Full Syllabus Test-29: DATE: 30-03-2023

ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23
FULL SYLLABUS TEST-29

TEST-ID : 229
DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 30-03-2023 MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : Full Syllabus
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
All India Full Syllabus Test–29 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Series-A / 30-Mar-2023
INSTRUCTION
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and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
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sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
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All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
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NLI / 2
TOPIC : Full Syllabus

SECTION-A -A
Attempt All 35 Questions 35
1. When an electric field is applied across a 1.

semiconductor, then :
(I)
(I) Electrons move from lower energy level to
higher energy level in the conduction band
(II)
(II) Electrons move from higher energy level to
lower energy level in the conduction band
(III)
(III) Holes in the valence band move from higher
energy level to lower energy level
(IV)
(IV) Holes in the valence band move from lower
energy level to higher energy level
Out of these, correct statement are :
(1) I and III (1) I III
(2) I and II (2) I II

(3) u
e
II t IV
tit I IV
(3) II and IV
(4) I and IV s
(4)
2. t
Which of the following curve does not represent 2.
In
in one dimension : igh
L
v v w
Ne
v v
(1) (2) (1) (2)

t t t t
v v
v
v
(3) (4) (3) (4)

t t
t t
3. The relative error in the determination of the
surface area of a sphere is '', then the relative 3. ''
error in the determination of its volume is :
3 3
(1)  (1) 
2 2
2
(2)  2

3 (2)
3
(3) 
(3) 
5
(4)  5
2 (4) 
2
NLI / 3
4. A conveyor belt is moving at constant speed of 4. 2m/s
2m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient
of friction between them is  = 0.5. The distance  = 0.5
2
that the box will move relative to belt before g = 10 m/s :
coming to rest on it, taking g = 10 m/s2, is :

(1) 0.4 meter
(1) 0.4 meter
(2) 1.2 meter
(2) 1.2 meter
(3) 0.6 meter
(3) 0.6 meter
(4)
(4) Zero
5. A point P on the trajectory of a projectile projected 5. P

at an angle  with horizontal subtends angle   P
and  at the point of projection and point of landing
 
then :
y
y
v P
te v P
   titu
x
Ins   
x
ht
g
(1) tan  + tan  = tan 
Li (1) tan  + tan  = tan 
(2) tan  + tan  = tan  ew
N (2) tan  + tan  = tan 
(3) tan  + tan  = tan  (3) tan  + tan  = tan 
(4) tan  + tan  = 2 tan  (4) tan  + tan  = 2 tan 
6. Two particles A and B execute simple harmonic 6. A B A B

5T 5T
motion of period T and . They start from mean T
4 4
position. The phase difference between them when A A
the particle A completes one oscillation will be :
B
 
(1) (1)
2 2
(2) Zero (2)
2 2
(3) (3)
5 5
 
(4) (4)
4 4
NLI / 4
7. The distance of centre of mass from point O of 7. O
two square plates system as shown, if mases of
plates are 2m and m is (their edges are a and 2a 2m a
respectively) : m 2a
a a
O O
2a 2a
a a
(1) (1)
2 2
(2) a (2) a
3a 3a
(3) (3)
2 2
2a 2ate
u (4)
tit 3
(4)
3
8. Assuming that the potential energy of spring is 8. In
s x0
zero when it is stretched by x , then its potential ht
0
g x0
energy when it is compressed by
x
is: Li
0 2
2
ew
N
3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2
(1) kx 0 (2)  kx 0 (1) kx 0 (2)  kx 0
8 4 8 4
3 2 1 2 3 2 1 2
(3)  kx 0 (4) kx 0 (3)  kx 0 (4) kx 0
8 8 8 8
9. For the system shown in the figure the inclined 9.

plane is fixed, all the pulleys are light and friction
is absent everywhere. The tension in the string
will be :
m m
m  m

2 3 2 3
mg sin  mg sin  (1) mg sin  (2) mg sin 
(1) (2) 3 2
3 2
1 1
(3) mg sin  (4) 2mg sin (3) mg sin  (4) 2mg sin
2 2
NLI / 5
10. A man goes to a height equal to the radius of earth 10.
from its surface. The weight of the person at that
height relative to his weight on the surface of earth
is :
1
(1)
1 2
(1)
2
1
1 (2)
(2) 3
3
1
1 (3)
(3) 4
4
1
1 (4)
(4) 5
5
11. A particle of mass 'm' collides with another 11. 'm' M

stationary particle of mass M . If after collision the
second particle starts moving with the speed if
the first particle which of the following is a possible
condition : 'e'
te
(1) e = 0 (1) e = 0
u
m s tit m
(2) e  1
M
t In (2) e  M  1
igh
(3) e 
m
1
L (3) e 
m
1
M
ew M
N
M M
(4) e  1 (4) e  1
m m
12. An ideal gas of mass m in a state A goes to another 12. m A

state B via three different processes as shown in B
figure. If Q1, Q2 and Q3 denote the heat absorbed Q 1, Q2 Q3
by the gas along the three paths, then :
(1) Q1 < Q2 < Q3 (1) Q1 < Q2 < Q3
(2) Q1 < Q2 = Q3 (2) Q1 < Q2 = Q3
(3) Q1 = Q2 > Q3 (3) Q1 = Q2 > Q3
(4) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 (4) Q1 > Q2 > Q3
NLI / 6
13. For spectral series of hydrogen atom, match the 13. I
following II
Column I Column II
I II
A. Lyman series 1. Ultraviolet region
A. 1.
B. Balmer series 2. Infrared region
B. 2.
C. Paschen series 3. Visible region
C. 3.
D. Brackett series
D.
A B C D A B C D
(1) 1 3 2 2 (1) 1 3 2 2
(2) 2 1 2 2 (2) 2 1 2 2
(3) 2 1 3 3 (3) 2 1 3 3
(4) 1 2 2 3 (4) 1 2 2 3
14. The P-V diagram of a system undergoing 14. P-V

thermodynamic transformation is shown in figure. ABC 50 J
The work done on the system in going from
A  B  C is 50 J and 20 cal heat is given to the 20 cal A C
system. The change in internal energy between
A and C is :
u te P
tit
P
s
t In
igh
L
ew
V
N V
(1) 34 J
(1) 34 J
(2) 70 J
(2) 70 J
(3) 84 J (3) 84 J
(4) 134 J (4) 134 J
15. If earth suddenly stops rotating about its own axis, 15.
the increase in it’s temperature will be : :
R2 2 R 2 2
(1) (1)
5 Js 5 Js
R2 2 R2 2
(2) (2)
Js Js
Rm 2 Rm 2
(3) (3)
5Js 5Js
(4) None of these (4)
NLI / 7
16. Assertion (A) : An oscillating charge produces an 16. :

electric field in space, which produces an
oscillating magnetic field, which in turn, is a
source of electric field and so on.
:
Reason (R) : The oscillating electric and magnetic
field thus regenerate each other, so to speak, as
the wave propagates through the space.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R) (R)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(A)
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) (R)
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
17. Input to a NAND gate are A and B are made as 17. NAND A B
below
u te
stit
t In
igh NAND
Out put of the NAND gate is : L
ew
N
18. :
18. Assertion (A) : The method of dimensions analysis
cannot validate the exact relationship between
physical quantities in any equation.
:
Reason (R) : It does not distinguish between the
physical quantities in any equation.
(1) (A) (R) (R) (A)

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (2) (A) (R) (R)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (A)
(3) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (4) (A) (R)
NLI / 8
19. Oxygen is 16 times heavier than hydrogen. Equal 19. 16
volumes of hydrogen and oxygen are mixed. The
ratio of speed of sound in the mixture to that in
:
hydrogen is :
1 1
(1) (1)
8 8
32 32
(2) (2)
17 17
(3) 8 (3) 8
2 2
(4) (4)
17 17
20. The equation of displacement of two waves are 20.

given as
 
y1  10 sin  3t   ; y 2  5(sin3t  3 cos 3t)
   3
y1  10 sin  3t   ; y 2  5(sin3t  3 cos 3t)
 3
Then what is the ratio of their amplitudes : u te

tit1 : 2
(1)
s
(1) 1 : 2
t In
(2) 2 : 1 g h (2) 2 : 1
Li (3) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
ew
(4) None of these
N (4)
21. The orbit of a geo-stationary satellite is circular. 21.

The time period of satellite depends on
(I) Mass of the satellite

(I)
(II) Mass of the earth
(II)
(III) Radius of the orbit
(III)
(IV) Height of the satellite from the surface of the
(IV)
earth.
Which of the following statements is/are correct :
(1) Only I (1) I
(2) Both I and II (2) I II
(3) I, II and III (3) I, II III
(4) II, III and IV (4) II, III IV
NLI / 9
22. Two light rays having the same wavelength  in 22. 
vacuum are in phase initially. Then the first ray
travels a path L1 through a medium of refractive n1
index n1 while the second ray travels a path of L1 n2
length L2 through a medium of refractive index
n2. The two waves are then combined to produce L2
interference. The phase difference between the
two waves is :
2
2 (1) (L 2  L1 )
(1) (L 2  L1 ) 

2
2 (2) (n1L1  n2L 2 )
(2) (n1L1  n2L 2 ) 

2 2
(3) (n2L1  n1L 2 ) (3) (n2L1  n1L 2 )
 
2  L1 L2  2  L1 L2 
(4)    (4)   
  n1 n2    n1 n2 
23. In Young's experiment when sodium light of 23. 5893 Å

wavelength 5893 Å is used, then 62 fringes are
seen in the field of view. Instead, if violet light of
u te 62
tit
wavelength 4358 Å is used then the number of 4358 Å
fringes that will be seen in the field of view will s
be:
t In
(1) 54 igh (1) 54
L (2) 64
(2) 64
ew
(3) 74 N (3) 74
(4) 84 (4) 84
24. The effective focal length of the lens combination 24. –60 cm
shown in the figure in –60 cm. The radii of
curv ature of the curved surface of the 12 cm
plano-convex lenses are 12 cm each and refractive 1.5
index of the lens is 1.5. The refractive index of
the liquid is :
Liquid Liquid
(1) 1.33 (2) 1.42 (1) 1.33 (2) 1.42

(3) 1.53 (4) 1.60 (3) 1.53 (4) 1.60
NLI / 10
25. Using Bohr's model, calculate the electric current 25. H-
created by the electron. When the H-atom is in
the ground state. (With radius a0 and velocity v) :
( a0 v)
(1) 2a0v
(1) 2a0v
e
(2) e
2v (2)
2v
ev ev
(3) 2a (3) 2a
0
0
(4) Zero (4) Zero

26. A vessel consists of two plane mirrors at right
angles (as shown in figure). the vessel is filled with 26. 90o
water. The total deviation in incident ray is:
u te
(1) 0o s tit
t In (1) 0 o
(2) 90o
igh (2) 90
L o
(3) 180o
ew (3) 180o
(4) None of these
N
(4)
27. 1 mol of H2 gas is contained in a box of volume
27. H2 1 mol, T = 300 K V = 1 m3
V = 1 m3 of T = 300 K. The gas is heated to a
T = 300 K
temperature of T = 3000 K and the gas gets
converted to a gas of H-atoms. The final pressure H-
would be (considering all gases to be ideal) :
(1) Same as the pressure initially

(1)
(2) 2 times the pressure initially
(2) 2
(3) 10
(4) 20
28. In a radioactive material the activity at time t1 is 28. t1 R1 t2
R1 and at a later time t 2, it is R2. If the decay
R2 
constant of the material is , then :
(1) R1  R2 e(t1  t2 ) (1) R1  R2 e(t1  t2 )
(2) R1  R2 e(t1  t 2 ) (2) R1  R2 e(t1  t 2 )
(3) R1  R 2 (t 2 / t1 )
(3) R1  R 2 (t 2 / t1 )
(4) R1 = R2 (4) R1 = R2
NLI / 11
29. When photons of energy h fall on an aluminium 29. h
plate (of work function E0), photoelectrons of
E0 K
maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the
frequency of the radiation is doubled, the
maximum kinetic energy of the ejected
photoelectrons will be :
(1) K + E0
(1) K + E0
(2) 2K (2) 2K
(3) K (3) K
(4) K + h (4) K + h
30. The light rays having photons of energy 1.8 eV 30. 1.8 eV
are falling on a metal surface having a work 1.2 eV
function 1.2 eV. What is the stopping potential to
be applied to stop the emitting electrons :
(1) 3 eV (1) 3 eV
(2) 1.2 eV (2) 1.2 eV
(3) 0.6 V (3) 0.6 V
(4) 1.4 V (4) 1.4 V
te
31. The equivalent reistance of the circuit across AB 31. AB
is given by : u
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 13
(2) 13
(3) 4or 13
(3) 4or 13
(4) 4or 0
(4) 4or 0
0
32. A solid sphere of radius R1 and volume charge 32. R1 
r
0
density   is enclosed by a hollow sphere of R2
r
radius R2 with negative surface charge density , 
such that the total charge in the system is zero, 0
is a positive constant and r is the distance from R2
0 r R1 :
R2
the centre of the sphere. The ratio R is :
1

 (1)  (2) 2 / 0
(1)  (2) 2 / 0 0
0
0 0
(3) 0 / (2) (4) (3) 0 / (2) (4)
 
NLI / 12
33. The figure given below shows a charge +Q held 33. +Q S
on an insulating support S and enclosed by a
O
hollow spherical conductor. O represents the
centre of the spherical conductor and P is a point P OP = x SP = r P
such that OP = x and SP = r. The electric field at
point P will be :
Q
Q (1) 4  x 2
(1) 4  x 2 0
0
Q
Q (2) 4 r 2
(2) 4 r 2 0
0
(3) 0
(3) 0
34. How long can an electric bulb of 100 W be kept 34. 2 kg 100 W
glowing by fusion of 2 kg of deuterium ? Take the
u te
tit
fusion reaction as
s
In H  H 
3
2
H 12 H 1 He  H  3.27 MeV 3
1
t
2
1
2
1 1 He  H  3.27 MeV
(1) 6 × 103 yr
igh (1) 6 × 10 3
(2) 5 × 104 yr L (2) 5 × 10 4
(3) 7 × 105 yr ew (3) 7 × 105

6
N
(4) 10 × 10 yr (4) 10 × 106
35. One plate of a capacitor is connected to a spring 35.
as shown in the figure. Area of both the plates is
A. In steady state, separtion between the plates is A
0.8d (spring was unstreched and the distance 0.8d
between the plates was d when the capacitor was
d
uncharged). The force constant of the spring is
approximately :
40 AE2 20 AE 40 AE2 20 AE

(1) (2) (1) (2)
d3 d2 d3 d2
60 AE 2 0 AE2 60 AE2 0 AE2

(3) (4) (3) (4)
Ad3 2d3 Ad3 2d3
NLI / 13
SECTION-B -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 15 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking. 10
36. The resultant capacitance of given circuit is : 36. P Q
(1) 3C (1) 3C
(2) 2C (2) 2C
(3) C (3) C
(4) C/3 (4) C/3
37. A storage battery of emf 8 V and internal resistance 37. 8 0.5 
0.5  in being charged by a 120 V DC supply using 15.5 
a series resistor of 15.5 . What is the terminal
u te
120 DC
tit
voltage of the battery during charging :
(1) 10 V s
(2) 11.5 V t In (1) 10 V
(2) 11.5 V
(3) 7 V
igh (3) 7 V
(4) 16 V L (4) 16 V
ew
38. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is 38.
N
being rotated about a vertical axis through the
centre of the circular base. If the radius of the
vessel is r and angular velocity of rotation is , r 
then the difference in the heights of the liquid at
the centre of the vessel and the edge is :
r r 2 2 r r 2 2
(1) 2g (2) (1) 2g (2)
2g 2g
2 2
(3) 2gr (4) (3) 2gr (4)
2gr 2 2gr 2
39. A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One 39.
is a square hole of side L at a depth y from the top
and the other is a circular hole of radius R at a L y R
depth 4y from the top. When the tank is completely 4y
filled with water the quantities of water flowing R
out per second from both the holes are the same.
Then, R is equal to :
(1) 2L (1) 2L
L L
(2) (2)
2 2
(3) L (3) L
L L
(4) (4)
2 2
NLI / 14
40. The magnetic force per unit length on a wire 40. 0.20T 45o
carrying a current of 10 A and making an angle of
45o with the direction of a uniform magnetic field
of 0.20T is : 10
(1) 2 2 Nm1 (1) 2 2 Nm1
2 2
(2) Nm1 (2) Nm1
2 2
2 2
(3) Nm1 (3) Nm1
2 2
(4) 4 2 Nm1 (4) 4 2 Nm1
41. A galvanometer of resistance 50  is connected 41. 50  3V 2950

to a battery of 3V along with a resistance of 2950 30
in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is
obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce
this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in 20
sereis should be :
(1) 6050
(1) 6050
(2) 4450
(2) 4450
u te
tit
(3) 5050
(3) 5050
s
(4) 5550
t In (4) 5550
42. Point out the best representation of relationg h42. ()
Li
(T)
between magnetic susceptibility (  ) and
e w:
temperature (T) for a paramagnetic material
N
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
NLI / 15
43. The figure shows a wire sliding on two parallel 43. 

conducting rails placed at a separation . A
magnetic field B exists in a direction perpendicular
v
to the plane of the rails. The force required to kept
the wire moving at a constant velocity v will be :
(1) evB (1) evB
 0Bv  0Bv
(2) (2)
4 l 4 l
(3) Blv
(3) Blv
(4) zero (4)
44. The equivalent inductance of two inductors is 44. 2.4 H
2.4 H when connected in parallel and 10H when
10H
connected in series. What is the value of
inductances of the individual inductors :
te
(1) 8H, 2H
u
(1) 8H, 2H
s tit6H, 4H
(2)
(2) 6H, 4H
t In
(3) 5H, 5H g h (3) 5H, 5H
(4) 7H, 3H
Li (4) 7H, 3H
ew
is :
N
45. The power factor of the circuit as shown in figure 45.
(1) 0.2
(1) 0.2
(2) 0.4
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.8 (3) 0.8
(4) 0.6 (4) 0.6
46. The line that draws power supply to your house 46.
from street has :
(1) Zero average current (1)

(2) 220 V average voltage (2) 220 V
(3) Voltage and current out of phase by 90° (3) 90°
NLI / 16
47. The relative density of lead is 11.3. Its density 47. 11.3 (in g/cm3)
(in g/cm3) : :
(1) 11.3 (1) 11.3
(2) 1.13 × 104
(2) 1.13 × 104
(3) 11.3 × 102 (3) 11.3 × 102
(4) 1.13 (4) 1.13
48. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep 48.
sea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1% ? (Take, 0.1% ?(
denstiy of sea water = 103 kg/m3, bulk modulus of = 103 kg/m3, = 9 × 108
rubber = 9 × 108 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2) : N/m , g = 10 m/s2) :
2
(1) 9 m (1) 9 m
(2) 18 m (2) 18 m
(3) 90 m (3) 90 m
(4) 180 m (4) 180 m
49. Six equal resistances each of 4  are connected 49. 4 
to form a figure. The resistance between two A B
corners A and B is :
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew (1) 4 
(1) 4  N
(2) 4/3  (2) 4/3 
(3) 12  (3) 12 
(4) 2  (4) 2 
50. The figure below shows a 2 V potentiometer used 50. 2V
for the determination of internal resistance of a 2.5 V
2.5 V cell. The balance point of the cell in the
75
open circuit is 75 cm. When a resistor of 10  is
10 
used in the external circuit of the cell, the balance
point shifts to 65 cm length of potentiometer wire. 65
The internal resistance of the cell is :
(1) 2.5  (1) 2.5 

(2) 2  (2) 2 
(3) 1.54  (3) 1.54 
(4) 1  (4) 1 
NLI / 17
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A -A
51. Acetanilide on nitration followed by hydrolysis 51.
mainly gives :
(1) o-Nitroacetanilide (1) o-
(2) p-Nitroaniline (2) p-
(3) m-Nitroaniline (3) m-
(4) 2, 4, 6-Trinitroaniline (4) 2, 4, 6-
52. Propylbenzene reacts with bromine in presence of 52.

light or heat to give
– CH2CH2CH2Br
(1) – CH2CH2CH2Br
(1)
u te
–CH2 CH2CH3 s tit –CH
(2) –Br
t In(2) –Br
2 CH 2CH 3
igh
L
(3)
–CH2–CH–CH3
ew (3)
–CH2–CH–CH3
Br N Br
–CH–CH2CH3 –CH–CH2CH3
(4) (4)
Br Br
53. Arrange the following carboxylic acids in the 53.

decreasing order of their acidities.
1. PhCOOH 1. PhCOOH
2. o-O2NC6H4COOH 2. o-O2NC6H4COOH
3. p-O2NC6H4COOH 3. p-O2NC6H4COOH
4. m-O2NC6H4COOH 4. m-O2NC6H4COOH
(1) 2 > 4 > 3 > 1 (1) 2 > 4 > 3 > 1
(2) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3 (2) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3
(3) 2 > 3 > 4 > 1 (3) 2 > 3 > 4 > 1
(4) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (4) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
NLI / 18
54. Consider the following acids: 54.
(i) MeCH2COOH (ii) Me2CHCOOH (i) MeCH2COOH (ii) Me2CHCOOH
(iii) Me3CCOOH (iv) Et3CCOOH (iii) Me3CCOOH (iv) Et3CCOOH
Correct order of the rate of esterfication of these MeOH
acids with MeOH is
(1) ii > iii > i > iv (1) ii > iii > i > iv
(2) ii > i > iii > iv (2) ii > i > iii > iv
(3) ii > iii > iv > i (3) ii > iii > iv > i
(4) i > ii > iii > iv (4) i > ii > iii > iv
55. Bakelite is obtained from phenol and 55.
formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the two
compounds is an example of
(1)
(1) Aromatic electrophilic substitution
(2) Aromatic nucleophilic Substitution (2)
(3) Free radical reaction (3)

(4) Aldol reaction. (4)
56. On the basis of intermolecular forces, polymers are
56.
classified as
u te
(1) Elastomers, Fibres, Thermoplastics and
(1)ti
t
Thermosetting
s
(2)
In
Elastomers, Fibres, Chain growth and Step growth t (2)
g h
(3) Addition polymers and Condensation polymers L i (3)
(4) Co polymer and additional polymer e w (4)

N
57. One of the the common alcohol used for the 57.
formation of cyclic ketal of canbonyl group :
(1) Glycol (1)

(2) Ethanol
(2)
(3) 1, 3-proponediamine
(3) 1, 3-
(4) Glycerol
(4)
58. The two isomers given below :
58.
COOH COOH COOH COOH

H OH and H OH H OH and H OH
HO H H OH H OH
HO H
COOH COOH COOH COOH
(1) Enantiomers (1)
(2) Diastereomers (2)
(3) Same molecule
(3)
(4) Positional isomers
(4)
NLI / 19
59. Amongst the following compounds, the optically 59.
active alkane having lowest molecular mass is :
(1) n-butane (1) n-

(2) Isopentane (2)
(3) 3-methyl hexane (3) 3-
(4) 2-Cyclopropyl butane (4) 2-
60. Glycose convert into alcohol by action of enzyme: 60.
(1) Invertase
(1)
(2) Maltose (2)
(3) Zymase (3)
(4) Diastase (4)
61.
61. The highest bond order present in :
(1) O2
(1) O2
(2) O2+
(2) O2+
(3) O2–
u te
(3) O2–
(4) N2
s titN2
(4)
62. The anion O2– is iso-electronic with : 62.In O 2–
ht
(1) F+ g (1) F +
(2) N2– Li (2) N 2–
ew
(3) F– N (3) F–
(4) N3+ (4) N3+
63. Match List I with List II and select the correct 63. I II
answer using codes given below in the lists :
I II
List I List II
i. a. Ge
i. Cyanide process a. Ultra pure Ge
ii. b.
ii. Flotation process b. Pine oil
iii. Electrolytic reduction c. Extraction of Al iii. c.
iv. Zone refining d. Extraction of Ag iv. d. Ag
(1) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b (1) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
(2) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a (2) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a (3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
(4) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b (4) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
64. In PO43–, the formal charge on each oxygen atom 64. PO43–
and the P – O bond order respectively are :
P–O
(1) –0.75, 0.6 (1) –0.75, 0.6
(2) –0.75, 1.0 (2) –0.75, 1.0
(3) –0.75, 1.25 (3) –0.75, 1.25
(4) –3, 1.25 (4) –3, 1.25
NLI / 20
65. The correct order of size among O, O2–, F and F– is: 65. O, O2–, F F–
(1) O2– > O > F– > F (1) O2– > O > F– > F
(2) O > O2– > F > F– (2) O > O2– > F > F–
(3) O2– > F– > F > O (3) O2– > F– > F > O
(4) O2– > F– > O > F (4) O2– > F– > O > F
66. Percentage of p-charactor in the orbital forming 66. P4 P-P p-

P-P bond in P4 molecule :
(1) 25% (1) 25%
(2) 50% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (3) 75%
(4) can't predict (4)
67. On de electronation of nitric oxide, electron comes 67.

out form :
(1) 2px (1) 2px
(2) 2px (2) 2px
(3) 2px (3) 2px
68. In trimer form of sulphur trioxide, each sulphur 68.

u te
atom is bonded with :
s tit
(1) four oxygen atoms t In (1)
(2) three oxygen atoms igh (2)
L
(3) two oxgyen atoms
ew (3)
(4) two sulphur atoms N (4)
69. Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give: 69.

(1) HOI (1) HOI
(2) HI (2) HI
(3) HOIO2 (3) HOIO2
(4) HOIO3 (4) HOIO3
70. The bleaching power of bleaching powder de- 70.

creases with time due to :
(1) Stabilisation of clorine as CaOCl and Ca(OCl)2 (1) CaOCl Ca(OCl)2
(2) Stabilisation of clorine as CaOCl and Ca(ClO3)2 (2) CaOCl Ca(ClO3)2
(3) Stabilisation of clorine as CaOCl and Ca(ClO4)2 (3) CaOCl Ca(ClO4)2
(4) Stabilisation of clorine as CaCl2 and Ca(ClO3)2 (4) CaCl2 Ca(ClO3)2
71. Which oxide will not give metal on heating : 71.
(1) HgO (1) HgO
(2) ZnO (2) ZnO
(3) Ag2O (3) Ag2O
(4) All of these (4)
NLI / 21
72. Which is correct order of magnetic moment : 72.
(1) Fe2+ < Cr = Mn+ (1) Fe2+ < Cr = Mn+
(2) Fe2+ > Mg+ > Cr (2) Fe2+ > Mg+ > Cr
(3) Fe2+ = Mn+ > Cr (3) Fe2+ = Mn+ > Cr
73. Which is amphoteric in nature : 73.
(1) SiO2 (1) SiO2
(2) SnO2 (2) SnO2
(3) PbO2 (3) PbO2
(4) CO2 (4) CO2
74. H2O2  H2O + O2 74. H2O2  H2O + O2
above reaction represents :
(1) oxidation of H2O2 (1) H2O2
(2) reduction of H2O2 (2) H2O2
(3) disproportionation of H2O2 te

(3) H2O2
u
(4) None
s tit
(4)
75. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O are : t In [Cr(H O) ]Cl
75. [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
gh (1)
2 6 3
(1) Linkage isomers

Li
(2) Hydrate isomers ew (2)
(3) Coordination position isomers
N
(3)
(4) Ionisation isomers (4)
76. A sealed tube which can withstand a pressure of 76. 3
3 atmosphere is filled with air at 270C and 760 mm 0
27 C 760 mm
pressure. The temperature, at which the tube will
brust, will be :
(1) 3810C (1) 3810C
(2) 6270C (2) 6270C
(3) 4520C (3) 4520C
(4) 11730C (4) 11730C
77. The density of a face - centred cubic element is 77. 6.25 g cm–3
6.25 g cm–3. Calculate the length of the edge of ( = 60.2 amu):
the unit cell. (At mass of the element = 60.2 amu):
(1) 400 pm
(1) 400 pm
(2) 600 pm
(2) 600 pm
(3) 800 pm
(3) 800 pm
(4) 200 pm
(4) 200 pm
NLI / 22
78. A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 78. 10 mg 100 m s–1

100 m s–1. The wavelength of the de-Broglie wave
associated with it would be :
(1) 6.63×10–7 m
(1) 6.63×10–7 m
(2) 6.63×10–31 m
(2) 6.63×10–31 m
(3) 6.63×10–4 m (3) 6.63×10–4 m
(4) 6.63×10–35 m (4) 6.63×10–35 m
79. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in 79.

the ratio of 1:4 (w/w) what is the ratio of partial 1:4 (w/w)
pressure of two gases in the mixture :
(1) 16 : 1 (1) 16 : 1
(2) 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
80. The density of 3M solution of NaCl is 1.25 gmL-1 80. 3M NaCl 1.25 gmL-1
calculate molality of the solution :
(1) 3 m
(1) 3 m
u te
(2)it1.25 m
(2) 1.25 m
s t
(3) 2.79 m
t In (3) 2.79 m
(4) 2 m igh (4) 2 m
L
81. E1, E2 and E3 are the emf values of the three
ew 81. emf E1, E2 E3
galvanic cells respectively : N i. Zn|Zn2+ (1M) || Cu2+ (0.1 M) | Cu
2+ 2+
i. Zn|Zn (1M) || Cu (0.1 M) | Cu
ii. Zn|Zn2+ (1M) || Cu2+ (1 M) | Cu
2+ 2+
ii. Zn|Zn (1M) || Cu (1 M) | Cu
iii. Zn|Zn2+ (0.1M) || Cu2+ (1 M) | Cu
2+ 2+
iii. Zn|Zn (0.1M) || Cu (1 M) | Cu
Which one of the following is true :

(1) E2 > E3 > E1
(1) E2 > E3 > E1
(2) E3 > E2 > E1
(2) E3 > E2 > E1
(3) E1 > E2 > E3
(3) E1 > E2 > E3
(4) E1 > E3 > E2
(4) E1 > E3 > E2
82. Which one of the following equations does not 82.

correctly represent the first law of thermodynamics
for the given process :
(1) : q = –w
(1) isothermal process : q = –w
(2) : q = –w
(2) cyclic process : q = –w
(3) : E = q
(3) isochoric process : E = q
(4) : E = –w
(4) adiabatic process : E = –w
NLI / 23
83. The example of positive deviation of : 83.
(1) Benzen-toluene (1)
(2) Chloroform and acetone (2)
(3) Ethyl alcohol & water (3)
(4) Nitric acid and water
(4)
84. Nitric oxide reacts with bromine and give nitrosyl
84.
bromide as per the reaction given below
2NO(g) + Br2 (g)  2NOBr (g)

2NO(g) + Br2 (g)  2NOBr (g)

when 0.087 mol of NO and 0.0437 mol of Br2 are
mixed in a closed container at constant 0.087 NO 0.0437 Br2
temperature, 0.0518 mol of NOBr is obtained at 0.0518 NOBr
equilibrium. Calculate the equilibrium amount of
nitric oxide :
(1) 0.087 mol
(1) 0.087 mol
(2) 0.0352 mol
(2) 0.0352 mol
(3) 0.0518 mol (3) 0.0518 mol
(4) 0.0480 mol (4) 0.0480 mol

85. The pKa value of weak acid HA is 4.80. The pKb of 85. HA pKa 4.80 BOH pKb
a weak base, BOH is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
te 4.78 pH
solution at the corresponding salt, BA, will be :
titu
(1) 5.22 (2) 9.07
Ins(1) 5.22 (2) 9.07
t
gh (3) 7.01
(3) 7.01 (4) 13.90
(4) 13.90
SECTION-B
L i SECTION-B
w
Ne 15
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than
considered for marking.
86. The Tyndall effect is observed only when follow-
86.
ing conditions are satisfied :
(a) The diameter of the dispersed particles is much
smaller than the wavelength of the light used. (a)
(b) The diameter of the dispersed particles is not
much smaller than the wavelength of the light
(b)
used
(c) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
and dispersion medium are almost similar in (c)
magnitude.
(d) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
(d)
and dispersion medium differ greatly in mag-
nitude.
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (c) (1) (b) (d) (2) (a) (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d) (3) (b) (c) (4) (a) (d)
NLI / 24
87. The correct set of four quantum number for the 87. Fe++ Fe+++
electron involved in Fe++ to Fe+++ conversion :
(1) n=3, l=2, m=–2, S=–1/2 (1) n=3, l=2, m=–2, S=–1/2
(2) n=4, l=0, m=0, S=–1/2 (2) n=4, l=0, m=0, S=–1/2
(3) n=3, l=0, m=0, S=–1/2 (3) n=3, l=0, m=0, S=–1/2
(4) n=4, l=2, m=–2, S=–1/2 (4) n=4, l=2, m=–2, S=–1/2
88. The hydrated salt, Na2SO4.xH2O undergoes 55.9% 88. Na2SO4.xH2O
loss in weight on heating and becomes anhydrous 55.9%
the value of x will be : x
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 10 (4) 10
89. Which can act as buffer :
89.
u te
(1) A mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate
s tit
(1)
(2) A mixture of Ammonium chloride and ammonium t I
n
Hydroxide igh (2)
L
(3) HCN + NaCN
ew (3) HCN + NaCN
(4) All of these

N
(4)
N N N N N N
90. 10 ml HCl, 50 ml H2SO4 and 100 ml HNO3 90. 10 ml HCl, 50 ml H SO 100 ml HNO3
2 10 5 2 10 2 4 5
are mixed. The normality of the mixture of the
acidic solution is :
(1) 1/16
(1) 1/16
(2) 5/16 (2) 5/16
(3) 3/16 (3) 3/16

(4) 3/8 (4) 3/8
91. Strongest base is :
91.
(1) (2) ..
N O
.. (1) (2) ..
.. N O
.. ..
(3) .. (4) ..
N N (3) .. (4) ..
N N
H H
H H
NLI / 25
92. Which represents Reimer- Tiemann reaction : 92.
CH2OH COONa CH2OH COONa

CHO CHO
(1) Conc. NaOH (1) Conc. NaOH
OH OH OH OH
NaOH/CO 2 NaOH/CO 2
(2) (2)
OH COOH OH COOH
OH OH
OH OH CHCI3,NaOH
CHCI3,NaOH (3)
(3)
CHO
CHO
93. A characteristic group test for phenolic gp. is : 93.
(1) Libermann’s nitroso reaction (1)
(2)
te
(2) Coupling with diazonium salt
u
(3) Neutral FeCl3 s tit
(3) FeCl3
t In
(4) All of the above
igh (4)
L
94. The reaction:
ew 94.
N
O O O O
|| || || ||
C C C C
KOH :N:K+
n–BuBr KOH :N:K+
n–BuBr
NH NH
C C C C
|| || || ||
O O O O
O O
|| ||
C –COOH C 1. aq.NaOH –COOH
1. aq.NaOH N Bu–n n–BuNH2 +
N Bu–n n–BuNH2 + 2. H3O+ –COOH
2. H3O+ –COOH C
C ||
|| O
O
is called
(1) Carbylamine reaction (1)
(2) Hofmann reaction (2)
(3) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis (3)
(4) Cope reaction (4)
NLI / 26
95. The compound 95.
X X
(Where X is an o-, p- directing group ( X o- p- ‘k
Y and y is a m-directing group) Ym— ‘k )
Y
is subjected to electrophilic substitution reaction Z
for introdution of Z. The compound formed would
be :
X X
(1) (1)
Z Y Z Y
X X
(2) (2)
Y Y
Z Z
X X
Z Z
(3) (3)
Y Y
(4) Both 2 and 3 te2 (4) 3
96. The hybridization state of carbon in diamond is : 96. ti

tu
Ins
(1) sp 3
ht (1) sp 3
g
(2) sp 2
Li (2) sp 2
w
(3) sp Ne (3) sp
(4) d2sp3 (4) d2sp3
97. Which of the following has greatest proton affinity: 97.
(1) NH3 (1) NH3
(2) PH3 (2) PH3
(3) AsH3 (3) AsH3
(4) SbH3 (4) SbH3
98. Which of the following is not stabilised by 98.

hyperconjugation :
(1) CH3
(1) CH3
.
. (2) CH CH
3 2
(2) CH CH
3 2
.
. (3)  CH3 2 CH
(3)  CH3 2 CH
(4)
(4) All of these
NLI / 27
1
99. t1/ 2  is true for which order reaction : 1
Kc 99. t1/ 2 
Kc
(1) zero
(1)
(2) 1
(2) 1
(3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 3
(4) 3
100. Which of the following produces white ppt
100.
immediately with Lucas reagent :
(1) 10 Alcohol
(1) 10
(2) 20 Alcohol
(2) 20
(3) 30 Alcohol
(3) 30
(4) All of these
(4)
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 28

PART-1 (SECTION-A) -A
101. When fungi feed on dead organic matter, they are 101.
known as: :
(1) Dimorphic (1)
(2) Parasites (2)
(3) Saprophyte (3)
102. Which of the following is needed for the synthesis 102.
of auxin: :
(1) Zinc (1)
(2) Copper (2)
(3) Magnesium (3)
(4) Boron (4)
103. Shell of Diatoms are indestructible made up of: 103. u te :
(1) CaCO3 stit
(1) CaCO
t In 3
(2) Silica
g h (2)
(3) MgCO3 Li (3) MgCO 3
(4) Ca3(PO4)2 ew (4) Ca3(PO4)2

N
104. A typical angiospermic anther is: 104. :
(1) Bilobed (1)
(2) Trilobed (2)
(3) Tetralobed (3)
105. Which plant is seeds cannot germinate & 105.

established without the presence of mycorrhizae: :
(1) Pinus (1)
(2) Cedrus (2)
(3) Cycas (3)
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4)
106. Kranz anatomy is found in the leaves of: 106. :
(1) Wheat (1)
(2) Mustard (2)
(3) Potato (3)
(4) Sugar cane (4)

NLI / 29
107. Where does light reaction take place 107.
(1) Grana (1)
(2) Stroma (2)
(3) Cytoplasm (3)
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum (4)
108. Given below are two statements : 108.

Statement I : -I:
Classes comprising animals like fishes, amphibians,
reptiles, birds along with mammals all these. based
on the common features like presence of notochord
and dorsal hollow neural system. are included in
phylum Chordata.
Statement II : - II :
The highest category of plants like algae, funaria, fern,
cycas and mango is division in contrast to phylum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) I II
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3)
u te I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct. st(4)it I II
109. Another name of nutrient cycling is: t In
109. :
igh (1)
(1) Chemical cycling L
(2) Physico–chemical cycling ew (2)
N
(3) Biogeochemical cycling (3)
(4) Geochemical cycling (4)
110. Polyblend A fine powder of recycled modified 110.

plastic has proved to be a good material for: :
(1) Making plastic sacks (1)
(2) Use as a fertilizer (2)
(3) Construction of roads (3)
(4) Making tubes of pipes (4)
111. Which of the following is sterile and haploid in 111.

the sex determination of honey bee (respectively): :
(1) Worker bee, drone (1)
(2) drone, workerbee (2)
(3) Queen, drone (3)
(4) None of the above (4)
NLI / 30
112. Frankia is nitrogen fixing bacteria in the roots of 112.
non-legumineus plants which is: :
(1) Alfalfa (1)
(2) Clover beans (2)

(3) Alnus (3)
(4) Sweet clover (4)
113. What is the number of essential elements for the 113.
growth & metabolism of plants:
(1) 14
(1) 14
(2) 17 (2) 17
(3) 21 (3) 21
(4) 23 (4) 23
114. Chief criteria for essentiality of mineral elements: 114.
(1) In the absence of the element the plants do not (1)
complete their life cycle or set the seeds.
(2) The requirement of the element must be specific

(2)
and not replaceable by another element.
u te
(3) The element must be directly involved in the
s tit
metabolism of the plants
t In (3)
(4) All of the above
igh (4)
115. Amount of oxygen being added to atmosphereLby 115.
ew
amazon forest is: N
(1) 7% (1) 7%
(2) 15% (2) 15%
(3) 20% (3) 20%
(4) 25% (4) 25%
116. Uniport, symport & antiport are types of: 116. :
(1) Simple diffusion (1)
(2) Facilitated diffusion (2)
(3) Active transport (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
117. Pusa komal is the variety of: 117. :
(1) Cowpea (1)
(2) Cauli flower (2)
(3) Wheat (3)
(4) Brassica (4)
NLI / 31
118. Which of the following is not a step of calvin cycle: 118. ?
(1) Decarboxylation (1)
(2) Carboxylation (2)
(3) Regeneration (3)
(4) Reduction (4)
119. The key product of glycolysis is: 119. :
(1) PEP (1) PEP
(2) Acetyl CoA (2)
(3) Pyruvic acid (3)
(4) Glucose (4)
A B
120. Person with genotype | | would show the blood 120. |A|B AB.
group as AB. This is because of: :
(1) Pleitropy
(1)
(2) Co-dominance
(2)
(3) Segregation
(3)
(4) Incomplete dominance
(4)
121. Largest gene in humans is:
121.
u te :
tit
(1) Dystrophin
(1)
(2) Insulin gene s
(3) Beta globin gene t In (2)
igh (3)
(4) Oncogene L (4)
122. In catalytic converters, carbon monoxide and ew 122.
nitric oxide of the exhaust are converted N
respectively into:
(1) Methane and nitrogen (1)

(2) Methane and nitrogen oxide (2)
(3) CO2 and N2 (3)
(4) CO2 and NH3 (4)
123. A process which maintains constancy of interval 123.

body environment of organisms despite varying
external. environmental conditions is called is: :
(1) Epistasis (1)

(2) Homeostasis (2)
(3) Heterosis (3)
(4) Antibios is (4)
124. First life form on earth was: 124. :
(1) Cyanobacterium (1)
(2) Chemoheterotroph (2)
(3) Autotroph (3)
(4) Photocytotroph (4)
NLI / 32
125. To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to: 125. mRNA :
(1) Smaller ribosomal unit (1)
(2) Larger ribosomal unit (2)
(3) Whole ribosome (3)
126. Allen's rule is with respect to: 126. :
(1) Aves (1)
(2) Amphibia (2)
(3) Reptiles (3)
(4) Mammals (4)
127. Which of the following is responsible for peat 127. :

formation:
(1)
(1) Marchantia
(2)
(2) Riccia
(3)
(3) Funaria
(4)
(4) Sphagnum
128. :
128. An example of edible underground stem is:
(1) ut
e
(1) Carrot
s tit
(2)
(2) Ground nut
t In (3)
(3) Sweet potato
igh (4)
(4) Potato
L
ew 129.
129. Given below are two statements : N
-I:
Statement I :
Nutrition of Nostoc and Anabaena is Chemosynthetic
autotrophic.
- II :
Statement II :
They oxidise various inorganic substances such as
nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and use the released
energy for their ATP production.
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct. (4) I II
130. Life originated on earth first in: 130. :
(1) Water (1)

(2) Land (2)
(3) Air (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
NLI / 33
131. Which of the following is incorrect match 131. :
(1) Pod colour – Green/yellow (1) –
(2) Stem height – Tall/ dwarf (2) –
(3) Seed colour – Violet/ white (3) –
(4) Seed shape – Round/wrinkled (4) –
132. The chief water containing cavities are present in: 132.
(1) Monocotyledonous stem (1)
(2) Dicotyledonous stem only (2)
(3) Monocot root only (3)
(4) Dicot root only (4)

133. In prophase I, which of the following represent 133. I,
transition to metaphase? ?
(1) Zygotene (1)
(2) Diplotene (2)
(3) Diakinesis (3)
u te
(4)
(4) Pachytene
it
134. st I–
134. Statement I– Osmotic pressure is positive pressure
applied t In II–
h
Statement II– Osmotic potential is not negative ig
L I II
w
Ne
Statement I & II are respectively:
(1)
(1) True, True
(2)
(2) True, False
(3)
(3) False, False
(4)
(4) False, True
PART-1 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can 15 15

choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 10 10
question. In case if candiate attempts more than
10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking. 135.
135. In which of the following disorder, affected :
individual posses 47 chromosomes:
(1)
(1) Turner's syndrome
(2)
(2) Klinefelter's syndrom
(3) Down's syndrom (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4)
NLI / 34
136. Which of them is present in chromatin: 136. :
i) DNA i)
ii) Histones ii)
iii) non-histone iii)
iv) RNA iv)
(1) i, ii, iii, iv (1) i, ii, iii, iv
(2) i, ii only (2) i, ii
(3) i, ii, iii only (3) i, ii, iii
(4) i only (4) i
137. Air prevention control of pollution act came into 137.

force in: (1) 1990
(1) 1990 (2) 1975
(2) 1975 (3) 1981
(3) 1981
(4) 1985
(4) 1985
138. :
138. Sclereids are:
(1)
(1) Spherical
(2)
(2) Oval
u te
(3) Cyclindrical
s tit (3)
(4) All of these

t In (4)
139. Given below are two statements : one is labelledg h139. (A)
Li
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R) e w (A) :
Assertion (A) N
Multicellular female gametophyte that bears two or
more archegonia or female sex organs present in
(R) :
megasporangium of cycas.
Reason (R)
In gymnosperms the male and female gametophytes
have an independent free-living existence.
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A R R, A
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) A R
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) A R
explanation of (A) (4) A R R, A
140. Age of tree can be estimated by: 140. :
(1) Diameter of its heart wood (1)
(2) Its height and birth (2)
(3) Biomass (3)
(4) Number of annual rings (4)
NLI / 35
141. About 40% angiosperms the pallen grains are shed 141.
at: :
(1) Four – Celled stage (1) –
(2) Three _ Celled stage (2) –
(3) Two – Celled stage (3) –
(4) Five – Celled stage (4) –
142. Increased diversity contribute in increased 142.

productivity this statement is given by: :
(1) Alexander van humbolt (1)
(2) Paul enrliche (2)
(3) Tilman (3)
(4) Edward wilson (4)
143. Pigment containing membranous extensions in 143. :

some cyanobacteria are:
(1)
(1) Chromatophores
(2)
(2) Heterocysts
u te
(3)it
(3) Basal bodies s t
t In (4)
(4) Pneumatophores
g h144.
144. Which of the following examples of biennials:L
i
(1) Sygarbeat ew (1)
N
(2) Cabbages (2)
(3) carrots (3)
145. A biologist studied the population of rats in a born 145.

He found that the average natality as 250, average
mortality was 240,immigration 20 emigration was
30. the net increase in population is: :
(1) zero (1)
(2) 10 (2) 10
(3) 15
(3) 15
(4) 5
(4) 5
146. :
146. A major site of synthesis of lipids:
(1)
(1) Nucleoplasm
(2) RER
(2) RER
(3) SER
(3) SER
(4)
(4) Symplast
NLI / 36
147. Which of them is incorrect: 147. :
(1) A community which is not in equilibrium with the (1)
environment is called climax community
(2) Establishment of a new community is generally (2)
slow
(3)
(3) Entire sequence of communities tout successively
change in a given area are called sere
(4)
(4) All are correct statements
148.
148. Nutrient enrichment of water bodies causes:
(1)
(1) Succession
(2)
(2) Stratification
(3) Eutrophication (3)
(4) Biomagnification (4)
149. Who found that green parts in plants is where 149.

glucose is made that glucose is stored as____. ____.
(1) Julius van sachs, starch (1)
(2) T.W. engelmann, glucose
u te (2)
(3) J, Sachs, glucose
tit
(3)
s
(4) None of these
t In (4)
150. Which chromosome to be completely sequenced h150.
g
in may 2006: Li
(1) Chromosome –I ew (1) –I
N
(2) Chromosome –II (2) –II
(3) Chromosome –21 (3) –21
(4) Chromosome –Y (4) –Y
PART-2 (SECTION-A) PART-2 (SECTION-A)
Attempt All 35 Questions Attempt All 35 Questions
151. Mark the false statement regarding the heart of 151. :
cockroach:
(1)
(1) Heart lies mid dorsally
(2)
(2) It is 13-chambered
(3)
(3) It is neurogenic
(4)
(4) It is myogenic
152.
152. Which of the following junctions help to stop
substances froms leaking across a tissue:
(1)
(1) Adhering junction
(2)
(2) Gap junction
(3) Tight junction (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
NLI / 37
153. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 153. (A)
(R)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(A) :
(R)
Assertion (A)
Nereis actively swimming in sea water. (R) :
Reason (R)
They possess so many lateral appendages, parapodia.
(1) A R R, A

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (4) A R R, A
explanation of (A)
154. :
154. All protozoans are:
(1)
(1) Autotrophs and live as predators
u te(2)
(2) Autotrophs and live as parasite
s tit
(3)
(3) Heterotrophs and live as only predator symbiotic
t In
gh (4)
organism
(4) Heterotrophs and live as predator or parasite Li
155. Disease, which have staggering effect onehuman w 155. :
population is: N
(1)
(1) Typhoid
(2)
(2) Common cold
(3)
(3) Mumps
(4)
(4) Malaria
156. :
156. A collar cells or choanocytes are found in:
(1)
(1) Lining of spongocoel
(2)
(2) Lining of canals
(3) 1 2
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4)
(4) Outer layer of body wall
157. :
157. Locomotory structure in annelida are:
(1) Parapodia (1)
(2) Setae (2)
(3) Longitudinal and circular muscle (3)
NLI / 38
158. (A)
158. Given below are two statements :
(R)
Statement I :
(A) :
If one margin of the appendage overlaps that of the
next one it is called twisted aestivation.
Statement II : (R) :
When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another
at the margin, without overlapping, it is said to be
imbricate.

(1) A R R, A
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) A R

u te (3) A R
tit A
s (4) R R, A
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct.
t In
gh
159. Which one is not charactersitics of Aves 159.
L i
(1) Presence of pneumatic bones (1)
w
(2) Presence of feathers Ne (2)
(3)
(3) Oil gland attached base of tail
(4)
(4) Cold blooded
160. A
160. A section of small intestinal mucosa showing villi
is given below and correctly identify labelling A D
to D:
A
B
A
B
C
D
(1) A – ,B– ,C– ,D–

(1) A – Villi, B – Lacteal, C – Capillaries, D – Crypts (2) A – ,B– ,C– ,D–
(2) A – Lacteal, B – Villi, C – Capillaries, D – Crypts
(3) A – ,B– ,C– ,D–
(3) A – Villi, B – Capillaries, C – Lacteal, D – Crypts
(4) A – ,B– ,C– ,D–
(4) A – Crypts, B – Capillaries, C – Lacteal, D – Villi
NLI / 39
(R) (A) :
Assertion (A)
Collenchyma tissue provide mechanical strength to the
(R) :
young stem
Reason (R)
Outer hypodermis, consists of a few layers of
collenchymatous cells just below the epidermis,
(1) A R R, A

(4) A R R, A
explanation of (A)
162. What will happen when pneumotaxic centre 162.
provides negative signal?
(1) Respiratory rate will be altered
u te (1)
(2) Reduced the duration of inspiration
s tit
(2)
(3) Respiratory rate will not change
t In (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2
igh (4)
L
163. Which is required for the conversion of inactive 163.
prothrombin into active thrombin e
w
cogulation of blood:
N during
(1)
(1) Antihaemophilic globulin
(2)
(2) Thrombo plastin
(3)
(3) Thrombokinase
(4) 1 3
(4) Both 1 and 3
164. :
164. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a disorder in which:
(1) Foetus undergoes blood cancer (1)
(2) Foetus would die due to excessive loss of blood
(2)
(3) Foetus would be suffering from severe anaemia and
jaundic (3)
(4) Adult would be suffering from severe anaemia and
(4)
jaundice
165. Lacteals are the lymph capillaries which are found 165. :
in: (1)
(1) large intestine
(2)
(2) Small intestine
(3)
(3) Neck region
(4) Right leg (4)
NLI / 40
Statement I : -I:
Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular
tube lying along mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen
Statement II :
- II :
10 pairs of small holes called spiracles present on
the lateral side of the body of cockroach
correct answer from the options given below (1) I II

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) I II
(4) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct.
167. Find out correct statement in the following : 167.
(a) DNA fragments move towards which electrode (a)

in electrophoresis technique-anode
(b) Meloidegyne incognitia infects which plant (b)

part- root
u te
(c) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotes as a method (c)it RNAi
s t
of cellular defense
t In
(d) Insulin consist of two polypeptide chains
igh (d)
L
(1) Only a, b and c
e w (1) a, b c
(2) a, b, c and d
N (2) a, b, c d
(3) Only a, c and d (3) a, c d
(4) Only c (4) c
168. The pectoral and pelvic girdle and the bones of 168. :
limb form :
(1)
(1) Axial skeleton
(2)
(2) Visceral skeleton
(3) Outer skeleton (3)
(4) Appendicular skeleton (4)

169. Which gene isolated from bacillus thuringiensis 169.
has been known to control the insect population
of corn borer :
(1) HLA
(1) HLA
(2) cry I Ab
(2) cry I Ab
(3) cry I AC (3) cry I AC
(4) Cry II ab (4) Cry II ab
NLI / 41
170. Match the following and mark the correct option: 170. :
Column–I Column–II –I –II
a) Sternum i) Synovial fluid a) i)
b) Glenoid cavity ii) Vertebrae b) ii)
c) Freely movable joint iii) Pectoral girdle c) iii)
d) Cartilagenous joint iv) Flat bones d) iv)
(1) a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv (1) a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv
(2) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii (2) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii (3) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(4) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii (4) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
171. Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit: 171.
(1) Ciliary movement (1)
(2)
(2) Flagellar movement
(3) Amoeboid movement

(3)
u te
(4) Gliding movement s tit
(4)
t In
172. :
gh (1)
172. Macula lutea is present in :
(1) Slightly above the posterior pole of eye ball Li

ew (2)
N
(2) At posteriro pole of eye lateral to blind spot
(3) At anterior pole of eye lateral to blind spot (3)
(4) Slightly below anterior pole of eye ball (4)
173. Receptor for protein hormones are located: 173. :
(1) In cytoplasm (1)
(2) On cell surface (2)
(3) In nucleus (3)
(4) On endoplasmic reticulum (4)
174. All the following tissues in mammals except one 174.

consists of a central medullary region surrounded
by a cortical region: :
(1) Ovary (1)
(2) Adrenal (2)
(3) Liver (3)
(4) Kidney (4)
NLI / 42
(R) (A) :
Assertion (A)
Glycocalyx of bacteria is called smooth layer.
(R) :
Reason (R)
When it is to be a loose sheath
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) A R R, A
(3) A R
176. Which of the following is not a method of 176. :
contraception:
(1) 375
(1) Multiload 375
(2)
(2) Condoms
u te
(3) Pills of combination of oxytocin & vasopressin
s tit (3)
(4) Lippes loop

t In (4)
177. Which one of the following structure is not a part igh177.
of female external genitalia:
L
ew :
(1) Labia majora N (1)

(2) Labia minora (2)
(3) Hymen (3)
(4) Cervical canal (4)
178. Which of the following hormone mainly helps in
178.
parturition:
?
(1) Progesterone (1)
(2) Thyroid hormone (2)
(3) Oxytocin (3)
(4) Luteinizing hormone (4)
179. There is always a time lay between the infection 179. AIDS
and apperance of AIDS symptoms. This period may :
vary froms:
(1) 5–10 months
(1) 5–10 months
(2) 1–2 months
(2) 1–2 months
(3) 3–4 years
(3) 3–4 years
(4) 5 –10 years
(4) 5 –10 years
NLI / 43
180. The AIDS virus has: 180. AIDS :
(1) ds DNA (1) ds DNA

(2) ss DNA (2) ss DNA
(3) ds RNA (3) ds RNA
(4) ss RNA (4) ss RNA
181. Which of the following STD cannot be cured by 181. STD
antibiotics
(1) Chlamydiasis (1)

(2) Gonorrhoea (2)
(3) Genital herpes (3)
(4) Syphilis (4)
182. Theory of natural selection given by Darwin is 182.
based on: :
(1) Inheritance of acquired characters (1)
(2) Random mutation

u te
(2)
(3) Use and disuse of organs

s tit
(3)
(4) Enormous power of fertility in organisms, struggle t

In (4)
igh
for existance and survival of fittest
L
w
183. The convergent evolution of two species ineusually 183. :
assocaited with:
N
(1)
(1) A recent common ancestor
(2)
(2) Different habitat
(3)
(3) Homologous organs
(4)
(4) Analogous organs
184. :
184. Darwin's finches are excellent example of :
(1)
(1) Connecting links
(2)
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3)
(3) Seasonal migration
(4)
(4) Brood parasition
185. :
185. Similarities in organism with different genotype
indicates: (1)
(1) Microevolution
(2)
(2) Macroevolution
(3)
(3) Divergent evolution
(4)
(4) Convergent evolution
NLI / 44
PART-2 (SECTION-B) -B
15 15
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be 10
186. What is the main aim of animal breeding in animal 186. ?
husbandry?
(1)
(1) Increasing the yield of animals
(2)
(2) Increasing the number of animals
(3)
(3) Improving the desirable qualities of the produce
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) 1 3
187. Clitoris lies above 187.
(1) Vaginal opening (1)
(2) Urethral opening (2)
(3) It lies below urethral opening (3)
(4) None (4)
188. Francis crick postulated: 188. :

(1) ut
e
tit
(1) Central dogma
s(2) mRNA
(2) mRNA
t In (3) tRNA
gh (4)
(3) tRNA
(4) Both 1 and 3 Li 1 3
189. Soluble RNA is: ew 189. RNA :

N (1)
(1) Adapter molecule
(2) t RNA (2) t RNA
(3) Si RNA (3) Si RNA
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
190. Bioenergetics is related with: 190. :
(1) Metabolic basis for living (1)
(2) HGP (2) HGP
(3) Ecology (3)
(4) None (4)
191. Active Bt toxin crystals bind with epithalial cells 191.
of insects: _______ :
(1) Forgut (1)
(2) Midgut (2)
(3) HIndgut (3)
(4) All (4)
NLI / 45
192. Congestion of lungs is the main symptom of: 192. :
(1) Heart attack (1)
(2) Cardiac arrest (2)
(3) Heart failure (3)
(4) All (4)
193. Which type of symmetry is found in phylum 193.

ctenophora
(1)
(1) Radial
(2)
(2) Bilateral
(3)
(3) Unsymmetrical
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
194. What is known as Sere : 194.

(1) The entire sequence of communities that (1)
successively change in a given area
(2) The population that successively changes in a given
(2)
area
(3) Energy flow in ecosystem u te (3)
(4) The entire sequence of a genus that successively s tit

(4)
changes in a given area.
t In
195. ________ integrates information received from igh195. –––––––
L
w
semicircular canals of ear and auditory system: :
(1) Cerebrum Ne (1)
(2) Spinal cord (2)
(3) Medulla (3)
(4) Cerebellum (4)

Statement I : -I:
Removal of CO2 from amino acids making into an
CO2
amine.
Statement II : - II :
Removal of amino group from a nucleotide nitrogen

base is metabolic transformations.
(1) I II
(3) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct. (4) I II
NLI / 46
(R) (A) :
Assertion (A) II
Meiosis II is necessory for secondary spermatocyte
cell. (R) :
Reason (R)
I I,
Meiosis I is unable to separate the chromatids of
chromosomes formed during replication in S- phase.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) A R R, A
(3) A R
198. The body cavity is absent in : 198. :
(1) Aschelminthes (1)
(2) Platyhelminthes u te (2)
(3) Coelenterata s tit
(3)
(4) Porifera t In (4)
igh199.
199. Which of the follownig cells in an adult animals
L
do not appear to exhibit division: w
(1) Bone marrow cells Ne (1)
(2) Upper layer of epidermis (2)
(3) Heart cells (3)
200. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive 200. DNA RNA
molecule is called: :
(1) vector (1)
(2) Clone (2)
(3) Probe (3)
(4) Plasmid (4)
NLI / 47
N E W LIG H T IN ST ITU T E T E ST A N D IN FO RM A TIO N C E N TRE S
S r . No. DIS T. NEW LIGHT TES T & INFO RM ATIO N CENTRES ADD. CO NTACT NO .
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N E W L IG H T IN S TITU TE
2 VAR AN AS I B -2 6 /9 3 -A N E AR B L O C K N O . 1 3 K AB E E R N AG AR 8810783726
D U R G AK U N D VAR AN AS I.
3 9 /7 /4 0 , C H U R C H L AN E (O P P . H O L Y TR IN ITY S C H O O L ) 9415646604,
P R AYAG R AJ
P R AYAG R AJ 9335145683
S H AS W AT C AR E E R IN S TITU TE
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4 FAIZAB AD , AYO D H YA S H AN K AR G AR H B AZAR , D E VK AL I B YP AS S
9565140705
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A-2 8 , R AJE N D R A N AG AR ,
5 B AR E IL L Y 8630161846
N E AR S H R E E B AN K E Y B IH AR I MAN D IR , B AR E IL L Y
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6 S U L TAN P U R N AB IP U R R O AD N E AR P E TR O L P U MP . 7860121717
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8810783723
7 G O R AK H P U R U G F-3 -MU K H AR JE E TO W E R N E AR B O B IN A H O TE L
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N E E T/JE E IN S TITU TE
8 D E O R IA P AR MAR TH I P O K H AR A S AK E T N AG AR N E W C O L O N Y 7309390572
D E O R IA – 7 2 4 8 0 7
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9 L AK H IMP U R K H E R I
N E AR Y.D . C O L L E G E , L AK H IMP U R K H E R I 7398400822
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10 B AN D A R AJK E YA AL L O P ATH IC ME D IC AL C O L L E G E ,
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11 ME E R U T N E AR K AC H E H R I, O P P . S AG AR C O MP U TE X 9319965050
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12 MO R AD AB AD 9258164797
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P R ATIG YA C O AC H IN G IN S TITU TE N AR AU L I TIR AH A, 8858798709,
13 AZAMG H AR H FIR S T FL O O R (N E AR H .P . P TE R O L P U MP ), 8858650140,
AZAMG H AR H 9452481000
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N E AR H ATH K AR G H A O FFIC E , MAD H U H O TE L 9236123531,
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D C S K P G C O L L E G E R O AD , 79055187601
MAU N ATH B H AN JAN MAU U P -2 7 5 1 0 1
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15 J AU N P U R IN FR O N T O F R O AD W AYS B U S S TAN D ,
9452061465
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S AN S H IK S H A AC AD E MY, 2 N D FL O O R ,
7705002074,
16 R AE B AR E L I ZAME E R C O MP O U N D AB O VE S B I C ITY B R AN C H FL O O R ,
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IS L AMIA IN TE R C O L L E G E JAL E S AR R O AD
18 FIR O ZAB AD 9219148213
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19 AG R A 7011186515
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20 D ELH I A-1 /1 7 FIR S T FL O O R JAN AK P U R I W E S T N E AR AK AS H
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22 P ATN A B IH AR N E AR N MC H R AIL W AY C R O S S IN G , P ATN A 8 0 0 0 1 6 7549783828

Full Syllabus Test-29: DATE: 30-03-2023

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Full Syllabus Test-29: DATE: 30-03-2023

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ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

FULL SYLLABUS TEST-29

• The important points to note:

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Key Points of New Light Test Seriese:

For Today's Paper Discussion - Scan the QR code -

• Youtube Channel Link :

• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas

TOPIC : Full Syllabus

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

1. When an electric field is applied across a 1.

(2) I and II (2) I II

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

coming to rest on it, taking g = 10 m/s2, is :

5. A point P on the trajectory of a projectile projected 5. P

(3) tan  + tan  = tan  (3) tan  + tan  = tan 

(4) tan  + tan  = 2 tan  (4) tan  + tan  = 2 tan 

6. Two particles A and B execute simple harmonic 6. A B A B

(2) Zero (2)

9. For the system shown in the figure the inclined 9.

11. A particle of mass 'm' collides with another 11. 'm' M

12. An ideal gas of mass m in a state A goes to another 12. m A

(1) Q1 < Q2 < Q3 (1) Q1 < Q2 < Q3

(2) Q1 < Q2 = Q3 (2) Q1 < Q2 = Q3

(3) Q1 = Q2 > Q3 (3) Q1 = Q2 > Q3

(4) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 (4) Q1 > Q2 > Q3

14. The P-V diagram of a system undergoing 14. P-V

(4) 134 J (4) 134 J

(4) None of these (4)

16. Assertion (A) : An oscillating charge produces an 16. :

(1) (A) (R) (R) (A)

20. The equation of displacement of two waves are 20.

Then what is the ratio of their amplitudes : u te

21. The orbit of a geo-stationary satellite is circular. 21.

(I) Mass of the satellite

Which of the following statements is/are correct :

(1) Only I (1) I

(2) Both I and II (2) I II

(3) I, II and III (3) I, II III

(4) II, III and IV (4) II, III IV

23. In Young's experiment when sodium light of 23. 5893 Å

(1) 1.33 (2) 1.42 (1) 1.33 (2) 1.42

(4) Zero (4) Zero

(1) Same as the pressure initially

(1) R1  R2 e(t1  t2 ) (1) R1  R2 e(t1  t2 )

(2) R1  R2 e(t1  t 2 ) (2) R1  R2 e(t1  t 2 )

(2) 1.2 eV (2) 1.2 eV

(3) 0.6 V (3) 0.6 V

(4) 1.4 V (4) 1.4 V

(2) 5 × 104 yr L (2) 5 × 10 4

(3) 7 × 105 yr ew (3) 7 × 105

40 AE2 20 AE 40 AE2 20 AE

60 AE 2 0 AE2 60 AE2 0 AE2

(1) 2 2 Nm1 (1) 2 2 Nm1

(4) 4 2 Nm1 (4) 4 2 Nm1

41. A galvanometer of resistance 50  is connected 41. 50  3V 2950

43. The figure shows a wire sliding on two parallel 43. 

(1) evB (1) evB

(4) 0.6 (4) 0.6

(1) Zero average current (1)

(1) 2.5  (1) 2.5 