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Q.130(The Living World:- Taxonomic Categories) 4. Which part of cactus plant modifies to perform
1. Rice and Mango belong to the same photosynthesis?
(1) Class (2) Division (1) Leaf (2) Stem
(3) Order (4) Family (3) Flower (4) Roots
2. How many obligate taxonomic 5. Phylloclade is found in
categories/category is/are common for both rice (1) Opuntia (2) Euphorbia
and mango? (3) Bougainvillea (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Two (2) Four
(3) Three (4) One Q.112 (Cell cycle and Cell division:- Interphase)
3. At which of the following taxonomic categories 1. What will be the content of DNA in a diploid cell at
the related organisms share minimum numbers of S-phase if its meiotic product has 3 picogram of
similar characteristics ? DNA?
(1) Division (2) Order (1) 12 Pg (2) 6 Pg
(3) Family (4) Class (3) 3 Pg (4) 24 Pg
4. Which of the following statements, regarding both 2. What will be the content of DNA in a diploid cell at
rice and mango is wrong? S-phase if its mitotic product has 5C DNA?
(1) Both are seed bearing plants
(1) 5 C (2) 10 C
(2) Both are flowering plants
(3) 20 C (4) 2.5 C
(3) Fruits are formed in both of them
3. During mitosis, the number of chromosomes in
(4) Both have two cotyledons in their seeds
daughter cell _____________ as that present in
5. Select the highest taxonomic category among the
the parent cell .
following
Fill the blanks correctly by selecting the most
(1) Order (2) Class
appropriate option
(3) Genus (4) Family
(1) Remains same (2) Reduces to half
Q.134 (Morphology of Flowering Plants:- The stem)
(3) Doubles
1. A plant found in arid regions which has fleshy
(4) Reduces to one-fourth
cylindrical photosynthetic stem, is
4. In which phase of cell cycle, duplication of DNA
(1) Mint (2) Euphorbia
takes place?
(3) Chrysanthemum (4) Pistia
(1) G1
2. Leaves are modified into spines in
(2) S
(1) Aloe (2) Opuntia
(3) G2
(3) Citrus (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) M
3. Thorns that protect Bougainvillea from browsing
5. At which phase of cell cycle, DNA synthesis
animals, are modified
stops?
(1) Leaf apex (2) Petiole
(1) G1 (2) S
(3) Axillary buds (4) Leaf blades
(3) G2 (4) M

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Q.121 (Semi technical description of a typical 4. Identify the wrongly matched pair w.r.t plant
flowering plant:- Description of some families and feature of their stamens
important families ) Families Stamens
(1) Brassicaceae - Tetradynamous
1. is the floral formula of which of
(2) Fabaceae - Diadelphous
the given families?
(3) Solanaceae - Epipetalous
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae (4) Fabaceae (4) Liliaceae - Attached to petals
2. Persistent calyx, endospermous seed, swollen
placenta with many ovules is the characteristics 5. Match the columns and select the correct option.
feature of which of the given family? Column I Column II
(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae
a) Mustard - (i) Epiphyllous stamens
(3) Liliaceae (4) Brassicaceae
b) Potato - (ii) Gamopetalous corolla
3. Select the incorrect match w.r.t plant families
and types of fruits found in them c) Lily - (iii) Cruciform corolla
(1) Solanaceae – Many seeded berry or capsule (a) (b) (c)
(2) Liliaceae - Pome
(1) iii) ii) i)
(3) Fabaceae - Legume
(2) i) ii) iii)
(4) Brassicaceae – Siliqua or Silicula
(3) ii) i) iii)
4. How many of the given plants belong to the family
(4) iii) i) ii)
Solanaceae?

Potato, Lupin, Gram, Tomato, Brinjal, Sweat pea Q. 106 (Plant Kingdom: Angiosperm)
1. Male gametes are always non motile in the
(1) 2 (2) 3
members of
(3) 4 (4) 5
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
5. Ashwagandha is a medicinal plant of which of the
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Angiosperms
given plant family?
2. Select the correct match.
(1) Fabaceae (2) Liliaceae
(1) Angiosperms – Phanerogams with ovary
(3) Brassicaceae (4) Solanaceae
(2) Algae – Form embryo
(3) Gymnosperm – Phanerogams without ovule
Q.102 (Morphology of Flowering plants:
(4) Bryophytes – Non - embryophytes
Brassicaceae)
3. Mark the incorrect statement .
1. In mustard, stamens are arranged as four long
and two short stamens. This condition is known (1) Gymnosperms are seed plants without ovary
as (2) Spermatophytes include gymnosperms as well
(1) Tetradynamous as angiosperms
(2) Polyandrous (3) Cycas a gymnosperm has motile male
(3) Didynamous gamets.
(4) Polyadelphous (4) Algae, bryophytes and all pteridophytes are
2. The arrangement of corolla in a cross like manner homosporous.
or diagonally, is known as 4. Homosporous plants are not included in
(1) Cruciform corolla (1) Pteridophytes
(2) Papillionaceous corolla (2) Algae
(3) Gamopetalous (3) Bryophytes
(4) Both (1) & (3) (4) Gymnosperms
3. Members of family Brassicaceae are 5. All of the following are vascular embryophytes,
characterized by all, except except
(1) Cruciform corolla (1) Bryophytes
(2) Tetradynamous stamens (2) Pteridophytes
(3) Parietal placentation (3) Gymnosperms
(4) Monocarpellary ovary (4) Angiosperms

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Q.119 (Plant Kingdom: Plant groups) (3) Dicot stem

1. In Selaginella the rhizophore is present on (4) Monocot stem
(1) Gametophytic plant body 4. Radial vascular bundle with polyarch condition
(2) Sporophytic plant body can be seen in
(3) Male prothallus (1) Dicot Root (2) Monocot Root
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Dicot Stem (4) Monocot Stem
2. In gymnosperms, the female gametophyte is also 5. Which of the following are monocots?
known as a) Mango
(1) Ovary (2) Endosperm b) Maize
(3) Ovule (4) Megaspore c) China rose
3. Female gametophyte of gymnosperms is d) Sugarcane
(1) Haploid (1) a&b (2) b & c
(2) Formed before fertilization (3) c&d (4) b & d
(3) Independent from sporophytic plant body
(4) Both (1) & (2) Q.115 (Photosynthesis in higher plants: Cyclic
4. First indication of seed habit was in photophosphorylation)
(1) Homosporous bryophytes 1. In which of the following PSI is operative and
(2) Homosporous pteridophytes external source of electrons is not required ?
(3) Heterosporous pteridophytes (1) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Heterosporous gymnosperms (2) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
5. Read the following statements and choose the (3) Calvin cycle
correct option (4) C4 cycle
Statement A: Marchantia is a dioecious hence 2. Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs in
has separate gametophytic plant bodies for male (1) Stroma lamellae
& female sex organs. (2) Outer membrane of chloroplast
Statement B: Antheridiophores and (3) Grana lamellae
archegoniophores bear male & female sex (4) Stroma region
organs respectively in Marchantia. 3. Stroma lamellae of chloroplast have
(1) Only statement A is correct. (1) Both PS-II and PS-I
(2) Only statement B is correct. (2) PS-II only
(3) Both statements A & B are correct. (3) PS-I only
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect. (4) All PS-I, PS-II and NADP reductase enzyme
4. Cyclic photophosphorylation is called cyclic
Q.109 (Anatomy of flowering plants: Root) because
1. Presence of radial vascular bundles is a (1) Protons move in a cyclic manner
characteristic feature of (2) External source for electron is required
(1) Dicot root (3) Electrons move in a cyclic manner
(2) Stem (4) Electrons move from PS-II to PS-I in a cyclic
(3) Monocot root manner
(4) Both (1) & (3) 5. Select the incorrect statement about cyclic
2. Stems have photophosphorylation.
(1) Radial vascular bundles (1) The excited electron from P700 centre does
(2) Conjoint vascular bundles not pass on to NADP+ but is cycled back to
(3) Open vascular bundles in both monocots & the PS- I complex through the electron
dicots transport chain
(4) Closed vascular bundles in both monocots & (2) A possible location where this could be
dicots happening is the stroma lamellae
3. Radial vascular bundle with diarch to hexarch (3) PS II does not participates in cyclic
condition can be seen in photophosphorylation
(1) Dicot root (4) It occurs in stroma region of chloroplast.
(2) Monocot root
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Q.127 (Anatomy of flowering plants: Meristematic (3) Cork cambium

tissues) (4) Both (1) and (3)
1. The meristem that occurs in the mature regions of Q.133 (Morphology of flowering plants: Flower
roots and shoots of many plants, particularly symmetry)
those that produce woody axis and appear later 1. A flower which can be divided into two similar
than primary meristem is called halves only in one particular vertical plane, also
(1) Apical meristem known as zygomorphic, is found in all except
(2) Secondary meristem (1) Mustard
(3) Intercalary meristem (2) Gulmohur
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Bean
2. Secondary meristem includes all of the given (4) Cassia
tissues except 2. When flower can be divided into two equal radial
(1) Vascular cambium in roots halves in any radial plane passing through the
(2) Interfascicular cambium centre, it is said to be
(3) Cork-cambium (1) Zygomorphic
(4) Intercalary meristem (2) Actinomorphic
3. The meristem which occurs between mature (3) Asymmetric
tissues also known as intercalary meristem is (4) Both (1) and (3)
responsible for 3. Actinomorphic flowers are seen in all except
(1) Regeneration of grass stems parts removed by (1) Mustard
the grazing herbivores (2) Datura
(2) Cork formation in grasses (3) Chilli
(3) Secondary growth in dicots (4) Bean
(4) Increasing girth & width in plants 4. Trifolium, a member of family Fabaceae has
4. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t. meristem (1) Pentamerous flower
(1) Intrafascicular cambium – Secondary (2) Trimerous flower
meristem (3) Tetramerous flower
(2) Interfascicular cambium – Secondary (4) Asymmetric flower
meristem 5. Flower which does not has any symmetry is
(3) Intercalary meristem - Primary meristem found in
(4) Cork cambium - Lateral meristem (1) Datura
5. Which of the following is responsible for (2) Chilli
secondary growth in plants? (3) Canna
(1) Fascicular vascular cambium (4) Delonix
(2) Intercalary meristem 



 

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ANSWERS
Q.130 (The Living World: Taxonomic Categories) Q.106 (Plant Kingdom: Angiosperm)
1. (2) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2 (1)
3. (1) 3 (4)
4. (4) 4. (4)
5. (1)
5. (2) Q.119 (Plant Kingdom: Plant groups)
Q.134 (Morphology of Flowering plants: The stem) 1. (2)
1. (2) 2 (2)
3 (4)
2. (4)
4. (3)
3. (3) 5. (3)
4. (2) Q.109 (Anatomy of flowering plants: Root)
5. (4) 1. (4)
2 (2)
Q.112 (Cell Cycle and cell division : Interphase) 3 (1)
1. (1) 4. (2)
2. (2) 5. (4)
Q.115 (Photosynthesis in higher plants: Cyclic
3. (1) photophosphorylation)
4. (2) 1. (1)
5. (3) 2. (1)
3. (3)
Q.121 (Semi technical description of a typical
4. (3)
flowering plant: Description of some 5. (4)
important families) Q.127 (Anatomy of flowering plants: Meristematic
1. (2) tissues)
2. (1) 1. (2)
3. (2) 2 (4)
4. (2) 3 (1)
5. (4) 4 (1)
Q.102 (Morphology of flowering plants: 5 (4)
Q.133 (Morphology of flowering plants: Flower
Brassicaceae) symmetry)
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2 (2)
3 (4)
3. (4) 4 (1)
4. (4) 5 (3)
5. (1)




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Q.66 (Nomenclature)
1. The IUPAC name of the compound 4. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound
is
O
C–NH–C 6H5 is

(1) N-phenyl cyclohexyl formaldehyde

(2) N-phenylcyclohexanecarboxamide
(1) 2- Formyl-5-nitrochlorobenzene
(3) Cyclohexyl-N-phenyl carboxamide
(2) 3-Chloro-4-formylnitrobenzene
(4) N- Phenylbenzamide
(3) 2-Chloro-4-nitrobenzaldehyde
2. Correct order of priority of functional group during the
IUPAC nomenclature is (4) 2-Chloro-4-nitrocarbaldehyde
5. The prefix iso-is used for
O O
(1) O
–C–OR > –C–OH > –SO 3H >–C–Cl (1) (2)
O O O
(2)
–C–OH >–SO3H > –C–OR > – C–Cl
O O O
(3)
–C–OH > –C–OR > –C–Cl > –SO3H (3) (4)

O O O
(4)
–SO3H > –C–OH > –C–Cl > –C–OR
70. (Resonating structures)
3. Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC 1. The most stable resonating structure among the
system? following is
(1) (2)
(1) : Pentanoyl chloride
(3) (4) All are equally stable
(2) :3-Ethyl-4-methylhexa-1, 5-diene
2. The correct order of stability of the following resonating
structure is

(3) :1-Bromo-3-chlorocyclohex-2-ene

I II III
(1) I < III > II (2) III > II > I
(4) : 3-Methylcyclohexene
(3) II > I > III (4) I > II > III

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3. Which of the following is an incorrect condition of 3. If sulphur (S8) is heated at 900 K, it gets converted to
Resonance? S2 and its initial pressure 1 atm falls to 75% at
(1) Arrangement of atoms must be identical equilibrium, then the value of Kp is equal to
(2) Canonical forms may have different number of (1) 1.8 (2) 1.33
covalent bonds
(2) 2.1 (4) 0.75
(3) Resonance involves delocalisation of  as well as
4. In the reaction, C(s) + CO2(g) 
 2CO(g), the
 electrons
equilibrium pressure is 9 atm. If 50% of CO2 reacts,
(4) All resonance structure do not contribute equally
then Kp is equal to
to the hybrid
4. The correct order of stability is (1) 9 atm (2) 16 atm
(3) 12 atm (4) 6 atm
(a) (b) (c)
5. 

NH4COONH2(s) 
 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)
(1) b> c > a (2) a > b > c
(3) b > a > c (4) c > a > b If total pressure at equilibrium is P, then Kp of the
above equilibrium will be
5. Which among the following is not a resonating
4 3
structure of each others? (1) P2 (2) P
272
4 2 P
(3) P (4)
27 9
Q. 61 (Oxidation Number)
(1)
1. Chlorine shows oxidation state in the range of
(1) –1 to +5 (2) –1 to +7
(2)
(3) –3 to +7 (4) –3 to +5
2. Which among the following elements shows only one
oxidation state?
(3) (1) S (2) O
(3) F (4) P
3. Oxidation states of carbon in carbon suboxide are
(4)
(1) +2 & +4 (2) zero & +3

86. (Equilibrium constant) (3) +2 & +3 (4) Zero & +2

1. If for the equilibrium, 4. Phosphorous on reaction with dilute alkali undergoes


PCl5(g) 
 PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) disproportionation reaction. Oxidation states of
The value of equilibrium constant, KC is 1.1 × 10–2 at phosphorous in products are
400 K, then the value of Kp at the same temperature (1) –3 & +5 (2) –1 & +3
will be
(3) +1 & –3 (4) –1 & +4
(1) 0.366 (2) 0.811
(3) 0.92 (4) 0.126 5. Oxidation state of central bromine atom in
tribromooctaoxide is
2. For the equilibrium,

XY2(g)   X(g) + Y2(g), XY2 is 25% dissociated (1) +2 (2) +4
and the total pressure at equilibrium is P. The value (3) +7 (4) +6
KP is equal to
Q. 71 (Isomerism)
P P
(1) (2) 1. Total number of structural isomers of C4H8 is
8 15

P 3P (1) 5 (2) 6
(3) (4)
12 13 (3) 4 (4) 3

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2. The compound(s) which will show geometrical 5. Energy of which of the following transitions in
isomerism is/are hydrogen atom is maximum?
(1) n = 5 to n = 4 (2) n = 3 to n = 2

(1) (2) CH2=C=CH2 (3) n = 6 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 1

Q. 84 (H = U + ngRT)
(3) PhCH=CHPh (4) Both (1) & (3) 1. The difference in heat of reaction at constant pressure
and at constant valume for the combustion of liquid
3. Total number of isomers obtained by monochlorination
Benzene at 27°C (in kJ\mol)
of 3-methylpentane is
(1) –2.56 (2) –3.19
(1) 7 (2) 6
(3) –3.74 (4) –4.18
(3) 5 (4) 8
2. For which reaction, H° < E°?
4. Number of structural isomers of C7H16 will be
(1) A(s)  B(g) + C(g)
(1) 8 (2) 10
(2) AB2(g)  AB(g) + B(g)
(3) 9 (4) 7
(3) A2(g) + B2(g)  2AB(g)
5. W hich among the f ollowing will not show
tautomerism? (4) A(g) + 3B(g)  AB3(g)
3. For the reaction,
O O
A(s) + 3/2O2(g)  2B(g), U°= –742.7 kJ/mol.
(1) (2) The value of H° at 27°C is
(1) –741.46 kJ (2) –545.51 kJ
(3) –61.26 kJ (4) –812.94 kJ
O O 4. For reversible isothermal evaporation of 18 g of water
at 100°C, the U will be [Given: Hvap of water = 540
(3) (4) cal/g and R = 2 cal mol–1K–1)
(1) 8142 cal (2) 8974 cal
Q. 82 (Line spectrum of Hydrogen) (3) 8625 cal (4) 8811 cal
1. Which electronic transition in He + produces the 5. In a closed container of 2 litre, 1 mol of each gas A
radiation of same wavelength as the second line in and B react at 400 K and 50 atm to form 2 mol of
the Lyman series of H-spectrum? gas D.
(1) n2 = 4 to n1 =2 (2) n2 = 6 to n1 = 2 A(g) + B(g)  2 D(g), H = –300 kJ
(3) n2 = 5 to n1 = 3 (4) n2 = 6 to n1 = 1 If final pressure of container is 30 atm then value of
2. Wavelength of the first line of He+ of Balmer series is U for the reaction at 400 K will be [Given : 1 lit-atm
(RH = 1.1 × 105 cm–1) = 101.3 J and Assume non-ideal behaviour]
(1) 1.75 × 10–6 cm (2) 2.1 × 10–8 cm (1) –305.16 kJ (2) –125.51 kJ
(3) 1.64 × 10–5 cm (4) 4.81 × 10–7 cm (3) –295.94 kJ (4) –300 kJ
3. Which spectral series of hydrogen atom fall(s) in Q. 88 (Enthalpy of Combustion)
infrared region?
1. Consider the combustion of ethane,
(1) Lyman (2) Brackett
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g)  4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l),
(3) Balmer (4) Both (1) & (2)
H = –x kJ
4. When electron falls from 5th excited state of hydrogen
atom to the ground state then the maximum number the enthalpy of combustion of ethane (in kJ/mol) is
of Balmer lines obtained is given by
(1) 6 (2) 4 (1) –x (2) –2x
(3) 3 (4) 5 (3) –x/2 (4) –x2

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2. Enthalpy of which of the following reactions represents C(CH3 )2 = C = C(CH3 )2

heat of combustion?
(1) 2 (2) 3
1
(1) C(s)  O2 (g)  CO(g) (3) 4 (4) 5
2
3. How many of the following H-atoms lie in one
1 plane?
(2) CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
2 CH2 = C = C = CH2
(1) 1 (2) 2
1
(3) N2 (g)  O 2 (g)  N2 O(g)
(3) 3 (4) 4
2
4. Which of the following is optically active?
(4) 2NO(g)  O 2 (g)  N2O 4 (g)
(1) CH2=C=CH2
3. The standard enthalpies of formation of CO2(g), H2O(l)
(2) CH3CH=C=CHCH3
and glucose(s) at 25°C are –400 kJ/mol, –300 kJ/mol
and –1300 kJ/mol respectively. The standard enthalpy (3) C(CH3 )2 = C = C(CH3 )2
of combustion per gram of glucose at 25°C is
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) +2900 kJ (2) –2900 kJ
5. Which of the following is an allene?
(3) –16.11 kJ (4) +16.11 kJ
(1) CH2 = C = CH2
4. The standard heat of combustion of solid Boron is
equal to (2) CH3– CH = N – OH
(3) CH2 = CH − Cl
 f H(B2O3 )  f H(B 2O3 )
(1) (2) (4) CH2 = CH – CH3
2 3
Q.81. (Reactions with SO2Cl2, Cl2 and LiAlH4)

3   f H(B2 O3 ) 2   f H(B2 O3 )
(3) (4) CH3
2 3 SO2Cl 2/hv
1. A (major), A is
5. Which of the following reactions does not represent
combustion?
CH2 – Cl CH3
1 (1) (2)
(1) N2 (g)  O 2 (g)  N2 O(g)
2 Cl

1
(2) Cl2 (g)  O 2 (g)  Cl2 O(g) CH 3
2
(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) S(s)  O2 (g)  SO2 (g) Cl
1
(4) F2 (g)  O 2 (g)  F2 O(g)
2. Cl2
  B (major), B is
2 heat

Question.78 (Allene) Cl
(1) (2) Cl
1. How many of the following H-atoms lie in one
plane? Cl
CH2=C=CH2 Cl

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) (4)

(3) 3 (4) 4 Cl

2. How many of the following C-atoms lie in one

plane?

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(1) (2)

3. LiAlH4
 P (major), P is
(3) (4) Both (1) and (3)
Cl

(i) CH3CH2Li (2) (CH3CH2)3 Al 5. LiAlH4

Cl  P (major), P is

(3) CH3CH2CH3 (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) (2)

4. LiAlH4
 Q (major), Q is (3) (4) Both (1) and (2)
Cl

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CSS - 01
CHEMISTRY [ANSWER]
Q. 61 (Oxidation Number) Q.86 . (Equilibrium constant)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (3)
3. (4) 2. (2)
4. (3) 3. (2)
5. (2) 4. (3)
Q. 71 (Isomerism) 5. (2)
1. (1) Q. 66 (Nomenclature)
2. (3) 1. (2)
3. (4)
2. (2)
4. (3)
5. (3) 3. (3)
Q. 82 (Line spectrum of Hydrogen) 4. (3)
1. (2) 5. (1)
2. (3) Q. 70 (Resonating structures)
3. (2) 1. (2)
4. (2) 2. (4)
5. (4)
3. (3)
Q. 84 (H = U + ngRT)
1. (3) 4. (1)
2. (4) 5. (4)
3. (1) Q.86 . (Equilibrium constant)
4. (2) 1. (1)
5. (3) 2. (2)
Q. 88 (Enthalpy of Combustion)
3. (2)
1. (3)
2. (2) 4. (3)
3. (3) 5. (2)
4. (1) Q.81 . (Reactions with SO2Cl2, Cl2 and LiAlH4)
5. (4) 1. (1)
Q. 66 (Nomenclature) 2. (1)
1. (2) 3. (3)
2. (2)
4. (2)
3. (3)
4. (3) 5. (1)
5. (1) Q.78 . (Allene)
Q. 70 (Resonating structures) 1. (2)
1. (2) 2. (4)
2. (4) 3. (4)
3. (3)
4. (2)
4. (1)
5. (1)
5. (4)

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Physics

Q.11 (Tension in Rotating Rod)
1. A rod of length L and uniform mass m, is pivoted
at one end and is rotated with a uniform angular
velocity in a horizontal plane. The value of tension
force developed in the rod at a distance x from the
pivot end is
4. A rod of length L and uniform mass m, is pivoted
at one end and is rotated with a uniform angular
velocity in a horizontal plane. A small block of
same mass is attached to the free end of the rod.
The value of tension force developed in the
rod at a distance L/3 from the pivot end is

15m2 L m2L
m2 2 2 m2 (1) (2)
(1) (L – x ) (2) (L2 – x2 ) 9 9
2L 4L
13m2 L 13m2 L
(3) (4)
m2 2 m2 8 9
(3) (x ) (4) (L2 + x2 )
2L 2L 5. In the above case, the rod is most likely to break at
2. In the above case, the graph between the Tension (1) Pivoted end
and the distance from the pivot end is (2) Free End
(1) Straight Line (2) Circular
(3) Mid Point
(3) Parabaolic (4) Elliptical
(4) A distance L/3 from Pivoted end
3. A rod of length L and uniform mass m, is pivoted
13. (Spring Mass System)
at one end and is rotated with a uniform angular
velocity in a horizontal plane. The value of x for 1. A block of mass 4 kg is attached to a massless
point P, where tension force developed in the rod ideal spring and suspended vertically from a
1 ceiling. Initially the spring is un-stretched when the
is of that at O is block is released from rest. Find the
9
maximum speed of the block [Take spring constant
= 100 N/m and g = 10 m/s2]

2 2 2
(1) L (2) L
3 3
(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s
2 2 2
(3) L (4) L (3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s
5 3

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2. A block of mass 4 kg is attached to a massless 5. Two blocks of mass 2kg are connected by
ideal spring and suspended vertically from a massless ideal spring constant k=10N/m. The
ceiling. Initially the spring is un-stretched when the upper block is suspended from roof by a light
block is released from rest. Find the maximum inextensible strings A. The spring is initially un-
extension in the spring [Take spring stretched. The lower block given an initial velocity
constant = 100 N/m and g = 10 m/s2] 2m/s downwards. The minimum tension
developed in the string connected to the ceiling is
nearest to

(1) 0.4 m (2) 2 m

(3) 8 cm (4) 0.8 m
3. Two blocks of mass 6 kg and 12 kg ae connected
with a massless string and a massless spring in
between them. String goes over a massless and
frictionless pulley as shown in the figure. Initially
the spring is un-stretched. When 3 kg block
is released from rest, minimum normal contact
force between 10 kg block, and the surface in
contact with it will be (Take g = 10m/s2)
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N
(3) 18.1 N (4) 21 N
Q.9 (Friction)
1. A small block of mass m, is projected with a speed
2 m/s, on a horizontal smooth floor which merges
into a rough horizontal circular ring (in shape of a
quarter circle and moves along its inside) as shown
in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the
block and circular path is 0.2. If the radius of the
circular path is 2 m, then the speed of the block
when it reaches end of circular path is (the figure
-
( )
shows top view) (take e 10 =0.73)

(1) 30 N (2) 60 N
(3) 40 N (4) Zero
4. Two blocks of mass 2kg are connected by
massless ideal spring constant k=10N/m. The
(1) 0.57 m/s (2) 1.1 m/s
upper block is suspended from roof by a light
(3) 1.46 m/s (4) 2.1 m/s
inextensible strings A. The spring is initially un-
stretched. The lower block is released from rest. 2. A small block of mass 0.5 kg, is projected with
Find the maximum tension developed in the speed of 2 m/s on a horizontal smooth floor which
string connected to the ceiling merges into a rough horizontal circular ring (in
shape of a quarter circle and moves along its
inside) as shown in the figure. The coefficient of
friction between the block and circular path is 0.2.
If the radius of the circular path is 2 m, then the
friction force acting on the block when it reaches
end of circular path is (the figure shows top view)

(1) 5 N (2) 10 N
(3) 20 N (4) 60 N (1) 0.456 N (2) 1.01 N
(3) 1.5 N (4) 0.106 N
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3. A small block of mass 2 kg, is projected on a 1. Two moles of Helium gas undergoes a cyclic
horizontal smooth floor, with speed 4 m/s, which process as shown in figure. Assume gas to be
ideal. The net change in heat energy is
merges into a rough vertical circular path (in shape
of a quarter circle) as shown in the figure. The
coefficient of friction between the block and circular
path is 0.2. If the radius of the circular path is 0.2
m, then the speed of the block when it reaches end
of circular path is (the figure shows side view)

(1) 1000 J (2) 1050 J

(3) 1153 J (4) 1100 J
2. The pressure of a monoatomic gas increases
linearly from 4 × 105 N/m2 to 8 × 105 N/m2, When
its volume increases from 0.2 m3 to 0.5 m3. The
(1) 2 m/s (2) 2.7 m/s amount of heat supplied is

(3) 3.3 m/s (4) 3.8 m/s (1) 6.6 × 105 J (2) 4.8 × 105 J

4. A block of mass 0.5 kg is constrained to move (3) 1.8 × 105 J (4) 5.6 × 105 J

inside a ring of radius 2 m which is fixed on a 3. A vessel contains 5 mole of O2. The system is
given heat at constant pressure. As a result the gas
smooth table. At time t = 0 block is moving along
expands and does 120 J of work. The heat
the inside of the ring (i.e. in the tangential direction) supplied to gas is
with velocity 4 m/s. The coefficient of (1) 310 J (2) 390 J
friction between the block and the ring is 0.4.
(3) 420 J (4) 560 J
The ring will stop moving at time t equal to
4. Heat energy absorbed/released by a system in
(1) 2 s (2) 1 s going through a cyclic process shown in figure is

(3) 4 s (4) infinity

5. A block of mass 0.5 kg is constrained to move

inside a ring of radius 2 m which is fixed on a
smooth table. At time t = 0 block is moving along
the inside of the ring (i.e. in the tangential
direction) with velocity 4 m/s.. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the ring is 0.4.
The variation of speed of the block as a function
of time is best represented by

(1) 102  J (2) 103  J

(1) (2)
(3) 104  J (4) 107  J
5. 4 moles of diatomic ideal gas are heated at
constant pressure from 27°C to 327 ° C. The heat
 2 cal 
supplied to the gas is  R = 
 mole K
(3) (4)
(1) 3000 calorie (2) 6000 calorie
(3) 8000 calorie (4) 8400 calorie
Q.38. . (Thermodynamic Process)

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Q.40. (Velocity of efflux) height. Then the depth of upper hole from top of
1. A liquid of density  filled in a container to height liquid is
H; and a hole is made at a height h from base.
Time taken by liquid to reach to ground is

H H
(1)
6

32 2  (2)
6

32 2 
2(H-h) 2h H H
(1)
g
(2)
g
(3)
3

3–2 2  (4)
6

32 2 
2H 5. A container holds two immiscible ideal fluids of
(3) (4) Both (1) and (2) H
g density d and 2d each of height as shown in
2
2. A container is filled with liquid upto height 4 m. figure/. The height h as shown in figure at which
There are two holes in the container as shown in hole should be punched, so range of liquid is
figure. If the range of water coming out from the maximum
holes are equal then the distance between the
holes is

(1) 1 m (2) 2 m
(3) 1.2 m (4) 1.5 m
H H
3. A container is filled with a liquid up to height H as (1) (2)
2 4
shown in figure. There are two holes in the
H 3
container such that water coming out from them (3) (4) H
6 8
have same range. If the range of water coming out
Q. 31 (Ideal Gas)
3
of the holes is equal to   H . Then the distance 1. which among the following equation is valid for
4
ideal gas? (Symbols have their usual meaning)
X between the holes is
(1) Cp–Cv = 0.5 R
(2) Cp–Cv = 0.002 R
(3) Cp –Cv = R
(4) Cpv = 0.03 R
2. In which of the following conditions a real gas
behave like an ideal gas?
(1) High pressure, low temperature
(2) Low pressure, high temperature
(3) Low pressure, low temperature
7 7 (4) High pressure, high temperature
(1) H (2) H
2 4 3. An actual gas deviates from perfect gas behaviour
as its molecules?
7 3H
(3) H (4) (1) Have definite size
8 2
(2) Attract each other
4. A container is filled with a liquid upto a height H
(3) Are not spherical
there are two holes in the wall of container; such
that water coming out from them have equal range. (4) Both (1) and (2)
If the range is equal to one third of maximum

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4. A student perform experiment on a gas in a v

laboratory, he found that Cp – Cv = 0.1 R (Where (1) Must be integral multiple of
4l
symbol have their used meaning)
The behaviour of the gas will be v
(2) Must be integral multiple of
(1) Real 3l
(2) Ideal v
(3) Must be integral multiple of
(3) May be ideal or Real 2l
(4) Can’t determine 3v
(4) Must be integral multiple of
Q.33 (SHM) 2l
1. A particle is performing simple hormonic motion on 2. A string of linear mass density 0.2 kg/m has length
straight line with time period T. The time taken by l = 0.6 m is fixed at both the ends and streteched
the particle to travel from mean position to half of such that it has a tension of 80 N. The string
its magnitude of amplitude will be vibrates in 3 segments with maximum amplitude of
T T 0.5 cm. The transverse velocity amplitude is
(1) (2)
6 4 (1) 1.57 m/s (2) 6.28 m/s
T T (3) 3.14 m/s (4) 9.42 m/s
(3) (4)
3 12 3. If the wire is gently taped in vertical direction half-
2. A particle is performing simple hormonic motion on way between the pulley as shown in figure. The
straight line with time period T. The minimum time fundamental frequency of vibration is f0 If the block
taken by the particle to travel from right extreme
as shown the figure immersed in the water then
position to half of its amplitude will be
fundamental frequency of vibration will be
T T
(1) (2)
6 4
T T
(3) (4)
3 12
3. A particle is performing simple hormonic motion on
the straight line with time period 12 second. If it
starts its journey from mean position then total (1) Greater than f0
distance travelled by the particle in first 5 second (2) Less than f0
will be (Assume amplitude of the particle is A) (3) May be less than or greater than f0
(1) 2 A (2) A (4) remains same
3A A 4. The extension in a string, obeying Hooke’s law, is
(3) (4)
2 2 x. The speed of the sound in stretched string is v if
4. A particle performing simple hormonic motion on the extension in the string is increased to 1.21 x .
straight line with time period T and amplitude A. If The speed of sound will be (consider area of cross
it starts its journey from extreme, then section of string same)
displacement of the particle in time interval t = 0 to
T (1) 1.1 v (2) 0.61 v
t = will be
3 (3) 1.5 v (4) 0.75 v
A 3A 5. If the wire is gently tapped in vertical direction half
(1) (2) way between the pully as shown in figure. If mass
2 2
(3) A (4) Zero per unit length of the wire is  and up thrust force
by the liquid on the block is F then fundamental
5. A particle is performing simple harmonic motion on
straight line with time period 24 second and frequency of vibration of string will be
amplitude 20 cm. if it starts moving from mean
position. Then average velocity of the particle
between t = 0 to t = 14 second. will be
10 15
(1) cm/s (2) cm/s
7 7
5
(3) cm/s (4) Zero
7
Q.37. (Standing wave in string)
1. A standing wave is produced in a string clamped at 1 Mg 1 Mg
(1) (2)
both ends, the frequency of Vibration of string 2l  4l 

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1 Mg – F 1 Mg  F 5. Potential energy of a particle executing SHM is

(3) (4)
2l  4l 
plotted against the displacement of particle. This
Q.39. (Simple Harmonic Motion)
graph should be a/an
1. For a particle which is undergoing simple harmonic
(1) Straight line
motion acceleration versus displacement graph
(2) Elliptical Curve
will be
(3) Parabolic Curve
(1) An ellipse (2) A straight line
(4) Sinusoidal Curve
(3) A circle (4) A parabola
Q.22 (P-V graph of thermodynamics process)
2. If a particle is executing simple harmonic motion,

then total oscillating energy of the particle is plotted 1. The following are the P-V diagrams for cyclic

against an unknown quantity. If the graph obtained process for a gas

is a straight line, then that unknown quantity can

be
(1) (2)
(1) Time (2) Displacement

(3) Speed of particle (4) All of the above

3. For a particle which is under going simple

harmonic motion, displacement of the particle is

plotted against time. The graph should be a/an (3) (4)

(1) Straight line

In which of the above graph heat is absorbed?

(2) Elliptical Curve

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Parabolic Curve
(3) 3 (4) 4
(4) Sinusoidal curve
2. In which of the following, P-V diagram for a cyclic
4. For a particle which in under going simple process for a gas, heat is released.

harmonic motion, velocity of the particle V is

plotted against the displacement x.

This curve will be (Assume angular frequency of (A) (B)

the particle greater than 1)

(1) An ellipse
(C) (D)
(2) A straight line
(1) D (2) C
(3) A circle (3) B (4) A

(4) A parabola
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3. In which of the following P-V diagram for a cyclic

process for a gas, heat is absorbed

(C) (D)

(A) (B)
(1) D (2) C
(3) B (4) A
5. In which of the following P-V diagram for a cyclic
process for a gas, heat is released
(C) (D)

(1) A, B and D (2) C, B and A

(A) (B)
(3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D

4. In which of the following P-V diagram for a cyclic

process for a gas, heat is released

(C) (D)

(1) A,B and D (2) C and D

(3) B and D (4) A, B and C
(A) (B)

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Physics
(ANSWERS Key)

Q.11 (Tension in Rotating Rod) Q. 31 (Ideal Gas)

1. (1) 1. (3)

2. (3) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (4)
4. (4) 4. (1)
5. (1) Q.33 (S.H.M.)
13. (Spring Mass System) 1. (4)
1. (2) 2. (1)
2. (4) 3. (3)
3. (4) 4. (2)
4. (4) 5. (3)
5. (3) Q.37. (Standing wave in string)
Q.9 (Friction) 1. (3)
1. (3) 2. (1)
2. (4) 3. (2)
3. (3) 4. (1)
4. (4) 5. (3)
5. (1) Q.39. (Simple Harmonic Motion )
Q.38. (Thermodynamic Process) 1. (2)
1. (3) 2. (4)
2. (1) 3. (4)
3. (3) 4. (1)
4. (1) 5. (3)
5. (4) Q.22 (P-V graph of thermodynamics process)
Q.40 (Velocity of efflux) 1. (4)
1. (2) 2. (3)
2. (2) 3. (4)

3. (2) 4. (4)
4. (1) 5. (2)
5. (4)
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ZOOLOGY
Q.142. (Mammalia) (4) 8th, 9th and 10th pair of ribs are false ribs that
1. An oviparous endothermic mammal is do not articulate with sternum directly.
(1) Ornithorhynchus (2) Canis 2. Scapula is a triangular bone that extends on the
(3) Panthera (4) Felis backside of thorax between
2. Select the incorrect match (1) 3rd and 5th ribs (2) 1st and 7th ribs
(1) Equus - Homeotherm (3) 2nd and 7th ribs (4) 5th and 12th ribs
(2) Elephas - Viviparity 3. Odd one w.r.t. Pectoral girdle is
(3) Delphinus - Mammary glands (1) Scapula (2) Clavicle
(4) Macaca - Lacks body hair (3) Coxal bone (4) Collar bone
3. A non-placental mammal is 4. Each Coxal bone is formed of
(1) Platypus (2) Elephant (1) Ilium, pubis and scapula
(3) Camel (4) Human (2) Ilium, pubis and ischium
4. Odd one w.r.t. mammalian characteristic is (3) Ileum, ischium and pubis
presence of (4) Scapula, clavicle and humerus
(1) Mammary glands 5. Read the statements
(2) 12 pairs of cranial nerves (i) Scapula consists of spine that projects as A
(3) Internal fertilization process.
(4) 3 chambered heart (ii) Scapula has B cavity that articulates with C to
5. Monotremes differ from placental mammals in form shoulder joint.
(1) having mammary glands Here, A, B and C respectively are
(2) having nipples over mammary glands (1) Acromion, glenoid, humerus
(3) lacking homeothermy (2) Coracoid, glenoid, femur
(4) being oviparous (3) Acetabulum, acromion and humerus
Q.175. (Skeletal system) (4) Coracoid, acetabulum and femur
1. Choose the incorrect statement Q.162. (Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal
(1) Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs attached Morphology)
ventrally to sternum via hyaline cartilage. 1. Spiracles are small holes which aid in respiration
(2) Vertebrochondral ribs directly articulate with and are present on the _______ side of the body.
sternum. Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
(3) Vertebral ribs are floating ribs that play role to (1) Dorsal (2) Medial
protect kidneys. (3) Lateral (4) Ventral

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2. The total number of spiracles present in a 2. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
cockroach are option.
(1) 10 (2) 20 Mushroom gland: Utricular gland: Phallic gland:
(3) 60 (4) 40 _______
3. The titillator in a cockroach in associated with (1) Gonapophyses (2) Seminal vesicles
(1) Left phallomere (2) Right phallomere (3) Conglobate gland (4) Spermatheca
(3) No phallomere (4) Both phallomeres 3. _______secretes the outermost layer of
4. On the extreme left of the left phallomere a long spermatophore. Choose the option which fills the
slender arm with a curved hook, arises called the blank correctly.
(1) Anal cercus (2) Caudal style (1) Ejaculatory duct (2) Mushroom gland
(3) Titillator (4) Ejaculatory duct (3) Phallic gland (4) External genitalia
5. Titillator is associated with the function of 4. Choose the odd one w.r.t. reproductive system of
(1) Digestion (2) Respiration a male cockroach.
(3) Reproduction (4) Breathing (1) Mushroom gland (2) Phallomeres
Q.173. (Chemical Control and Coordination) (3) Phallic gland (4) Collaterial gland
1. Identify the feature associated with Addison’s 5. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. male
disease cockroach.
(1) Hirsutism (1) Secretion of mushroom gland or utricular
(2) Bronze pigmentation of skin gland nourishes the sperms.
(3) High blood pressure (2) Spermatophore is a pear-shaped capsule
(4) Muscle hypertrophy containing spermatic fluid with sperms.
2. Hypersecretion of cortisol results in (3) Phallic gland opens into the genital pouch.
(1) Cushing’s disease (2) Addison’s disease (4) Conglobate glands consists of three small
(3) Goitre (4) Gigantism irregular chitinous plates known as
3. Hormone secreted by adrenal cortex is phallomeres.
(1) Thyroxine (2) Renin Q.146. (Chordates)
(3) Cortisol (4) Melatonin 1. Members of which of the following classes of
4. Hypersecretion of cortisol will most likely cause all organisms have closed circulation and circular
of the following except suctorial mouth without jaws?
(1) Hyperglycemia (1) Cyclostomata (2) Osteichthyes
(2) Hirsutism (3) Chondrichthyes (4) Amphibia
(3) Bronze pigmentation of skin 2. Choose the incorrect feature w.r.t. class
(4) High blood pressure Chondrichthyes.
5. Primary adrenal insufficiency i.e. when adrenal (1) Gill slits are separate without operculum.
glands do not produce sufficient hormones is also (2) Teeth are modified placoid scales which are
called backwardly directed.
(1) Cushing’s disease (2) Addison’s disease (3) Air bladder is present
(3) Diabetes mellitus (4) Diabetes insipidus (4) Pelvic fins in males bear claspers
Q.179. (Reproductive system of Cockroach) 3. General features of Osteichthyes include all
1. In a male cockroach, the sperms in the seminal except
vesicles are glued together in the form of bundles (1) Air bladder is present and regulates buoyancy.
called (2) Streamlined body with bony endoskeleton.
(1) Spermatophore (2) Spermatheca (3) Skin contains placoid scales.
(3) Seminal vesicles (4) Phallomeres (4) Mouth is mostly terminal

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4.  Aquatic as well as terrestrial habitat 3. Cell junctions hold the cells of all except
 Division of body into head & trunk (1) Smooth muscles
 Three chambered heart (2) Cardiac muscles

Above listed features are characteristic of (3) Epithelial tissue

members of class (4) Skeletal muscle

(1) Amphibia (2) Cyclostomata 4. Cartilage is not present in

(3) Chondrichthyes (4) Osteichthyes (1) Outer ear joints

5. Body is devoid of scales and paired fins, in (2) Between skull bones

members of class (3) Tip of nose

(1) Cyclostomata (2) Chondrichthyes (4) Between adjacent vertebrae

(3) Osteichthyes (4) Bony fishes 5. Simple epithelium cannot be

Q.180. (Reproductive system of Cockroach) (1) Squamous

1. Genital pouch in a male cockroach is bounded (2) Cuboidal

ventrally by (3) Columnar

(1) 9th sternum (2) 10th tergum (4) Stratified

(3) 9th tergum (4) 10th sternum Q.141. (Classification of Animals)

2. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. exoskeleton of 1. The animals in which blastopore forms mouth are

each segment of cockroach called

(1) Tergum - dorsal (1) Deuterostomes

(2) Sternum - ventral (2) Protostomes

(3) Pleura - lateral (3) Diploblastic

(4) Sternum - dorsal (4) Herbivores

3. Which of the following is bounded dorsally by 9th 2. Choose a set of animals which are protostomes

and 10th terga and ventrally by 9th sternum in a (1) Echinoderms, annelids, molluscs

male cockroach? (2) Annelids, arthropods, molluscs

(1) Testis (2) Genital pouch (3) Arthropods, molluscs, echinoderms

(3) Mushroom gland (4) Phallic gland (4) Molluscs, echinoderms, vertebrates

4. Genital pouch in a male cockroach contains all 3. The term for type of cleavage occurring in

except protostomes in which blastomeres have a

(1) Anus (2) Genital pore predetermined future is called

(3) Gonapophyses (4) Ejaculatory duct (1) Determinate

Q.155. (Epithelial tissue, Cartilage) (2) Indeterminate

1. The cell junctions that prevent the leakage of (3) Meroblastic

substances across tissues are (4) Discoidal

(1) Tight junctions 4. Read the following statements

(2) Adhering junctions Statement A: A type of cleavage in which

(3) Gap junctions blastomeres divide at an oblique angle to one

(4) Communication junctions another, so that each lies in a furrow created by the

2. The function of compound epithelium is primarily cells beneath them is called spiral cleavage.

(1) Secretion and absorption Statement B: A type of cleavage in which

(2) Movement of substances in one direction blastomeres divide in a symmetrical pattern,

(3) Diffusion of gases producing layers of cells directly on top of one

(4) To provide protection against chemical and another is called radial cleavage.

mechanical stresses. Choose the correct option

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(1) Only A is correct (2) Oxytocin

(2) Only B is correct (3) Prolactin
(3) Both A and B are correct (4) Luteinizing hormone
(4) Both A and B are incorrect 3. Formation of alveoli of mammary glands is
5. All eucoelomate triploblastic animals show primarily under the control of
(1) Division of labour (1) Progesterone
(2) Metamerism (2) Oxytocin
(3) Protostomy (3) Prolactin
(4) Deuterostomy (4) LH
Q.149. (Excretory products and their elimination) 4. Which of the following is not function of Luteinizing
1. Conditional reabsorption of water in DCT is also hormone?
known as (1) Ovulation
(1) Obligatory water reabsorption (2) Persistence of corpus luteum after ovulation
(2) Facultative water reabsorption (3) Secretion of androgens
(3) Active water reabsorption (4) Secretion of milk
(4) Reabsorption of water by simple diffusion but 5. Select the hormone having no direct effect on
not osmosis mammary glands
2. Which of the following substance is not actively (1) Progesterone (2) Oxytocin
reabsorbed in PCT? (3) Prolactin (4) LH
(1) Glucose (2) Amino acid Q.140. (Phylum – Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes)
+
(3) Na (4) Water 1. Asexually reproducing, cylindrical form in Obelia is
3. The percentage of glomerular filtrate which passes called
through urine per day is about (1) Polyp form (2) Medusa form
(1) 99% (2) 20% (3) Metagenesis (4) Metastasis
(3) 1% (4) 25% 2. Sexually reproducing, medusa form in Obelia is
4. Absorption of water takes place in initial segment (1) Umbrella shaped, sessile
of nephron by the process of (2) Free swimming, umbrella shaped
(1) Simple diffusion (2) Facilitated diffusion (3) Cylindrical and free swimming
(3) Active transport (4) Osmosis (4) Cylindrical and solitary
+
5. Conditional reabsorption of water and Na takes 3. Incomplete digestive system for extracellular
place in DCT with the help of hormones _______ digestion is present in
respectively by choosing correct option. (1) Fasciola (2) Taenia
(1) ADH and aldosterone (3) Ascaris (4) Pheretima
(2) Vasopressin and oxytocin 4. Which of the following animal lacks alimentary
(3) Cortisol and ADH canal and absorbs nutrients from host directly
(4) Renin and ANF through their body surface?
Q.161. (Mammary glands) (1) Fasciola (2) Hydra
1. Milk ejection hormone is (3) Taenia (4) Ascaris
(1) Progesterone (2) Oxytocin 5. In Obelia, polyp form produces medusa and
(3) Prolactin (4) LH medusa form produces polyp. This alternation of
2. Which hormone is commonly known as lactogenic generation is called
hormone? (1) Metamorphosis (2) Metastasis
(1) Progesterone (3) Metagenesis (4) Mutagenesis

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01
ZOOLOGY
Answer Key
Q.142. (Mammalia) 5. (4)
1. (1) Q.146. (Chordates)
2. (4) 1. (1)
3. (1) 2. (3)
4. (4) 3. (3)
5. (4) 4. (1)
Q.175. (Skeletal system) 5. (1)
1. (2) Q.180. (Reproductive system of Cockroach)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (4)
4. (2) 3. (2)
5. (1) 4. (4)
Q.162. (Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Q.155. (Epithelial tissue, Cartilage)
Morphology) 1. (1)
1. (3) 2. (4)
2. (2) 3. (4)
3. (1) 4. (2)
4. (3) 5. (4)
5. (3) Q.141. (Classification of Animals)
Q.173. (Chemical Control and Coordination) 1. (2)
1. (2) 2. (2)
2. (1) 3. (1)
3. (3) 4. (3)
4. (3) 5. (1)
5. (2) Q.149. (Excretory products and their elimination)
Q.179. (Reproductive system of Cockroach) 1. (2)
1. (1) 2. (4)
2. (3) 3. (3)
3. (3) 4. (4)
4. (4) 5. (1)

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 CSS-01 Zoology

Q.161. (Mammary glands) Q.140. (Phylum – Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes)

1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (3) 2. (2)
3. (1) 3. (1)
4. (4) 4. (3)
5. (4) 5. (3)

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