NEET Test 12 Discussion Series

All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-12 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 10-Feb-2021
Test ID
Test CODE : TD-12
313
[All India Test & Discussion Series]

TEST DATE : 10-Feb.-2021
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TOPIC : Thermal Properties of matter

1. A hole is drilled in a copper sheet. The diameter 1. 27.0 °C
of the hole is 4.24 cm at 27.0 °C. What is the change 4.24 cm 227 °C
in the diameter of the hole when the sheet is
heated to 227 °C : = 1.70 × 10–5 K–1
(Coefficient of linear expansion of copper
= 1.70 × 10–5 K–1) (1) 1.44 × 10–2 cm
(1) 1.44 × 10–2 cm

(2) 2.24 × 10–2 cm
(2) 2.24 × 10 cm–2
(3) 1.44 × 10–4 cm

(3) 1.44 × 10–4 cm
(4) 2.24 × 10–3 cm
(4) 2.24 × 10–3 cm
2. 49 × 10–5 K–1
2. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 30 °C
49 × 10–5 K–1. What is the fractional change in its
density for a 30 °C rise in temperature :
(1) 3.47 × 10–2 (1) 3.47 × 10–2
(2) 1.47 × 10–2 (2) 1.47 × 10–2

(3) 1.45 × 10 –2
(3) 1.45 × 10–2
(4) 3.7 × 10–3
(4) 3.7 × 10–3
3. A 10 kW drilling machine is used to drill a bore In 3. 8.0 kg
a small aluminium block of mass 8.0 kg. How much 10 kW
is the rise in temperature of the blocks in 2.5 2.5
minutes, assuming 50% of power is used up in 50%
heating the machine itself or lost to the
surroundings :
= 0.91 J g-1 K-1
(Specific heat of aluminium = 0.91 J g K ) -1 -1
(1) 103°C (1) 103°C
(2) 102°C (2) 102°C

(3) 100°C (3) 100°C
(4) 0°C (4) 0°C
4. A copper block of mass 2.5 kg is heated in a 4. 2.5 kg 500 °C
furnace to a temperature of 500 °C and then placed
on a large ice block. What is the maximum amount
of ice that can melt :
(Specific heat of copper = 0.39 J g–1 K–1; heat of = 0.39 J g–1 K–1;
fusion of water = 335 J g ) –1
= 335 J g–1)
(1) 1.45 kg (1) 1.45 kg
(2) 2.45 kg (2) 2.45 kg
(3) 2.30 kg (3) 2.30 kg
(4) 4.30 kg (4) 4.30 kg
NLI / 3
5. Surface of the lake is at 2°C. Find the temperature 5. 2°C :
of the bottom of the lake :
(1) 2°C
(1) 2°C
(2) 3°C
(2) 3°C
(3) 4°C
(3) 4°C
(4) 1°C
(4) 1°C
6. 27°C 1kW
6. Water of volume 2 litre in a container is heated
with a coil of 1kW at 27°C. The lid of the container
is open and energy dissipates at rate of 160J/s. In 160J/s
how much time temperature will rise from 27°C to 27°C 77°C :
77°C :
[ 4.2kJ/kg
[Given specific heat of water is 4.2kJ/kg
(1) 8 20
(1) 8 min 20 sec
(2) 6 2
(2) 6 min 2 sec
(3) 7
(3) 7 min
(4) 14
(4) 14 min
7. According to law of caloimetry, which of the given 7.
relationis true :
(1) ≥
(1) Heat gained ≥ heat lost
(2) =
(2) Heat gained = heat lost
(3) Heat gained > heat lost (3) >
(4) Heat lost < heat gained (4) <
8. Boiling water is changing into steam, under this 8.

condition the specific heat of water in cals/g/°C is : cals/g/°C :
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) Zero (2)
(3) ∞ (3) ∞
(4) < 1 (4) < 1
9. Pure water cooled to – 15°C is contained in a 9. – 15°C

thermally insulated flask. Some ice is added into
the flask. The fraction of water frozen into ice is : :
3 3
(1) (1)
35 35
6 6
(2) (2)
35 35
2 2
(3) (3)
35 35
6 6
(4) (4)
29 29
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10. The coefficient of areal expansion is : 10. :
(1) Equal (the coefficient of linear expansion) (1)
(2) Thrice (the coefficient of linear expansion) (2)
(3) Twice (the coefficient of linear expansion) (3)
(4) None of the above. (4)
11. How many calories of heat is develop by 200 watt 11. 5 200
bulb in 5 minutes : :
(1) 1.43 × 103 cals (1) 1.43 × 103 cals
(2) 1.43 × 104 cals (2) 1.43 × 104 cals
(3) 14.3 × 103 cals (3) 14.3 × 103 cals
(4) 14.3 × 10 cals4
(4) 14.3 × 104 cals
12. A liquid of mass m and specific heat c is heated to 12. m C T
a temperature T. Another liquid of mass m/2 and
m/2
specific heat 2c is heated to a temperature 2T. If
these two liquids are mixed, the resulting 2C 2T
temperature of the mixture is :
 3  3
(1)   T (1)   T
2 2
FG 8 IJ T FG 8 IJ T
(2) H 5K (2) H 5K
(3) T (3) T
(4) None of these (4)

13. A ball of iron of mass 0.1 kg is dropped from a 13. 0.1 10 m
height of 10 m and again rises to 1.0 m. If whole of
1.0 m
the energy is converted into heat, the rise in temp.
of the ball is :
( = 0.12cal/g°C; J = 4.2 J/cal, g = 10 m s2)
(sp. heat = 0.12 cal/g°C; J = 4.2 J/cal, g =10 m s2)
(1) 180°C (1) 180°C
(2) 1.8°C (2) 1.8°C
(3) 0.18°C (3) 0.18°C

(4) 180ºC (4) 180ºC
14. A 50 g lead bullet (sp. heat = 0.02 cal/g°C) is at 14. 50 g ( = 0.02cal/g°C) 30°C
30°C. It is fired vertically upwards with a speed of
840 ms–1
840 ms–1. On returning to the starting level it strikes
0°C
the ice cake at 0°C. How much ice is melted :
:
(L.H. of ice = 80 cal/gm):
( = 80 cal/gm):
(1) 52.875 g
(1) 52.875 g
(2) 5.2875 g
(2) 5.2875 g
(3) 528.75 g
(3) 528.75 g
(4) none of these
(4)
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15. A metal rod having a linear coefficient of 15. 2 × 10–5 /°C
expansion as 2 × 10–5 /°C. It has length 1m at 20°C. 20°C 1m 1mm
The temperature at which it is shortend 1mm is : :
(1) 10°C (1) 10°C
(2) 0°C (2) 0°C
(3) – 10°C
(3) – 10°C
(4) – 30°C
(4) – 30°C
16. Steam at 100°C is passed into 22 g of water at 20°C.
16. 20°C 22g 100°C
What weight of water is present at 90°C :
90°C :
(L.H. = 2260 J/g, sp. heat of water = 4.2 J g–1/°C–1)
( = 2260 J/g, = 4.2 J g–1/°C–1)
(1) 36.6 g
(1) 36.6 g
(2) 26.2 g
(2) 26.2 g
(3) 24.8 g
(3) 24.8 g
(4) 25.2 g
17. A refrigerator converts 50g of water at 15°C into ice (4) 25.2 g
at 0°C in one hour. Heat removed per minute is : 17. 50g 15°C 0°C
(1) 7.92 cal :
(2) 792 cal (1) 7.92 cal
(3) 79.2 cal (2) 792 cal

(4) None of these (3) 79.2 cal
18. Of the following, the one which has the highest (4) None of these
specific heat is
18.
(1) aluminium
(1)
(2) cooper
(2)
(3) water
(3)
(4) hydrogen
(4)
19. Two rods, one of aluminium and the other made
of steel, having initial lengths l 1 and l 2 are 19.
connected together to form a single rod of length l1 l2
(l 1+l 2). The coefficient of linear expansion of
aluminium and steel are α a and α s respectively..
(l1 + l2) αa αs
If the length of each rod increase by same amount,
when their temperatures are raised by T°C, then T°C
the ratio l1 /(l1+l2) is l1 /(l1+l2) :
αs αs
(1) α (2) α + α αs αs
a a s (1) α (2) α + α
a a s
αa αa
(3) α (4) α + α αa αa
s a s
(3) α (4) α + α
s a s
NLI / 6
20. When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C, its volume: 20. 0°C 10°C :
(1) Increases (1)
(2) Decreases (2)

(3) Does not change (3)
(4) First decreses and then increases (4)
21. Compared to burn due to air at 100°C, a burn due 21. 100°C 100°C
to steam at 100°C is
(1) more dangerous (1)

(2) less dangerous (2)
(3) equally dangerous (3)
(4) none of the above (4)
22. An aluminium sphere of 20 cm diameter is heated 22. 20 cm 0°C 100°C
from 0°C to 100°C. Its volume changes by : :
(given that coefficient of linear expansion for
(
aluminium α Al = 23 × 10 6 / °C )
α Al = 23 × 10 6 / °C )
(1) 2.89 cc
(1) 2.89 cc
(2) 9.28 cc
(2) 9.28 cc
(3) 49.8 cc
(3) 49.8 cc
(4) 28.9 cc
(4) 28.9 cc
23. Whater is used as coalant in automobile radiator
23.
because :
(1) It has high specific heat capacity

(1)
(2) It is easily available
(2)
(3) It is easy to carry
(3)
(4) It is cheap
(4)
24. A substance of mass m kg requires a power input
24. m
of P watt to remain in the molten state at its melting
P
point. When the power is turned off, the sample
completely solidifies in t sec. The latent heat of t
fusion is : :
P Pt P Pt
(1) (2) (1) (2)
m.t m m.t m
Pm Pm
(3) (4) Ptm (3) (4) Ptm
t t
NLI / 7
25. Which of the following statements is wrong : 25. :
(1) bimetal is used in metal thermometers (1)
(2) bimetal is used in thermostal for regulating (2)
(3) bimetal relays are used to open or close (3)
(4) bimetal are used to generate electricity

(4)
26. Solids expand on heating because
26. :
(1) kinetic energy of the atoms increases (1)
(2) potential energy of the atoms increases (2)
(3) total energy of the atoms increases (3)
(4) the potential energy curve is asymmetric about the (4)

equilibrium distance between neighbouring atoms
27. A thin copper wire of length L increases in length 27. L 1%

by 1% when heated from temperature T1 to T2 . T1 T2
What is the percentage change in area when a 2L×L
thin copper plate having dimensions 2L×L is T1 T2
heated from T1 to T2 ?
(1) 1% (2) 3%
(1) 1% (2) 3%
(3) 2% (4) 4%
(3) 2% (4) 4%
28. U t1 t2
28. In a vertical U-tube containing a liquid, the two
arms are maintained at different temperatures,
t1and t2. The liquid columns in the two arms have
heights l1 and l2 respectively. The coefficient of l1 l2
volume expansion of the liquid is equal to :
l1 − l2 l1 − l2
(1) l t − l t (1) l t − l t
2 1 1 2
2 1 1 2
l1 − l2 l1 − l2
(2) l t − l t (2) l t − l t
11 2 2 11 2 2
l1 + l2 l1 + l2
(3) l t + l t (3) l t + l t
2 1 1 2 2 1 1 2
l1 + l2 l1 + l2
(4) l t + l t (4) l t + l t
11 2 2 11 2 2
NLI / 8
29. Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1>d2) 29. (d1>d2)
are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated :
(1) both d1 and d2 will decrease

(1) d1 d2
(2) both d1 and d2 will increase
(2) d1 d2
(3) d1 will increases, d2 will decrease
(3) d1 d2
(4) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase
(4) d1 d2
30. Two rods of length L1 and L2 are welded together
to make a composite rod of length (L1+L2). If the 30. L1 L2 (L1+L2)
coefficients of linear expansion of the rods are α1 α1
and α 2 respectively, the effective coefficient of α2 :
linear expansion of the composite rod will be :
1 2
1 2 (1) (α1 − α 22 ) (2) α1α 2
(1) (α1 − α 22 ) (2) α1α 2 2
2
L1L 2 α1α 2 L1α1 + L 2 α 2
L1L 2 α1α 2 L1α1 + L 2 α 2 (3) (4)
(3) (4) L1 + L 2 L1 + L 2
L1 + L 2 L1 + L 2
31. When a block of iron floats in mercury at 0°C, a 31. 0°C

fraction k1 of its volume is submerged, while at k1 60° k2
the temperature 60°C, a fraction k2 is seen to be
submerged, if the coefficient of volume expansion
γ Fe γ Hg k1/k2
of iron is γ Fe and that of mercury is γ Hg then the
ratio k1/k2 can be expressed as
1 + 60 γ Fe
1 + 60 γ Fe
(1) 1 + 60 γ
Hg (1) 1 + 60 γ
Hg
1 − 60 γ Fe 1 − 60 γ Fe
(2) 1 + 60 γ (2) 1 + 60 γ
Hg
Hg
1 + 60 γ Fe 1 + 60 γ Fe
(3) 1 − 60 γ (3) 1 − 60 γ
Hg
Hg
1 + 60 γ Hg 1 + 60 γ Hg
(4) (4)
1 + 60 γ Fe 1 + 60 γ Fe
32. A device in which heat measurement can be made

32.
is called :
(1) (2)
(1) Joule meter (2) Caloimeter
(3) Thermal meter (4) Gauge meter (3) (4)
NLI / 9
33. Steam at 100°C is passed into 40 g water at 30°C 33. 100°C 30°C 40 g
till the temperature becomes 80°C. Find the total 80°C
amount of water now present in the vessel :
[Latent heat of the steam at 100°C is 536 calorie
[100°C ]
per g]
40 × 50
40 × 50 (1) 40 + g
(1) 40 + g 556
556
40 × 50 × 20
40 × 50 × 20 (2) 40 × g
(2) 40 × g 536
536
40 × 536
40 × 536 (3) 40 + g
(3) 40 + g 20
20
40 × 20
40 × 20 (4) 40 + g.
(4) 40 + g. 536
536
34. A block of ice at – 10°C is slowly heated and 34. – 10°C 100°C
converted to steam at 100°C. Which of the
following curves representes the phenomenon
qualitatively :
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4) (4)
NLI / 10
35. Two copper rods of equal lengths but unequal 35.
diameters are heated through the same range of
temperature. The increase in length will be
(1)
(1) more for thinner rod
(2)
(2) more for thicker rod
(3)
(3) same for both the rods
(4) considerable for thinner rod (4)
36. Which one of the true relation for specific heat 36.
capacity of substance :
S∆T S∆T
(1) m = (2) ∆Qm = S∆T (1) m = (2) ∆Qm = S∆T
Q Q
∆Q ∆Q ∆Q ∆Q
(3) s = (4) s = (3) s = (4) s =
∆T m ∆T ∆T m ∆T
37. The amount of mechanical work to be done to 37. 1 g

completely melt 1 g of ice is : :
(1) 4.2 J (1) 4.2 J

(2) 42 J (2) 42 J
(3) 80 J (3) 80 J
(4) 336 J
(4) 336 J
38. In a closed calorimeter 1.2 kg ice at 0 C is mixedo
38 . C
o
1
with 1 kg water at = 24oC . The fraction of ice which
= o
C
do not melts is (Lfusion = 80 cal/gm) :
Lfusion = :
(1) 1 (2) 3/4
(1) 1 (2) 3/4
(3) 1/6 (4) 1/2
(3) 1/6 (4) 1/2
39. If two rods of length L and 2L having coefficient of
linear expansion α and 2α respectively are 39. L 2L α
connected end to end, the average coefficient of 2α
linear expansion of the composite rod, equals
6 6
(1) α α
10 (1)
10
5 5
(2) α α
2 (2)
2
10
(3) α
6 10
(3) α
6
(4) None of these
(4)
NLI / 11
40. A solid with coefficient of linear expansion α just 40. α
floats in a liquid whose coefficient of volume γ
expansion is γ . If the system is heated the solid
will
(1)
(1) sink in all cases
(2)
(2) continue to float in all cases
(3) sink If γ > 3 α (3) γ > 3α
(4) sink if γ < 3 α (4) γ < 3α
41. Density of a substance at 0 oC is 10 gm/cc and 41. 0oC 10 gm/cc 100 oC

at 100 oC, its density is 9.79 g/cc. The cofficient
9.79 g/cc
of linear expansion of the substance will be
(in per oC) : ( o
C) :
(1) 10–3 (2) 10–2 (1) 10–3 (2) 10–2
(3) 10–4 (4) 10–8

(3) 10–4 (4) 10–8
42. 0°C V0
42. The volume of the bulb of a mercury thermometer
A0 αg
at 0°C is V0 and cross-section of the capillary is A0.
°C γm °C
The coefficient of linear expansion of glass is α g
t = 0°C t°C
per °C and the cubical expansion of mercury γ m
per °C. If the mercury just fills the bulb at t = 0°C,
what is the length of mercury column in capillary
V0 t( γ m + 3α g )
at t°C : (1) A 0 (1 + 2α g t)
V0 t( γ m + 3α g )
(1) A 0 (1 + 2α g t) V0 t( γ m − 3α g )
(2) A 0 (1 + 2α g t)
V0 t( γ m − 3α g )
(2) A 0 (1 + 2α g t) V0 t( γ m + 2α g )
(3) A 0 (1 + 3α g t)
V0 t( γ m + 2α g )
(3) A 0 (1 + 3α g t) V0 t( γ m − 2α g )
(4) A 0 (1 + 3α g t)
V0 t( γ m − 2α g )
(4) A 0 (1 + 3α g t)
43. Which one of the following does not show thermal 43 . :
expansion :
a. b.
a. Copper b. Wood
c.
c. Invar
(1) All three (2) Only c (1) (a), (b), (c) (2) c
(3) Both (b) and (c) (4) Only a (3) (b) (c) (4) a
NLI / 12
44. Which one of the following is an exothermic 44.
process :
(1)
(1) condensation of water vapor
(2) water evaporating (2)
(3) boiling soup (3)
(4) ice melting. (4)
45. What is the final temperature when 200 g of ice 45. 50g 350 g 40°C
at – 20°C is dropped into 350 g of water at 40°C
– 20°C 200 g
contained i n a cal orime ter of 50g w ater
equivalent :
(1) + 20°C
(1) + 20°C
(2) – 5°C (2) – 5°C
(3) 0°C (3) 0°C
(4) + 10°C (4) + 10°C
NLI / 13
CHEMISTRY : The p-Block Elements (Group 16, 17, & 18)
46. Correct statement will be : 46.
a. Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen will be most a.

negative in their group.
b. N2O will be example of sub-oxide b. N2O
c. In the see-saw gemetory of SF 4, lone pair c. SF4

occupies equatorial position
d. On partial hydrolysis of 1 mole of Marshells d.

acid, 1 mole of H2O2 will obtained. H2O2
(1) a b
(1) a and b only
(2) a, b c
(2) a, b and c only
(3) b c
(3) b and c only
(4) a, c d
(4) a, c and d only
47.
47. Select the incorrect statement about the following:
(1) O3
(1) O3 is used as germicide for purification of water
(2) In O3, O–O bond length is greater than that of (2) O3 , O–O
molecular oxygen
(3) O3
(3) O3 molecule is angular in shape
(4)
(4) None of these
48. S–O–O–H
48. The oxo-acid of S having S–O–O–H bond :
(1) H2S2O7
(1) H2S2O7
(2) H2S2O8
(2) H2S2O8
(3) H2SO5
(3) H2SO5
(4) 2 3
(4) Both 2 and 3
49. PCl5 H2SO4 (SO2Cl2)
49. When PCl5 reacts with H2SO4, sulphuryl chloride
(SO2Cl2) is formed. This shows that sulphuric acid:
(1) has great affinity for water (1)
(2) has two hydroxyl groups in its structure (2)
(3) is a derivative of SO2 (3) SO2
(4) None of the above (4)
50. The number of π-bond and basicity in thiosulphuric 50. π-
acid are respectively :
(1) 2 2 (2) 2 1
(1) 2 and 2 (2) 2 and 1
(3) 1 and 2 (4) 4 and 2 (3) 1 2 (4) 4 2
51. In trimeric structure of SO3 the number and type 51. SO3 π-
of π-bond present :
(1) 6π bond (3pπ–pπ + 3 pπ–dπ) (1) 6π (3pπ–pπ + 3 pπ–dπ)

NLI / 14
52. Which of the following is true for interhalogen 52.
compound:
(1) ICl is more reactive than I2

(1) ICl , I2
(2) In BrF3 molecule the lone pair occupies equatorial
(2) BrF3
position
(3) Among interhalogen compounds maximum number (3)

of atoms are present in iodine fluoride.
(4) All of these (4)
53. Reduction potentials of some ions are given below. 53.

Arrange them in decreasing order of oxidising
power :
Ion ClO4
–
lO4
–
BrO4
– Ion ClO4– lO4– BrO4–
Reduction Reduction
E = 1.19 V
–
E = 1.65 V
–
E = 1.74 V
– E– = 1.19 V E – = 1.65 V E– = 1.74 V
potential E –/V potential E –/V
(1) ClO4– > IO4– > BrO4– (1) ClO4– > IO4– > BrO4–
(2) IO4– > BrO4– > ClO4– (2) IO4– > BrO4– > ClO4–
(3) BrO4– > IO4– > ClO4– (3) BrO4– > IO4– > ClO4–
(4) BrO4– > ClO4– > IO4– (4) BrO4– > ClO4– > IO4–
54. One gas bleaches the colour of flowers by 54.

reduction and another gas by oxidation. The gases
respectively, are :
(1) SO2 and Cl2 (1) SO2 Cl2
(2) O3 and Cl2 (2) O3 Cl2
(3) Cl2 and SO2 (3) Cl2 SO2
55. Select the incorrect order for the given : 55.

a. ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4– – Bond angle a. ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4– –
b. ClO– < ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4– – Stability in aqu. b. ClO– < ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4– –
medium
c. ClO– < ClO2– < ClO4– – Increasing oxidation no.
c. ClO– < ClO2– < ClO4– –
d. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 – Oxidising
power d. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 –
(1) a and d (2) a, b and d
(1) a d (2) a, b d
(3) b and d (4) Only d
(3) b d (4) d
56. In the hydrolysis reaction of ICl3, the hybridisation
56. ICl3
and oxidation state of central element in oxoanion
will be :
(1) sp3d and –1 (1) sp3d –1
(2) sp3 and +3 (2) sp3 +3
(3) sp3 and –1 (3) sp3 –1
(4) sp2 and +1 (4) sp2 +1

NLI / 15
57. Which of the following statements is/are correct 57. SO
2
for SO2 gas :
a.
a. It acts as dry bleacher
b. SO2 S
b. In the formation of SO2, S, utelises its 2nd
excited state
c. It has one pπ–dπ and one pπ–pπ along with c. pπ–dπ pπ–pπ σ-
two σ-bond
d.
d. It act as mixed anhydride
(1) a, b, d
(1) a, b, and d
(2) a, c d
(2) a, c and d
(3) c and d only (3) c d
(4) Only c (4) c
58. Commericial source of helium is : 58.
(1) Natural gases (1)
(2) Air (2)

(3) Radio active minerals (3)
59. Which amongst the following halides is stable : 59.
(1) SF6 (1) SF6
(2) SCl6
(2) SCl6
(3) SBr6
(3) SBr6
(4) all of these
(4)
60. Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give.
60.
(1) HOI (1) HOI
(2) HI (2) HI
(3) HOIO2 (3) HOIO2

(4) HOIO3
(4) HOIO3
61.
61. Which of the following order is not correct :
(1) Cl3– > Br3– >I3–
(1) Cl3– > Br3– >I3– Stability
(2) HCl > HBr > HI > HF
(2) HCl > HBr > HI > HF Vapour pressure
(3) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(3) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO oxidising power
(4) ClO2 > Cl2O > H2O
(4) ClO2 > Cl2O > H2O Bond angle
62. ICl2–
62. Which fluoride is isostructural with ICl2– :
(1) XeF4 (1) XeF4
(2) XeF6 (2) XeF6
(3) XeF2 (3) XeF2
(4) XeF82– (4) XeF82–

NLI / 16
63. XeF4 act as fluoride acceptor with: 63. XeF 4
(1) PF5
(2) SbF5 (1) PF5

(2) SbF5
(3) KF
(3) KF
(4) All of these
(4)
64. The number of S–O–S bond in SO3 in solid state :
64. SO3 S–O–S
(1) three
(1)
(2) four
(2)
(3) one
(3)
(4) zero
(4)
65. Group 16 element have lower value of first
ionisation enthalpy as compared to group 15 65. 16
element because :
(1) half filled p-orbital in group 15 element are more (1) 15 p-
stable.
(2) group 16 element have smaller size than group 15 (2) 16 15
elements
(3) group 16 elements contain double bond while group
(3) 16 15
15 element have triple bond
(4) group 16 element have more number of electrons (4) 16 p-
in p-orbital.
66. Choose the incorrect statement regarding group 66.
16th :
(1)
(1) All the hydrides except water possess reducing
(2) H2 O H2Te
property
(2) The acidic character increases from H2O to H2Te (3) SF6
(3) SF6 is exceptionally stable for steric reasons (4) H2S, H2Te
(4) H2S is more acidic than H2Te 67. 16
67. The incorrect statement regarding tetrahalide of (1) SF4 SeF4

group 16th is :
(2) sp3d
(1) SF4 is a gas and SeF4 is a liquid
(2) These fluorides have sp3d hybridisation (3) TeF4
(3) TeF4 is a solid
(4)
(4) Geometry of halide is "see saw" and also one lone
pair is present at the axial position.
68. Which of the following formula represent fuming 68.
sulphuric acid (oleum) :
(1) H2S2O4 (1) H2S2O4
(2) H2SO5 (2) H2SO5
(3) H2S2O7 (3) H2S2O7
(4) H2S2O8 (4) H2S2O8

NLI / 17
69. Dioxygen directly reaction nearly all metal and 69.
non metal except :
(1) Au, Pt only (1) Au, Pt
(2) Au, Pt and some noble gases (2) Au, Pt
(3) Zn, Pt (3) Zn, Pt
70. High concentration of ozone can be dangerously 70.
explosive because :
(1) Ozone is thermodynamically unstable
(1)
(2) Formation of oxygen from ozone is exothermic
reaction (2) O3 O2
(3) Gibbs energy change for conversion of ozone into (3)

oxygen is large negative
(4) All (4)
71. Which of the following bonds has the highest 71.
energy :
(1) Se – Se
(1) Se – Se
(2) Te – Te
(2) Te – Te
(3) S – S
(3) S – S
(4) O – O
(4) O – O
72. H2O, H2S, H2Se H2Te
72. Among H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te the one with
highest boiling point is : (1) H2O
(1) H2O because of hydrogen bonding (2) H2Te

(2) H2Te because of higher molecular weight (3) H2S
(3) H2S because of higher molecular weight (4) H2Se
(4) H2Se because of lower molecular weight 73.
73. Bond angle is minimum in : (1) H2O
(1) H2O (2) H2S
(2) H2S (3) H2Se
(3) H2Se (4) H2Te
(4) H2Te 74.
74. Which among the following option is correct for
acidic nature of oxide :
(1) TeO3 < SeO3 < SO3
(1) TeO3 < SeO3 < SO3
(2) TeO2 > SeO2 > SO2
(2) TeO2 > SeO2 > SO2
(3) TeO2 > SeO2 > SO3 (3) TeO2 > SeO2 > SO3
(4) SO3 > TeO2 > SeO2 (4) SO3 > TeO2 > SeO2
75. Which of the following has greatest reducing 75.

power
(1) HI
(1) HI
(2) HBr
(2) HBr
(3) HCl
(3) HCl
(4) HF
(4) HF
NLI / 18
76. Bromine is obtained on commercial scale from 76. (Commercial scale)
(1) Caliche
(2) Carnellite (1)
(3) Common salt (2)
(4) Cryolite
(3)
77. Which one of the halogen acids is a liquid
(4)
(1) HF
77.
(2) HCl
(1) HF
(3) HBr
(2) HCl
(4) HI
(3) HBr
78. Which one of the following acids is the weakest (4) HI
(1) HClO
78.
(2) HBr (1) HClO
(3) HClO 3 (2) HBr
(4) HCl (3) HClO 3

79. The noble gas which forms maximum number of (4) HCl
compounds is
79.
(1) Ar
(1) Ar
(2) He
(2) He
(3) Xe (3) Xe
(4) Ne (4) Ne
80. Nuclear fusion produces 80.
(1) Argon (1)
(2) Deuterium (2)
(3) Helium (3)
(4) Krypton (4)
81. Among the fluorides below, the one which does 81.
not exist is
(1) XeF4
(1) XeF4
(2) HeF4
(2) HeF4 (3) SF4
(3) SF4 (4) CF4
(4) CF4 82. H2SO4
82. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent in its reaction with :
(1) Ba(OH)2 (1) Ba(OH)2
(2) H2C2O4 (2) H2C2O4
(3) KOH (3) KOH
(4) Zn (4) Zn
NLI / 19
83. Which of the following process is not feasible 83.
spontaneously :
(1) F2 + H2O → HF + O2
(1) F2 + H2O → HF + O2
(2) Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HOCI
(2) Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HOCI
(3) Br2 + H2O → HBr + HOBr
(3) Br2 + H2O → HBr + HOBr
(4) I2 + H2O → HI + HO
(4) I2 + H2O → HI + HO
84. Cl
84. Which of the following process can not give Cl,
gas : (1) NaCI
(1) Electrolysis of aqueous NaCI (2) HCl KMnO4
(2) Oxidation of Conc. HCl by KMnO4 (3) HCl MnO2

(3) Oxidation of Conc., HCl by MnO2
(4) NaCl H2SO4
(4) By the reaction of NaCl and Conc. H2SO4
85.
85. Select inter halogen compound which is/are not
i. IF3 ii. CIF7
exist :
i. IF3 ii. CIF7 iii. CIF3 iv. BrF4
iii. CIF3 iv. BrF4 (1) i iii
(1) i and iii (2) ii iv
(2) ii and iv (3) ii
(3) ii only (4) ii iii
(4) ii and iii

86. Ca(OH)2
86. When chlorine is passed slow over dry slaked lime
Ca(OH)2 at room temperature, the main product is :
(1) CaCl2
(1) CaCl2 only
(2) CaOCl2
(2) CaOCl2
(3) Ca(ClO2)2
(3) Ca(ClO2)2
(4) Ca(OCl)2
(4) Ca(OCl)2 only
87.
87. Nonpolar interhalogen fluoride is :
(1) ClF3 (1) ClF3
(2) BrF5 (2) BrF5
(3) I2Cl6 (3) I2Cl6
(4) IF7 (4) IF7
NLI / 20
88. Which order is wrong : 88.
(a) Electron Affinity order F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (a) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(b) Thermal stability HF > HCl > HBr > HI

(b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) Oxidising nature HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(c) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(d) Stability order ClO– < ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4–
(d) ClO– < ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4–
(1) a and c
(1) a c
(2) b and d
(2) b d
(3) c and d
(3) c d
(4) a and b (4) a b
89. By which of the following reaction, HI is not

89. HI
obtained :
(1) H2 + I2 →
(1) H2 + I2 →
(2) PI3 + H2O →
(2) PI3 + H2O →
(3) NaI + H3PO4 → (3) NaI + H3PO4 →
(4) NaI + Conc. H2SO4 → (4) NaI + Conc. H2SO4 →
90. Which of the following acid can form, two type of 90.
salts:
(1) HF
(1) HF
(2) HCl
(2) HCl
(3) HNO3
(3) HNO3
(4) H3PO2
(4) H3PO2
NLI / 21
BIOLOGY : Cell Cycle and Cell Division
91. All organism start their life from : 91.
(1) Single cell (1)
(2) Two cell (2)
(3) Ten cells (3)
(4) Multiple cells (4)
92. Cell division, DNA replication and cell growth 92.
processes have to take place in a coordinated way
to ensure :
(1)
(1) Correct division
(2)
(2) Formation of progeny cells containing intact
genomes
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3)
93. Which of the following event is included in cell 93.

cycle :
(1) Cell duplicates its genome (1)
(2) Synthesises the other constituents of the cell (2)
(3) Eventually divides into two daughter cells (3)

94. Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a 94.
.....process
(1) Continuous (1)

(2) Discontinuous (2)
(3) Takes place only initially (3)
95. Interphase represents a phase between two 95.
successive ..... phases
(1) G1 (1)
(2) G2 (2)
(3) M (3)
(4) S (4)
96. Which of the following phase does not come 96.
under interphase
(1) Gap 1 (1)

(2) Synthesis (2)
(3) Gap 2 (3)
(4) Mitosis (4)
NLI / 22
97. Many cells divide only occasionally to ensure 97.
(1) Replacement of cell lost during injury

(1)
(2) Replacement of cell lost during cell death
(2)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3)
(4) None of these
(4)
98. Cell in G stage are 98. G
0 0
(1) Metabolically active (1)
(2) Metabolically inactive (2)
(3) No longer proliferate unless required by organism (3)
(4) Both (1) and (3)

(4)
99. Match the following :
99. :
Column – I Column – II
–I – II
a. Metaphase i. Initiation of condensation
a. i.
of chromosomal material
b. Interphase ii. Nuclear envelops
b. ii.
assembles around the
chromosomes clusters
c. iii.
c. Telophase iii. Chromosomes arranged
at equatorial plate
d. iv.
d. Prophase iv. The period between two
cell division
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d- iii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d- iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a- iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a- iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
100. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under 100.

microscope do not show
(1) Golgi complex and Endoplasmic reticulum (1)
(2) Nucleolus (2)
(3) Nuclear envelop (3)
101. Complete disintegration of nuclear envelop marks 101.

the start of ............... phase of Mitosis
(1) Prophase (1)
(2) Metaphase (2)
(3) Anaphase (3)
(4) Telophase (4)
NLI / 23
102. During which of the following phase chrosomes 102.
lie at equator with one chromatied connected by
kinetochore to spindle fibre of one pole and sister
chromatid connected by kinetochore of spindle
fibre of opposite pole
(1) Prophase
(1)
(2) Metaphase
(2)
(3) Anaphase
(3)
(4) Telophase (4)
103. Onion root tip cell have 16 chromosomes in each 103.
cell. During mitosis how many chromosomes will
G , S, M
be in G , S, M phase cell will have 1
1
(1) 16, 16, 16
(1) 16, 16, 16
(2) 16, 28, 16
(2) 16, 28, 16
(3) 16, 16, 28
(3) 16, 16, 28
(4) 28, 28, 16
(4) 28, 28, 16
104. When Karyokinesis is not followed by Cytokinesis
104.
it gives rise to formation of
(1) Syncytium
(1)
(2) Syngamy (2)
(3) Synopsis (3)
105. Which of the following are the steps of Cytokinesis 105.
in animal cell
(1) Appearance of furrow in plasma membrane (1)
(2) Furrow gradually deepens and joins in the centre (2)
(3) Cell Cytoplasm gets divided into two cell (3)
106. Mitosis takes place in 106.
(1) Usually in diploid cells (1)
(2) Haploid cells of some social insects (2)

(3) Haploid cells of some lower plants (3)
107. Diplotene in some vertebrate oocytes can last for 107.
(1) Months
(1)
(2) Years
(2)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) (1) (2)
NLI / 24
108. Which of the following is true regarding diakinesis 108.
of prophase I
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata (1)

(2) Chromosomes fully condensed and meiotic spindle (2)
is assembled
(3) By the end of diakinesis nucleolus disappears and (3)
nuclear envelope breakdown
(4) All are true (4)
109. Four haploid daughter cells are formed at the end 109.
of
(1) I
(1) Telophase I
(2) II
(2) Telophase II
(3) II
(3) Anaphase II
(4)
(4) None of these
110.
110. Variations in populations from one generation to
another are increased due to
(1)
(1) Mitosis
(2)
(2) Meiosis
(3)
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4)
(4) None of these
111. :
111. Which among the following statement is incorrect:
(1)
(1) Simple precursor of middle lamella is cell-plate
(2)
(2) At the time of cytoplasmic division organelles like
mitochondria and plastids get distributed betweens
the two daugther cells.
(3) In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by the (3)
appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane.

112. Meiosis occurs in organisms during
112.
(1) Sexual reproduction
(1)
(2) Vegetative reproduction
(2)
(3) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
(3)
(4) None of the above
(4)
113. In meiosis-I, Prophase-I, divided into :
113. -I, -I, :
(1) Four phases (1)
(2) Three phases (2)
(3) Five phases (3)
(4) Six phases (4)
NLI / 25
114. Select the correct statement about G1 phase 114. G1
(1) Cell is metabolicaly inactive (1)
(2) DNA in the cell does not replicate (2)
(3) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules (3)
(4) Cell stops growing (4)
115. Which of the following options gives the correct 115.
sequence of events during mitosis ?
(1) Condensation → Nuclear membrane dissappear (1) → →

→ Arrangement at equator → Centromere division
→ → →
→ Segregation → Telophase
(2) → → →
(2) Condensation → Crossing over → Nuclear
→
membrane disassembly → Segregation → Telophase
(3) → →
(3) Condensation → Centromere division →
Arrangement at equator → Segregation → Telophase → →
(4) → →
(4) Condensation → Nuclear membrane disassembly
→ Crossing over → Segregation → Telophase → →
116. Spindle fibres attach on to : 116.
(1) Centromere of the chromosome (1)
(2) Kinetosome of the chromosome (2)
(3) Telomere of the chromosome (3)
(4) Kinetochore of the chromosome. (4)
117. Which of the following is not a characteristic 117.

feature during mitosis in somatic cells :
(1) Chromosome movement (1)
(2) Synapsis (2)
(3) Spindle fibres (3)
(4) Disappearance of nucleolus (4)
118. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct 118.

sequence :
(i) Crossing over (i)
(ii) Synapsis (ii)
(iii) Terminalisation of chiasmata (iii)
(iv) Disappearance of nucleolus (iv)
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(3) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (3) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(4) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
NLI / 26
119. Select the correct option : 119.
Column I Column II I II
A. Synapsis aligns (i) Anaphase II A. (i) II
homologous
chromosomes
B. Synthesis of (ii) Zygotene B. RNA (ii)

RNA and protein
C. Action of enzyme (iii) G2 phase C. (iii) G2

recombinase
D. Centromeres do (iv) Anaphase I D. (iv) I

not separate but
chromatids move
towards opposite poles
(v) Pachytene (v)

(1) A(i), B(ii), C(v), D(iv) (1) A(i), B(ii), C(v), D(iv)
(2) A(ii), B(iii), C(iv), D(v) (2) A(ii), B(iii), C(iv), D(v)
(3) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv) (3) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv)
(4) A(ii), B(iii), C(v), D(iv) (4) A(ii), B(iii), C(v), D(iv)
120. In meiosis-I, prophase-I is subdivided on the basis 120. –I, -I
of :
:
(1) Chromosomal behaviour (1)
(2) Chromosomal size (2)
(3) Chromosomal number (3)
(4) Chromosomal structure (4)
121. During meiosis I, the chromosomes start pairing
121. I
at :
(1)
(1) Zygotene
(2)
(2) Pachytene
(3)
(3) Diplotene
(4)
(4) Leptotene.
122.
122. Which of the following option correct :
(1) I
(1) Meiosis is devided in to two phases meiosis I and
meiosis II II
(2) Meiosis II is similar to mitosis (2) II
(3) During Anaphase II sister chromated seprates (3) II

NLI / 27
123. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis. 123.

(1) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of (1)
the cell in anaphase
(2) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles (2)
in telophase
(3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still
(3)
visible at the end of prophase.
(4) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and
get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase. (4)
124. At what stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins

synthesized in a eukaryotic cell? 124.
(1) During G 2 stage of prophase
(2) During S phase (1) G2
(3) During entire prophase (2) S

(4) During telophase (3)
125. Which of the following correct option : (4)
(1) In G1 phase DNA content is double the amount of 125.
DNA present in the original cell
(1) G1 DNA
(2) DNA replication takes place in S phase DNA
(3) A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic (2) DNA S
phase
(3)
(4) In G2 phase proteins are never synthesised.
(4) G2
126. If you are provided with root tips of onion in your
class and are asked to count the chromosomes, 126.
which of the following stages can you most
conveniently look into :
(1) Metaphase (1)
(2) Telophase
(2)
(3) Anaphase
(3)
(4) Prophase
(4)
127. Which of the following statement incorrect with
127.
reference to given statement for telophase :
(A) Chromosomes cluster at same spindle poles
(A)
(B) Chromosomes identity never lost as discrete
elements (B)
(C) Nuclear envelope do not develops around the (C)

chromosome
(D) Clusters at each pole forming one daughter nuclei (D)
(1) Only (A) and (B) incorrect (1) (A) (B)
(2) Only (C) and (D) incorrect (2) (C) (D)
(3) (A) (B) (C) incorrect but (D) is correct
(3) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(4) (A), (B), (C), (D) all are incorrect
(4) (A), (B), (C), (D)
NLI / 28
128. Cell in G0 phase : 128. G0
(1) Terminate the cell cycle (1)
(2) Exit the cell cycle (2)
(3) Enter the cell cycle (3)
(4) Suspend the cell cycle (4)
129. Crossing over takes place betw een which 129.
chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle :
(1) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous (1) I
chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase-I
(2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes (2) I

at pachytene stage of prohphase I
(3) Non-sister chromatids of homologous (3) I

chromosomes at zygotene stage of prophase-I
(4) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous (4) I

chromosomes at pachytene stage of prophase-I
130. The stage during which separation of the paired 130.

homologous chromosomes begins is : :
(1) Pachytene (1)
(2) Diplotene (2)
(3) Diakinesis (3)
(4) Zygotene. (4) .
131. Which phase of cell cycle is known as quiescent 131.
stage :
(1) M
(1) M phase
(2) G0
(2) G0 phase
(3) G1
(3) G1 phase
(4) S phase (4) S
132. Yeast cell divides once in approximately every 132. :
(1) 90 minutes (1) 90
(2) 9 minutes (2) 9

(3) 24
(3) 24 hours
(4) 24
(4) 24 days
133. Average duration of cell cycle of a human cell 133.
(1) 42 hours (1) 42
(2) 24 hours (2) 24
(3) 24 minutes (3) 24

(4) 24 second (4) 24
NLI / 29
134. Which phase occupies the maximum part of cell 134. :
cycle?
(1) (2)
(1) Mitotic phase (2) Meiotic phase
(3) (4)
(3) Interphase (4) Cytokinesis
135.
135. This phase of cell cycle is a period of intense 95%
synthesis and growth. It constitutes 95% of the
:
duration of cell cycle it is
(1) Interphase (1)
(2) Telophase (2)
(3) Prophase (3)
(4) Anaphase (4)
136. Select the incorrect statement regarding S phase 136. S

of interphase :
(1) It occurs between G1 and G2 (1) G1 G2
(2) DNA replicates in the nucleus in this phase (2) DNA
(3) Centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
(3)
(4) As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes also
(4) DNA
doubles
137. In which of the following stages, a chromosome is
minimum coiled? 137.
:
(1) Interphase
(1)
(2) Metaphase
(2)
(3) Prophase
(3)
(4) Anaphase
(4)
138. Prophase of meiosis I is ________ and more _______
138.
as compared to that prophase of mitosis :
_______
(1) longer, simple _____ :
(2) smaller, complex (1)
(3) longer, complex (2)
(4) smaller, simple (3)
139. Which of the following is incorrect (4)
(a) M-phase start with nuclear division 139.
(a) M-
(b) Meiosis II is initiated immediately after
cytokinesis (b) II
(c) The nuclear membrane reappears by the end

(c) II
of prophase II
(d) Diakinesis is recognised by the dissolution of (d)
synaptonemal complex
(1) All are incorrect (1)
(2) None of the option is incorrect (2)
(3) Only (c) and (d) incorrect (3) (c) (d)
(4) Only (b) incorrect (4) (b)

NLI / 30
140. Choose the correct statements 140.

(a) Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio (a)
between the nucleus and cytoplasm
(b) Cells of the lower layer of epidermis are being (b)

constantly replaced
(c)
(c) In plant cells, wall formation starts in the
centre of the cell and grows outward to meet
the existing lateral walls
(d)
(d) At the time of cytoplasmic division, organelles
like plastids and mitochondria get distributed
between the two daughter cells
(1) a and b are correct (1) a b
(2) a, b, c are correct (2) a, b, c
(3) a, c and d are correct (3) a, c d
(4) Only a and d are correct (4) a d
141. Zygotene of prophase-I is characterised by 141. -I :
(1) Chromomeres (1)
(2) Synaptonemal complex (2)
(3) Crossing over (3)
142. Crossing over in diploid organisms is responsible for 142. :
(1) Dominance of genes (1)
(2) Linkage between genes (2)
(3) Recombination of genetic matterial not takes places (3)
(4) Recombination of genetic matterial occurs (4)
143. The enzyme recombinase is required at which 143.

stage of meiosis : :
(1) Pachytene (1)
(2) Zygotene (2)
(3) Diplotene (3)
(4) Diakinesis (4)
144. Diplotene stage of prophase-I is characterised by 144. :
(1) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (1)
(2) Separation of synapsed homologous chromosomes (2)
except at the site of crossovers
(3) Formation of X-shaped structures called chiasmata
(3) X-
(4) All of these
(4)
NLI / 31
145. Match column I with column II and select the 145. –I –II
correct option from the given codes
:
Column I Column II
–I –II
A. Chromosomes (i) Pachytene
A. (i)
move to equator
B. Centromere splits (ii) Zygotene
B. (ii)
and chromatids
seperate
C. Pairing between (iii) Anaphase
chromosomes C. (iii)
D. Crossing over (iv) Metaphase

between homologous D. (iv)
chromosomoes
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) (2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
146. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
146. :
(1) Equational division - Mitosis
(1) -
(2) Reductional division - Meiosis I
(2) - I
(3) Equational division - Meiosis II
(3) - II
(4) Crossing over - Non-homologous
chromosomes (4) -
147. What does (i) and (ii) represent in the given flow 147. (i) (ii) :
chart ?
M-I M-II
M-I M-II
2 4
Parent cell 2 Daughter cells 4 Daughter cells (2n) (i) (ii)
(2n) (i) (ii)
(1) (i)=2n, (ii)=n
(1) (i)=2n, (ii)=n
(2) (i)=n, (ii)=n
(2) (i)=n, (ii)=n
(3) (i)=n, (ii)=2n (3) (i)=n, (ii)=2n
(4) (i)=2n, (ii)=2n (4) (i)=2n, (ii)=2n
148. Match the column-I with column-II and select the 148. –I –II
correct option : :
Column-I Column-II –I –II
a. Interphase i. Division of cytoplasm a. i.
b. Karyokinesis ii. Synthesis phase b. ii.
c. Cytokinesis iii. Division of nucleus c. iii.
d. S-phase iv. Resting phase d. S- iv.
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
NLI / 32
149. At what phase of meiosis there are two cells, each 149.
with separated sister chromatids that have been
moved to opposite poles ? :
(1) Anaphase II (2) Anaphase I (1) II (2) I
(3) Telophase II (4) Telophase I (3) II (4) I
150. Meiosis does not occur in 150. :
(1) Bacteria (1)
(2) Cyanobacteria (2)
(3) Plant cell
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) (1) (2)
151. Match Column-I (Distingushing features based on
151. -I ( )
chromosomal appearance) with Column-II (stage
-II ( )
of meiosis) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Column :
:
Column I Column II
I II
(a) Terminalized (i) Pachytene
(a) (i)
chiasmata
(b) Exchange of (ii) Zygotene

(b) (ii)
segments of
chromatids
(c) (iii)
(c) Synapsis of (iii) Diakinesis
homologous
(d) (iv)
chromosomes
(d) Appearance of (iv) Diplotene
chiasmata (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i 152. :
152. Select the incorrect option with respect to mitosis (a)
(a) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of
the cell in anaphase
(b)
(b) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles
in telophase
(c)
(c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still
visible at the end of telophase
(d)
(d) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and
get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase
(1) Only a and b (2) a, b, c and d (1) a b (2) a, b, c d
(3) Only a, b and c (4) Only d (3) a, b c (4) d
NLI / 33
153. Which one of the following events are not included 153.
in metaphase stage :
(1) Attachment of spidle fibres to the kinetochores (1)
(2) Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator (2)
(3) The centriole begins to move towards opposite pole (3)
(4) Condensation of chromosome is completed (4)
154. In Anaphase I 154. I :
(1) Chromosomes move to respective poles (1)
(2) Centromere splite (2)
(3) Centriole moves (3)
(4) Homologous chromosome do not seperate (4)
155. Which phase is usually of longest duration and 155.

maximum growth and which is of shortest duration :
(1) G1 and anaphase (1) G1
(2) S-phase and telophase (2) S-
(3) G2 and M-phase (3) G2 M-
(4) G1 and metaphase (4) G1
156. The cell cycle is divided into : 156. :
(1) G1 Phase, S phase, G2 phase (1) G1 ,S , G2
(2) G1 Phase, G2 phase, S phase (2) G1 , G2 ,S
(3) Interphase, M-phase (3) , M-
(4) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase (4) , , ,

157. Pairing of homologous chromosomes to form 157.
bivalents occurs in zygotene - This pairing is called
:
(1) Synaptonemal complex (1)
(2) Disjunction (2)
(3) Congression (3)
(4) Synapsis (4)
158. The sequence of events of cell cycle are 158. :
(1) G1-S-G2-P-M-A-T-C (1) G1-S-G2-P-M-A-T-C
(2) S-G1-G2-P-M-T-A-C (2) S-G1-G2-P-M-T-A-C
(3) G1-G2-S-P-M-A-T-C (3) G1-G2-S-P-M-A-T-C
(4) C-T-A-M-P-G2-S-G1 (4) C-T-A-M-P-G2-S-G1
NLI / 34
159. Match the column-I with column-II and select the 159. –I –II
correct option : :
Column-I Column-II –I –II
a. Quiescent stage i. Gap-2 a. i.
b. G2-phase ii. Equational division
b. G2– ii.
c. Mitosis phase iii. Inactive stage
c. iii.
d. Anaphase iv. Centromere split d. iv.
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
160. Synapsis occurs between 160.
(1) mRNA and Ribosomes
(1)
(2) Spindle fibres and centromere
(2)
(3) Two homologous chromosomes
(3)
(4) Two non homologous chromosomes
(4)
161. DNA replication occurs in
161. DNA
(1) G1 (2) S
(1) G1 (2) S
(3) G2 (4) M
(3) G2 (4) M
162. Match the following colounms
162.
Column I Column II
I II
a. G1 i. Liquid endosperm
a. G1 i.
in coconut
b. ii.
b. Diplotene ii. Chiasmata
c. iii.
c. Syncyticum iii. Recombinase
d. iv.
d. Crossing over iv. Quiescent stage
e. G0 v. Gap First e. G0 v.
(1) a-v, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-iv (1) a-v, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-iv
(2) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iv, e-iii (2) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iv, e-iii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-v (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-v
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, e-v (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, e-v
163. Longest stage in M-phase of cell cycle is 163. M
(1) Interphase (1)
(2) Metaphase (2)
(3) Prophase (3)
(4) Telophase (4)
NLI / 35
164. The best stage to view structure and to count the 164.
number of chromosomes is
(1) Metaphase (1)

(2) Late prophase (2)
(3) Telophase (3)
(4) I-phase (4) I-
165. Go phase is 165. G0
(1) Arrest of cell cycle and onset of differentiation (1)
(2) Phase after G2 (2) G2
(3) Phase after M phase in which daughter cells enter (3) M

new cell cycle
(4) All of the above (4)

166. Which statement is true about telophase 166.
(a) Nuclear envelope develope around the (a)
chromosome clusters
(b) Nucleolus, galgicomplex and ER reform (b)

(c) Chromosome clusters at opposite poles
(d) Chromosomes arrange at equator (c)
Select the correct option from the code given (d)

below
(1) Only a and b are correct (1) a b

(2) a, b and d are correct (2) a, b d
(3) a, b and c are correct (3) a, b c
(4) a, b, c, d all are correct (4) a, b, c, d
167. Which among the following cells are being 167.
constantly replaced
(1) Upper layer of epidermis (1)

(2) Lower layer of epidermis (2)
(3) Cells of lining of gut (3)
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4)
168. Terminalization, Synaptonemal complex, 168.
chiasmata these terms are related to
(1) Mitosis (1)

(2) Meiosis I (2) I
(3) Meiosis II (3) II
NLI / 36
169. A bivalent consists of 169.
(1) Two chromatids and one centromere (1)

(2) Two chromatids and two centromeres (2)
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(3)
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres
(4)
170. Prophase of the first meiotic division is typically
170.
longer and complex. It is subdivided in to 5 phase
: leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and
diakinesis. Which of the following statements is
incorrect about these phases
(1) The formation of synaptonemal complex is seen (1)

during diakinesis stage
(2) The compaction of chromosomes continues

(2)
throughout the pachytene
(3)
(3) Diplotene stage is recognised by dissolution of
chaismata
(4) All of the above (4)
171. Identify stages (A–D) from the digrammatic view 171. A-D
of cell cycle given below
A A
C C
B B
D D
In which of the four options all the stages A, B, C A, B, C D

and D are correct
A B C D A B C D
(1) M G0 S G1 (1) M G0 S G1
(2) G0 S M G2 (2) G0 S M G2
(3) G2 M S G0 (3) G2 M S G0
(4) G1 G0 M S
(4) G1 G0 M S
NLI / 37
172. Some of the cells remain metabolically active 172.

however they do not appear to exhibit
proliferation. Which of the following options
represent the stage at which cell enters into a
nondividing phase
(1) G0 (2) G1 (1) G0 (2) G1
(3) G2 (4) S-Phase (3) G2 (4) S-

173. Which of the following statement is incorrect 173.
(1) Plant cytokinesis usually by cell plate method (1)
(2) The spindle formation starts in Prophase
(3) Cell plate formation starts from sides (Periphery) (2)
of cell (3)
(4) The new nuclear membrane is formed in telophase (4)
174. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to 174.
disappear at
(1) Early prophase (1)
(2) Late anaphase (2)
(3) Early metaphase (3)
(4) Late metaphase (4)
175. In anaphase of mitosis : 175.
(1) Chromosomes get arranged in middle of cell (1)

(2) Nuclear envelope disappears (2)
(3) Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator (3)
(4) Chromatids move to opposite poles. (4)
176. In plants, Cell plate grows from : 176.
(1) Wall to centre (1)
(2) Centre to walls (2)
(3) One wall to another (3)
(4) More than one correct (4)
177. Chiasmata are seen in which stage : 177.
(1) Leptotene (1)
(2) Zygotene (2)

(3)
(3) Pachytene
(4)
(4) Diplotene
178.
178. Interkinesis is :
(1) I II
(1) Stage between meiosis I and Meiosis II
(2) Stage between two mitotic divisions (2)
(3) Stage between two meiotic divisions (3)
(4) More than one correct (4)
NLI / 38
179. Diakinesis is marked by : 179.
(1) Initiation of chiasmata (1)
(3) Recombinase (3)
(4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (4)
180. How many statement(s) is/are incorrect : 180.
(a) Cell plate represents the middle lamella between (a)

the walls of two adjacents cells
(b) At the time of karyokinesis, organelles like

(b)
mitochondria and plastids get distributed between
the daughter cells
(c)
(c) Cytokinesis in plant cell is centrifugal and takes
place by cell-plate formation
(d)
(d) Cytokinesis in animal cells by furrowing and is
centripetal.
(1)
(1) Four
(2)
(2) Two
(3)
(3) Three
(4)
(4) One
NLI / 39
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All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-12 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 10-Feb-2021

[All India Test & Discussion Series]

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All India Test and Discussion Series

7:00 – 8:00 PM – Chemistry

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

Google Map : https://maps.app.goo.gl/pdPKDZUhqD2yjV3k8

TOPIC : Thermal Properties of matter

(1) 1.44 × 10–2 cm

(3) 1.44 × 10–4 cm

(2) 1.47 × 10–2 (2) 1.47 × 10–2

(1) 103°C (1) 103°C

(2) 102°C (2) 102°C

(4) Heat lost < heat gained (4) <

8. Boiling water is changing into steam, under this 8.

(2) Zero (2)

(4) < 1 (4) < 1

9. Pure water cooled to – 15°C is contained in a 9. – 15°C

(4) None of these (4)

(2) 1.8°C (2) 1.8°C

(3) 0.18°C (3) 0.18°C

(2) 792 cal (1) 7.92 cal

(3) 79.2 cal (2) 792 cal

(1) Increases (1)

(2) Decreases (2)

(1) more dangerous (1)

(1) It has high specific heat capacity

completely solidifies in t sec. The latent heat of t

(1) bimetal is used in metal thermometers (1)

(2) bimetal is used in thermostal for regulating (2)

(3) bimetal relays are used to open or close (3)

(4) bimetal are used to generate electricity

(2) potential energy of the atoms increases (2)

(3) total energy of the atoms increases (3)

(4) the potential energy curve is asymmetric about the (4)

27. A thin copper wire of length L increases in length 27. L 1%

(1) both d1 and d2 will decrease

31. When a block of iron floats in mercury at 0°C, a 31. 0°C

32. A device in which heat measurement can be made

(3) Thermal meter (4) Gauge meter (3) (4)

(4) considerable for thinner rod (4)

37. The amount of mechanical work to be done to 37. 1 g

(1) 4.2 J (1) 4.2 J

(3) sink If γ > 3 α (3) γ > 3α

(4) sink if γ < 3 α (4) γ < 3α

41. Density of a substance at 0 oC is 10 gm/cc and 41. 0oC 10 gm/cc 100 oC

(1) 10–3 (2) 10–2 (1) 10–3 (2) 10–2

(3) 10–4 (4) 10–8

43. Which one of the following does not show thermal 43 . :

(3) boiling soup (3)

(4) ice melting. (4)

(2) – 5°C (2) – 5°C

(3) 0°C (3) 0°C

(4) + 10°C (4) + 10°C

a. Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen will be most a.

b. N2O will be example of sub-oxide b. N2O

c. In the see-saw gemetory of SF 4, lone pair c. SF4

d. On partial hydrolysis of 1 mole of Marshells d.

(1) 6π bond (3pπ–pπ + 3 pπ–dπ) (1) 6π (3pπ–pπ + 3 pπ–dπ)

(2) 12π bond (6pπ–pπ + 6 pπ–dπ) (2) 12π (6pπ–pπ + 6 pπ–dπ)