cells is associated with (1) Phycomycetes
opening of stomata in light. (2) Ascomycetes
Statement B: Functioning of an inhibitor (3) Basidiomycetes
hormone – ABA in the presence of CO2 is
associated with closing of stomata in dark. (4) Deuteromycetes
(1) Only statement A is correct 2. White rust in Brassica is caused by
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) Trichoderma (2) Colletotrichum
(3) Both the statements are correct (3) Mucor (4) Albugo
(4) Both the statements are incorrect 3. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
3. Which of the given is most accepted theory for
opening and closing of stomata? A: Albugo candida is a parasitic fungus on
(1) Starch sugar interconversion theory mustard.
(2) Potassium pump theory B: Albugo is a member of phycomycetes.
(3) Active K+ transport theory (1) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both (2) & (3) (2) Both A and B are incorrect
Q.149 (CST-09) (Plant Growth and Development) (3) Only A is correct
1. The plants which do not show any correlation (4) Only B is correct
between exposure to light duration and 4. Which of the following are the members of
induction of flowering plant, are known as Phycomycetes?
(1) Long day plant A- Albugo
(2) Short day plant
B- Rhizopus
(3) Day neutral plant
C- Mucor
(4) Both long day and short day plant
(1) A and B only

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(2) A and C only (2) Linear growth

(3) All A, B and C (3) Geometric growth
(4) B and C only (4) Both (1) & (2)
Q.110 (CST-09) (Reproduction in Organisms: Q.128 (CST-10) (Organisms and Populations: Major
Sexual Reproduction-Phases in Life Abiotic Factors)
Cycle) 1. The mean annual precipitation of tropical forest
1. The period between two successive flowering ranges from
phases is called (1) 150 to 400 cm (2) 5 to 125 cm
(1) Juvenile phase (3) 50 to 100 cm (4) 50 to 200 cm
(2) Senescent phase 2. The mean annual precipitation of coniferous
(3) Interflowering phase forest ranges from
(4) Pre-reproductive phase (1) 50 to 250 cm (2) 10 to 50 cm
2. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. polycarpic (3) 25 to 100 cm (4) 10 to 120 cm
plants 3. The mean annual precipitation of grassland
(1) Show clear cut distinction between juvenile, ranges from
reproductive and senescent phase (1) 25 to 100 cm (2) 10 to 50 cm
(2) They are perennial plants (3) 50 to 250 cm (4) 60 to 220 cm
(3) Can be exemplified with China rose, Q.108 (CST-10) (Respiration in Plants: Aerobic
Grapevine, Jackfruit Respiration)
(4) Show interflowering period 1. Select the option for the correct numbers of
3. Which of the following plant does not show inter NADH + H+, FADH2 and GTP formed during one
flowering period? TCA cycle
(1) Marigold (2) Mango NADH + H+ FADH2 GTP
(3) Apple (4) Orange (1) 2 2 1
4. Interflowering period (2) 3 1 1
(1) Is a part of the Juvenile phase (3) 3 2 1
(2) Is a part of the Mature phase (4) 4 1 1
(3) Is seen in all Annual plants 2. How many ATP molecules are formed through
(4) Is seen in certain Bamboo species ETS from one molecule of NADH + H+ and
Q.113 (CST-10) (Plant Growth and Development: FADH2 each, respectively?
Growth Rates) (1) 3 and 1
1. In which type of growth, growth occurs at (2) 4 and 2
constant rate? (3) 2 and 3
(1) Geometrical growth (4) 3 and 2
(2) Exponential growth 3. All of the following are the products of oxidative
(3) Logistic growth decarboxylation of pyruvic acid, except
(4) Arithmetic growth (1) Acetyl CoA
2. In the initial stages of development of zygote into (2) NADH + H+
embryo, the growth rate is (3) H2O
(1) Geometric type (4) CO2
(2) Arithmetic type 4. When a molecule of pyruvic acid is completely
(3) Occurring at constant rate oxidized through aerobic respiration, how many
(4) Almost zero ATP molecules will be formed?
3. In which type of growth rate, every cell divides (1) 15
with all daughter cells growing and dividing (2) 12
again? (3) 11
(1) Arithmetic growth (4) 14

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Q.118 (CST-10) (Principles of Inheritance and (2) Holandric

Variation: Two Genes Interaction) (3) Autosomal
1. In Drosophila, genes for body and eye colour (4) Both (1) & (2)
were present on 3. In humans or Drosophila, autosomal genes are
(1) X chromosome found on
(2) Y chromosome (1) X chromosome
(3) An autosome (2) Y chromosome
(4) Chromosome 21 (3) All chromosomes except allosomes
2. Genes present on Y chromosomes are called (4) Only chromosome 1
_____ genes.
(1) Sex linked

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Answer Key

Q.108 (Transport in Plants: Mechanism of 2. (1)

opening and closing of stomata) 3. (3)
1. (1) Q.128 (Organisms and Populations: Major abiotic
2. (3) factors)
3. (4) 1. (1)
Q.149 (Plant Growth and Development) 2. (1)
1. (3) 3. (1)
2. (1) Q.108 (Respiration in Plants: Aerobic
3. (4) Respiration)
Q.123 (Biological Classification: Fungi) 1. (2)
1. (1) 2. (4)
2. (4) 3. (3)
3. (1) 4. (1)
4. (3) Q.118 (Principles of Inheritance and Variation:
Q.110 (Reproduction in Organisms: Sexual Two genes interaction)
Reproduction-Phases in life cycle) 1. (1)
1. (3) 2. (4)
2. (1) 3. (3)
3. (1)
4. (2)
Q.113 (Plant Growth and Development: Growth
Rates)
1. (4)

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Q.55. (CST-09) (Hydrides) 2. If temperature of a reaction increases
1. Select the covalent hydride among the from 27°C to 77°C, then rate of reaction
following increases to (Temperature coefficient is 2)
(1) NaH (2) CaH2 (1) 16 times (2) 8 times
(3) CH4 (4) KH (3) 32 times (4) 64 times
2. Electron precise covalent hydride is 3. With increase in temperature
(1) SiH4 (2) PH3 (1) Rate of reaction generally decreases
(2) Rate of reaction does not change
(3) NH3 (4) H2S
(3) Rate constant of reaction increases
3. Which among the following is metallic
hydride? (4) Equilibrium constant does not change
Q.81. (CST-09) (Equivalent Mass and n-factor)
(1) RbH (2) B2H6
1. Equivalent mass of Cl2 (Molar mass = M)
(3) CrH (4) H2O in the given reaction is
Q.66. (CST-09) (Battery/Cell) Cl2 + NaOH → NaCl + NaClO3 + H2O
1. In mercury cell anode is made up of
M M
(1) Carbon (1) (2)
2 4
(2) Zinc-mercury amalgam
M 3M
(3) Copper (3) (4)
5 5
(4) Paste of HgO and carbon
2. n-factor of Cl2 in the following reaction is
2. Electrolyte used in lead storage battery is
Cl2 + NaOH → NaCl + NaOCl + H2O
(1) 83% solution of KOH
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) 38% solution of Na2CO3
3
(3) 38% solution of H2SO4 (3) (4) 3
2
(4) 98% solution of H2SO4 3. Equivalent mass of Cu2S(Molar mass =
3. In dry cell cathode reaction involves M) in the following reaction is
(1) Conversion of Zn into Zn(II) ions Cu2S → Cu+2 + SO2
(2) Conversion of MnO2 into Mn(II) ions
M M
(3) Conversion of MnO2 into MnO(OH) (1) (2)
8 4
(4) Conversion of Zn into [Zn(NH3)4]Cl2
M M
4. Overall reaction of hydrogen-oxygen fuel (3) (4)
11 10
cell is
(1) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)
Q.64. (CST-10) (Le Chatelier's Principle )
(2) H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O2 (aq)
1. For the reaction, CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) +
(3) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l)
CO2(g), which of the following factors shift
(4) 2H+ (aq) + 2OH–(aq) → H2O2 + H2(g) the equilibrium in backward direction?
Q.68. (CST-09) (Effect of Temperature on (1) Addition of CaO(s)
Reaction Rate) (2) Decreasing the pressure
1. For every 10°C rise in temperature, factor (3) Addition of inert gas at constant
by which rate of a reaction increases pressure
(1) 2 to 3 (2) 3 to 5 (4) Decreasing the temperature
(3) 4 to 6 (4) 1 to 2
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2. Which of the following equilibrium is 1

shifted in forward direction on adding inert (2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
gas at constant pressure condition?
1
(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g)  2HCl(g) (3) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = +
2
(2) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
1
(4) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = –
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) 2
(4) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g) Q.83. (CST-10) (Ionic Radii of Lanthanoids)
1. Smallest ionic radii among the following is
3. Which of the following equilibrium(s) is/are
of
not disturbed on adding inert gas during
the constant volume process? (1) Ce3+ (2) Yb3+
(1) A(g) + B(g)  C(g) + D(g) (3) Sm3+ (4) Tb3+
2. Largest Ionic radii among the following is
(2) B(g) + C(g)  D(g) of
(3) A(g)  2C(g) + D(g) (1) Pm3+ (2) Eu3+
(4) All of these (3) Lu3+ (4) La3+
4. The favourable conditions for the 3. Smallest Ionic radii among the following is
formation of NH3(g) is of
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g), H < 0 (1) Pr3+ (2) Nd3+
(1) High pressure and optimum (3) Ho3+ (4) Gd3+
temperature 4. Largest Ionic radii among the following is
(2) Low pressure and high temperature of
(3) High pressure and high temperature (1) Dy3+ (2) Er3+
(4) Low pressure and optimum (3) Tm3+ (4) Lu3+
temperature Q.70. (CST-10) (IUPAC Naming)
Q. 52. (CST-10) (Quantum Numbers)
1. Correct set of quantum numbers among 1. The IUPAC name of is
the following is
1 (1) 2-bromo-4-chloro-1-ethylbenzene
(1) n = 3, l = – 2, m = 0, s = +
2 (2) 1-ethyl-2-bromo-4-chlorobenzene
1 (3) 1-bromo-5-chloro-2-ethylbenzene
(2) n = 4, l = 1, m = 2, s = –
2 (4) 3-bromo-1-chloro-4-ethylbenzene
1
(3) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = –
2
(4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = 0 2. The correct IUPAC name of is
2. Incorrect set of quantum numbers among
the following is
(1) 4-methyl-3-ethylphenol
1
(1) n = 4, l = 3, m = –3, s = + (2) 3-ethyl-1-hydroxy-4-methylbenzene
2
1 (3) 3-ethyl-4-methylphenol
(2) n = 3, l =0, m = 0, s = – (4) 5-ethyl-1-hydroxy-4-methylbenzene
2
1 3. The correct IUPAC name of is
(3) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1, s = –
2
1
(4) n = 5, l = 3, m = – 4, s = + (1) 1-ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
2
3. The correct set of quantum numbers for (2) 4-ethyl-1-flouro-2-nitrobenzene
the outermost electron of Cu is (3) 5-ethyl-2-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
1
(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = – (4) 4-ethyl-2-nitro-1-flurobenzene
2

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4. The correct structure of 2-chloro-4-methyl

anisole is
(3) (4)

(1) (2)

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ANSWERS KEY

Q.55. (CST-09) (Hydrides) Q.64. (CST-10) (Le Chatelier's principle )

1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2. (2)
3. (3) 3. (4)
Q.66. (CST-09) (Battery/Cell) 4. (1)
1. (2) Q. 52. (CST-10) (Quantum Numbers)
2. (3) 1. (3)
3. (3) 2. (4)
4. (1) 3. (2)
Q.68. (CST-09) (Effect of temperature on reaction Q.83. (CST-10) (Ionic Radii of Lanthanoids)
rate) 1. (2)
1. (1) 2. (4)
2. (3) 3. (3)
3. (3) 4. (1)
Q.83. (CST-09) (Equivalent mass and n-factor) Q.70. (IUPAC Naming)
1. (4) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (4)

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Q.3 (CST-9) Interference of Waves 3. Two coherent sources A and B of equal intensity

1. Two coherent sources A and B are at separation are shown in figure. The distance on x-axis from
B where maximum intensity is observed is
8 from each other as shown in figure. Intensity
of each source is I. Then intensity at point P in
figure will be ( is the wavelength of wave
produced by sources)

(1) 5  (2) 
(3) 3  (4) 4 

Q.24 (CST-9) Thermodynamic Adiabatic Process

(1) I (2) 2I 1. An ideal monoatomic gas at 500 K is expanded

(3) 4I (4) Zero adiabatically, such that final temperature falls to

2. Two coherent sources A and B are shown in 300 K. If the gas has 3 moles, then Internal

figure. O is centre of line AB and of circular energy lost by the gas is

screen. The number of maximum observed on (1) 7.48 kJ (2) 2.69 kJ

circular screen are ( is the wavelength of wave (3) 5.43 kJ (4) 2.93 kJ
produced by sources) 2. During Carnot cycle an ideal gas was initially at
temperature of 600 K and it is adiabatically
expanded to 8 times its initial volume. What is
final temperature of the gas? (The gas is ideal
monoatomic in nature)
(1) 250 K (2) 150 K
(3) 300 K (4) 200 K
3. An ideal gas has molar specific heat ratio (CP/CV)
of 1.5. The gas is at pressure of 6 × 106 N m–2. It
is compressed adiabatically to half of its initial
(1) 8 (2) 12 volume. What is the rise in pressure of the gas?
(3) 16 (4) 10 (1) 10.97 × 106 N m–2 (2) 16.97 × 106 N m–2
(3) 6.28 × 106 N m–2 (4) 12 × 106 N m–2

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Q.26 (CST-9) Elastic Collision of opposite polarity joined together. The amount
of charge that will flow, when the plates are
1. Two small balls are moving with velocity of
connected, will be
10 m/s and 6 m/s collides elastically head on. If (1) 150 C (2) 80 C
the velocity of first ball after the collision is 3 m/s, (3) 240 C (4) 360 C
what will be velocity of other ball? (Their masses
4. In the Q. (3), the loss of energy will be
may be different) (1) 3 mJ (2) 54 mJ
(3) 6 mJ (4) 7 mJ
Q.29 (CST-10) Interference
(1) 4 m/s (2) 6 m/s 1. Two incoherent sources of light having intensities
I0 and 4I0 are superimposed. The resultant
(3) 7 m/s (4) 2 m/s intensity will be
2. A ball of mass m moving at 30 m/s collides a (1) Zero (2) 4I0
stationary ball of mass 2m. If the collision is (3) 9I0 (4) 5I0
elastic head on, then after collision heavy ball 2. For question (1), select the correct statements.
moves with speed of (1) Bright fringe will be complete bright

(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s (2) Dark fringe will be complete dark

(3) 30 m/s (4) 15 m/s (3) No fringe pattern will occur on the screen

3. A billiard ball of mass 0.2 kg moving at 10 m/s (4) Both (1) and (2)

collides another stationary billiard ball of same 3. Consider the two statements
(a) Two light sources, having same frequency
mass. The collision is perfectly elastic head on.
and constant phase difference are coherent
The kinetic energy of stationary billiard ball after (b) Two light sources having different frequency
collision is and variable phase difference are coherent
(1) 5 J (2) 10 J Choose the correct statements.
(3) 20 J (4) Zero (1) (a) only (2) (b) only
Q.10 (CST-10) Sharing of Charge (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
1. Two capacitor C1 and C2, initially charged to Q.34 (CST-10) Magnetic Moment
voltages V1 and V2 respectively, are connected in
1. The ratio of magnitude of magnetic moment to
such a manner that similar plates are connected
magnitude of angular momentum of a charged
to each other. The common potential across the
particle, also called gyromagnetic ratio, is equal
capacitors is
to
C V + C2V2 C V – C2V2
(1) 1 1 (2) 1 1 e 2m
C1 + C2 C1 + C2 (1) (2)
2m e
V1 – V2 e m
(3) (4) Zero (3) (4)
2 m e
2. In question (1), the loss of energy is given as 2. The minimum value of magnetic moment of
1 C1C2 electron in hydrogen atom is
(1) (V1 + V2 )2
2 C1 + C2 (1) 9.27 × 10–12 A m2 (2) 9.27 × 10–24 A m2
1  C1C2  (3) 2.27 × 10–20 A m2 (4) 2.27 × 10–22 A m2
 (V1 – V2 )
2
(2) 
2  C1 + C2  3. A disc of mass m, radius r and carrying charge q
1  C1 + C2  uniformly distributed on it, is rotating with angular
 (V1 + V2 )
2
(3)  speed  about an axis passing through its centre
2  C1C2 
and normal to its plane. The magnetic moment of
 CC  disc is
(4)  1 2  (V1 – V2 )2
 C1 + C2  q r 2
(1) qr2 (2)
8
3. A 3 F capacitor is charged to a potential of 200
V and 2 F capacitor is charged to 100 V. The q r 2 q r 2
(3) (4)
capacitor is then connected in parallel with plates 4 2

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4. A hollow sphere of mass m and radius R is a 2a

(3) (4)
rotating about its diameter with angular velocity . 2 3
If the charge Q is uniformly distributed over the
4. A uniform wire of length l is bent into form of an
surface, then magnetic moment of sphere is
equilateral triangle. The distance of centre of
qR 2
(1) Zero (2) mass from the any one vertex of the triangle will
3 be
qR 2 qR 2 (1)
l
(2)
l
(3) (4)
4 5 6 3 3 3
Q.8 (CST-10) Centre of Mass l 2l
(3) (4)
1. Three identical particle each of mass m placed at 3 3
the equilateral triangle of side a as shown in the
Q.26 (CST-10) Refraction through Parallel Glass
figure. The distance of centre of mass of the
Slab
system from the vertex A will be
1. A plane parallel glass slab of thickness t and
refractive index  is placed in the path of beam of
light converging towards a point O on a screen.
As a result, the point of convergence shifts by
 1  1
(1) t 1–  nearer (2) t 1–  away
   

a a  1  1
(1) (2) (3) t 1 +  nearer (4) t 1 +  away
2 3    

2a 3a 2. A rectangular transparent medium of thickness

(3) (4) 12 cm, one face of which is silvered as shown in
3 2
the figure. An object is placed at 10 cm from the
2. A uniform wire of length l is bent into the shape of unsilvered face and final image is formed at
L as shown. The distance of centre of mass from 16 cm from the silvered face. Refractive index of
vertex A is the medium is

l l
(1) (2) 3
4 4 2 (1)
2
l 3l 8
(3) (4) (2)
8 2 8 5
3. Three identical particle each of mass m placed at 4
right angle triangle as shown in the figure. The (3)
3
distance of the centre of mass of the system from
vertex A will be (4) 2
3. A bubble in a glass slab ( = 1.5) when viewed
from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from
other side, then thickness of the slab is
(1) 3.75 cm (2) 3 cm
(3) 10.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm
4. A slab of glass, of thickness 6 cm and refractive
index  = 1.5 is placed in front of a concave
mirror, as shown in the figure. If the radius of
a 2a curvature of the mirror is 40 cm and the reflected
(1) (2)
3 3

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image coincide with the object, then the distance 2. In the LC circuit shown in figure and charges on
of the object from the mirror is the capacitor plates have sign shown in the figure
at this time

(1) 30 cm (2) 42 cm (1) i as well of Q is increasing

(3) 22 cm (4) 38 cm (2) i as well of Q is decreasing

Q.35 (CST-10) LC Oscillation (3) i is increasing but Q decreasing

1. An LC circuit contains an inductor (L = 25 mH) (4) i is decreasing but Q increasing
and capacitor (C = 25 mF) with an initial charge 3. Choose the correct statement about LC
Q. After what time will the circuit have an equal oscillation.
amount of electric and magnetic energy? (1) Energy stored in the inductor remains
3 3 constant
(1) s (2) s
160 180
(2) Energy stored in the capacitor remains
5 
(3) s (4) s constant
180 180
(3) Total energy of the circuit remains constant
(4) Both (1) and (2)

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Answer key
Q.3 (CST-9) Interference of Waves 3. (1)
Q.34 (CST-10) Magnetic Moment
1. (3)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (2)
Q.24 (CST-9) Thermodynamic Adiabatic Process 3. (3)
4. (2)
1. (1) Q.8 (CST-10) Centre of Mass
2. (2)
1. (2)
3. (1)
2. (2)
Q.26 (CST-9) Elastic Collision
3. (2)
1. (3) 4. (2)
2. (2) Q.26 (CST-10) Refraction through Parallel Glass
3. (2) Slab
Q.10 (CST-10) Sharing of Charge 1. (2)
1. (1) 2. (3)
2. (2) 3. (3)
3. (4) 4. (2)
4. (2) Q.35 (CST-10) LC Oscillation
Q.29 (CST-10) Interference 1. (1)
1. (4) 2. (4)
2. (3) 3. (3)

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 Based on
CST-09 & 10

Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-05
ZOOLOGY
Q.162 (CST-9) Interferons 4. The most abundant type of joints are gliding type
1. Select the eukaryote in which plasmids are in human body. They are found in/between
naturally found. (1) Carpals of human hand
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Tibia and fibula
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (3) Atlas and axis
(3) Thermus aquaticus (4) Atlas and occipital condyle
(4) Meloidogyne incognita Q.184 (CST-09) Oogenesis
2. The region called ‘autonomously replicating 1. Acellular glycoprotein layer is distinctly associated
sequence’ [ARS] is associated with plasmids with which of the following structures?
naturally found in
(1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle
(1) Nematode (2) Yeast
(3) Graafian follicle (4) Primary oocyte
(3) Bacteriophages (4) Rhino virus
2. Presence of initial single layer of theca cells can be
3. Virus infected cells secrete glycoproteins called
related to which stage of oogenesis?
interferons. They constitute ____barrier of innate
immunity. Choose the option that fills the blank (1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle
correctly. (3) Tertiary follicle (4) Graafian follicle
(1) Physical (2) Physiological 3. Zona pellucida is formed by
(3) Cytokine (4) Cellular (1) Immature germ cell (2) Oogonia
4. A vector that can replicate in eukaryote as well as (3) Ootid (4) Secondary oocyte
prokaryote is called
Q.185 (CST-09) Male Reproductive System
(1) Shuttle vector (2) Cloning vector
1. Longest part of male urethra in human is
(3) Bacterial vector (4) BAC
(1) Penile urethra
Q. 172 (CST-09) Joints
(2) Membranous urethra
1. The type of joint which exists between first and
second vertebrae of humans is (3) Prostatic urethra
(1) Gliding joint (2) Ellipsoid joint (4) Bulbourethral part
(3) Cartilaginous joint (4) Pivot joint 2. Ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of duct
2. Joint present between carpal and metacarpal of from
thumb side in humans is _____ joint. Select the (1) Seminal vesicle and vas deferens
correct option to fill the blank. (2) Seminal vesicle and prostate gland
(1) Fibrous (2) Cartilaginous (3) Seminal vesicle and bulbourethral gland
(3) Synovial (4) Condyloid
(4) Seminal vesicle and urinary bladder
3. In which among following is/are saddle joint(s)
3. Which of the following is considered as the
present in humans?
smallest part of male urethra?
(1) Between carpals
(1) Penile urethra
(2) Between tibia and fibula
(2) Membranous urethra
(3) Between radius and ulna
(3) Prostatic urethra
(4) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb side
(4) Ejaculatory duct

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CSS-05 (Based on CST-09 & 10) Zoology

4. Fructose rich secretions enter the ejaculatory duct 4. Choose the option that complete the analogy for
through duct arising from the following
(1) Cowper’s gland (2) Bulbourethral gland First cleavage : Single celled zygote :: Implantation
(3) Seminal vesicle (4) Prostate gland : ___.

Q.160 (CST-10) Structure of Protein (1) 8 blastomeres

1. The most abundant protein in animal world is (2) 16 blastomeres

______. (3) 4 blastomeres
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank. (4) More than 16 blastomeres
(1) Chitin (2) Glycogen 5. The cells of inner cell mass in the blastocyst, gets
(3) Collagen (4) Cellulose differentiated as the
2. What type of bond is responsible for the linkage of (1) Chorionic villi (2) Placenta
individual monosaccharides in a polysaccharide? (3) Embryo (4) Yolk sac
(1) Peptide bond Q.185 (CST-10) Neural Control and Coordination:
(2) Ester bond Type of Axons on the Basis of Presence or
(3) Phosphodiester bond Absence of Myelin Sheath

(4) Glycosidic bond 1. Myelin sheath in neuron of PNS is formed by

3. Which process is involved in the formation of (1) Microglial cells (2) Schwann cells
peptide bond? (3) Oligodendrocytes (4) Astrocytes
(1) Dehydration (2) Decarboxylation 2. Axons of neurons in central nervous system are
(3) Substitution (4) Hydration myelinated in appearance due to
4. Trypsin : Peptide bonds :: Inulin : ______. (1) Microglial cells (2) Schwann cells
Complete the analogy and choose the correct (3) Oligodendrocytes (4) Astrocytes
option 3. Speed of conduction of impulse is higher in
(1) Ester bonds (2) Glycosidic bonds neurons lined by
(3) Hydrogen bonds (4) Peptide bonds A. Schwann cells B. Oligodendrocytes
Q.152 (CST-10) Pregancy and Embryonic C. Microglial cells D. Astrocytes
Development
Select the correct option.
1. The human embyo with 8-16 blastomeres is called
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(1) Blastocyst (2) Blastula
(3) C and D (4) D and A
(3) Morula (4) Zygote
4. Neurilemma is present in axons of neurons lined
2. During implantation, the structure which get by
embedded in the endometrium of the uterus is
(1) Oligodendrocytes (2) Fibrous astrocytes
(1) Morula (2) Blastocyst
(3) Schwann cells (4) Microglial cells
(3) Zygote (4) Foetus
Q.175 (CST-10) Animal Kingdom (Phylum-Annelida)
3. Read the following statement:
1. Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory
The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged structures in all of the given animals except
into an outer layer called ___A__ and an inner
group of cells attached to it called the ___B___. (1) Planaria (2) Some annelids

Choose the option that correctly, fills the blank A (3) Arthropods (4) Amphioxus
and B . 2. Choose the incorrect pair w.r.t. animal and its
A B excretory structure.

(1) Trophoblast Chorionic will (1) Butterfly - Malpighian tubules

(2) Inner cell mass Trophoblast (2) Anopheles - Antennal glands

(3) Blastomeres Inner cell mass (3) Nereis - Nephridia
(4) Trophoblast Inner cell mass (4) Fasciola - Flame cells

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CSS-05 (Based on CST-09 & 10) Zoology

3. Read the given statements and choose the (1) Both statements A & B are correct
correct option.
(2) Both statements A & B are incorrect
Statement-A: Protonephridia are concerned with
(3) Only statement A is correct
excretion only.
Statement-B: Nephridia helps to remove (4) Only statement B is correct

nitrogenous wastes and maintain a

fluid and ionic balance.

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CSS-05 (Based on CST-09 & 10) Zoology

Based on
CST-09 & 10

Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-05
ZOOLOGY
ANSWER KEY

Q.162 (CST-09) Interferons Q.152 (CST-10) Pregnancy and embryonic

1. (1) development
2. (2) 1. (3)
3. (3) 2. (2)
4. (1) 3. (4)
Q.172 (CST-09) Joints 4. (4)
1. (4) 5. (3)
2. (3) Q.185 (CST-10) Neural control and coordination:
Type of axons on the basis of presence or
3. (4)
absence of myclin sheath
4. (1)
1. (2)
Q.184 (CST-09) Oogenesis
2. (3)
1. (3)
3. (1)
2. (2)
4. (3)
3. (4)
Q.175 (CST-10) Animal Kingdom (Phylum-Annelida)
Q.185 (CST-09) Male reproduction system
1. (3)
1. (1)
2. (2)
2. (1)
3. (4)
3. (2)
4. (3)
Q.160 (CST-10) Structure of Protein
1. (3)
2. (4)
3. (1)
4. (2)

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