Full Syllabus Test

[FST-04] FULL SYLLABUS TEST [TEST ID-204]
ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23
TEST DATE : 06-10-2022
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :

• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:
I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022

All India Full Syllabus Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Series-A / 06-Oct-2022
INSTRUCTION
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write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
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tit
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
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NLI / 2
TOPIC : XII Model

SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. Assertion: The refractive index of a prism depends 1. :
only on the kind of glass of which it is made of
and the colour of light.
:
Reason: The refractive index of a prism depends
upon the refracting angle of the prism and the
angle of maximum deviation. (1)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2)
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3)
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false (4)
2. Match the Column-I Electromagnetic wave type 2. -I -II

to column-II related/applied with and select the
correct option from the alternatives given below
the columns :
u te
Column-I Column-II tit -I -II
(a) Infrared waves (p)

ns
For the treatment of t I (a) (p)
muscle deformities h
g
(b) Radiowaves (q) to broadcast Li (b) (q)
w
(c) X-rays (r)
Ne of
for identification
fracture of bones
(c) X- (r)
(d) Ultraviolet rays (s) Absorption by ozone

layer of the (d) (s)
atmosphere
(1) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s (1) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s
(2) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s (2) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
(3) a-r, b-q, c-p, d-s (3) a-r, b-q, c-p, d-s
(4) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r (4) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r
3. Assertion: In Young's experiment, the fringe width 3. :
for dark fringes is different from that for white
fringes.
:
Reason: In Young's double slit experiment the
fringes are performed with a source of white light,
then only black and bright fringes are observed. (1)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2)
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (3)
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false (4)

NLI / 3
4. When the current change from +2A to 0 in 4. 0.5 +2A
0.05 second, an e.m.f. of 8V is induced in the coil.
The coefficient of self induction of the coil is : 8V :
(1) 0.1 H (1) 0.1 H
(2) 0.2 H (2) 0.2 H
(3) 0.4 H (3) 0.4 H
(4) 0.8 H (4) 0.8 H
5. Faraday's laws are consequence of conservation 5.

of :
(1)
(1) Energy
(2)
(2) Energy and magnetic field
(3)
(3) Charge
(4)
(4) Magnetic field
6. A step down transformer drops the main supply 6. 220
voltage of 220V to 10V. The primary coils draws of 10 6
6A and the current induced in secondary coil is 90
90A. The efficiency of the transformer is
u te
(1) 68.2%
s tit68.2%
(1)
(2) 48% t In (2) 48%

(3) 70% igh (3) 70%
L
(4) 63.5% ew (4) 63.5%
7. If the potential function is N

define as 7. V   3x  4 y  12z  Volt ,
V   3x  4 y  12z  Volt , then magnitude of
E  x, y, z
electric field E  x , y , z  is
(1) 16 Volt/m
(1) 16 Volt/m
(2) 12 Volt/m
(2) 12 Volt/m
(3) (3) 14 Volt/m

14 Volt/m
(4) 13 Volt/m (4) 13 Volt/m
8. The equivalent resistance between A & B is : 8. A B
3R 3R
R R
A A
B 3R B 3R
3R 3R
(1) 2 R (1) 2 R
(2) 4 R (2) 4 R
(3) 7R (3) 7R
(4) 10 R (4) 10 R
NLI / 4
9. Three equal charges q1 = q2 = q3 = q are placed on 9. q1 = q 2 = q 3 = q

the three corners of a square in a cyclic order. If q1 q2 F1 , q 1 q3
the force between q1 & q2 is F1 & between q1 & q3 is F1
F2 F2
F1
F2 then ratio of magnitude F is :
2
1
(1)
1 2
(1)
2
(2) 2
(2) 2
1
1 (3)
(3) 2
2
(4) (4) 2
2
10. An electron is moved from A to B on a 10. A B (A B
equipotential surface which are 20 cm apart, the 20 cm )
work done will be (1)

(1) Positive
(2)
(2) Negative
u te
(3) Infinite s tit (3)
t In (4)
gh11.
(4) Zero
11. Find electric field at centre of square : Li
ew
+q a +q N +q a +q
A B A B
a a
–q +q –q +q
D C D C
4q 4q
(1)  a 2 towards BD (1)  a 2 BD
0
0
q q
(2)  a 2 towards BD (2)  a 2 BD
0
0
4q 4q
(3)  a 2 towards AC (3)  a 2 AC
0
0
4q 4q
(4)  a 2 towards AC. (4)  a 2 AC .
0
0
NLI / 5
12. The capacitance of a capacitor does not depend 12.
on:
(1) The shape of the plates (1)
(2) The size of the plates (2)
(3) The charges on the plates (3)
(4) The separation between the plates (4)

13. When three identical bulbs of 90W, 200 volt rating 13. 90W,
are connected in series to a 200 V supply the power 200 200 V
drawn by them will be :
(1) 30 W (1) 30 W
(2) 60 W (2) 60 W
(3) 270 W (3) 270 W
(4) None of these (4)
14. In a meter bridge, the balancing length from the 14. 1

left end (standard resistance of one ohm is in the 20 cm
right gap) is found to be 20 cm. The value of the
u te
tit0.8 
unknown resistance is :
(1)
(1) 0.8  s
t In (2) 0.5 
(2) 0.5 
igh
(3) 0.4  L (3) 0.4 
ew
(4) 0.25  N (4) 0.25 
15. Match the column-I with column-II : 15. -I -II
Column-I Column-II
-I -II
(a) Nuclear fusion (p) absorption of
(a) (p)
neutrons by thermal
(b) Nuclear fission (q) nucleus

(b) (q)
(c) -decay (r) the production of
energy in stars
(c) - (r)
through the
transformation
(d) ray emission (s) heavy water

(d)  (s)
(t) neutrino emission
(t)
(1) a-r, b-q; t, c-p, d-q, r, t
(1) a-r, b-q; t, c-p, d-q, r, t
(2) a-q; t, b-r, c-p, d-q, r, t
(2) a-q; t, b-r, c-p, d-q, r, t
(3) a-r, b-q; t, c-p; s, d-q, r, t (3) a-r, b-q; t, c-p; s, d-q, r, t
(4) a-r, b-p; s, c-q; t, d-q, r (4) a-r, b-p; s, c-q; t, d-q, r
NLI / 6
16. A symmetrical double convex lens is cut in two 16.
equal parts by a plane containing the principal
axis. If the power of the original lens was 4D, the D
power of a divided lens will be :
(1) 2 D
(1) 2 D
(2) 3 D
(2) 3 D
(3) 4 D
(3) 4 D
(4) 5 D. (4) 5 D.
17. The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to 17.

its plane and directed into the paper varies with
time t (in second) according to the relation :
 = (5 t2 + 10 t + 1) weber
   5t 2  10t  1
The magnitude of emf induced in coil at t = 2 sec
is : t = 2 sec
(1) 15 volt (1) 15
(2) 30 volt (2) 30
(3) 45
(3) 45 volt
u te
(4)it10
(4) 10 volt
s t
18. An alternating current is given by the equation 18.In i = i 1cos t + i 2 sin t
i = i cos t + i sin t. The r.m.s. current is given ht
1 2
g
by
Li
i i e w (1)
i i 1 2
(1)
1
2
2
N 2
i12  i22 i12  i22

(2) (2)
2 2
i12  i22 i12  i22

(3) (3)
2 2
i1  i2 i1  i2
(4) (4)
2 2
19. Figure represents a part of a closed circuit. The 19. A B (VA – VB)
potential different between A and B (VA – VB) is :
:
2A 3V
A B 2A 3V
2  A B
2 
(1) + 9V (1) + 9V
(2) – 9V (2) – 9V
(3) + 3V (3) + 3V
(4) + 6V (4) + 6V
NLI / 7
20. The dimensions of quantity (L/RCV) is : 20. (L/RCV)
(1) [A] (1) [A]
(2) [A2] (2) [A2]
(3) [A–1] (3) [A–1]
(4) None of these. (4) .
KE metal 1 metal 2 KE metal 1 metal 2
21. 21.
 
From above graph between kinetic energy vs vs

frequency we can conclude that :
(1) work function of metal-1 is higher than metal-2 (1) -1 -2
(2) work function of metal-1 is lower than metal-2 (2) -1 -2
(3) both metal-1 and metal-2 have same work function (3) -1 -2
(4) none of these. (4)

u te
22. In the reaction represented by : 22. st
it A
 A4
 Y A 4  A4
ZX Z2 Y Z2 Z 1K
A
 A4
 Y A 4  A4
t In
ZX Z2 Y Z 1K
gh
Z2
the decays in the sequence are : Li (1) 

(1) 
ew (2) 
(2)  N
(3) 
(3) 
(4)  (4) 
23. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with 23. A B
two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage C A, B C
waveforms of A, B and C are, as shown below:
(i)
(i)
1
1
A t
A t
1
1
t
(ii) B t (ii) B
1
1
C t
C t
The logic circuit gate is :
(1) AND gate (2) NANDgate (1) AND gate (2) NANDgate
(3) NOR gate (4) OR gate (3) NOR gate (4) OR gate
NLI / 8
24. The cross-section of glass prims has the form of an 24.
isosceles triangle. One of the refracting faces is
silvered. A ray of light falling normally on the other
refracting face, being reflected twice emerges
though the base of prism perpendicular to it. Find
the angle of the prism :
A
A
B C
B C
(1) 36o (2) 46o
(1) 36o (2) 46o
(3) 76o (4) 26o
(3) 76o (4) 26o
25. Which logic gate is represented by the following 25.
combination of logic gates:
A
A Y
Y B
B
(1) OR
u te
(1) OR
t
tiNAND
(2) NAND s(2)
t In (3) NOR
gh
(3) NOR
Li (4) AND.
(4) AND.
ew
26. Current through the ideal diode is : N 26.
100  100 
10 V 5V 10 V 5V
(1) zero (1)
(2) 20 A (2) 20 A
(3) (1/20) A (3) (1/20) A
(4) (1/50) A (4) (1/50) A
27. The angular magnification of a telescope which 27. f1 f2

contains an objective of focal length f 1 and
eye-piece of focal length f2 is :
f2 f1  f2
f2 f1  f2 (1) (2)
(1) (2) f1 f2
f1 f2
f1 f1f2 f1 f1f2
(3) (4)
(3)
f2 (4)
f1  f2 f2 f1  f2
NLI / 9
28. In Young's experiment with one source and two 28.
slits, if one of the slits is covered with black paper,
then:
(1)
(1) the fringes will be darker
(2)
(2) the fringes wil be narrower
(3)
(3) the fringes will be broader
(4) no fringes will be obtained and the screen will have (4)
uniform illumination
29. A boy is 1.8 m tall and can see his image in a 29. 1.8
plane mirror fixed on a wall. Boy start running
towards plane mirror with 10 m/s he observes his
image moving with :
(1) 10 m/s (1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s (3) 30 m/s
(4) 40 m/s
u te (4) 40 m/s
30. A ray of light is incident at 60 on one face of a 30. ti

o t 60o
s
o
prism of angle 30 and the emergent ray makes
t In 30o 30o
30 with the incident ray. The refractive index of h
o
g
the prism is :
Li
(1) 1.732 ew (1) 1.732
(2) 1.414
N (2) 1.414
(3) 1.5 (3) 1.5
(4) 1.33 (4) 1.33
31. In a excited hydrogen atom energy of an electron 31.

is equal to –3.4 eV. Then angular momentum of –3.4 eV.
electrons is :
(1) 2.11×10–34 J-S
(1) 2.11×10–34 J-S
(2) 1×10–34 J-S
(2) 1×10–34 J-S
(3) 3×1034 J-S
(3) 3×1034 J-S
(4) 5×10–34 J-S
(4) 5×10–34 J-S
32. Principle of electron microscope is based on : 32.
(1) Fresnel hypothesis (1)
(2) de-Broglie hypothesis (2)
(3) Plank's hypothesis (3)
NLI / 10
33. What is the force exerted by a photon of intensity 33. 1.4
–2
1.4 kWm , if the falls on a perfect absorber of
radius 2 metre :
(1) 5.88 × 10–5 N (1) 5.88 × 10–5 N
(2) 108 N (2) 108 N
(3) 8.35 × 104 N (3) 8.35 × 104 N
(4) 8.8 × 10–8 N. (4) 8.8 × 10–8 N.
34. Mass of proton is 2000 times the mass of the 34. 2000
electron. The de Broglie wavelength associated
1Å
with both of them is 1 Å. Then ratio of K.E. of
electron to that of proton is:
(1) 1 : 1
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2000 : 1
(2) 2000 : 1
(3) 1 : 20002
(3) 1 : 20002
u te
(4)it1 : 100
(4) 1 : 100
s t
35. t
The radius of a nucleus with mass number 7 is 35.
In 7 2
h
L ig
2 fermi. The radius of the nucleus with mass 189
number 189 is:
ew
(1) 3 fermi
N (1) 3
(2) 4
(2) 4 fermi
(3) 5 fermi (3) 5
(4) 6 fermi. (4) 6 .
SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. How many different wavelengths may be observed 36.

in the spectrum from a hydrogen sample if the 4
atoms are excited to states with principal :
quantum number 4 :
(1) 6
(1) 6
(2) 4
(2) 4
(3) 3
(3) 3
(4) 12.
(4) 12.
NLI / 11
37. A solid sphere of radius R1 and volume charge 0
37. R1 
0 r
density   is enclosed by a hollow sphere of
r R2
radius R2 with negative surface charge density ,

such that the total charge in the system is zero, 0
is a positive constant and r is the distance from R2
0 r R1 :
R2
the centre of the sphere. The ratio R is :
1

 (1) 
0
(1) 
0
(2) 2 / 0
(2) 2 / 0
(3) 0 / (2) (3) 0 / (2)
0 0
(4) (4)
 
38. In the following figure, electric flux passing through 38. fuEukafdr fp= esa lrg ls xqtjus okys oS|qr ¶yDl dk
the surface is : eku gksxk %
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
q q q q
(1)  (2) 2 (1)  (2) 2
   
q q q q
(3) 4  (4) 6  (3) 4  (4) 6 
   
39. The magnetic force per unit length on a wire 39. 0.20T 45o
carrying a current of 10 A and making an angle of
45o with the direction of a uniform magnetic field
of 0.20T is : 10
(1) 2 2 Nm1 (1) 2 2 Nm1
2 2
(2) Nm1 (2) Nm1
2 2
2 2
(3) Nm1 (3) Nm1
2 2
(4) 4 2 Nm1 (4) 4 2 Nm1
NLI / 12
40. A galvanometer of resistance 50  is connected 40. 50  3V
to a battery of 3V along with a resistance of 2950
2950
in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is
obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce 30 20
this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in
sereis should be :
(1) 6050 (1) 6050
(2) 4450 (2) 4450
(3) 5050 (3) 5050
(4) 5550 (4) 5550
41. Point out the best representation of relation 41. () (T)
between magnetic susceptibility (  ) and
temperature (T) for a paramagnetic material :
(1)
(1)
u
(2)te
(2)
stit
t In
igh
L
ew (3)
(3) N
(4) (4)
42. The energy stored in capacitor in steady state is : 42.
14V 14V
5V 5V
3 5 3 3 5 3
2 2
1F 24V 1F 24V
A B A B
(1) 338 J (1) 338 J

(2) 146 J (2) 146 J
(3) 98 J (3) 98 J
(4) 8 J (4) 8 J
NLI / 13
43. In shown circuit what should be the value of 43. 16 
resistance that should be attached in parallel with
5
16  so that no current flows through
5 resistance:
Q
Q 4 16
4 P 5 R
16
P 5 R 6 12
6 12 5
10 volt
5
10 volt
(1) 16
(1) 16
(2) 12
(2) 12
(3) 15 
(3) 15 
(4)
(4) None of these
44. Two circular coil X and Y having equal number of 44. X, Y
turns carry equal currents in the same sense and
subtend same solid angle at point O. If the smaller
coil X is midway between O and Y, then if we Y X O
represent the magnetic induction due to the bigger BY BX
coil Y at O , By and that due to smaller coil X at O
te
as BX, then : d
u
tit
Y
d
s X
In
Y
X t r
O
r igh 2r
2r
O L d/2
d/2 ew
N By 1 By
By1 By (1)  (2) 1
(1)  (2) 1 Bx 4 Bx
Bx 4 Bx
By By By 1 By

1
2 (3)  (4) 2
(3)
Bx 2
(4)
Bx Bx 2 Bx
45. In a Young's double slit experiment, I0 is the 45. I0

intensity at the central maximum and  is the  x P
fringe width. The intensity at a point P distant x
from the centre will be
x
x (1) Io cos

(1) Io cos

2 x
x (2) 4Io cos
(2) 4Io cos
2


x 2 x
2 (3) Io cos
(3) Io cos 

Io x Io x
(4) cos2 (4) cos2
4  4 
NLI / 14
46. To increases both the resolving power and 46.
magnifying of a telescope :
(1) Wavelength of light has to be decreased

(1)
(2) Aperture of the objective has to be increased

(2)
(3) Focal length of the objective has to be increased
(3)
(4) Both the focal length and aperture of the objective
has to be increased. (4)
47. When the rectangular metal tank is filled to the 47.

top with an unknown liquid, as observer with eyes
level with the top of the tank can just see the corner
E
E; a ray that refracts towards the observer at the
top surface of the liquid is shown. The refractive
index of the liquid will be :
 
3cm 3cm
u te
E
stit 4cm
E
In
4cm
t
(1) 1.2 igh (1) 1.2
L
(2) 1.4 ew (2) 1.4
N
(3) 1.6 (3) 1.6
(4) 1.9 (4) 1.9
48. A length L of wire carries a steady current I. It is 48. L I
bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn.
The same length is now bent more sharply to give
a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field
at the centre caused by the same current is :
(1)
(1) A quarter of its first value
(2)
(2) Unaltered
(3)
(3) Four times of its first value
(4) A half of its first value (4)
NLI / 15
49. The variation of the instantaneous current (I) and 49. (I)
the instantaneous emf (E) in a circuit is as shown (E)
in fig. Which of the following statements is correct
(1) The voltage lags behind the current by  / 2 (1) /2
(2) The voltage leads the current by  / 2 (2) /2
(3) The voltage and the current are in phase (3)
(4) The voltage leads the current by  (4) 
50. The power factor of the circuit as shown in figure 50.

u te
tit
is :
s
t In
igh
L
ew
N
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4

(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.6
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.6
NLI / 16
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (XII-MODEL)

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A SECTION-A
51. Given below are two statements : 51.
Statement I : I:
The limiting molar conductivity of KCl (strong KCl ( ) CH3COOH
electrolyte) is higher compared to that of CH3COOH ( )
(weak electrolyte)
II :
Statement II :
Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in

concentration of electrolyte.
Choose the correct answer from the options given

below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2)

u te I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct s tit I

(3) II
t In (4) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
g h
52. Which of the following is true statement : Li 52.
e w
a. ICl is less reactive than I 2 N
a. ICl , I2
b. O2F2 is used to removing plutonium as PuF6
b. O2F2
from spent nuclear fuel.
PuF6
c. ClF3 is used for the enrichment of U235 from its
c. U235
isotopic mixture.
ClF3
(1) a, b and c
(1) a, b c
(2) c only
(2) c
(3) a and c
(3) a c
(4) b and c (4) b c.
53. The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 , [Cr(C6H6)2] 53. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 , [Cr(C6H6)2] K2[Cr(CN)2(O)2(O2)(NH3)]
and K2[Cr(CN)2(O)2(O2)(NH3)] respectively are : Cr
(1) +3, +4, +6 (1) +3, +4, +6
(2) +3, +2, +4 (2) +3, +2, +4
(3) +3, +0, +6 (3) +3, +0, +6
(4) +3, +0, +4 (4) +3, +0, +4

NLI / 17
54. Correct order of acidic strength of following is : 54.
(1) HF > HBr > HCl > HI (1) HF > HBr > HCl > HI
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
(3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(4) HCl < HBr < HF < HI (4) HCl < HBr < HF < HI
55. Which is diamagnetic : 55.

(1) [Fe(CN)6]–3
(1) [Fe(CN)6]–3
(2) [Co(F)6]–3
(2) [Co(F)6]–3
(3) [Ni(CN)4]–2
(3) [Ni(CN)4]–2
(4) [NiCl4]–2
(4) [NiCl4]–2
56.
56. Match the following :
(i) (a)
(i) Foam (a) smoke
(ii) Gel (b) cell fluid (ii) (b)
(iii) Aerosol (c) jellies (iii) (c)
(iv) Emulsion (d) rubber (iv) (d)
(e) froth
u te (e)
ti t
(f) milk
n s (f)
(1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(e)
ht I (1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(e)
g
(2) (i)-(e), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(f)
Li (2) (i)-(e), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(f)
(3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(d) ew (3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(d)
(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(f)

N (4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(f)
57. Zirconium is purified by : 57.
(1) Liquation (1)
(2) Zone refining (2)
(3) Vapour phase refining (3)
(4) Electrolysis (4)
58. Which of the following has unpaired electron : 58.
(1) N2 (1) N2
(2) F2 (2) F2
(3) O2– (3) O2–

(4) O2–2
(4) O2–2
59. l3–
59. What is the structure of l3– :
(1) T-shape (1) T-
(2) Pyramidal (2)
(3) tetrahedral (3)
(4) Linear (4)

NLI / 18
60. Which is correct stability order of PbCl2, SnCl2, 60. PbCl2, SnCl2, GeCl2
GeCl2 is :
(1) PbCl2 < SnCl2 < GeCl2
(1) PbCl2 < SnCl2 < GeCl2
(2) PbCl2 < GeCl2 < SnCl2
(2) PbCl2 < GeCl2 < SnCl2
(3) GeCl2 < SnCl2 < PbCl2 (3) GeCl2 < SnCl2 < PbCl2
61. Which of the following compounds shows optical 61.

isomerism :
(1) [Co(CN)6]3–
(1) [Co(CN)6]3–
(2) [Cr(OX)3]3–
(2) [Cr(OX)3]3–
(3) [ZnCl4]2–
(3) [ZnCl4]2–
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
62.
62. Choose the correct statement :
a. SO2
a. The bleaching action of SO2 is due to oxidation
b. SO2
b. SO2 acts as a oxidising and reducing agent
c. K2Cr2O7 SO2
c. An acidified K2Cr2O 7 paper turns red when
exposed to SO2.
d. SF6
d. SF6 does not hydrolyse easily.
u te
tit
(1) a
(1) a only
s
(2) d only
t In (2) d
gh
(3) b & d
(3) b & d
Li (4) a, b, c d
(4) a, b, c and d all
ew
63. In mixture A and B components N –ve
show 63. A B
deviation as :
a. Vmix  0
a. Vmix  0
b. Vmix  0
b. Vmix  0
c. A – B A–A B–B
c. A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and
B – B interaction. d. A – B A–A B–B
d. A – B interaction is stronger than A – A and
B – B interaction. (1) a, b c
(1) a, b and c (2) a

(2) a only
(3) b d
(3) b and d
(4)
(4) All of these
64. Which of the following complex ion is expected 64.
to absorb visible light :
(1) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+
3+
(1) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]
(2) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]4+
4+
(2) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]
(3) [CoF6]3–
(3) [CoF6]3–
(4) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
(4) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
NLI / 19
65. Phosphorus has the oxidation state of +3 in : 65. P +3 :
(1) Metaphosphoric acid (1)
(2) Hypophosphorus acid (2)
(3) Phosphorus acid (3)
(4) Orthophosphoric acid (4)
66. How many primary amines are possible for C4H11N: 66. C4H11N
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4
67. The correct order of dipole moment is : 67.
(1) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br (1) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br
(2) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br (2) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br
(3) CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F (3) CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
te
(4) CH3Br > CH3F > CH3Cl (4) CH3Br > CH3F > CH3Cl
u
68. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 68.
stit (A)
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R). t In (R)
g h
Assertion: For the extraction of iron, haematite Li
ore
:
is used.
e w
N
Reason: Haematite is a carbonate ore of iron. :
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R)
correct exaplanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
69. Which of the following alcohols can be prepared 69.

by the action of Grignard reagent with aldehydes
:
(1) 1° 2°
(1) 1° and 2° alcohols
(2) 2° 3°
(2) 2° and 3° alcohols
(3) 1°
(3) Only 1° alcohols
(4) Only 2° alcohols (4) 2°
NLI / 20
70. When 3, 3-dimethyl-2-butanol is heated with H2SO4, 70. 3, 3- -2- H2SO4

the major product obtained is :
(1) 3, 3-Dimethyl-1-butene (1) 3, 3- -1-
(2) 2, 3-Dimethyl-2-butene (2) 2, 3- -2-
(3) 2, 3-Dimethyl-1-butene (3) 2, 3- -1-

71. In a molecule of pyrophosphoric acid, the number 71. P – OH, P=O
of P – OH, P=O and P –– O ––P bonds/moiety (ies) P –– O ––P
respectively are :
(1) 2, 4 1
(1) 2, 4 and 1
(2) 3, 3 3
(2) 3, 3 and 3
(3) 4, 2 0
(3) 4, 2 and 0
(4) 4, 2 1
(4) 4, 2 and 1
HCHO+HCl AgCN
72. X Y
AgCN
72. Benzene HCHO+HCl X Y
Y is :
In the above sequence of steps Y is :
(1) Benzyl isocyanide

(1)
u te
(2) Benzyl cynide s tit
(2)
t In (3)
gh (4)
(3) Benzyl alcohol
(4) Benzyl chloride Li

73. Which of the following give iodoform test ew 73.
N
OH OH
H-CHO CH 3 CHO CH3 CH CH3 H-CHO CH 3 CHO CH3 CH CH3

(i) (ii)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iii)
OH O OH O
CH3 CH COOH C CH3 CH3 CH COOH C CH3

(iv) (v) (iv) (v)
(1) ii, iii, iv and v (1) ii, iii, iv v

(2) i, ii, iii (2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iv, v (3) ii, iv, v
74. Which of the following cannot be made by using 74.

Williamson’s synthesis :
(1) Methoxy benzene (1)

(2) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether (2) p
(3) Methyl tertiary butyl ether (3)
(4) Di-tert butyl ether (4)
NLI / 21
75. Aryl halides are less reactive and more stable than 75.
alkyl halides due to :
(1) In aryl halides, the delocalization of electron pair
occurs (1)
3
(2) The alkyl halides, the C – X bond is sp – (2) C–X sp3 –
hybridized while in aryl halides it is sp2 – sp2 –
hybridized
(3) C–X
(3) In aryl halides C – X bond length is stronger than
alkyl halides
(4) All of these (4)
76. The following reaction is known as 76.
Phenol Salicylaldehyde
(1) Gattermann aldehyde synthesis (1)

(2) Duff reaction (2)
(3) Perkin reaction (3)
(4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (4)
77. Match List-I with List-II 77. -Ite -II
List-I List-II u
it -I
st -I
(Species) (No. of lone pair of
electron on the central t In ( )
atom) igh
L (a) XeF (i) 0
(a) XeF2 (i) 0 w 2
(b) XeO2F2 (ii) 1 Ne (b) XeO F 2 2

(ii) 1
(c) XeO3F2 (iii) 2 (c) XeO3F2 (iii) 2
(d) XeF4 (iv) 3 (d) XeF4 (iv) 3
Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below:
(1) (a)-(iiii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (1) (a)-(iiii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
78. The molar conductances of HCl, NaCl and 78. HCl, NaCl CH3COONa 500,
CH3COONa are 500, 200 and 100 –1 cm2 mol–1
200 100 –1 cm2 mol–1 CH3COOH
respectively. The molar conductance for CH3COOH
is :
(1) 561 –1 cm2 mol–1
(1) 561 –1 cm2 mol–1
(2) 391 –1 cm2 mol–1
(2) 391 –1 cm2 mol–1
(3) 400 –1 cm2 mol–1 (3) 400 –1 cm2 mol–1
(4) 612 –1 cm2 mol–1 (4) 612 –1 cm2 mol–1
NLI / 22
79. The axial angles in monoclinic crystal system are: 79.
(1)  =  =  = 90° (1)  =  =  = 90°
(2)  =  = 90°,  90° (2)  =  = 90°,  90°
(3)      90° (3)      90°
(4)  =  =  90° (4)  =  =  90°
80. Find the correct formula regarding relation 80.

between density, mass, edge length and number
of atoms in a unit cell of crystal lattice :
1/ 2
1/ 2 M  ZM 
M  ZM  (1) d  (2) d   
(1) d  (2) d    a 3N A  NA d 
a 3N A  NA d 
1/ 3
1/ 3  Z .M 
 Z .M  (3) a    (4)
(3) a    (4) None of these  NA . d 
 NA . d 
81. (A)
81. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R). (A):
Assertion (A): Ethene polymerized in the presence
of Ziegler-Natta catalyst at high temperature and
u te
pressure, is used to make buckets and dustbins.
stit
Reason (R) : High density polymers are closely
t In (R) :
packed and are chemically inert.
h
In the light of the above statements, choose L ig
the
most appropriate answer from the optionsw given
below: N e
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
exaplanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
82. Which of the following defects is generally 82. FeO

possessed by FeO :
(1)
(1) Metal excess
(2)
(2) Metal deficiency
(3)
(3) Impurity
(4)
(4) Stoichiometric
83. The value of equilibrium constant for a feasible 83. :
cell reaction is :
(1) < 1
(1) < 1
(2) = 1
(2) = 1
(3) > 1
(3) > 1
(4) Zero
(4) Zero
NLI / 23
84. Match List-I with List-II 84. -I -II
List-I List-II
-I -II
(Parameter) (Unit)
( ) ( )
(a) Cell constant (i) S m2 mol–1
(a) (i) S m2 mol–1
(b) Molar conductivity (ii) Dimensionless
(c) Conductivity (iii) m–1 (b) (ii)
(d) Degree of (iv)  1 m–1 (c) (iii) m–1

dissociation of
electrolyte (d) (iv)  1 m–1
Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below:
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
85. Consider the reaction :
85.
Cl2(aq)+ H2S(aq)  S(g)+ 2H+(aq)+ 2Cl–(aq) Cl2(aq)+ H2S(aq)  S(g)+ 2H+(aq)+ 2Cl–(aq)
The rate of reaction for this reaction is
u te
rate = k [Cl ][H S]
2 2
stit= k [Cl ][H S] 2 2
Which of these mechanism is/are consistent with
t In
gh (a) Cl +H S  H + Cl + Cl + HS (
this rate equation:
(a) Cl +H S  H + Cl + Cl + HS (slow)
2 2
+ –
L i + – 2 2
+ – + –
)
Cl + HS  H + Cl + S (fast)
+ – +
ew– Cl + HS  H + Cl + S ( ) + – + –
(b) H2S  H+ + HS– (fast equilibrium)

N (b) H2S  H+ + HS– ( )
Cl2 + HS–   2Cl– + H+ + S (slow) Cl2 + HS–   2Cl– + H+ + S ( )
(1) a only (1) a
(2) b only (2) b

(3) Both a and b (3) a b
(4) Neither a nor b (4) a b
SECTION-B SECTION-B
86. Which of the following compounds will react with 86. KCN
ethanolic KCN :
(1)
(1) Chlorobenzene
(2)
(2) Allyl bromide
(3) Vinyl bromide (3)
(4) p-Chlorotoluene (4) p-
87. The pair that does not require calcination is : 87.
(1) ZnO and Fe2O3.xH2O (1) ZnO Fe2O3.xH2O
(2) ZnCO3 and CaO (2) ZnCO3 CaO
(3) ZnO and MgO (3) ZnO MgO

(4) Fe2O3 and CaCO3.MgCO3 (4) Fe2O3 CaCO3.MgCO3
NLI / 24
88. XeF6 on partial hydrolysis with water produces a 88. XeF6 ‘X’
compound ‘X’. The same compound ‘X’ is formed XeF6
when XeF6 reacts with silica. The compound ‘X’ ‘X’ ‘X’
is: :
(1) XeO3 (1) XeO3
(2) XeF4 (2) XeF4
(3) XeF2 (3) XeF2
(4) XeOF4 (4) XeOF4

89. The incorrect statement is : 89.
(1) Manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral.
(1)
(2) In mangnate and permanganate ions, the  bonding
takes place by overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen and (2) p-
d-orbitals of manganese. d- 
(3) Manganate and permanganate ions are (3)
paramagnetic.
(4)
(4) Manganate ion is green in colour and permanganate
-ion is purple in colour.
90. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of the 90. (Z = 58)
lanthanoids. Which of then following statements
u te
about cerium is incorrect.
s tit
(1) The common oxidation states of cerium are +3 and
In (1) +3 +4
t
gh (2)
+4.
L i
(2) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than
+3 +4
+4 oxidation state. w
Ne
(3) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in (3) +4
solutions.
(4) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidising agent. (4) (IV)
91. Among the oxides given below which are acidic : 91.
CrO3, Mn2O7, CuO, CO, SO2 CrO3, Mn2O7, CuO, CO, SO2
(1) Only SO2 (1) SO2
(2) CrO3, Mn2O7 and SO2 (2) CrO3, Mn2O7 SO2
(3) Mn2O7 and SO2 (3) Mn2O7 SO2
(4) CO and SO2 (4) CO SO2

92. Which one of the following is excellent substrate 92. SN1
for SN1 reaction :
Br
Br
(1) (2)
Br (1) (2)
Br
Br
Br
(3) (4)
Br (3) (4)
Br
NLI / 25
93. For a first order reaction, slope of the graph 93. ln(a-x)
ln(a-x) Vs time.
(1) (1/K) (1) (1/K)
(2) -(1/K) (2) -(1/K)
(3) -K (3) -K
(4) (-2.303/K) (4) (-2.303/K)
94. The vapour pressure of two liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are 94. ‘P’ ‘Q’
80 and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour P Q
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of
P and 2 mol of Q would be :
(1) 140
(1) 140 torr
(2) 20
(2) 20 torr
(3) 68 torr (3) 68
(4) 72 torr (4) 72
95. Match list I with List II & tick the correct option: 95. I II
List-I List-II
u te List-I List-II
(1) Adipic acid (i) Nylon 6

s tit
(1) (i)
(2) Caproluctum (ii) Insulin t In (2) (ii)
(3) Enzyme (iii) Pepsin igh (3) (iii)

L
(4) Hormone (iv) Nylon 6.6 ew (4) (iv)
N Option : (1) (2) (3) (4)
Option : (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
96. Aldol condensation will not occur in: 96.
(1) HCHO (1) HCHO
(2) CH3CH2CHO (2) CH3CH2CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (3) CH3COCH3
(4) CH3CHO (4) CH3CHO
97. Acetaldehyde cannot exhibit: 97.
(1) Iodoform test (1)
(2) Lucas test (2)
(3) Benedict’s test (3)
(4) Tollen’s test (4)

NLI / 26
98. A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of the 98. fcc
unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 404 pm.
g cm–3. The molar mass of the metal is : 2.72 g cm–3
(1) 40 g mol–1 (1) 40 g mol–1
(2) 30 g mol–1 (2) 30 g mol–1
(3) 27 g mol–1 (3) 27 g mol–1
(4) 20 g mol–1 (4) 20 g mol–1
99. Electrophile in the case of chlorination of benzene 99. FeCl3

in presence of FeCl 3 is :
(1) Cl+ (1) Cl+
(2) Cl- (2) Cl-

(3) Cl (3) Cl
(4) FeCl3 (4) FeCl3
100. Which oxide is neutral : 100.
(1) N2O
te
(1) N2O
u
(2) N2O3
s titN O
(2) 2 3
(3) N2O5
t In (3) N O
gh (4) N O
2 5
(4) Both N2O and N2O3

Li 2
N2 O 3
ew
N
NLI / 27
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (XII-MODEL)

SECTION–A–(PART-1) SECTION–A–(PART-1)
101. Given below are two statements
101.
Statement I:
-I:
Multiload 375 are a type of non medicated IUDs.
Statement II : 375 IUDs
Lippes loop are a type of copper releasing IUDs. - II :
Choose the correct answer from the option given IUDs
below:

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
102. Given below are two statements 102.

Statement I:
-I:
Mutation are random and directionless
Statement II :
u te
Darwinian variation are large and Random
stit - II :
Choose the correct answer from the option given t I
n
below: igh
L
w
Ne

Statement I: -I:
Increased level of several hormones in human maternal
blood are necessary for maintainence of pregnancy
Statement II :
In human female Immediately after implantation the - II :
inner cell mass (embryo) differentiates into an outer
layer ectoderm and an inner layer called endoderm.
Choose the correct answer from the option given

below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(1) I II
NLI / 28
Statement I:
-I:
Improved breed of chickens is the leghorn
Statement II :
Improved breed of cow is the Jersey - II :

below:

Statement I:
-I:
Spinach is vitamin C enrich biofortified crops
C
Statement II :
Carrots is vitamin A enrich biofortified crops
u te- II :
Choose the correct answer from the option given stit A
below: t In
g h
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect L i (1) I II
e w
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II N
is incorrect (2) I II

Statement I:
-I:
The eye of octopus and eye of cats are examples of
analogous organ.
Statement II :
The flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples
- II :
of analogous organ.

below:

NLI / 29
107. How many are correct matching according to 107.

hormone and their target :
a. -
a. Oxytocin - Myometrium
b. FSH -
b. FSH - Sertoli cells
c. GnRh -
c. GnRh - Anterrior pituitary
d. LH -
d. LH - Mature graffian follicle
e. LH -
e. LH - Sertoli cells
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 1 (4) 1
108. Match the following 108.
a. Oscillatoria i. free living N2 fixer (a) (i) N2
b. Trichoderma ii. Free living fungi

te (b) (ii)
c. Rhizobium iii. N –fixer cyanobacteria t

(c)itu (iii) N –
2
s 2
d. Azotobacter iv. Symbiotic N fixer 2

t In (d) (iv) N2
g h
Li
(1) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i (1) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
(2) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

e w (2) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
(3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

N (3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
(4) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii (4) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii
109. Which one of the following is the incorrect match: 109.
(1) Regulator – Parrot (1) –
(2) Conformer – Frog (2) –
(3) Aestivation – Snails (3) –
(4) CAM pathway – Many aquatic plants (4) CAM –

110. Which statement is incorrect In recombinant DNA 110.
technology
(1) EcoRI produces blunt ends (1) EcoRI
(2) Restriction enzymes produces both blunt ends and (2)

sticky ends
(3) Agarose are natural polymer (3)
(4) Recombinant DNA replicates due to presence of (4) ori

ori and make several copies
NLI / 30
111. What is the fate of a piece of DNA which is 111.

somehow transferred into alien organism
(1) It will multiply itself in the progeny cells of the (1)
organism
(2)
(2) It will take control of the host genetic machinery
(3) It will be not integrating with the genome of the

(3)
recipient so that it can not co-ordinate with 'ori'
sequence to start replication
(4) Most likely it will not be able to multiply itself in

(4)
progeny cells of organism
112. Which of the following statement is true for 112.

hotspots
(1)
(1) Serve as in situ conservation
(2) Covers less than 2% of the earth's land area (2)
(3) Can reduce the on going mass extinction (3)
(4) All of the above

u te(4)
113. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth 113. ti
t
s
proves that :
t In (1)
(1) The melanic form of the moth has no selectiveg h
advantage over lighter form in industrial area L
i
e w (2)
N
(2) The lighter form moth has no selective advantage
either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area
(3) Melanism is a pollution-generated feature (3)
(4) The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring (4)

random mutation
114. Which of the following statements are true about 114. DDT :
DDT :
(1)
(1) Undergo biomagnification in aquatic foodchain
(2) Disturb calcium metabolism in bird (2)
(3) It contribute to Global worming (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2

115. Which of the following statements is incorrect 115.
about ozone depletion:
(1) CFCs releases Cl atom which causes degradation
(1) CFCs, Cl O3
of O3
(2) Cl
(2) Cl atom acts as catalyst
(3) Cl atom is not consumed in the reaction (3) Cl
(4) Ozone hole over antartica develops each year (4)

between early august and late october.
NLI / 31
116. Which one of the following statement is correct 116.
with reference to Parasitism:

(1)
(1) One species is harmed and other is unaffected
(2) One species is harmed and other is benefited (2)
(3) One species is benefited and other is unaffected

(3)
(4) One species is harmed and other is partially
(4)
benefited.
117. How many are the correct match 117.

a. Hershey – chase experiment  Radioactive
a. 
element
b. Hershey – chase experiment  Heavy isotope b. 
element
c. 
c. Meselson – Stahl experiment  Radioactive
element d. 
d. Hershy – chase experiment  Virus is used (1) 3
(1) 3
te
(2) 2
u
(2) 2
s tit4
(3)
(3) 4
(4) 1 t In (4) 1
igh118.
118. How many matching are corrects :
L
a. Haemophilia – Queen victoriaew a. –
pedigree N
b. –
b. Phenylketonuria – Inborn error of
metabolism
c. Colour blindness – More appears in c. –
female than male

d. Sickel cell anaemia – Shape of RBC is d. – RBC
biconvex disc
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 4
(2) 4
(3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
119. Select the incorrect match : 119.
(1) EI Nino effect – Odd climatic changes (1) –
(2) Radioactive leakage – Three Mile island (2) –
(3) Biomagnification – Hg and DDT (3) – Hg DDT
(4) Haryana Kisan Welfare Club – Ahmed Khan (4) –

NLI / 32
120. Match the following columns : 120.
Column – I Column – II –I – II
(a) RNA polymerase –I (i) tRNAs (a) –I (i)
(b) RNA polymerase–II (ii) rRNAs (b) –II (ii)
(c) RNA polymerase–III (iii) 5srRNAs (c) –III (iii) 5
(iv) Sn RNAs (iv)
(v) hn RNAs (v)
(1) a-ii, b-i, iii, iv, c-v (1) a-ii, b-i, iii, iv, c-v
(2) a-ii, b-v, c-i, iii, iv (2) a-ii, b-v, c-i, iii, iv
(3) a-v, b-i, iii, iv, c-ii (3) a-v, b-i, iii, iv, c-ii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, iv (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, iv
121. Which one of the following is correct match : 121.
a. Stamen i. Ovary a. i.
b. Germ pore ii. Pollen grain b. ii.
c. Parthenium iii. Sporogenous tissue c. iii.
d. Locule iv. Pollen allergy d. iv.
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
u te
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3)ita-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
s t
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
t In a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4)
122. How many matching are correct :

igh122.
a. Green revolution – crops L a. –
b. Silver revolution – milk ew b. –
c. White revolution – egg
N
c. –
d. Blue revolution – Insects d. –
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 1 (4) 1
123. Which of the following statement is correct for 123.
keystone species?
(1) A species which makes up only a small proportion
of the total biomass of a community, yet has a (1)
huge impact on the community's organization and
survival.
(2) A common species that has plenty of biomass,
yet has a fairly low impact on the community's (2)
organization.
(3) A rare species that has minimal impact on the (3)
biomass and on other species in the community
(4) A dominant species that constitutes a large
proportion of the biomass and which affects many (4)
other species.
NLI / 33
124. Assertion : Apple, strawberry, are a type of false 124. :
fruits.
:
Reason : In apple, strawberry fruits thalamus do
not contribute for fruits formation.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
125. Assertion : In gel electrophoresis DNA moves 125. : DNA

towards the anode.
Reason : DNA is a negatively charged molecule
: DNA
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
u te (3) (A) (R)
explanation of (A)
s tit(A)
(4) (R) (R) (A)
In
126. The most accepted line of descent in human evo- 126.
t
lution is
igh (1)   
L
(1) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo sa-
w
piens  Homo habilis
Ne
(2) Homo erectus  Homo habilis  Homo (2)  
sapiens
(3)   
(3) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
 Homo sapiens
(4) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo
(4)   
erectus  Homo habilis  Homo sapiens 
127. What is Blastomeres 127.
(1) Newly formed Daughter cells (1)
(2) Newly formed flower (2)
(3) A type of bacterial cell (3)
(4) A type of proteins (4)
128. The chemical nature of severo ochoa enzyme is : 128.

(1) Polynucleotide transacetylase (1)
(2) Polynucleotide phosphorylase (2)
(3) Polypeptide phosphorylase (3)
(4) Ribonucleotidase (4)
NLI / 34
129. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer : 129.
(1) Azolla (1)
(2) Agrobacterium (2)
(3) Rhizobium (3)
(4) Nostoc (4)
130. Downstream processing of drug include 130.
(1) Separation
(1)
(2) Purification
(2)
(3) Clinical trials (3)
131. In E.coli the DNA polymerase completes 131. DNA 250000 bp

polymerisation of 250000 bp with in what time : :
(1) 1250 second (1) 1250
(2) 125 second (2) 125

u te
(3) 250 second (3)it250
s t
(4) 125 minute
t In (4) 125
132. Which type of breeding exposes harmful recessiveg h132.
gene : Li
ew
(1) Outcrossing N (1)
(2) Cross breeding (2)
(3) Interspecific hybridisation (3)
(4) Inbreeding (4)
133. Use of bioresources by multinational companies 133.

and organisations without authorisation from the
concerned country and its people is called :
(1) Bio-infringement (1) -
(2) Biopiracy (2)
(3) Biodegradation (3)
(4) Bioexploitation (4)
134. HGP was closely associated with the rapid 134. HGP
development of a new area in biology called :
(1) Bioremediation (1)
(2) Tissue culture (2)
(3) Bioinformatics (3)
(4) Plant breeding (4)

NLI / 35
135. The total restriction site are present in PBR322 135. PBR322
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 8 (3) 8
(4) 5 (4) 5
SECTION–B–(PART-1) SECTION–B–(PART-1)
136. Which one of the following contraceptive method 136.
blocks gamete transport in accessory duct :
(1) Sterilisation (1)
(2) Pills (2)
(3) Barrier (3)
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) 1 3
137. The correct sequence of reproductive events in 137.

human female :
(1)    
(1) Gametogenesis  Insemination  Fertilisation 
Implantation  Gestation
(2)    
(2) Gametogenesis  Insemination  Implantation
u te
tit
 Fertilisation  Gestation
s
(3)    
(3) Insemination  Gametogenesis  Fertilisation 
Implantation  Gestation t In
Gametogenesis  Insemination  Implantation igh (4)    
(4) L
 Gestation  Fertilisation w
Ne
138. Embryological support for evolution was proposed 138. :
by :
(1)
(1) Karl Ernst Von Baer
(2)
(2) Ernst Heckel
(3)
(3) Lamarck
(4) Hugo de vries (4)
139. Full form of ICSI is : 139. ICSI
(1) Inter Cytoplasmic Sperm Insemination (1) Inter Cytoplasmic Sperm Insemination
(2) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (2) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
(3) Intra Cervical Sperm Injection (3) Intra Cervical Sperm Injection
(4) Inter Cervical Sperm Injection (4) Inter Cervical Sperm Injection
140. Total types of cells are present in embryo sac : 140.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5 (3) 2 (4) 5
NLI / 36
141. In dihybrid experiment on garden peas worked 141.
by mendel. What is the % of yellow round seed : %
(1) 56.25% (1) 56.25%
(2) 12.5% (2) 12.5%
(3) 25% (3) 25%
(4) 37.5% (4) 37.5%
142. In transcription unit the promoter is located to- 142. 5’
wards 5’ end while terminator is located towards 3’
3’ end, the reference is made with respect to the
(1) Polarity of non-coding strand (1)
(2) Polarity of template strand (2)
(3) Polarity of coding strand (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
143. In E.coli, during lactose metabolism, in absence 143.

of inducer, repressor protein binds to :
(1) Regulator gene (1)
(2) Operator (2)

u te
(3) Structural gene (3)it
s t
(4) Promoter
t In (4)
144. Which organ is infected by Rhino virus : igh144.
L
(1) Nose
ew (1)
(2) GIT
N (2) GIT
(3) Lungs (3)
(4) CNS (4) CNS
145. Which one of the following is a kind of lymphoid 145.

tissue :
(1) CT
(1) CT
(2) MALT
(2) MALT
(3) RTI (3) RTI
(4) TCT (4) TCT
146. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for 146.
(1) Purification of product (1)
(2) Addition of preservatives to the product (2)
(3) Availability of oxygen throughout the process (3)
(4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel. (4)
NLI / 37
147. On planet Earth, life exists not just in a few 147.
favourable habitats but even in extreme and harsh
habitats. Which of the following are such type of
habitat :
(a)
(a) Thermal springs
(b)
(b) Human intestine
(c)
(c) Torrential streams
(d) Stinking compost pits (d)
(1) Only a, c, d (1) a, c, d
(2) Only c, d (2) c, d

(3) a, b, c, d (3) a, b, c, d
(4) Only a, b, c (4) a, b, c
148. Which one of the following are not example of 148. SCP :
SCP:
(1)
(1) Pulses
(2)
(2) Spirulina
(3)
(3) Methylophillus
149. Trichomoniasis is not a : 149.

u te
(1) STIs
s titSTIs
(1)
(2) ART
t In (2) ART
(3) VD
igh (3) VD
(4) RTI L
150. What is correct sequence of packaging of DNA ew (4) RTI
helix : N 150.
(1) DNA  Nucleosome  Chromatin 
Chromosomes (1)   
(2) DNA  Nucleosome  Chromosomes  (2)   

Chromatin
(3) DNA  Chromatin  Nucleosome  (3)   
Chromosomes
SECTION–A–(PART-2) SECTION–A–(PART-2)
151. UTR is : 151. UTR

(1) DNA sequence (1)
(2) Amino acid sequence in protein (2)
(3)
(3) Carbohydrates
(4)
(4) RNA sequence
152. Number of animals in given set in which menstrual 152.
cycle occur
Cows, Rats, Monkeys, Deers, Dogs, Sheep, Tiger, , , , , , , ,
Apes
(1) 5 (2) 6
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 4 (4) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2
NLI / 38
153. Mango tree has a much shorter life span as 153.
compared to
(1)
(1) Banyan tree
(2)
(2) Banana tree
(3) Rose (3)
(4) Rice (4)
154. The consumption of which one of the following 154. 'A'

foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated
with vitamin 'A' deficiency
(1)
(1) Golden rice
(2) Bt-
(2) Bt-Brinjal
(3) Flavr Savr Tomato (3)
(4) Canola (4)
155. Use of microorganisms for the disposal of 155.

pollutants is termed as
(1)
(1) Integrated organic farming
(2) Cybernetics
(2)
u te
(3) Bioremediation s tit
(3)
t In (4)
gh156. Bt
(4) Zero waste
156. Bt toxin is coded by gene Li

(1) Bt ew (1) Bt
N (2) cry
(2) cry
(3) Btry
(3) Btry
(4) By (4) By
157. Recombinant - DNA technology prepared vaccine 157.

is called
(1)
(1) First generation vaccine
(2)
(2) Second generation vaccine
(3) Third generation vaccine (3)
(4) Vaccine never prepared (4)
158. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. 158.

He found that the average natality was 250, 250,
average mortality 240, immigration 20 and 240, 20 30.
emigration 30. The net increase in population is :
(1) 05 (1) 05
(2) zero (2)
(3) 10 (3) 10
(4) 15 (4) 15
NLI / 39
159. Which of the following statements are correct with 159.
reference to papaya plants :
a. Autogamy not occur a.
b. Geitonogamy not occur b.
c. Xenogamy occur c.
d. Only staminate or pistillate flowers occur d.
(1) only a,c,d (1) a,c,d
(2) only b, c, d (2) b, c, d
(3) only c, d (3) c, d
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
160. Which of the following statements are correct for 160.

the similarity among Down syndrome, Kline felters
syndrome, Turner syndrome.
a. All are example of a type of chromosomal a.
disorder
b.
b. All syndrome occurs in only female individual.
te
c. In all number of autosomal chromosome are c.
remains same.
d.tit
u
d. In all number of chromosome are not remains s
same. t In (1) a, c, d
(1) a, c, d igh (2)
L a
(2) only a w
(3) a, b, d Ne (3) a, b, d
(4) a, d (4) a, d
161. Which one of the following is the incorrect 161.
statements with reference to eukaryotes :
(1) Structural gene is monocistronic (1)
(2) The genes in eukaryotes are split (2)
(3) Expressed sequence are defined as introns (3)
(4) The exons are interrupted by introns (4)
162. Which of the following are correct statements: 162.

(i) In purine number of ring two (i)
(ii) Adenine and guanine are purine (ii)
(iii) In pyrimidines number of ring one (iii)
(iv) Uracil is pyrimidine (iv)
(1) Only i and ii (1) i ii
(2) Only ii and iii (2) ii iii
(3) Only iv (3) iv
NLI / 40
163. What is the criteria by which a ecologist declared 163.
the habitat as a hot spot.
Which of the following are correct statements for
these criteria.
(a)
a. More number of endemic species must be in
its habitat.
(b)
b. High degree of biodiversity
c. Large sized animal lives in its habitat (c)
d. small sized animal lives in its habitat. (d)
(1) Only b (1) b
(2) a, b (2) a, b
(3) a, b, c (3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
164. Find the incorrect statement (s) from the following: 164.
(a) Currently tropic rainforests cover more than (a) 8%
8% of earth's land surface
(b) Amazonian rainforest is being cut and cleared (b)
for soya bean cultivation
u te
(c)it
(c) Animals with migratory habits are badly
s t
affected by habitat loss and fragmentation
t In
Mammals and birds require small territories h
(d)
(d)
g
(1) a and b Li
ew (1) a b
(2) a and d N (2) a d
(3) Only d (3) d
(4) b and c (4) b c
165. Which of the following are correct statements for 165.
allele:
i.
i. Alternative form of gene is known as allele
ii.
ii. A pair of genes governing a specific character
such as tallness or dwarfness
iii.
iii. Allele combination may be homozygous or
may be heterozygous
iv.
iv. Allele may be dominant or may be recessive
v.
v. Allele is said to be dominant if it is expressed
in both homozygous and heterozygous
(1) Only i and ii correct (1) i ii
(2) Only ii and iii correct (2) ii iii
(3) i, ii iii, iv, v correct (3) i, ii iii, iv, v
(4) Only iii and iv correct (4) iii iv
NLI / 41
166. Which one of the following are correct statement 166.
for the function of placenta:
(1) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste (1)

material from embryo
(2) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to (2)

embryo
(3) Secretes estrogen (3)
167. Following are the two statements regarding the 167.

origin of life :
(a)
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the
earth were non-green and presumably
anaerobes (b)
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the

chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen
u te
Of the above statements which one of the following
s tit
options is correct :
t In (1) (a) (b)
(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct

igh (2) (a) (b)
L
(2) Both (a) and (b) are false
ew
(3) (a) is correct but (b) is false
N (3) (a) (b)
(4) (b) (a)

(4) (b) is correct but (a) is false
168. Which one of the following is the incorrect 168.

statement
(1)
(1) In endospermic seed endosperm is formed
(2)
(2) In non endospermic seed endosperm never formed
(3)
(3) Endosperm is formed in both endospermic and non
endospermic seed
(4) Plumule is present in embryo (4)
169. Which one of the following is the correct statement 169.
(1) CsCl is used in Meselson and Stahl experiment (1) CsCl
(2) NH4Cl is used in Griffith experiment (2) NH4Cl
(3) NH4Cl is used in Hershey and Chase experiment (3) NH4Cl
(4) Radioisotope used in Griffith experiment (4)
NLI / 42
170. In a Declining population of a country : 170.
(1) Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the (1)

reproductive individuals
(2) Reproductive individuals are less than the post (2)

reproductive individuals
(3) Reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are (3)

equal in number
(4) Pre-reproductive individuals are less than the (4)

reproductive individuals. .
171. Which one of the following are correct statements 171.

with reference to the given diagram :
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
(1) All are infectious agent (1)
(2) Some are infectious agent (2)
(3) None are infectious agent (3)
(4) All are useful agent for human welfare (4)
172. Which one of the following is incorrect statement 172.
(1) Maize, Jowar and Bajra are collectively called

(1)
Millets
(2) Taichung Native-1 from Srilanka, it is a maize (2)
variety.
(3)
(3) Red rot of sugarcane caused by fungus
(4) 20-30
(4) Crop loss can often be significant upto 20-30% due
to pathogens.
NLI / 43
173. The given below figure is the diagrammatic 173. pBR 322
representation of the E.coli vector pBR 322. Which
one of the following are correct statements with
reference to the given diagram :
(a) BamH I
(a) If an alien DNA ligate at BamH I site then
ampicillin resistance gene work as selectable
marker
(b) Pst I
(b) If an alien DNA ligate at Pst I site then
tetracycline resistance gene work as u te
selectable marker.
s tit
(c) If an alien DNA ligate at Sal
n
I site then t I (c) Sal I
recombinants will grow in ampicilling h
containing medium. Li
e w (1) a, b, c
(1) a, b, c
N
(2) Only a and c (2) a c
(3) Only c (3) c
(4) Only a, b (4) a, b
174. Which one of the following is correct matching 174.
a. male germ cells (i) Testis a. (i)
b. Clitoris (ii) Female external

b. (ii)
genitalia
c. (iii)
c. Lactiferous duct (iii) Mammary gland
d. (iv)
d. Accessory duct (iv) Uterus
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
NLI / 44
175. How many matching are correct 175.
(a) Passenger pigeon - Extinct animal (a)
(b) Lantana - Extinct plant (b)
(c) Parthenium - Alien animal species (c)
(d) Co-extinctions - Facultative relations (d)
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
176. Assertion (A) : In human AB blood group is a good 176. (A) AB
examples of codominance
Reasion (R) : In human when IA and IB are present
togethers they both express their own types of (R) IA IB
sugar.
(1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
te
u
tit
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (3) (A) (R)
s
explanation of (A)
t In (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
177. Which one of the following nitrogenous bases are h177. DNA RNA
g
not similar between RNA and DNA : Li
e w
(1) Adenine N (1)
(2) Thymine (2)
(3) Cytosine (3)
(4) Guanine (4)
178. Which type of antibody is produced during allergic 178.

reactions
(1) IgG (1) IgG
(2) IgM (2) IgM
(3) IgA (3) IgA
(4) IgE (4) IgE
179. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease 179.
(1) Cancer (1)
(2) Pneumonia (2)
(3) Common cold (3)

(4) Rheumatoid arthiritis (4)
NLI / 45
180. Carcinogens are 180.
(1) Physical agents (1)
(2) Chemical agents (2)
(3) Biological agents (3)
181. The most important feature in a plasmid to be used 181.

as a vector is:
(1) Origin of replication (ori) (1) (ori)

(2) Presence of a selectable marker (2)
(3) Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease (3)
(4) Its size
(4)
182. In tetanus for quick immune response injection is
182.
given containing
(1) Antibody to the toxin (1)
u te
tit
(2) Antigen toxin (2)
s
(3) Penicillin
t In (3)
(4) Paracetamol igh (4)
L
183. Keolado National Park is famous for : ew 183.
N
(1) Black buck (1)
(2) Birds coming from Siberia (2)
(3) Rhinoceros (3)
(4) Tiger. (4)
184. What change occurs in body to overcome altitude 184.

sickness
(1) Increased RBC production (1) RBC
(2) Decreased haemoglobin binding affinity (2)
(3) Increased breathing rate (3)
185. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique 185.
(1) Aroma (1)
(2) Flavour (2)
(3) High fat content (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2

NLI / 46
SECTION–B–(PART-2) SECTION–B–(PART-2)
186. Artificial insemination means 186.
(1) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube (1)

containing ova
(2) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor (2)

into the vagina
(3) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly (3)
into the ovary
(4) Transfer of ovum of a healthy donor into the fallopian (4)
tube of another female who can not produce one
187. The pH of insects gut required for activation of 187. pH
ingested Bt toxin crystals is
(1) Acidic (1)
(2) Alkaline (2)
(3) Neutral (3)
(4) pH have no effect u te

(4) pH
188. st
it
In (1)
188. Meloidegyne incognitia infects which plant
t
(1) Cotton
igh (2)
(2) Pea L
ew (3)
(3) Tobacco N
(4)
(4) Rice
189. The Earth summit and world summit are related 189.
with respectively : (1)
(1) Biodiversity conservation
(2) CFCs
(2) Biodiversity conservation, CFCs control
(3) CFCs ,
(3) CFCs control, biodiversity conservation
(4) Biodiversity conservation, Air pollution (4) ,
190. If we completely remove the decomposers from 190.

an ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely
affected, because :
(1)
(1) Mineral movement will be blocked
(2)
(2) The rate of decomposition will be very high
(3)
(3) Energy flow will be blocked
(4) Herbivores will not receive solar energy (4)
191. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services 191.

the soil formation accounts for about :
(1) 40 % (2) 30 % (1) 40 % (2) 30 %
(3) 20 % (4) 50 % (3) 20 % (4) 50 %
NLI / 47
192. If 20 chromosomes present in PMC of a plant then 192. PMC
what will be the number of chromosome in
generative cell and synergid cell respectively :
(1) 10, 20 (1) 10, 20
(2) 20, 10 (2) 20, 10
(3) 10, 10 (3) 10, 10
(4) 15, 20 (4) 15, 20
193. Assertion : In ovum cleavage does not takes place. 193.
Reason : During Second meitoic division centriole

of secondary oocytes moves in second polar body.
(1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
u te
(3) (A) (R)
tit(A)
explanation of (A) s
(4) (R) (R) (A)
t In
194. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as :
igh194.
L
w
(1) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus
e
(1)
N
(2) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance (2)
(3) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality (3)
(4) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus (4)
195. The given figure of individual is represents which 195.

syndrome :
(1)
(1) Klinefelter’s Syndrome
(2)
(2) Turner’s Syndrome
(3)
(3) Down’s Syndrome
(4) Edward’s Syndrome (4)
NLI / 48
196. Which one of the following is the example of 196.
Trihybrid cross :
(1) AABBCc × AABBCc (1) AABBCc × AABBCc

(2) AaBbCC × AaBbCC (2) AaBbCC × AaBbCC
(3) AaBbCc × AaBbCc (3) AaBbCc × AaBbCc
197. Full form of MOET : 197. MOET
(1) Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology (1) Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology
(2) Multiple ovary embryonic transfer technique (2) Multiple ovary embryonic transfer technique
(3) Multi ova embryo transfer tank (3) Multi ova embryo transfer tank
(4) Multiple ovary embryo treat. (4) Multiple ovary embryo treat.
198. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a 198.
heterologous host, it is called :
(1) Special protein (1)

(2) Heavy protein (2)
(3) Recombinant protein
u te (3)
(4) All of these

s tit
(4)
199. Who, amongst the following has very recently 199.t In

igh
tried to put price tags on nature's life support
L
services : w
(1) Edward wilson Ne (1)
(2)
(2) Robert constanza
(3) Mayer (3)
(4) Humboldt (4)
200. Food chain consists of : 200. :
(1) Plant (1)
(2) Herbivores (2)
(3) Cornivores (3)
NLI / 49

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[FST-04] FULL SYLLABUS TEST [TEST ID-204]

ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

TEST DATE : 06-10-2022

Please read the instructions carefully :

• The important points to note:

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TOPIC : XII Model

2. Match the Column-I Electromagnetic wave type 2. -I -II

(a) Infrared waves (p)

(d) Ultraviolet rays (s) Absorption by ozone

(4) It the assertion and reason both are false (4)

5. Faraday's laws are consequence of conservation 5.

(2) 48% t In (2) 48%

7. If the potential function is N

(3) (3) 14 Volt/m

8. The equivalent resistance between A & B is : 8. A B

9. Three equal charges q1 = q2 = q3 = q are placed on 9. q1 = q 2 = q 3 = q

work done will be (1)

(1) The shape of the plates (1)

(2) The size of the plates (2)

(3) The charges on the plates (3)

(4) The separation between the plates (4)

(4) None of these (4)

14. In a meter bridge, the balancing length from the 14. 1

15. Match the column-I with column-II : 15. -I -II

(b) Nuclear fission (q) nucleus

(d) ray emission (s) heavy water

17. The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to 17.

(1) 15 volt (1) 15

(2) 30 volt (2) 30

i12  i22 i12  i22

i12  i22 i12  i22

(3) [A–1] (3) [A–1]

(4) None of these. (4) .

KE metal 1 metal 2 KE metal 1 metal 2

From above graph between kinetic energy vs vs

(1) work function of metal-1 is higher than metal-2 (1) -1 -2

(2) work function of metal-1 is lower than metal-2 (2) -1 -2

(4) none of these. (4)

the decays in the sequence are : Li (1) 

The logic circuit gate is :

(1) zero (1)

(3) (1/20) A (3) (1/20) A

(4) (1/50) A (4) (1/50) A

27. The angular magnification of a telescope which 27. f1 f2

(1) 10 m/s (1) 10 m/s

(2) 20 m/s (2) 20 m/s

(3) 30 m/s (3) 30 m/s

30. A ray of light is incident at 60 on one face of a 30. ti

(3) 1.5 (3) 1.5

(4) 1.33 (4) 1.33

31. In a excited hydrogen atom energy of an electron 31.

(1) Fresnel hypothesis (1)

(2) de-Broglie hypothesis (2)

(3) Plank's hypothesis (3)

(4) None of these (4)

(1) 5.88 × 10–5 N (1) 5.88 × 10–5 N