All India Test & Discussion Series

All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-17 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 12-March-2021
Test ID
Test CODE : TD-17
319
[All India Test & Discussion Series]

TEST DATE : 12-Feb.-2021
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NLI / 1
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TOPIC : Electric Charge and Fields
1. Energy associated with a moving charge is due to 1.

a: (1)
(1) Electric field
(2)
(2) Magnetic field
(3)
(3) Both electric field and magnetic field
(4) None of these (4)
2. The magnitude of electric force experienced by a 2.

charged particle in an electric field depends on :
(1) Charge of the particle (1)
(2) Velocity of the particle (2)
(3) Direction of the electric field (3)
(4) Mass of the particle (4)
3. A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then 3.

its radius :
(1) Decreases
(1)
(2) Increases
(2)
(3) Remains unchanged
(3)
(4) Nothing can be predicted as information is
insufficient (4)
4. One of the following is not a property of field lines 4.
(1) Field lines are continuous curves with out any (1)
breaks
(2)
(2) Two field lines cannot cross each other
(3)
(3) Field lines start at positive charge and end at
negative charges
(4) They form closed loops (4)
5. The value of electric permittivity of free space is : 5.

(1) 9 × 109 NC2 /m2 (1) 9 × 109 NC2 /m2
(2) 8.85 × 10–12 NC2 /sec
(2) 8.85 × 10–12 NC2 /sec
(3) 8.85 × 10–12 C2 /Nm 2
(3) 8.85 × 10–12 C2 /Nm 2
(4) 9 ×109C2 / Nm2
(4) 9 ×109C2 / Nm2
NLI / 3
6. Two proton are a distance of 1 × 10 cm from each
–10
6. 1 × 10–10 cm
other. The forces acting on them are :
(1) Nuclear force and coulomb force (1)

(2) Nuclear force and gravitational force (2)
(3) Coulomb force and gravitational force (3)
(4) Nuclear, coulomb and gravitational force (4)
7. Charge on D–particle is : 7. D
(1) 4.8 × 10–19 C (1) 4.8 × 10–19 C
(2) 1.6 × 10–19 C (2) 1.6 × 10–19 C
(3) 3.2 × 10–19 C (3) 3.2 × 10–19 C
(4) 6.4 × 10–19 C (4) 6.4 × 10–19 C
8. The charge q is projected into a uniform electric 8. E q

field E, work done when it moves a distance Y is : Y
(1) qEY (1) qEY
qY qY
(2) (2)
E E
qE qE
(3) (3)
Y Y
Y Y
(4) (4)
qE qE
9. Three concentric metallic spheres of radii R, 2R, 9. R, 2R, 3R, Q1, Q2, Q3,
3R, are given charges Q1, Q2, Q3, respectively. It is
found that the surface charge densities on the outer
surfaces of the shells are equal. Then, the ratio of
the charges given to the shells, Q1 : Q2 : Q3 , is Q1 : Q 2 : Q3 ,
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (3) 1 : 4 : 9
(4) 1 : 8 : 18 (4) 1 : 8 : 18
10. The surface charge density (in C/m2) of the earth 10. (C/m2 )
is about :
(1) 10–9
(1) 10 –9
(2) – 109
(2) – 10 9
(3) 109
(3) 109
(4) – 10–9
(4) – 10–9
NLI / 4
d
11. Two charges are at a distance 'd' apart. If a copper 11. 'd'
2
d
plate (conducting medium) of thickness is placed
2
between them, the effective force will be : :
(1) 2F (1) 2F
(2) F /2 (2) F /2
(3) 0 (3) 0
(4) 2F (4) 2F
12. Two electrons are separated by a distance of 1 Å. 12. 1Å
What is the coulomb force between them : :
(1) 2.3 × 10 N–8
(1) 2.3 × 10–8 N
(2) 4.6 × 10–8 N (2) 4.6 × 10–8 N
(3) 1.5 × 10–8 N (3) 1.5 × 10–8 N
13. The force between two small charged spheres 13. 20 cm
having charges of 1 × 10–7 C and 2 × 10–7 C placed
1 × 10 C –7
2 × 10–7 C :
20 cm apart in air is :
(1) 4.5 × 10–2 N
(1) 4.5 × 10–2 N
(2) 4.5 × 10–3 N (2) 4.5 × 10–3 N
(3) 5.4 × 10–2 N (3) 5.4 × 10–2 N
(4) 5.4 × 10–3 N (4) 5.4 × 10–3 N

14. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line 14. q
joining two equal charges Q such that the system q
is in equilibrium then the value of q is :
(1) Q / 2 (1) Q / 2
(2) – Q / 2 (2) – Q / 2
(3) Q / 4 (3) Q / 4
(4) – Q / 4 (4) – Q / 4
15. Three charge q, Q and 4q are placed in a straight 15. q, Q 4q l

l l
line of length / at points distant 0, and l 0, l q
2 2
respectively from one end. In order to make the Q :
net force on q zero, the charge Q must be equal
to : (1) – q
(1) – q
(2) – 2q
(2) – 2q
q
q (3)
(3) 2
2
(4) q
(4) q
NLI / 5
16. Force between two identical charges placed at a 16. r F
distance of r in vacuum is F. Now a slab of dielectric
4
of dielectric constant 4 is inserted between these
r/2
two charges. If the thickness of the slab is r/2, them
the force between the charges will become :
(1) F (1) F
3 3
(2) F (2) F
5 5
4 4
(3) F (3) F
9 9
F F
(4) (4)
2 2
17. A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 4.4 m 17. 4.4 m
diameter has a surface charge density of 60 PC m–2. 60 PC m–2 :
The charge on the sphere is :
(1) 7.3 × 10–3 C
(1) 7.3 × 10–3 C
(2) 3.7 × 10–6 C
(2) 3.7 × 10–6 C
(3) 7.3 × 10–6 C (3) 7.3 × 10–6 C
(4) 3.7 × 10–3 C (4) 3.7 × 10–3 C
18. A hollow insulated conducting sphere is given a 18. 10 PC

positive charge of 10 PC. What will be the electric
field at the centre of the sphere if its radius is 2 m? 2m
(1) Zero (1)
(2) 5 PCm–2 (2) 5 PCm–2
(3) 20 PCm–2 (3) 20 PCm–2
(4) 8 PCm–2 (4) 8 PCm–2

19. The electric field intensity just sufficient to balance 19.
the earth's gravitational attraction on an electron (
will be (given mass and charge of an electron
9.1 × 10–31 kg
respectively are 9.1 × 10–31 kg and 1.6 × 10–19 C)
1.6 × 10–19 C)
(1) – 5.6 × 10–11 N/C
(1) – 5.6 × 10–11 N/C
(2) – 4.8 × 10–15 N/C
(2) – 4.8 × 10–15 N/C
(3) – 1.6 × 10 –19
N/C (3) – 1.6 × 10–19 N/C
(4) – 3.2 × 10 –19
N/C (4) – 3.2 × 10–19 N/C
20. Two point charges qA = 3Pc and qB= – 3Pc are 20. qA = 3Pc qB= – 3Pc
located 20 cm apart in vacuum. What is the electric
20 cm AB
field at the midpoint O of the line AB joining the
two charges ? O ?
(1) 5.4 × 106 N/C (1) 5.4 × 106 N/C
(2) 7.1 × 10–3 N/C (2) 7.1 × 10–3 N/C
(3) 8.1 × 10–9 N/C (3) 8.1 × 10–9 N/C
(4) 7.1 × 108 N/C (4) 7.1 × 108 N/C
NLI / 6
21. A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to 21.
have a negative charge of 3 × 10–7 C. Estimate the 3 × 10–7 C
number of electrons transferred
(1) 1.88 × 1010 (1) 1.88 × 1010
(2) 1.87 × 1012 (2) 1.87 × 1012
(3) 2.87 × 1011 (3) 2.87 × 1011
(4) 3.43 × 109 (4) 3.43 × 109
22. The unit of electric field is not equivalent to : 22.
(1) N / C (1) N /C
(2) J / C (2) J /C
(3) V /m (3) V /m
(4) J / C –m (4) J /C –m
23. An electron enters in an electric field with its 23.
velocity in the direction of the electric lines of
force. Then
(1)
(1) The path of the electron will be a circle
(2)
(2) The path of the electron will be a parabola
(3) The velocity of the electron will decrease (3)
(4) The velocity of the electron will increase (4)
24. Angle between equipotential surface and lines of 24.

force is
(1)
(1) Zero
(2) 180°
(2) 180°
(3) 90°
(3) 90°
(4) 45° (4) 45°
25. Which of the following is deflected by electric field 25.
(1) X-rays (1) X-fdj.ksa
(2) g-rays (2) J- fdj.ksa

(3) Neutrons (3) U;wVªkWu
(4) a-particles (4) D-d.k
26. An electron is moving towards x-axis. An uniform 26. x–

electric field is along y-direction then path of y–
electron is :
(1) Circular (1)
(2) Elliptical (2)
(3) Parabola (3)
(4) None of these
(4)
NLI / 7
27. An electric dipole is kept in non-uniform electric 27.
field. It may experiences
(1) A force and a torque (1)
(2) A force but not a torque (2)
(3) A torque but not a force (3)
(4) Depends upon variation of electric field and position (4)
and orientiation of dipole
28. An electric dipole consisting of two opposite 28. 2 × 10–6 C
charges of 2 × 10–6 C each separated by a distance
3 cm 2 × 105 N/C
of 3 cm is placed in an electric field of 2 × 105 N/C.
The maximum torque on the dipole will be : :
(1) 12 × 10–1 Nm (1) 12 × 10–1 Nm

(2) 12 × 10–3 Nm (2) 12 × 10–3 Nm
(3) 24 × 10–1 Nm (3) 24 × 10–1 Nm
(4) 24 × 10–3 Nm (4) 24 × 10–3 Nm
& &
29. The torque acting on a dipole of moment P in an 29. E
&
electric field E is :
& & & &
(1) P.E (1) P.E
& & & &
(2) P u E (2) P u E
(3) Zero (3)

& & & &
(4) E u P (4) E u P
30. The electric dipole moment of an electron and a 30. 4.3 nm

proton 4.3 nm apart is :
(1) 6.88 × 10–28 Cm (1) 6.88 × 10–28 Cm
(2) 2.56 × 10–29 C2/m (2) 2.56 × 10–29 C2/m
(3) 3.72 × 10–14 C/m (3) 3.72 × 10–14 C/m
(4) 11 × 10–46 C2/m

(4) 11 × 10–46 C2/m
31. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of a 31. a
cube of side a. The electric flux on one of the faces
will be :
q
(1) 6H q
0 (1) 6H
0
q
(2) H a2 q
0 (2) H a2
0
q
(3) 4 SH a2 q
0 (3) 4 SH a2
0
q q
(4) H (4) H
0
0
NLI / 8
32. According to Gauss theorem, electric field of an 32.
infinitely long straight wire is proportional to :
(1) r
(1) r
(2) 1 / r2 (2) 1 / r2
(3) 1 / r3 (3) 1 / r3
(4) 1 / r (4) 1 / r
33. An electron having charge ‘e’ and mass ‘m’ is 33. ‘e’ ‘m’
moving in a uniform electric field E. Its E
acceleration will be
e2 E2 e e2 E2 e
(1) (2) (1) (2)
m m m m
eE mE eE mE
(3) (4) (3) (4)
m e m e
34. Gauss's law is valid for : 34.
(1) Any closed surface (1)
(2) Only regular close surface (2)
(3) Any open surface (3)
(4) Only irregular open surfaces (4)
35. The inward and outward electric flux for a closed 35. N - m2 / C
surface in units of N - m2 / C are respectively 8 × 8 × 103 4 × 103
10 and 4 × 10 . Then the total charge inside the
3 3
H0 =
surface is [where H0 = permittivity constant)
)
(1) 4 × 10 C 3
(1) 4 × 103 C
(2) – 4 × 103 C (2) – 4 × 103 C
( 4 u 103 ) ( 4 u 103 )
(3) C (3) C
H H
(4) – 4 × 103 H0 C (4) – 4 × 103 H0 C
36. Electric field strength due to a point charge of 36. 80 cm 5 µC

5 µC at a distance of 80 cm from the charge is :
(1) 8 × 104 N/C (1) 8 × 104 N/C
(2) 7 × 104 N/C (2) 7 × 104 N/C
(3) 5 × 10 N/C4
(3) 5 × 104 N/C
(4) 4 × 104 N/C (4) 4 × 104 N/C
37. Under the action of a given coulombic force the 37. 2.5 × 1022
acceleration of an electron is 2.5 × 1022 m/s2. Then m/s2
the magnitude of the acceleration of a proton under
the action of same force is nearly
(1) 1.6 × 10–19 m/s2
(1) 1.6 × 10–19 m/s2
(2) 9.1 × 1031 m/s2
(2) 9.1 × 1031 m/s2
(3) 1.5 × 1019 m/s2
(3) 1.5 × 1019 m/s2
(4) 1.6 × 1027 m/s2
(4) 1.6 × 1027 m/s2
NLI / 9
38. A Charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which 38. B S
makes an angle T with a large charged conducting
, P
sheet P, as shown in the figure. The surface charge
density V of the sheet is proportional to T V
(1) sin T (1) sin T
(2) tan T (2) tan T
(3) cos T (3) cos T

(4) cot T (4) cot T
39. Two spheres of radius a and b respectively are 39. a b
charged and joined by a wire. The ratio of
electric field of the spheres is
(1) a / b (1) a / b
(2) b / a (2) b / a
(3) a / b
2 2
(3) a2 / b2
(4) b2 / a2
(4) b2 / a2
40. Two point charges Q and – 3Q are placed at some
40. Q – 3Q
distance apart. If the electric field at the location
Q –3Q E
of Q due to charge –3Q is E then at the locality of
–3Q Q
–3Q due to charge Q, it is :
(1) –E
(1) –E
(2) E / 3 (2) E / 3
(3) –3E (3) –3E
(4) E / 2 (4) E / 2
41. Which of the following can not be dielectric 41.

constant of a medium :
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 0.3 (2) 0.3
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) f (4) f
42. The electric charge in accelerated motion 42.
produces
(1)
(1) An electric field only
(2)
(2) A magnetic field only
(3) E.M.
(3) Electric, magnetic field and E.M. wave
(4)
(4) Neither electric nor magnetic field
NLI / 10
43. Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm 43. 10 15
are connected by a thin wire. No current will flow,
if they have
(1) The same charge on each (1)
(2) The same potential (2)

(3) The same energy (3)
(4) The same field on their surfaces (4)
44. Electric lines of force about negative point charge 44.
are
(1)
(1) Circular, anticlockwise
(2) Circular, clockwise (2)
(3) Radial, inward (3)

(4) Radial, outward (4)
45. Three charges 2q, –q, –q are located at the vertices 45. 2q, –q, –q
of an equilateral triangle. At the centre of the
triangle
(1) The field is zero but potential is non-zero (1)
(2) The field is non-zero but potential is zero (2)
(3) Both field and potential are zero (3)
(4) Both field and potential are non-zero
(4)
NLI / 11
CHEMISTRY : Hydrocabon (Alkyne & Aromatic)
BH THF BH THF
46. B m 3
CH3–C { CH HgSO
4 / H 2SO 4
o A 46. B m 3
CH3–C { CH HgSO
4 / H 2SO 4
o A

H O OH
2 2, H O OH
2 2,
A B
A and B are :
O
O ||
|| (1) CH 3CH 2CHO, CH 3 C CH 3
(1) CH 3CH 2CHO, CH 3 C CH 3
O
||
O (2) CH 3 C CH 3 CH 3CH 2 CHO
||
(2) CH 3 C CH 3 CH 3CH 2 CHO
(3) CH3CH2 )
(3) CH3CH2CHO (both)
(4) CH 3 C CH 3 (both) (4) CH 3 C CH 3 )

|| ||
O O
47.
47.
X Y
X and Y will be respectively :
(1) liq. NH3, Pd on CaCO3
(1) liq. NH3, Pd on CaCO3
(2) Pd on CaCO3, liq. NH3
(2) Pd on CaCO3, Na in liq. NH3 (3) Pt/BaSO4, liq NH3
(3) Pt/BaSO4, liq NH3 (4)
(4) None of these
Zn/H

O3
o product, Product have : 48. Zn/H

O3
o
48. 2O
2O
(1) 2 1
(1) 2 mole methyl glyoxal and 1 mole glyoxal
(2) 2 mole glyoxal and 2 mole di methyl glyoxal (2) 2 2
(3) 3 mole glyoxal (3) 3
(4) All of these (4)
49. Distinction in pentene-1 and pentyne-1 by : 49.
(1) con. H2SO4

(1) con. H2SO4
(2) HCl
(2) HCl
(3) [Ag(NH3)2]OH (3) [Ag(NH3)2]OH
(4) Br2 (4) Br2
50. CH { CH OZn o X Zn

3 , H2 O
o Y , Y is :
/ CH 3 COOH 50. CH { CH Zn
O3

dust
o X Zn o Y , Y
/ CH 3 CO OH
dust
(1) CH2OH–CH2OH
(1) CH2OH–CH2OH
(2) CH3CH2OH
(2) CH3CH2OH
(3) CH3COOH
(3) CH3COOH
(4) CH3OH
(4) CH3OH
NLI / 12
51. B 51. B
What are 'A' and 'B' : 'A' 'B'
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4)
(4)
52. Which of the following will not give benzene : 52.
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
53. . A
53. .
The compound A is :
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) All of these (3) (4)
NLI / 13
54. A + CH3–X o B o mesitylene, Identify A : 54. A + CH3–X o B o

Re d Hot Re d Hot
Fe tube Fe tube A
(1) CH3–CH3 (1) CH3–CH3
(2) CH3–CH2ONa (2) CH3–CH2ONa

(3) HC { CNa
(3) HC { CNa
(4) None (4)
55. Identify D in the given sequence of reaction 55. D
NaNO2 HCl

HNO3 (Can )
o A
Sn / HCl NaNO2 HCl
oB oC
C2H5OH
oD
HNO3 (Can )
H2SO4
o A
Sn / HCl
oB
050 C
oC
C2H5OH
oD
H2SO4 050 C
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
56. ESR
56. Arrange the following compound in order of their
decreasing reactivity with an ESR :
a. Chlorobenzene a.
b. 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene
c. p-nitrochlorobenzene
(1) b > c > a (1) b > c > a
(2) b < c < a (2) b < c < a
(3) a > b > c (3) a > b > c
(4) a > c > b (4) a > c > b
57. The treatment of CH3MgX with propyne produces: 57. CH3MgX,
(1) Propene (1)
(2) Butyne-2 (2) -2
(3) Methane (3)
(4) Butyne-1 (4) -1
58. The reagents to carry out the following conversion 58.
are:
(1) HgSO4, dil H2SO4

(1) HgSO4, dil H2SO4
(2) BH3, THF, H2O2 / NaOH
(2) BH3, THF, H2O2 / NaOH
(3) OsO4, H2O
(3) OsO4, H2O
(4) NaNH2/CH3I, HgSO4/dil H2SO4
(4) NaNH2/CH3I, HgSO4/dil H2SO4
NLI / 14
59. What is the electrophile when RCl with AlCl3 are 59. RCl, AlCl3
used in Friedel-craft reaction :
(1) Cl+ (2) AlCl4– (1) Cl+ (2) AlCl4–
(3) AlCl 2
+
(4) R +
(3) AlCl2+ (4) R+
60. In the reaction, 60.
Alkaline NaOH Soda Alkaline NaOH Soda
C 6 H5 CH 3
KMnO
o A
o B o C
lim e C 6 H5 CH 3
o A
o B o C
4 KMnO 4 lim e
the product A is : A
(1) Benzene (1)
(2) Phenol (2)
(3) Benzoic acid (3)
(4) Sodium Benzoate (4)
61. Cycloheptatrienyl cation is : 61.
(1) non-benzenoid and non-aromatic (1)
(2) benzenoid and aromatic (2)
(3) non-benzenoid and aromatic (3)
(4) benzenoid and non-aromatic (4)
62. Which of the following on reduction ozonolysis 62.
will give only glyoxal :
(1) Ethene (1)
(2) Benzene (2)
(3) Toluene (3)
(4) Propene (4)
C2H5MgBr
63. CaC2
H2 O C2H5MgBr
o A o B , Compound A and B 63. CaC2
H2 O
o A oB , A B
are respectively :
(1) CH { CH & C2H6 (1) CH { CH & C2H6
(2) CH { CH & CH4 (2) CH { CH & CH4
(3) CH3 C { CH & C2H6 (3) CH3 C { CH & C2H6
(4) CH4 & C2H6 (4) CH4 & C2H6

64. Which of the following will be least reactive 64. HCN
towards reaction with HCN :
:
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
NLI / 15
65. Match Column I with Column II and choose the 65. I II
correct option :
I II
Column I Column II
a. Chloroprene i. Styrene a. i.
b. Vinyl cyanide ii. Terylene b. ii.
c. Vinyl benzene iii. Neoprene c. iii.
d. Glycol + terphthalic iv. Acrilian d. iv.

acid (1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
66.
66.
A B
Compound A and B is respectively :
(1) CH3–CH2–C { CH & CH3–CH2
(1) CH3–CH2–C { CH & CH3–CH2
(2) CH3–C { C–CH3 & CH3–CH2
(2) CH3–C { C–CH3 & CH3–CH2
(3) CH3–CH2–C { CH &
(3) CH3–CH2–C { CH &
(4) CH3–CH2–C { CH & (4) CH3–CH2–C { CH &
67. Match Column I with Column II and choose the 67. I II

correct option :
I II
Column I Column II
a. Musturd gas i. CH { CH+Cu2Cl2/ a. i. CH { CH+Cu2Cl2/
NH4Cl NH4Cl
b. Westron ii. CH2=CH2+S2Cl2 b. ii. CH2=CH2+S2Cl2
c. Vinyl acetylene iii. CH { CH+AsCl3 c. iii. CH { CH+AsCl3
d. Lewsite iv. CH { CH+Cl2
d. iv. CH { CH+Cl2
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
CH3I Liq. NH3 / Na
68. CH3 C { CH o
Na
A o B oC , 68. CH3 C { CH o
Na CH3I
A Liq. NH3 / Na
o B oC ,
Compound 'C' is : 'C' :
(1) CH3–CH=CH2 (2) (1) CH3–CH=CH2 (2)
(3) (4) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3 (3) (4) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
NLI / 16
69. , Reagent R will be : 69. , R
(1) Sulphuric acid (1)

(2) Fuming sulphuric acid (2)
(3) Sulphonic acid
(3)
(4) Nitric acid
(4)
70. General formula of arene, if (y is no. of benzene
ring) : 70. (y ):
(1) CnH2n+6y (1) CnH2n+6y
(2) CnH2n–4y (2) CnH2n–4y
71. In benzene bond order between C–H : 71. C–H
(1) 1.5 (1) 1.5
(2) 1.3 (2) 1.3
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 2 (4) 2
72. In benzene the ratio V and S bond is : 72. V S
(1) 1 : 4 (1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
73. 73.
Reagent R will be : R
(1) H3PO2 and H2O (1) H3PO2 H2O

(2) AlCl3 (2) AlCl3
(3) H2SO4 conc. (3) H2SO4 conc.
(4) Zn dust (4) Zn dust
74. Chemical name of the insecticide gammexene is 74.
(1) DDT (1) DDT
(2) Benzene hexachloride (2)
(3) Chloral (3)
(4) Hexachloroethane (4)
NLI / 17
75. Friedal craft reaction can not be possible in 75. :

presence of :
(1)
(1) any deactivating group
(2) NH2, NHR, NR2
(2) In presence of basic activating group like NH2,
NHR, NR2 (3)
(3) both
(4)
(4) none
76.
76. In Gatterman koch synthesis
B
B will be :
(1) HCOCl
(1) HCOCl
(2) CO + HCl
(2) CO + HCl
(3)
(3) Both
(4) None (4)
77. name of 77.
above reaction :
(1) Wurtz reaction
(1)
(2) Witting reaction
(3) Wurtz witting reaction (2)
(4) Wurtz fitting reaction (3)
(4)
78. 78.
The product A and B respectively :

A B
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
NLI / 18
79. , A will be : 79. ,A
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
80. In nitration of benzene the electrophile is : 80.
(1) NO2 (1) NO2

(2) NO2 (2) NO2
(3) Both (3)
(4) NO2– (4) NO2–
81. Which of the following has the least octane no. : 81.
(1) Cetane (1)
(2) Octane (2)
(3) 2,24-tri me pentane
(4) n-heptane
82. By heating two mole of chloroform with silver a 82.

white ppt. is formed and a gas. The gas is :
(1) Ethene (1)
(2) Acetylene (2)
(3) Methane (3)
(4) Propene (4)
83. Vinyl chloride can undergo the following : 83.
(1) Polymerisation (1)
(2) Addition (2)
(3) Elimination (3)
(4) All (4)
84. CH { CH AsCl3 o

AlCl3
Pr oduct , Product will be : 84. CH { CH AsCl3 o
AlCl3
Pr oduct ,
(1) Westrol (1)
(2) Lewisite (2)
(3) Westrosol (3)
(4) All (4)

NLI / 19
85. , A and B respectively : 85. ,A B
(1) acetic acid and oxallic acid (1)

(2) oxallic acid and acetic acid (2)
(3) both A and B acetic acid (3) A B
(4) Both A and B are oxallic acid (4) A B
86. Which one of the following compounds does not 86.

form an ozonide?
(1)
(1) Ethene
(2)
(2) Propyne
(3)
(3) Propene
(4)
(4) Propane
87. The reagent used to convert an alkyne to alkene 87.
is (1) Zn/HCl
(1) Zn/HCl (2) Sn/HCl
(2) Sn/HCl
(3) Zn-Hg/HCl
(3) Zn-Hg/HCl
(4) Pd/H2
(4) Pd/H2
88.
88. Which among the follow ing groups w hen
attached to benzene ring will direct the incoming
electrophile predominantly to the meta position? (I) — CH3 (II) — CH2Cl
(I) — CH3 (II) — CH2Cl (III) — NH3 (IV) — CCI3

(III) — NH3 (IV) — CCI3 (V) — CHO
(V) — CHO (1) III
(1) III only
(2) I, II V
(2) I, II and V
(3) III V
(3) III and V only
(4) III, IV V
(4) III, IV and V
89. C6H6 Cl2
Light
oP
89. C6H6 Cl2
Light
oP
‘P’
Product ‘P’ is
(1) C6H5Cl
(1) C6H5Cl
(2) C6H4Cl2
(2) C6H4Cl2 (3) C6H6Cl6
(3) C6H6Cl6 (4)
(4) None of these. 90.
90. Cycloalkanes are isomeric with
(1)
(1) alkanes
(2)
(2) alkenes
(3) alkynes (3)
(4) arenes (4)
NLI / 20
BIOLOGY : Biotechnology Principle and Process
91. Genetic engineering is possible becase : 91.
(1) We can cut DNA at specific sites by restriction (1)

endonucleases
(2) Restriction endonucleases purified from virus can (2)

be used in bacteria
(3) The phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well (3)
understood
(4) We can see DNA by electron microscope (4)
92. One of the key factors, which makes the plasmid 92.
the vector in genetic engineering is :
(1) Its resistance to aqntibiotics (1)

(2) Its resistance to restriction enzymes (2)
(3) Its ability to carry a foreign gene (3)
(4) Its ability to cause infection in the host (4)
93. Match the column I with column II with respect to 93. I –II Eco RI
the nomenclature of restriction enzyme EcoRI and
select the correct answer from the given codes.
–I –II
Column I Column II
A. E (i)
A. E (i) I in order of identification
st
B. co (ii)
B. co (ii) Name of genus
C. R (iii)
C. R (iii) Name of species
D. I (iv)
D. I (iv) Name of strain
(1) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iv)
(1) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iv)
(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)
(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)
(3) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv) (3) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)
(4) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i) (4) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)
94. The sticky ends of fragmented DNA molecule are 94.

made of :
(1)
(1) Calcium salts
(2)
(2) Endonuclease enzyme
(3)
(3) Unpaired bases
(4) Methyl groups (4)
NLI / 21
95. Study the following figures and identify the 95. I II
enzymes involved in steps I and II
(1) EcoRI and DNA Ligase (1) EcoRI DNA
(2) Hind II and DNA Ligase (2) Hind II DNA
(3) EcoRI and Hindll (3) EcoRI Hindll
(4) Restriction endonuclease and exonuclease (4)

96. Gel electrophoresis is a : 96.
(1) Technique of separation of charged molecules under
(1)
the influence of magnetic field
(2) Technique of incorporation of DNA molecules into

the cell through transient pores made due to (2)
electrical impulses
(3) Technique of separation of DNA fragments through

the pores of agarose gel under the influence of (3)
electric field
(4) Technique of separation and purification of gene

products (4)
97. Match the column I with column II and select the 97. –I –II
correct answer from the given codes.
Column I Column II
–I –II
A. amp gene
R
(i) Artificial plasmid
A. ampR (i)
B. Separation of DNA (ii) Selectable marker
fragments B. (ii)
C. HindIII (iii) Electrophoresis
C. HindIII (iii)
D. pBR322 (iv) Haemophilus
D. pBR322 (iv)
influenzae
(1) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iv) (1) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iv)
(2) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii) (2) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)
(3) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i) (3) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
(4) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii) (4) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)
NLI / 22
98. The flow chart given below represents the process 98.
of recombinant DNA technology. Identify A, B, C
A, B, C D
and D.
,
C – DNA ,D–
(1) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction ,
exonuclease, C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation
C – DNA ,D–
(2) A - Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction
endonuclease, C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation ,
(3) A - Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction C– ,D–
endonuclease, C – Hydrolase, D – Transformation ,
(4) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction
endonuclease, C – Hydrolase, D – Transduction C– ,D–
99. Study the given figure carefully and select the
99.
incorrect statements regarding this.
(I) It represents a typical agarose gel (I)

electrophoresis in which lane 1 contains 1 DNA
undigested DNA (II) DNA A DNA B
(II) Smallest DNA bands are formed at A and
largest DNA bands are formed at B
(III) DNA
(III) The separated DNA fragments can be
visualized after staining in the visible light
(IV) DNA
(IV) The separated DNA bands are cut out from the
agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
This step is known as elution (Elution)
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv) (3) (ii) (iv) (4) (i) (iv)
NLI / 23
100. Restriction endonuclease : 100.
(1) Identifies the specific base sequence known as (1)

recognition sequence
(2)
(2) Binds to recognition sequence
(3)
(3) Cut the two helix at sugar phosphate backbone
(4)
(4) All
101. insertional inactivation
101. In the process of insertional inactivation
(1) E
(1) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding
sequence of enzyme E-galactosidase, rersulting in
inactivation of the enzyme
(2)
(2) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding
sequence of proteins involved in the replication of
the plasmid
(3) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the recognition (3) EcoRI

site for EcoRI
(4) None of the above (4)

102. Match the terms given the column I with their 102. –I –II
definitions in column II and select the correct
answer from codes given below :
–I –II
Column I Column II
A. (i)
A. Transformation (i) Sequences cut by
restriction enzymes
B. (ii)
B. Recognition site (ii) Process by which
DNA fragments are
separated based on
their size
C. Gel electrophoresis (iii) Plasmid DNA that C. (iii)

has incorporated
human DNA
D. DNA (iv)
D. Recombinant DNA (iv) Process by which
bacteria take up
pieces of DNA from
the environment
(1) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iv)
(1) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iv)
(2) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)
(2) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)
(3) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) (3) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(4) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i) (4) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
NLI / 24
103. The different steps of recombination DNA 103.
technology are given below randomly
(i) Isolation of the DNA fragments or genes to be
cloned (i) DNA
(ii) Introduction of the recombinant DNA into a (ii)

suitable cell (usually E. Coli) called host
E. Coli)
(transformation)
(iii) Multiplication/expression of the introduced (iii)
gene in the host
(iv)
(iv) Selection of the transformed host cells, and
identification of the clone containing the
desired gene /DNA fragment (v)
(v) Insertion of the isolated gene in a suitable
plasmid vector
Which of the following represents the correct
sequence of steps ? (1) (i) o (iii) o (ii) o (iv) o (v)
(1) (i) o (iii) o (ii) o (iv) o (v)
(2) (iii) o (ii) o (i) o (v) o (iv)
(2) (iii) o (ii) o (i) o (v) o (iv)
(3) (i) o (v) o (ii) o (iv) o (iii)
(3) (i) o (v) o (ii) o (iv) o (iii)
(4) (v) o (i) o (iii) o (iv) o (ii) (4) (v) o (i) o (iii) o (iv) o (ii)
104. Precipitates of purified DNA after the addition of 104. DNA
chilled ethanol are seen as a collection of fine
threads in suspension. This process is referred as:
(1) DNA transformation (1)
(2) DNA ligation (2)
(3) DNA spooling (3)
(4) DNA duplication (4)
105. Match the column I with column II and select the 105. I I
correct answer from the given codes :
Column I Column II I II
A. Recombinant DNA (i) Chilled ethanol A. DNA (i)
technology
B. Precipitation of DNA (ii) DNA staining B. DNA (ii) DNA
C. Transposons (iii) Jumping genes C. (iii)
D. Ethidium bromide (iv) Genetic engineering D. (iv)
(1) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii) (1) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)
(2) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv) (2) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv)
(3) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv) (3) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(4) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii) (4) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii)
NLI / 25
106. Which of the following statements are correct for 106. Taq
the enzyme Taq polymerase ?
(i) It remains active during the high temperature (1) ds DNA

induced denaturation of dsDNA
(ii) It requires primers for carrying out the process (2)

of polymerisation
(iii) It synthesises the RNA region between the (3) dNTPs Mg2+
primers, using dNTPs and Mg2+
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) None of these
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) None of these
107. Match the column I (enzyme) with column II
107. I II
(characteristic/activity) and select the correct
answer from the given codes :
I II
Column I Column II
A. Taq DNA (i) DNA
A. Taq DNA polymerase (i) Cleaves the ends of
linear DNA
B. (ii)
B. Exonuclease (ii) Breakdown of
fungal cell wall

C. (iii) 90°C
C. Protease (iii) Stable above 90°C
D. Chitinase (iv) Made only by

D. (iv)
eukaryotic cells
(v) Degradation of
(v)
proteins
(1) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
(1) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
(2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
(2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
(3) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (v), D – (iii)
(3) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (v), D – (iii)
(4) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (v), D – (ii)
(4) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (v), D – (ii)
108. In a polymerase chain reaction, temperature 108.
required by the steps
(i) Denaturation, (i)
(ii) Annealing and (ii)
(iii) Extension are respectively (iii) Extension
(1) (i) 94°C (ii) 56°C (iii) 72°C (1) (i) 94°C (ii) 56°C (iii) 72°C
109. Cutting of DNA at specific location became
NLI / 26
possible with the discovery of : 109.
(1) Molecular scissors (1)
(2) Restriction enzymes
(2)
(3) Both 1 and 2
(3) 1 2
(4) None of these
(4)
110. Study the following statements regarding
recombinant DNA technology select the incorrect 110.
ones.
(i) Taq polymerasse extends the primers using the (i)
nucleotides provided in the reaction
(ii) Antibiotic resistance genes are considered as
desirable genes in recombinant DNA (ii)
technology
(iii) DNA fragments are separated according to (iii)
their charge only, in agarose gel
electrophoresis
(iv) Transformation is a procedure through which (iv)
a piece of DNA is intergrated in to the genome
of a host bacterium
(v)
(v) To produce higher yields of a desired protein,
host cells can be multiplied in a continuous
culture
(vi) Downstream processing is one of the steps of (vi)
polymerase chain reaction
(1) (ii), (iii) and (vi) (2) (i), (iii) and (v) (1) (ii), (iii) and (vi) (2) (i), (iii) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (v) (4) (i), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (v) (4) (i), (iv) and (v)
111. Match the scientists in column I with their related
discoveries in column II and select the correct 111. I II
option from the given codes
Column I Column II
A. Kary Mullis (i) Father of genetic I II
engineering
A. (i)
B. Paul Berg (ii) Nobel prize for the
discovery of
restriction B. (ii)
endonucleases
C. Stanley Cohen (iii) Developed
and Herbert Boyer polymerase chain C. (iii)
reaction
D. Arber, Smith and (iv) Isolated an antibiotic D. (iv)
Nathan resistant gene from
a plasmid of the
bacterium Salmonella
typhimurium
(1) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)
(1) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)
(2) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii) (2) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
(3) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i) (3) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)
(4) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (ii) (4) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (ii)
NLI / 27
112. A foreign DNA can not replicate inside a host cell 112.
until and unless :
(1) It will integrate to the host genetic material (1)
(2) It does not need to get integrated with the host’s (2)
genetic material
(3) The host genetic material is distructed in the cell (3)

(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
113. Which of the following is a vector 113.
(1) Plasmid (1)
(2) Cosmid
(2)
(3) Phagemid
(3)
(4) All of these
(4)
114. The core technique that enabled the birth of
114.
modern biotechnology is / are :
(1) Genetic engineering - technique to alter the genetic (1)
material and change the phenotype
(2) Maintinance of microbe (microbial contamination- (2)
– free) ambience in chemical engineering process
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
115. Hind II cuts DNA at a specific sequence of 115. Hind II DNA
(1) 5 base pairs (1) 5
(2) 7 basepairs (2) 7
116. EcoR I is isolated from 116. EcoR I
(1) E.coli RY11 (1) E.coli RY11
117. The fragments of DNA seperated by a technique 117. DNA

(1) Chromatography (1)
(2) Gel electrophoresis (2)
(3) Centrifugation (3)

NLI / 28
118. For transformation, micro-particles coated with 118.
DNA to be bombarded with gene gun. This gene
gun particle are made up of :
(1)
(1) Silicon or Platinum
(2)
(2) Gold or Tungsten
(3)
(3) Silver or Platinum
(4)
(4) Platinum or Zinc
119.
119. Agarose is chemically a
(1)
(1) Monomer
(2)
(2) Dimer
(3)
(3) Polymer
(4)
(4) Oligomer
120. DNA
120. Process by which E. coli take up foreign DNA
(1) Transcription (1)
(2) Translation (2)
(3) Transformation (3)
(4) Transfer (4)
121. pBR322 is a 121. pBR322
(1) Natural plasmid (1)
(2) Artificial vector (2)
(3) Have ampicillin and tetracycline resistance genes (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
122. Method in which foreign DNA is directly injected 122. DNA

in the nucleus
(1) Micro-injection (1)
(2) Gene gun (2)
(3) Transformation (3)
123. RNA and protein portion are removed during DNA 123. DNA RNA
isolation by treating with
(1) Lysozyme , cellulose (1) ,
(2) Chitinase, protease (2) ,
(3) RNAse, protease (3)

(4) RNA polymerase, protease (4) ,
124. Isolated and purified DNA can be precipitated by 124. DNA
adding
(1) Chilled NaCl (1) NaCl
(2) Chilled sucrose (2)
(3) Chilled ethanol (3)
(4) Chilled glucose (4)
NLI / 29
125. Amplification of gene of interest is done using 125.
(1) Gel electrophoresis (1)

(2) Chromatography (2)
(3) Polymerase chain reaction (3)
(4) Gene sequencing (4)
126. In polymerase chain reaction during denaturation 126.
step
(1) Primer is added to the two strands of DNA

(1)
separated
(2) DNA
(2) The two strands of DNA are separated due to heat
treatment
(3) DNA
(3) The DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to primer
(4) DNA
(4) Restriction endonuclease cuts DNA at recognition
site
127.
127. The process of annealing requires
(1)
(1) One set of small chemically synthesized
oligonucleosides
(2) Two set of primers (large chemically synthesized (2)

oligonucleotides)
(3) Two sets of primers (small chemically synthesised (3)

oligonucleotides)
128. Thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase) 128. DNA )

is isolated from (1)
(1) E.coli
(2)
(2) S. typhimurium
(3)
(3) Thermus aquaticus
(4)
(4) S. pneumoniae
129.
129. Which of the following enzymes is used in isolation
of genetic material DNA
(a) Lysozyme (b) Cellulase (a) (b)
(c) Chitinase (d) Lipase (c) (d)
(e) Ribonuclease (f) Protease (e) (f)
(1) a, b, c, d, e, f (1) a, b, c, d, e, f
(2) Only b, c, f (2) b, c, f
(3) Only a, d (3) a, d
(4) None (4)

NLI / 30
130. Which one is vectorless gene transfer method : 130.
(1) Microinjection (1)
(2) Biolistic (2)

(3) Genegun (3)
(4) All of these
(4)
131. Presence of more than one recognition site : 131.
(1) It is beneficial process of gene cloning because (1)

more than one attachment sites are available
(2) Complicates the gene cloning process because (2)

so many fragments are generated
(3) Is very commonly observed in vectors (3)

(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) 1 3
132. Which one of the following is responsible for 132. DNA
controlling of copy number of the linked DNA : :
(1) Ori (1) Ori
(2) Selectable marker (2)
(3) Cloning site (3)
(4) Rop (4) Rop
133. In gel electrophoresis sieving effect are related 133.
with :
(1)
(1) Size of DNA fragment
(2)
(2) Purines bp are present in DNA fragment
(3) Pyrimidines bp are present in DNA fragments (3)
134. What is the meanings of the p, B, R in pBR322 134. pBR322 p, B, R

respectively :
(1)
(1) Plasmid, Bacillus, Radioactive
(2)
(2) Plasmid, Bacillus, Rodriguez
(3) Plasmid, Bolivar, Rodriguez (3)
(4) Plasmid, Bolivar, Radioactive (4)
135. Which of the following is not a feature of the 135.

plasmids :
(1)
(1) Transferable
(2)
(2) Single-stranded
(3) Independent replication (3)
(4) Circular structure (4)

NLI / 31
136. In pBR322 what is the meaning of 322 : 136. pBR322 322 :
(1) A quality Numeral number (1)
(2) A numeral number which distinguish from it other (2)

developed plasmid
(3) A stability numeral number (3)
137. The total restriction site are present in PBR322 137. PBR322
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 8 (3) 8
(4) 5 (4) 5
138. Downstream processing of drug include 138.
(1) Separation
(1)
(2) Purification (2)
(3) Clinical trials (3)
(4) More than one correct (4)
139. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the 139.

following enzymes is not used
(1) Lysozyme (1)
(2) Ribonuclease (2)
(3) Deoxyribonuclease (3)
(4) Protease (4)
140. Which of the following are palindromic sequence: 140.
(1) 5' – GAATTC – 3' (1) 5' – GAATTC – 3'
3' – CTTAAG – 5' 3' – CTTAAG – 5'
(2) 5' – TATATA – 3' (2) 5' – TATATA – 3'
3' – ATATAT – 5' 3' – ATATAT – 5'

(3) 5' – GAGCTC – 3'
(3) 5' – GAGCTC – 3'
3' – CTCGAG – 5'
3' – CTCGAG – 5'
(4)
(4) All of these
141. Accomplishment of first recombinant DNA could 141.
be possible in which year (1) 1972
(1) 1972 (2) 1971
(2) 1971 (3) 1973
(3) 1973 (4) 1975
(4) 1975
NLI / 32
142. Besides first restriction endonuclease how many 142.
restriction enzymes are known today
(1) 230 (1) 230

(2) 900 (2) 900
(3) More than 900 (3) 900
(4) Nearly 900 (4) 900
143. In ECO RI, what is ‘R’ 143. In ECO RI, ‘R’
(1) Roman name of the gene (1)
(2) Roman number (2)
(3) Name of the strain of DNA (3)
(4) Name of the strain of bacteria (4)
144. Which is incorrect : 144.
(1) DNA is a hydrophilic molicule cannot pass through (1)

membrane
(2) Spooling is DNA fragmentation process (2)

(3) Plant cells bom barded with high velocity (3)
microparticles
(4) Introduction of alien DNA into host cell by a method

(4)
called micro injection in animal cell
145. Elution step involves which of the following from

145.
the given here
(1)
(1) Gel electrophoresis
(2)
(2) Cutting out of the DNA bands from agarose gel
(3)
(3) Extraction of DNA from gel piece
(4) 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
146. The important feature in a plasmid to be used as a 146.

vector is:
(1) Origin of replication (ori) (1) (ori)
(2) Presence of a selectable marker (2)
(3) Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease (3)

147. Which of the following is a biotechnological 147.
product-
(1)
(1) Vaccine
(2)
(2) Enzymes
(3)
(3) Cheese
NLI / 33
148. In the nomenclature of restriction endonuclease 148.
enzyme the first letter and the successive two
letters denote
(1)
(1) Strain, Genus
(2)
(2) Genus, strain
(3)
(3) Genus, species
(4)
(4) Strain, species
149. II
149. What is correct about Hind-II
(1)
(1) It is the first restriction endonuclease
(2)
(2) Its functioning depends on a specific DNA
nucleotide sequence
(3)
(3) It cuts DNA by identifying a specific sequence of
six base pairs
(4)
(4) All of these
150. DNA
150. The DNA fragments separated by electrophoresis
can be visualized by staining with
(1)
(1) haematoxylin
(2)
(2) Geimsa
(3)
(3) Gram's stain
(4)
(4) Ethidium bromide
151.
151. Which is incorrect :
(1)
(1) Plasmid and bacteriophage have ability to replicate
within bacterial cell
(2)
(2) Some plasmids may have only one or two copies
per cell
(3) Bacteriophage have very low copy number of their (3)
genome within bacterial cell (4)
(4) Cloning vectors are used in linking of foreign DNA
152. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides 152.
from the ends of DNA is:
(1) Endonuclease (1)
(2) Exonuclease (2)
(3) DNA ligase (3)
(4) Hind - II (4) II

NLI / 34
153. The given below figure is the diagrammatic 153. pBR 322
representation of the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which
one of the following are correct statements with
reference to the given diagram :
(a) BamH I
(a) If an alien DNA ligate at BamH I site then

ampicillin work as selectable marker (b) Pst I
(b) If an alien DNA ligate at Pst I site then

tetracycline work as selectable marker.
(c) Sal I
(c) If an alien DNA ligate at Sal I site then
recombinants will grow in ampicillin
containing medium.
(1) a, b, c (2) Only a and c (1) a, b, c (2) a c
(3) Only c (4) Only a, b (3) c (4) a, b

154. Which one of the following restriction enzyme 154.
which have recognition sequence of six base pairs: 6 :
(1) EcoRI (1) EcoRI
(2) Hind II (2) Hind II
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
155. Given below are four statements pertaining to 155.

separation of DNA fragments using gel DNA
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements. :
i. DNA is positively charged molecule and so it i. DNA
is loaded on gel towards the anode terminal.
ii. DNA fragments travel along the surface of the
gel whose concentration does not affect ii. DNA
movement of DNA DNA
iii. Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is the iii. DNA
distance it travels through it .
iv. DNA
iv. Pure DNA can be visualized directly by
exposing UV radiation.
(1) i, iii iv
(1) i, iii and iv
(2) i, ii and iii (2) i, ii iii
(3) ii, iii and iv (3) ii, iii iv
(4) i, ii and iv (4) i, ii iv

NLI / 35
156. What is correct about bio-reactors 156.
(1) These are vessels in which biological products are (1)
chemically converted into specific products
(2) These are vessels in which chemical products are (2)
converted biologically into raw materials
(3) These are vessels in which raw materials are
(3)
biologically converted into specific raw materials
(4) These are vessels in which result in (biologically)
(4)
formation of specific products from raw materials
157. A bioreactor provides optimum growth condition.
Which among the following is included in those 157.
conditions
(1) Temperature, Oxygen (1)
(2) Substrate, Salt (2)
(3) Vitamin (3)
158. Which association group given the definition of 158.
biotechnology :
(1) CBI
(1) CBI
(2) NACO
(2) NACO
(3) EFB
(3) EFB
(4) FIFA (4) FIFA
159. Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of 159.

enzymes called as
(1) Nucleases (1)
(2) Exonucleases (2)
(3) Endonucleases (3)
160. Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial 160.
transformation is to
(1) binding of DNA to the cell wall (1)
(2) uptake of DNA through membrane transport pro-
(2)
teins
(3) uptake of DNA through transient pores in bacterial
cell wall (3)
(4) expression of antibiotic resistance genes (4)
161. Downstream processing and quality control testing 161.
(1) Same for all product (1)
(2) Do not vary from product to product (2)
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Vary from product to product (4)

NLI / 36
162. 162.
The point marked by the arrow represents :

(1) Sticky end (1)
(2) Blunt end (2)
(3) Plain end (3)
(4) Opposite end (4)
163. Twentieth century off shoot of modern biology is : 163.
(1) Biochemistry (1)
(2) Biotechnology (2)
(3) Genetics (3)
(4) Ecology (4)
164. Which one is not related to modern biotechnology: 164.
(1) Curd making (1)

(2) DNA
(2) DNA vaccine
(3)
(3) Test tube baby
(4)
(4) Gene tharapy
165.
165. What is correct about Boyer
(1) 1969
(1) In 1969 he performed studies on a couple of
restriction enzymes, of E.Coli
(2) 1969
(2) In 1969 create first R-DNA
(3)
(3) Boyer developed a method to remove plasmids from
cells and then reinserting them in other cells
(4) 1 and 3 (4) 1 3
166. Basic steps in genetic modification of an organ- 166.

ism:
(1) Introduction of desired DNA into host (1)

(2)
(2) Identify the DNA with desirable genes
(3)
(3) Maintenance of introduced DNA in host
(4)
(4) All of these
167.
167. Artificial recombinant DNA was constructed for the
first time by using (1)
(1) Extra-chromosomal DNA of micro-organism
causing cholera
(2)
(2) A gene encoding antibiotic resistance
(3) Extrachromosomal DNA of salmonella typhimurium (3)
(4) 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
NLI / 37
168. Palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA : 168.
(1) Sequence is read the same when read on two (1)
strands in different polarities
(2)
(2) Sequence is read the same when read on two
strands in same polarities
(3)
(3) Sequence is read same on each strand in forward
and backward both directions
(4)
(4) Each strand sequence is read same when read from
the middle of strand
169. Eco-RI
169. Eco-RI cuts DNA sequence at :
(1) 5'–GAATTC-3' (2) 5'–GAATTC–3'
(1) 5'–GAATTC-3' (2) 5'–GAATTC–3'
3'–GTTAAC-5' 3'–CTTAAG–5'
3'–GTTAAC-5' 3'–CTTAAG–5'
(3) 5'–GAATTG–3' (4) 5'–CTATTG–3'
(3) 5'–GAATTG–3' (4) 5'–CTATTG–3'
3'–GTTAAG–5' 3'–GTTAAC–5'
3'–GTTAAG–5' 3'–GTTAAC–5'
170.
170. Which among the following be considered as a
key tool in recombinant DNA technology
(a) Restriction enzymes (a)
(b) Polymerase enzymes (b)
(c) Ligases (c)
(d) Vectors (d)
(e) Host organisms (e)
(1) Only d (1) d
(2) Only e (2) e
(3) Only c, e (3) c, e
171. In gel electrophoresis technique, the stained DNA 171.

fragments on exposure to UV light show :
(1) Bright orange colour bands (1)
(2) Black colour bands (2)

(3) Blue colour bands (3)
(4) White colour bands (4)
172. If the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an 172.
insert then the presence of chromogenic substrate
gives :
(1)
(1) Red coloured colonies
(2)
(2) Blue coloured colonies
(3)
(3) Pink coloured colonies
(4)
(4) Colourless colonies
NLI / 38
173. DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition 173.
of :
(1)
(1) Chilled primary alcohol
(2)
(2) Chilled secondary alcohol
(3)
(3) Chilled tertiary alcohol
(4)
(4) All of these
174.
174. In order to force bacteria to take up DNA; it is
treated with a specific concentration of :
(1) Na+ (2) K +
(1) Na +
(2) K +
(3) Ca+2 (4) H+

(3) Ca +2
(4) H +
175.
175. Method of foreign DNA transfer in which cells are
bombarded with high velocity micro particles
coated with DNA is known as
(1)
(1) Microinjection
(2)
(2) Transformation
(3)
(3) Biolistic or gene gum
(4)
(4) Electroporation
176.
176. Multiple copies of the gene of interest is
synthesized in-vitro using sets of primers by :
(1)
(1) Polymerase chain reaction
(2)
(2) Southern blotting
(3)
(3) Northern blotting
(4) 2 3
(4) Both 2 and 3
177.
177. Select the incorrect statement :
(1)
(1) To produce large quantities of desired proteins
bioreacters are used.
(2) Bioreacters are vessels in which raw materials are (2)

biologically converted to specific products using
synthetic chemicals.
(3) Bioreacter provides optimum conditions of tempera- (3)

ture, pH, substrate, salts, oxygen etc.
(4) The most commonly used bioreactors are of stir- (4)

ring type.
178. In Eco RI, what is ‘co’ : 178. Eco RI, ‘co’
(1) Roman name of the gene (1)

(2) Genus name (2)
(3) Name of the strain of DNA (3)
(4) None (4)
NLI / 39
179. EFB stands for : 179.
(1) Euro Federation of Biotech (1)
(2) European Federation of Biotechnology (2)
(3) European Front of Biology (3)
(4) European union Federation of Biome. (4)
180. Enzymes require for restricting the growth of 180.

bacteriophage in E. coli are :
(1) Methylase (1)
(2) Restriction Endonuclease (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 1 2
(4) None.
(4)
NLI / 40
NLI / 42

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All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-17 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 12-March-2021

[All India Test & Discussion Series]

Please read the instructions carefully :

11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

Correction Paper code, Roll No. Test Centre 2

e-mail : feedback@newlightinstitute.in, Visit us : www.newlightinstitute.com

All India Test and Discussion Series

7:00 – 8:00 PM – Chemistry

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

Google Map : https://maps.app.goo.gl/pdPKDZUhqD2yjV3k8

TOPIC : Electric Charge and Fields

1. Energy associated with a moving charge is due to 1.

(4) None of these (4)

2. The magnitude of electric force experienced by a 2.

(1) Charge of the particle (1)

(2) Velocity of the particle (2)

(3) Direction of the electric field (3)

(4) Mass of the particle (4)

3. A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then 3.

4. One of the following is not a property of field lines 4.

(4) They form closed loops (4)

5. The value of electric permittivity of free space is : 5.

(1) Nuclear force and coulomb force (1)

(3) Coulomb force and gravitational force (3)

(4) Nuclear, coulomb and gravitational force (4)

(1) 4.8 × 10–19 C (1) 4.8 × 10–19 C

(2) 1.6 × 10–19 C (2) 1.6 × 10–19 C

(3) 3.2 × 10–19 C (3) 3.2 × 10–19 C

(4) 6.4 × 10–19 C (4) 6.4 × 10–19 C

8. The charge q is projected into a uniform electric 8. E q

(1) qEY (1) qEY

(3) 5.4 × 10–2 N (3) 5.4 × 10–2 N

(4) 5.4 × 10–3 N (4) 5.4 × 10–3 N

15. Three charge q, Q and 4q are placed in a straight 15. q, Q 4q l

(4) 3.7 × 10–3 C (4) 3.7 × 10–3 C

18. A hollow insulated conducting sphere is given a 18. 10 PC

(4) 8 PCm–2 (4) 8 PCm–2

(4) 3.43 × 109 (4) 3.43 × 109

22. The unit of electric field is not equivalent to : 22.

(4) The velocity of the electron will increase (4)

24. Angle between equipotential surface and lines of 24.

25. Which of the following is deflected by electric field 25.

(1) X-rays (1) X-fdj.ksa

(2) g-rays (2) J- fdj.ksa

(4) a-particles (4) D-d.k

26. An electron is moving towards x-axis. An uniform 26. x–

(1) 12 × 10–1 Nm (1) 12 × 10–1 Nm

(3) Zero (3)

30. The electric dipole moment of an electron and a 30. 4.3 nm

(1) 6.88 × 10–28 Cm (1) 6.88 × 10–28 Cm

(2) 2.56 × 10–29 C2/m (2) 2.56 × 10–29 C2/m

(3) 3.72 × 10–14 C/m (3) 3.72 × 10–14 C/m

(4) 11 × 10–46 C2/m

(2) – 4 × 103 C (2) – 4 × 103 C

36. Electric field strength due to a point charge of 36. 80 cm 5 µC

(1) sin T (1) sin T

(2) tan T (2) tan T

(3) cos T (3) cos T

(3) –3E (3) –3E

41. Which of the following can not be dielectric 41.

(2) The same potential (2)

(3) Radial, inward (3)

(4) CH 3 C CH 3 (both) (4) CH 3 C CH 3 )

50. CH { CH OZn o X Zn

54. A + CH3–X o B o mesitylene, Identify A : 54. A + CH3–X o B o

(3) CH3 C { CH & C2H6 (3) CH3 C { CH & C2H6

84. CH { CH AsCl3 o