All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021

Test Booklet Code Test ID : 215

Test CODE : R-FLT-1

ALL INDIA FULL LENGTH

TEST SERIES 2020-2021
TEST DATE : 01-04-2021
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)

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NLI / 1
 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021

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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021

TOPIC : Full Syllbus (Model)

1. A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance 5. Two identical square rods of metal are welded
R. The potential difference between the terminals end to end as shown in figure (a), 20 calories of
of the cell is found to be V volt. Then, the internal heat flows through it in 4 minutes. If the rods are
resistance of the cell must be welded as shown in figure (b), the same amount
of heat will flow through the rods in
(1) E V R

E V
(2) R
V
(1) 1 minute (2) 2 minute
(3) 4 minute (4) 16 minute
2 E V R
(3) 6. Force acting on a moving charged particle in a
E
region of elctric and magnetic fields is called

2 E V V (1) Lorentz force

(4)
R (2) Ampere’s force
(3) Biot-Savart’s force
2. A train has to negotiate a curve of radius 2000 m.
By how much should the outer rail be raised with (4) Maxwell’s force
respect to inner rail for a speed 72 km h-1 ? The
7. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 minute.
distance between the rails is 1 m.
The time between 20% and 80% decay will be
(1) 2 cm (1) 20 min

(2) 5 cm (2) 30 min

(3) 40 min
(3) 3.5 cm
(4) 25 min
(4) 7.5 cm
8. The magnetic field is now thought to arise due
3. If two bodies are rubbed and one of them to electrial currents produced by convective
acquires q 1 charge and another acquires q 2 motion of metalic fluids (consisting mostly of
charge, then ratio q1 : q2 is molten iron and nickel) in the outer core of the
Earth. This is known as the
(1) 1:2
(1) dynamo effect
(2) 2:1 (2) tidal effect

(3) –1 : 1 (3) both (1) and (2)

(4) 1:4 (4) neither (1) nor (2)

9. The plates in a parallel plate capacitor are
&
4. A 120 g mass has a velocity v 2iˆ  5 ˆj m s at a
-1 separated by a distance d with air as the medium
between the plates. In order to increase the
certain instant. Its kinetic energy is
5
(1) 3J capacity by to times of initial a dielectric slab
3
(2) 4J of dielectric constant 5 is introduced between the
plates. What is the thickness of the dielectric
(3) 5J slab?

(4) 1.74 J (1) d/4 (2) d/2

(3) 5d / 8 (4) d
NLI / 3
 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
10. The moment of inertia of a body depends upon 15. A charged particle with charge q enters a region
of constant, uniform and mutually orthogonal
(1) mass of the body & & &
fields E and B with a velocity v perpendicular
(2) axis of rotation of the body & &
to both E and B , and comes out without any
(3) shape and size of the body
change in its magnitude or direction. Then
(4) all of these & &
(1) &
11. Consider coil and magnet v B u E / E2
& & &
(2) v E u B / B2
& & &
(3) v B u E / B2
& & &
(4) v E u B / E2
Current is induced in coil when
i. coil and magnet both are at rest 16. N divisions on the main scale of vernier callipers
coinchide with ( N + 1) divisions on the vernier
ii. coil is at rest and magnet moves along x scale. If each division on the main scale is of a
iii. magnet is at rest and coilmoves along x units, determine the least count of instrument.

iv. both coil and magnet move along y with a

same speed. (1) N 1
Correct statements are
(1) i and iv (2) i and ii 3a
(2) 4 N 1
(3) iii and iv (4) ii and iii
12. An infinitely long rod lies along the axis of
concave mirror of focal length f . The near end a
(3) 2
of the rod is at a distance x ! f from the mirror.. N 1
Then, the length of the image of the rod is.
2
§ a ·
f 2
f2 (4) ¨ ¸
(1) (2) © N 1¹
x f x
17. The potential difference between A and B as
xf shown in figure is
(3)
x f (4) f 2 / x f

13. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a

speed of 400 m s-1 strikes a block of mass 390 g
and remains in it. The block slides 10 m on rough
surface before coming to rest. The friction
coefficient is
(1) 1/4 (1) 1V (2) 2V
(2) 1/2
(3) 3V (4) 4V
(3) 3/4
18. An electron moving with an initial velocity
(4) 1
V V0iˆ and is in a magnetic field B B0 ˆj . Then,
14. Which refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed its de-Broglie wavelength
of light in glass is
(1) remains constant
(1) 3 x 108 m/s
(2) increases with time
(2) 2 x 108 m/s
(3) decreases with time
(3) 1 x 108 m/s
(4) 4 x 108 m/s (4) first increases then decreases

NLI / 4
 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper]
19. In the given circuit, if the potential at point B,
VB = 0, then the potentials at A and D are given
as
CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
23. Water is flowing in a river at 2 ms-1. The river is
50 m wide and has an average depth of 5 m. The
power available from the current in the river is
(Density of water = 1000 kg m-2)

(1) 0.5 M W

(2) 1MW
(1) VA = –1.5 V, VD = + 2V
(2) VA = –1.5 V, VD = + 0.5 V (3) 1.5 M W

(3) VA = +1.5 V, VD = + 0.5 V (4) 2MW

(4) VA = + 1.5 V, VD = –4.5 V
24. If the energy, E G p h q c r , where G is the
20. In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse- universal gravitational constant, h is the Plank’s
biased p-n junction, the constant and c is the speed of light, then the
(1) potential is zero values of p, q and are, respectively

(2) electric field is zero 1 1 5 1 1 5

(1) , and (2) , and
(3) potential is maximum 2 2 2 2 2 2
(4) electric field is maximum
1 1 3 1 1 3
21. When an electron de-excites from level n to level (3) , and (4) , and
n – 1 in an hydrogen atom, frequency of emitted 2 2 2 2 2 2
radiation is
25. When a car moving on banked road and v  v0
(1) n times of frequency of revoluation of electron in
frictional force will be ...X... the floor and that a
the orbit
car can be parked only, if....Y....
(2) (n – 1) times of frequency of revolution of electron
in orbit Here, X and Y refer to

(3) same as that of frequency of revolution of electron (1) down, T t P s

in the orbit only for large values of n
(4) same as that of frequency of revolution of electron (2) up, T d P s
in teh orbit only for small values of n
22. A circular loop of radius R = 20 cm is placed in a (3) down, T d P s

& § iˆ  ˆj · (4) up, T t P s

uniform magnetic field B 2T ¨ ¸ in x-y
© 2 ¹
26. How many times a diatomic gas should be
plane as shown in figure. The loop carries a expanded adiabatically so as to reduce the root
current i = 1.0 A in the direction shown in figure. mean square velocity to half ?
Find the magnetic of torque acting on the loop.
(1) 64
y
B (2) 32
i
0
(3) 16
45
x
(4) 8

27. Two vectors are said to be equal if and only if

(1) they have same magnitude

(1) 0.25 N m
(2) they have same direction
(2) 1.32 N m
(3) they have same magnitude and the same
(3) 2.52 N m direction
(4) 4.22 N m
(4) None of the above

NLI / 5
 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
28. A body is falling freely under the action of gravity 33. The work done in which of the following process
alone in vacuum. Which of the follow ing is zero ?
quantities remain constant during the fall ?
(1) Isothermal process
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Adiabatically
(2) Potential energy (3) Isochoric process
(3) Total mechanical energy (4) None of these

(4) Total linear momentum 34. A stone is dropped from a height h.

Simultaneously, another stone is thrown up from
29. A prism of refractive index 1.53 is placed in water the ground which reaches a height 4 h. The two
of refractive index 1.33. If the angle of prism is stones cross each other after time
600, calculate the angle of minimum deviation in
water. (sin 35.10 = 0.575) h
(1)
(1) 150 8g
(2) 10.20
(2) 8gh
(3) 20.50

(4) 30.20 (3) 2gh

30. For continous mass distribution, if the centre of

mass lies at the origin, then choose the correct h
(4)
option. 2g
)&
(1) R CM 0 35. pV = PRT cab be rewritten as

(1) pV = kBNT (N o total number of molecules in

(2) ³ r dm 0 the perfect gas)
(2) p = kB nT (n o number density)
(3) ³ x dm ³ y dm ³ z dm 0 (3) p = U RT/M0 (U o mass density and

(4) All of the above M0 o molar mass)

(4) All of the above
31. The magnetic flux threading a metal ring varies
36. A pan with a set of weights is attached to a light
with time t according to IB 3 at 3  bt 2 T m2 spring. The period of vertical oscillations is 0.5 s.
with a = 2.00 s-3 and b = 6.00 s-2. The resistance of When some additional weights are put in pan,
the ring is 3.0 :. Determine the maximum current the period of oscillation increases by 0.1 s. The
induced in the ring during the interval from t = 0 extension caused by the additional weights is
to t = 2.0 s. (1) 1.3 cm
(1) 10 A (2) 2.7 cm
(2) 6A (3) 3.8 cm

(3) 5A (4) 5.5 cm

(4) 11 A 37. In simple harmonic motion, let the time period

of variation of potential energy is T 1 and time
32. A good coolant must have period of variation of position is T2, then relation
between T1 and T2 is
(1) low specific heat
(1) T1 = T2
(2) high specific heat
(2) T1 = 2T2
(3) low density (3) 2T1 = T2
(4) high density (4) None of these

NLI / 6
 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
38. In a single slit diffraction experiment first 43. A pump motor is used to deliver water at a certain
minimum for O1 = 660 nm coincides with first rate from a given pipe. To obtain n times water
maxima for wavelength O2. Calculate O2. from the same pipe in the same time, by what
amount should the power of the motor be
(1) 440 nm
increased ?
(2) 220 nm
(1) n2 times
(3) 110 nm
(2) n3 times
(4) 550 nm
(3) n times
39. The electrical resistance of a conductor depends
upon (4) n3/2 times

(1) size of conductor 44. Consider the situation as shown in the figure. A
block is released from height h on a smooth track.
(2) temperature of conductor Find the minimum value of h so that it completes
(3) geometry of conductor the vertical circle.
(4) all of these
40. Two waves of equal amplitude A and equal u=0
frequency travel in the same direction in a
medium. The amplitude of the resultant wave is h
R
(1) 0
(2) A B
(3) 2A
R
(4) between 0 to 2 A (1)
2
41. Water is flowing steadily through a horizontal
pipe of non-uniform cross-section. If the pressure
7R
of water is 4 x 104 Nm-2 at a point where cross- (2)
section is 0.02 m2 and velocity of flow is 2 ms-1. 2
WHat is the pressure at a point where cross-
section reduces to 0.01 m2 ? 3R
(3)
2

5R
(4)
2
45. A ground to ground projectile is at point A at
T 5T
t , is at point B t at and reaches the
(1) 2 x 105 N m -2
3 6
ground at t = T. The difference in heights between
(2) 7.5 x 106 N m-2 points A and B is
(3) 4.5 x 105 N m -2
gT 2
(4) 3.4 x 104 N m-2 (1)
6
42. An inductor 200 mH, capacitor 500 PF and resistor
10 : are connected in series with a 100 V
variable frequency ac source. What is the gT 2
(2)
frequency at which the power factor of the circuit 12
is unity ?
(1) 10.22 gT 2
(3)
(2) 12.4 Hz
18

(3) 19.2 Hz gT 2
(4)
(4) 15.9 Hz 24

NLI / 7
 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021

TOPIC : Full Syllabus (MODEL)

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197

50. In the reaction,

46. IUPAC name of compound is :
NaNO HCl
CuCN H / H O
C 6H5NH2 
2
o

o A  o B 
2
oC
0 5 C KCN

the product (C) is :

(1) C6H5CH2NH2
(1) Phenyl but-2-en-1-oate
(2) Phenyl but-1-ene-1-oate (2) C6H5COOH

(3) Benzyl but-1-en-1-oate (3) C6H5OH

(4) Butenyl benzenoate (4) None of these.

47. When acetophenone react with hydroxyl amine 51. The molecular formula of a saturated compound
then which type of isomerism is shown by prod- is C2H4Cl2. This formula permits the existence of
uct: two :
(1) Optical (1) functional isomers
(2) Geometrical (2) position isomers
(3) Metamerism (3) optical isomers
(4) None (4) cis-trans isomers.
52. The function of anhydrous aluminium chloride in
48. 
oA
NaBH4 the Friedel-Crafts reaction is :
(1) to absorb water.
Compound ‘A’ is :
(2) to absorb hydrochloric acid.
(3) to produce an electrophile.
(1)
(4) to produce nucleophile.
53. Match List I (Compound) with List II (Use) and se-
(2) lect the correct answer using the codes given ahead
in the lists :

(3) List I (Compound) List II (Use)

i. Acetyl salicylic acid a. Insecticide
ii. DDT b. Drug
(4)
iii. Naphthalene c. Moth repellent

49.
PCl5
CH3  CH2  OH  o A 
i. KCN / H2 O
ii. NH3
o B 
Br2
KOH
oC iv. Carbon tetrachloride d. Fire extinguisher
e. Refrigerant.
Compound ‘C’ is :
Codes :
(1) CH3–CH2–NO2
(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2
(2) i-e, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(3) CH3–CH2–NH2
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(4) i-e, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.
(4)

NLI / 8
 PI3
All India
KCN
Full Length
LiAlH4
Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
54. CH3OH  o A o B  oC
60. Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting
The compound (C) is : aniline with:
(1) CH3OH (1) HCl.
(2) CH3CONH2 (2) Cu2Cl2.
(3) CH3–CH2–NH2 (3) Chlorine in presence of anhydrous AlCl3.
(4) CH3COOH.
(4) Nitrous acid followed by heating with Cu2Cl2.
55. Which one of the following is most reactive towards
aqueous NaOH? 61. A binary solid (A+B–) has a zinc blende structure
with B– ions constituting the lattice and A+ ions
(1) C6H5Cl occupying 25% tetrahedral holes. The formula of
(2) C H CH Cl solid is :
6 5 2

(3) C6H5Br (1) AB

(4) BrC6H4Br. (2) A2B
56. Chloroform can be obtained from : (3) AB2
(1) methanol
(4) AB4
(2) methanal
62. A reaction of A + B C + D is started with equal
(3) propan-1-ol
concentrations of A and B. At equilibrium, it is
(4) propan-2-ol. found that the number of moles of C is two times
HgSO 4 CH3MgBr P / Br2
the number of moles of A. The equilibrium con-
57. HC { CH  o  o  o(X) ; (X) is: stant of the reaction is:
H2SO4 HOH

(1) CH3CH(Br)CH3 (1) 1/2

(2) CH3CH2CH2Br (2) 1/4

(3) CH2 = CH – Br (3) 2

(4) BrCH = CH – CH3. (4) 4

58. When ethyl alcohol is heated with a paste of 63. A certain reaction has k = 0.025 M s–1 for the
bleaching powder, we get a compound in which disappearance of A. What will be the concentration
the function of bleaching powder is : of A after 15 seconds if the initial concentration is
0.5 M :
(1) as an oxidising agent.
(1) 0.5 M
(2) as a chlorinating agent.
(2) 0.32 M
(3) as a hydrolysing agent.
(3) 0.12 M
(4) as chlorinating, oxidising and hydrolysing agent.
(4) 0.06 M
59. An aromatic amine (X) was treated with alcoholic
potash and another compound (Y) when foul smell- 64. Equivalent wt. of H3PO4 in each of the reaction
ing gas was formed as C H NC. The compound (Y) will be respectively:
6 5
was formed by reacting a compound (Z) with Cl2 H3PO4 + OH– o H2PO4– + H2O
in the presence of slaked lime. The compound (Z)
H3PO4 + 2OH– o HPO42– + 2H2O
is :
H3PO4 + 3OH– o PO43– + 3H2O
(1) CHCl3
(2) CH3COCH3 (1) 98, 49, 32.67

(3) C6H5CHO (2) 49, 98, 32.67

(4) C6H5NH2. (3) 98, 32.67, 49

(4) 32.67, 49, 98

NLI / 9
 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper]
65. A 0.2 molal solution of KCl freezes at –0.68ºC. If Kf
for H2O is 1.86, the degree of dissociated of KCl is:
(1) 75%
(2) 83%
CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
71. Cost of electricity for the production of x L H2 at
NTP at cathode is Rs x; then cost of production of
x L O2 at NTP at anode will be (assume 1 mole of
electrons as one unit of electricity) :

(3) 65% (1) 2x

(2) 4x
(4) 92%
(3) 16x
66. The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only
carbon dioxide) in the production of 270 kg of Al (4) 32x
metal from bauxite by Hall process is :
72. The solubility of CaF2 (Ksp= 3.4 ×10–11) in 0.1 M so-
(1) 270 kg lution of NaF would be:
(2) 540 kg (1) 3.4 ×10–12 M
(3) 90 kg (2) 3.4 ×10–10 M
(4) 180 kg (3) 3.4 ×10–9 M
67. The equivalent mass of an element is 4. Its chlo- (4) 3.4 ×10–13 M
ride has vapour density 59.25. Then the valency of
73. The reduction potential values of M, N and O are +
the element is :
2.46 V, – 1.13 V, – 3.13 V respectively. Which of the
(1) 4 following orders is correct regarding their reduc-
(2) 3 ing property :
(3) 2 (1) O >N > M
(4) 1 (2) O >M >N

68. 0.7 g of Na2CO3.xH2O was dissolved in water and (3) M >N > O
the volume made up to 100 mL, 20 mL of it re- (4) M> O>N
N 74. The gold number of some colloidal solutions are
quired 19.8 mL of HCl for complete
10 given below :
neutralisation. The value of x is :
Colloidal solution Gold number
(1) 7
A 0.01
(2) 3
B 2.5
(3) 2
C 20
(4) 5 The protective powers of these collioidal solution
69. When 0.1 mole of CH3 NH2 (ionization constant, Kb follow the order
= 5 ×10–4) is mixed with 0.08 mole HCI and the (1) C >B >A
volume is made up to 1 litre, find the [H+] of result-
ing solution : (2) A > B > C

(1) 8×10–2 (3) A =B =C

(4) B >A >C
(2) 2×10–11
75. For the following equilibrium : (omitting charges)
(3) 1.23 ×10–4
I : M + Cl o MCl Keq = E 1.
(4) 8×10–11
II : MCl + Cl o MCl2 Keq = E 2.
70. The solubility product of a salt, having the gen-
eral formula MX2, in water is 4×10–12 . The concen- III: MCl2 + Cl o MCl3 Keq = E 3.
tration of M2+ ions in the aqueous solution of the IV: M + 3Cl o MCl3 Keq = K.
salt is :
then relation between K, E 1, E 2 and E 3 is:
(1) 2×10–6 M
(1) pK pE1  pE2  pE3
(2) 1×10–4 M
(2) K = E1 E2 E3.
(3) 1.6×10–4 M
(3) log K = log E1 + log E2 + log E3.
(4) 4×10–10M (4) All of these
NLI / 10
 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
76. In a solid ‘AB’ having NaCl structure atoms occupy 84. Antichlor is a compound :
the corners of the cube unit cell. If all the face
centred atoms along one of the axis are removed (1) Which absorbs chloride
then the resultant stoichimetry of the solid is : (2) Which removes Cl2 from a material
(1) AB2 (3) Which liberates Cl2 from bleaching power
(3) A2 B (4) Which acts as a catalyst in the manufacture of Cl2
(3) A4B3 85. How many lone pairs are associated with xenon
atom in XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 respectively :
(4) A3B4
(1) 1, 2 and 3
77. Find out correct order of 2nd ionisation energy of
B, C, O and F : (2) 2, 3 and 1
(1) B<C<O<F (3) 3, 2 and 1
(2) C<B<F<O (4) 4, 3 and 2
(3) B<C<F<O 86. Which of the following compounds is expected to
be coloured :
(4) C<B<O<F
(1) Ag2SO4
78. An example of tribasic acid is :
(2) CuF2
(1) Orthophosphorous acid
(3) MgF2
(2) Cyclic metaphophoric acid
(4) CuCl
(3) Metaphosphoric acid
87. The final step in the metallurgical extraction of Cu metal
(4) Pyrophosphoric acid from Cu pyrites takes place in a Bessemer converter.
79. Nitrogen is produced when NaNO2 is heated with: The reaction taking place is :

(1) NH4Cl (2) NH4NO3 (1) Cu2S + O2 o 2Cu + SO2

(3) (NH4)2CO3 (4) NH4OH (2) 4Cu2O + FeS o 8Cu + FeSo4

80. Phosphorus pentoxide cannot be used to dry : (3) 2Cu2O + Cu2S o 6Cu + SO2

(1) Nitrogen (4) Cu2S + 2FeO o 2CuO + 2Fe+SO2

(2) Ammonia 88. The lanthanoid contraction is responsible for the

fact that :
(3) Hydrogen sulphide
(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(4) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
81. In presence of moisture, SO2 can :
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(1) Lose electron
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
(2) Gain electron
89. EAN of Cr in [Cr(NH3 ) 6 ] CI3 is :
(3) Act as oxidant
(1) 32 (2) 33
(4) Not act as reductant
(3) 34 (4) 35
82. Which of the following has pS-dS bonding :
90. [Cr(H2O)6] Cl3 (at. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic
(1) NO3– (2) SO32– moment of 3.83 B.M . The correct distribution of 3d
(3) BO33– (4) CO32– electrons in the chromium of the complex :

83. KF combines with HF to form KHF 2 . The (1) 3d1xy, 3d1yz, 3d1xz
compound contains the species :
1
(1) K+, F— and H+ (2) 3d1xy, 3d1yz, 3d z2 ,

(2) K+, F– and HF (3) e3 d 1 2 2

x y j, 3d
1 2
z , 3 d1xz

(3) K+ and [HF2]–

(4) [KHF]+ and F–
(4) e j
3d1xy , 3d1x2  y 2 , 3d1yz

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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021

TOPIC : Full Syllabus (Model)

Cell, Gland, Tissue, Organ related Questions 98. Which one of the following is the correct match
91. What is heterocyst (a) Colour blindness (i) Mendelian disorder
(1) Specialised cell for H2 fixation (b) Night blindness (ii) Inborn error of
(2) Normal cell for N2 fixation metabolism
(3) Specialised cell for N2 fixation (c) Phenyl ketonuria (iii) Vitamin deficiency
(4) Specialised cell for O2 fixation (d) Down's syndrome (iv) Palm crease
92. The Cnidocytes cells containes (1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(1) Nematocysts (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) Stinging capsules
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) Chaonocytes
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) Both 1 and 2
99. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
93. The cells of which tissue are specialised to store
fats (1) Common cold - Non infectious disease
(1) Tendons (2) Malaria - Infectious disease
(2) Adipose tissue (3) Ringworm - Microsporum
(3) Ligament (4) Filariasis - Helminths
(4) Cartilage 100. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
94. Which one of the following is the haploid cell/ (1) Addison's disease - Thymus gland
tissue
(2) Diabetes mellitus - Pancreas
(1) PMC
(3) Emergency hormones- Adrenaline
(2) MMC
(3) Sporogenous tissue (4) Grave's diseases - Thyroid gland

(4) Synergid Organism with Special Characters related Questions

95. Which one of the following is the female external 101. Which organism is used extensively in
genitalia biochemical and genetic work
(1) Epididymis (1) Aspergillus
(2) Fore skin (2) Cuscuta
(3) Infundibulum (3) Venus fly trap
(4) Hymen (4) Neurospora
Disease related Questions
102. What is the economic importance of Sphagnum
96. Which one of the following is the Incorrect match
(1) Provide fuel
(1) Ustilago - Rust
(2) Provide peat
(2) Puccinia - Rust
(3) Provide packing material
(3) Prions - BSE
(4) All of these
(4) Prions - Cr-Jacob Disease
103. A type of property in which a living organism to
97. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
emit light, this property is called as and occurs in
(1) Asthma - Difficulty in breathing respectively :
(2) Emphysema - Alveolar walls (1) Luminesence, Porifera
damaged
(2) Bioluminescence, Chiton
(3) Atherosclerosis - Lumen of arteries
narrower (3) Bioluminescence, Pleurobrachia
(4) Angina pectoris - Difficulty in hearing (4) Bioluminescence, Planaria
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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper]
104. Which one of the following are the correct
statement with reference to Agrobacterium
tumifaciens
(1) It is a pathogen of several dicot plants
CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
109. Diagrammatic representation of internal structure
of a flagella is given below and select the right
option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d :

(2) It is natural genetic engineer

(3) It is used as cloning vector

(4) All of these

105. RNAi related with

(1) A fungus meloidegyne incognitia

(2) A nematode meloidegyne incognitia

(3) A protist meloidegyne incognitia

(4) A annelids meloidegyne incognitia

Cyclic Processes related Questions

106. The most crucial step of the calvin cycle

(1) Carboxylation

(2) Reduction

(3) Regeneration

(4) Splitting of water

110. Which structure are responsible for the
107. During of each cardiac cycle two prominent maintenance of the endometrium for implantation:
sounds are produced which can be easily heard
through a stethoscope. The first heart sound is
associated with the

(1) Opening of tricuspid and biscuspid valve

(2) Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valve

(3) Closure of tricuspid and semilunar valve

(4) Closure of bicuspid and semilunar valve

Graph, Diagram, Chart related Questions

108. Which one of the following is correct for given

diagram :

(1) d
(1) Diploblastic nonchordate
(2) b
(2) Triploblastic nonchordate
(3) Triploblastic chordate (3) c

(4) Pseudocoelomate nonchordate (4) a

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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
111. In the following pie chart of global, vertebrates 114. A first action spectrum of photosynthesis was
diversity what does A,B,C, D and E represent described by experiment upon which organism
respectively :
(1) Cladophora
(2) Anaerobic bacteria
(3) Neurospora
(4) Liverworts
115. Ethylene enhances the respiration rate during
ripening of the fruits this rise in rate of respiration
is called.
(1) Respiratory dark
(2) Respiratory brightness
(1) A - Mammals, B - Amphibians, C- Reptiles , D- (3) Respiratory climactic
Birds, E- Fishes
(4) Respiratory parabola
(2) A - Amphibians, B- Reptiles , C- Birds, D- Fishes,
E - Mammals, 116. Adaptation is any attribute of the organism to
survive and reproduce in its habitat such attribute
(3) A- Reptiles , B- Birds, C- Fishes, D - Mammals, E
- Amphibians, are

(4) A- Birds, B- Fishes, C - Mammals, D - Amphibians, (1) Morphological

E- Reptiles
(2) Physiological
112. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained
from the plant whose one flowering branch is (3) Behavioural
shown here? (4) All of these
117. The use of bio-resources by multinational
companies and other organizations without proper
authorization from the countries and people
concerned without compensatory payment is
called
(1) Bioethics
(2) Biopiracy
(3) Bioterror

(1) Hallucinogen (4) Bioweapons

(2) Depressent Data related Questions

(3) Stimulant 118. How many matching are incorrect with reference
to average composition of cells
(4) Pain killer
Processes, Phenomena related Questions a. Water - 40 - 50%

113. Crossing over process are related with b. Lipids - 3%

a. Meiosis I b. Meiosis II c. Nucleic acids - 10 - 15%

c. Pachytene d. Variation d. Carbohydrates - 2%
(1) a, b, c, d (1) 4
(2) Only a, d (2) 3
(3) Only a, c, d (3) 2
(4) Only a (4) 1
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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
119. Match the following columns : 124. What is the difference between DNA and RNA :

Column I Column II a. Purines

a. Bacteria i. 0.02 - 0.2 Pm b. Pyrimidines

b. PPLO ii. 0.1 Pm c. Rate of mutation

c. Viruses iii. 10 - 20 Pm d. Type of sugar

d. Eukaryotic cell iv. 1 - 2 Pm (1) a, b, c, d

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (2) b, c, d

(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (3) Only b, d

(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (4) a, b, d

(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 125. What is the correct between ZIFT and GIFT :

120. Which one of the following WBCs are the 6-8% of (a) Both are a type of ART
the total WBCs (b) Both are applied upon male
(1) Neutrophils (c) In both ovum are taken for transfer
(2) Basophils (d) In both embryo are taken for transfer
(3) Monocytes (1) Only a, d
(4) Eosinophils (2) Only a
121. In India, how many recombinant therapeutics are (3) a, c, d
presently being marketed :
(4) a, b
(1) 30
126. Endosperm differs from perisperm in
(2) 120
(1) Being a diploid tissue
(3) 12
(2) Being a triploid tissue
(4) 10
(3) Being a haploid tissue
122. Which one of the following is the correct match
(4) Having no reserve food
with reference to biodiversity:
127. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in having
(1) Fishes – 20,000 Species
(1) Vascular tissues
(2) Beetles – 30,000 Species
(2) Motile antherozoids
(3) Orchids – 50,000 Species
(3) Archegonia
(4) Ants – More than 20,000
Species (4) Alternation of generations
Differences & Similarity related Questions Scientist & Their experiment related Questions
123. What is the similarity among Down syndrome, 128. DNA replicates semiconservatively for this
Kline felters syndrome, Turner syndrome. experimental proof which of the following scientist
performed the experiment :
a. All are example of a type of chromosomal
Disorder. a. Matthew Meselson
b. All syndrome occurs in only female individual. b. Reginald C. Punnett
c. In all number of sex chromosome are remains c. Tschermak
same. d. Martha Chase
d. In all number of chromosome are not remains e. Taylor
same.
(1) a, c, d, e
(1) a, c, d
(2) a, e
(2) only a
(3) Only a
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, c, e
(4) a, d
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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021

129. Scientists who was involved in the rediscovery of 136. Which one of the following is incorrect match
Mendels results of the "inheritance of characters":
(1) Homoiothermous - Neophron
(1) De Vries
(2) Poikilothermous - Delphinus
(2) Correns
(3) Feathers - Corvus
(3) Von Tschermak
(4) All of these (4) Mammary gland - Camelus

130. Warblers "resource partitioning" was explaind by 137. Which one of the following is incorrect statement:
(1) Gause (1) Asexual reproduction in liverwort take place by
(2) Connell gemmae

(3) MacArthur (2) Mosses have an elaborate mechanism of spore

(4) Tilman dispersal

Special Chemical related Questions (3) Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and
131. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial as a soil binders
infarction in general, he is treated with : (4) Only selaginella is heterosporous but Salvinia is a
(1) Cyclosporin - A homosporous
(2) Statins 138. Which of the following statement is correct :
(3) Penicillin
(1) Inferior ovary containing flowers have stamen
(4) Streptokinase attaches below the ovary level
132. The DNA fragments separated by electrophoresis (2) Members of solanaceae are non - endospermous
can be visualized by staining with
(3) Members of solanaceae may not have stipule
(1) Haematoxylin
(2) Geimsa (4) Adhesion may be indicated by line drawn below
symbols
(3) Gram's stain
(4) Ethidium bromide 139. Which one of the following plant has true root and
leaves
133. Which substance in Calotropis gives itself
protection against predators (1) Spirogyra
(1) Carotenoids (2) Sphagnum
(2) Concanavalin A (3) Salvinia
(3) Glycolipid
(4) Polytrichum
(4) Cardiac glycosides
140. Na+/K+ Pump is a example of :
134. Algae have cell wall made up of :
(1) Passive transport
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
(2) Active transport
(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins (3) Osmosis

(4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins (4) All of these

135. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase 141. Enzyme get damaged at high temperature :
is :
(1) Due to disruption in primary structure
(1) OAA
(2) Due to disruption in tertiary structure
(2) Malate
(3) Malonate (3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Lactate (4) Due to disruption in secondary structure only

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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021

142. Which one is correct for meiosis : 148. Match the following column :

(1) Maintenance of constant chromosome number in Column-I Column-II

particular species a. IAA i. Bolting
b. ABA ii. Stress hormone
(2) It is not responsible for variation
c. Ethylene iii. Apical dominance
(3) Produce 4 daughter cells with diploid chromosomes
d. GA iv. Ripening of fruits.
(4) More than one option is correct (1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
143. What are ribozymes (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) Protein (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) Nucleic acids which behave like an enzyme
149. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli.
(3) Restriction enzyme They do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
because of :
(4) A type of DNA
(1) Inspiratory reserve volume
144. The coenzyme FAD contains :
(2) Tidal volume
(1) Protein Riboflavin (3) Expiratory reserve volume
(2) Carbohydrates Riboflavin (4) Residual volume
(3) Vitamin Riboflavin 150. If a person respire very fastly so for carry 500000
molecule of O2 How many number of haemoglobin
(4) Lipids Riboflavin molecule being used :
145. Which one of the following is the correct statement (1) 1250000
(2) 125000
(1) CO2 is the minor limiting factor for photosynthesis
(3) 2000000
(2) The C3 and C4 plants respond differently to CO2
(4) 500000
concenteration
151. Which statement is correct :
(3) The dark reaction are non enzymatic
(1) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately 125
(4) Oxygen is one of the reactants in the light reaction lit/minute.
(2) The urine released per day is approx 2.5 litre
146. The total number of 5-carbon containing
compound in krebs cycle : (3) In PCT 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed
(1) 2 (4) The descending limb of loop of Henle is imperme-
(2) 1 able to water.
152. Which converts angiotensinogen in blood to
(3) 3 angiotensin I
(4) 4 (1) Rennin
147. The complete combustion of glucose, which (2) Ptyalin
produces CO2 and H2O as end products. The sum (3) Renin
total of reactant and product molecule in the (4) Trypsin
complete aerobic respiration : 153. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal
pyramid :
(1) 31
(1) Peritubular capillaries
(2) 21
(2) Convoluted tubules
(3) 19 (3) Collecting ducts
(4) 20 (4) Loop of Henle

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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
154. Which one is Rh incompatible marriage : 161. Which extra embryonic membrane in humans help
in the RBC formation of the embryo inside the
(1) Rh negative female and Rh positive male
uterus :
(2) Rh positive female and Rh positive male (1) Yolk sac
(3) Rh negative female and Rh negative male (2) Amnion
(4) Rh positive female and Rh negative male (3) Chorion
155. The elastic fibres which bisects the I-band is known (4) Allantosis
as 162. Which one of the following is odd
(1) M-line (1) oogonia
(2) Z-line (2) first polar body
(3) Tropomyosin (3) second polar body
(4) H-Zone (4) secondary oocyte
156. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 163. Which one of the following is the correct statement
(1) Cerebellum - Balance (1) Orchids fruits contain very small number of seeds

(2) Limbic system - Regulation of sexual behaviour (2) Orobanche fruit contain very small number of seeds

(3) Hypothalamus - Urge for eating (3) Striga fruit contain very large number of seed
(4) All of these
(4) Medulla oblongata - Urge for drinking
164. How many matching are correct according to
157. Pars intermedia is a part of :
contraceptive method and their modes of action
(1) Adenohypophysis of pituitary gland in achieving contraception
(2) Neurohypophysis of pituitary gland Contraceptive Mode of Action
(3) Zona glomerulosa of adrenal gland Method

(4) Zona fibrosa of adrenal gland a. Oral pill i. Inhibit ovulation

158. Erythropoietin is secreted from : b. Condom ii. Prevents sperms

reaching female
(1) Kidney
reproductive tract
(2) Pancreas
c. Injections iii. Increase
(3) Adrenal gland phagocytosis
of sperms within the
(4) Pituitary gland
fallopian tube
159. If in an ovary of flowering plant the number of d. IUDs iv. Increase
ovule is 6 then after fertilization what is the number phagocytosis
of seed in a fruit :
of sperms within the
(1) 5
uterus
(2) 3
(1) 3
(3) 12 (2) 1
(4) 6 (3) 4
160. A type of mutation in which DNA is changed but (4) 2
amino acid remains unchanged. This type of
165. Which one of the following is the correct match
mutation is :
(1) Histones - Negatively charged
(1) Silent mutation protein
(2) Neutral mutation (2) Nucleosomes - 50 bp
(3) Non sense mutation (3) Reverse transcription - Euglena
(4) Missense mutation (4) Transcription - Streptococcus

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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
166. Which one of the following is the incorrect match 172. If a person shows the production of interferons in
(1) TMV - Retrovirus his body, chances are that he is not suffering from:
(2) LAB - Lymphoid tissue (1) Influenza
(3) Toddy - Fermentation (2) Diphtheria
(4) Fermentation - Metabolic pathway (3) Typhoid
167. Which one of the following is the incorrect match (4) Both 2 and 3
(1) Mutualism – Lichen 173. Malignant malaria is caused by
(2) Brood parasitism – Koel
(1) Plasmodium vivax
(3) Copepods – Ectoparasites
(2) Plasmodium malaria
(4) Amensalism – Cuscuta
(3) Plasmodium falciparum
168. If distance between two gene are high and gene
are loosely linked then which of the following (4) all of these
statement are not correct : 174. Which type of antibody is produced during allergic
(1) Linkage between these gene are low reactions
(2) Recombination between these gene are high (1) IgG
(3) Percentage of crossing over and map unit are high (2) IgM
(4) Percentage of crossing over high but map unit are (3) IgA
low
(4) IgE
169. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel
did not use : 175. The metabolic reaction which results in the
(1) Seed shape production of bread and beer by yeast is called :
(2) Flower position (1) Fermentation
(3) Seed colour (2) Putrefaction
(4) Flower size (3) Respiration
170. Which of the following incorrect for salient fea- (4) Degradation
tures of double helix structure of B DNA:
176. What is the meaning of p in pBR322
i. It is made by one nucleotide chain
(1) Strain of bacteria
ii. Back bone is made by sugar and phosphate
and bases project out side (2) Species of bacteria
iii. Two chains have parallel polarity (3) Extra chromosomal DNA
iv. 20 bp are present in each turn (4) Special protein
(1) Only i, ii and iii 177. How many cycles of PCR needed to produce ap-
(2) Only ii and iv proximately 1/4 billion copy of gene
(3) Only i, ii and iv (1) 29
(4) All are incorrect (2) 28
171. Which of the following is incorrect :
(3) 30
(1) Poputation density need not necessarily be
(4) 31
measured in numbers only
(2) The size of a population for any species is not a 178. In human skin colour which are polygenic
static parameter inheritance. The lightest skin colour person have
genotype :
(3) Immigration is the number of indiuidals of the same
species that have come into the habitat from (1) AABBCC
elsewhere during the tim e period under
consideration (2) AaBbCc

(4) Under normal conditions, birth & deaths are the (3) aabbcc
least important factors influencing population density (4) AaBbcc

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 All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021
179. A template strand is given as below : 180. The prophase I further sub divided into the _____
3'–ATGCATGCATGCAT–5' phases
then what is the sequence of RNA transcribed from
(1) 2
above DNA
(1) 5'–TACGTACGTACGTA–3' (2) 3
(2) 3'– UUCGUACGUACGUA–5' (3) 5
(3) 5'–UACGUACGUACGUA–3'
(4) 6
(4) 3'–UACGUACGUACGUA–5'

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All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021

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All India Full Length Test-1 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / Re-Scheduled-NEET / 01-April-2021

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