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(0999DMD363103230021) *0999DMD363103230021* Test Pattern

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MAJOR TEST
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) 17-03-2024
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER & ACHIEVER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
12th Undergoing/Pass Students

Test Type : Full Syllabus

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SECTION - A ( PHYSICS ) 5. For a damped oscillation, the graph between

square of amplitude of oscillation and time is
1. A steamer moves with velocity 3 km/h in still
best described by :
water. A river is flowing with speed 2 km/h.
Calculate the total time for total journey if the
boat travels 2 km in the direction of stream and
then back to its place :- (1) (2)
(1) 2 hrs (2) 3.5 hrs
(3) 2.4 hrs (4) 3 hrs
2. A lift of mass 100 kg starts moving from rest in
downward direction, figure shows the variation (3) (4)
of speed of the lift. T1, T2, T3 stands for the
tension in the rope of lift from zero to two
seconds, two to six seconds, six to seven seconds 6. A cylindrical tank has a hole of 1 cm2 at its
respectively then :- bottom and water is flowing into it at a rate of
70 cm3/sec, then find maximum height upto
which water can rise in tank.
(1) 0.25 cm
(2) 2.5 cm
(3) 5 cm
(1) T1 : T2 : T2 :: 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 10 cm
(2) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 4 : 5 : 7
7. The surface tension of soap solution is
(3) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 6 : 5 : 3
25 × 10 – 3 N/m, the excess pressure inside a soap
(4) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 6 : 5 : 6 bubble of diameter 1 cm is :
3. A proton is projected with a velocity 107 m/s, at
right angles to a uniform magnetic field of (1) 10 Pa
induction 100 mT. The time (in second) taken by (2) 20 Pa
the proton to traverse 90º arc is :-
(mp = 1.65×10 – 27 kg and qp = 1.6 × 10 – 19 C) (3) 5 Pa

(1) 0.81 × 10 – 7 (2) 1.62 × 10 – 7 (4) None of these

(3) 2.43 × 10 – 7 (4) 3.24 × 10 – 7 8. When seen in green light, the saffron and green
4. A deutron is accelerated through a potential portions of our national flag will appear to be
difference of 100 volt. To have same de-Broglie (1) Black
wavelength, what potential difference must be
applied across an alpha particle ? (2) Black and green respectively
(1) 25 volt (2) 50 volt (3) Green
(3) 12.5 volt (4) None of these (4) Green and yellow respectively
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9. 13. I-V characteristic of a diode is shown in figure.

4
A container is filled with water μ = ( ) upto
3
height 1m. Find out diameter of disc at top of If this diode is connected across a battery of emf
water surface from which light is coming out. 10 V and a resistance of 12 k Ω in series, the
1 2
current through diode in forward bias is nearly :
(1) m (2) m
√7 √7 (1) 0.4 mA (2) 0.83 mA
6 3 (3) 0.8 mA (4) 1.2 mA
(3) m (4) m
√ 7 √ 7
14. The following configuration of gate is equivalent
10. Find out power of the system :-
to :

(1) NAND (2) XOR

(1) + 5 D (2) – 5 D (3) OR (4) None of these
(3) + 10 D (4) – 10 D 15. The volume of a block of a metal changes by
0.12% when it is heated through 20°C. The
11. A disc of radius 2 m, mass 100 kg rolls on a coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is :-
horizontal floor. Speed of its centre of mass is
(1) 2.0 × 10 – 5 °C – 1 (2) 6.0 × 10 – 5 °C – 1
1 m/sec, then find work needed to stop it.
(3) 4.0 × 10 – 5 °C – 1 (4) 8.0 × 10 – 5 °C – 1
(1) 50 J (2) 25 J
16. On increasing the temperature of a gas filled in a
(3) 75 J (4) 100 J closed container by 5°C its pressure increases by
0.5%, then initial temperature of the gas is :
12. In an experiment with a beam balance an
(1) 10°C (2) 100°C
unknown mass m is balanced as shown in fig.
(3) 1000°C (4) 1000 K
The value of the unknown mass m is :-
17. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally until its
pressure is doubled and then allowed to expand
adiabatically to regain its original volume ( γ = 1.4
and 2 – 1.4 = 0.38). The ratio of the final to initial
pressure is :-
(1) 12 Kg (2) 6 Kg (1) 0.76 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 8 Kg (4) 24 Kg (3) 0.66 : 1 (4) 0.86 : 1
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18. Young's experiment is first performed in air and 22. Three 60 W, 120 V light bulbs are connected
then in a liquid. It is found that 10th bright fringe across a 120 V power source.If the resistance of
in liquid lies at the same point where 6th dark each bulb does not change with current then find
fringe lies in air. Then the refractive index of
out the total power delivered to the three bulbs.
liquid is :
(1) 1.8
(2) 1.54
(3) 1.67
(4) 1.2 (1) 180 W (2) 20 W
19. When an ac source of e.m.f. e = E0 sin(100t) is (3) 40 W (4) 60 W
connected across a circuit, the phase difference 23. A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic
between the e.m.f. e and the current i in the field which changes from B0 to 4B0 in time
circuit is observed to be π /4, as shown in the interval t. The emf induced in the coil will be :-
diagram. If the circuit consists possibly only of
RC or RL or LC in series, find the value of these (1) 3A0B0/t
two : (2) 4A0B0/t
(3) 3B0/A0t
(4) 4B0/A0t
24. If two like charges of magnitude 1 × 10 – 9
coulomb and 9 × 10 – 9 coulomb are separated by
(1) R = 1k Ω , C = 10 μ F a distance of 1 metre, then the point on the line
(2) R = 1k Ω , C = 1 μ F joining the charges, where the force experienced
(3) R = 1k Ω , L = 10H by a charge is zero is :-
(4) R = 1k Ω , L = 1H (1) 0.25 m from the charge 1 × 10 – 9 coulomb
20. A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance C. If (2) 0.75 m from the charge 9 × 10 – 9 coulomb
charges of the plates are Q and – 3Q, find the (3) Both (1) and (2)
potential difference between the plates :- (4) At all points on the line joining the charges
(1) Q (2) 2Q (3) 3Q (4) 4Q 25. An infinite line charge produces a field of
C C C C 18 × 10 5 N/C at a distance of 4cm. What is
21. A particle starts with angular acceleration 2 rad/sec2 on the linear charge density ?
a circle. It moves 100 rad in a random interval of 5 sec. (1) 18 μ C/m
Find out the time at which random intervel starts. (2) 5 μ C/m
(1) 7.5 sec (2) 4.5 sec (3) 4 μ C/m
(3) 5 sec (4) 6 sec (4) 10 μ C/m
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26. The electric field at a distance R from the surface 31. A heater of 220 V heats a volume of water
of a uniformely charged nonconducting sphere of in 5 minute time. A heater of 110 V and
radius R is 20V/m. The electric field at a same resistance heats the same volume of
R water in :-
distance from the centre of the sphere is :
2
(1) 5 minutess
(1) 40 V/m (2) zero
(2) 8 minutes
(3) 20 V/m (4) 10 V/m
(3) 10 minutes
27. Find the height from Earth's surface where
gravitational acceleration is equal to the (4) 20 minutes
gravitational acceleration at mid-point of Earth's 32. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform
radius. magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane
(1) 0.5R (2) 0.4R (3) R (4) 0.2R perpendicular to the field. The radius of the loop
is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm s – 1.
28. The work done in raising a body of mass m to a
The induced emf when the radius is 2 cm, is :-
height 3Re from the earth's surface will be -
(Re is radius of earth) (1) 2 π µV (2) π µV
(1) 4 mgRe (2) 3 mgRe (3) π µV (4) 2µV
2
3 4 33.
(3) mgRe (4) mgRe If λ X, λ ℓ , λ M and λ γ are the wavelengths of
4 5
29. Shown in the figure below is a meter - bridge set X-rays, infrared rays, microwaves and γ rays
up with null deflection in the galvanometer respectively, then :-
(1) λ M < λ ℓ < λ X < λ γ
(2) λ X < λ γ < λ M < λ ℓ
(3) λ X < λ ℓ < λ γ < λ M
(4) λ γ < λ X < λ ℓ < λ M
34. A block of 1 kg is kept at rest against a wall
by applying a force F perpendicular to the
The value of the unknown resistor R is wall. If µ = 0.2 then minimum value of F will
(1) 13.75 Ω (2) 220 Ω be :- (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(3) 110 Ω (4) 55 Ω (1) 980 N (2) 49 N
30. A microscope is focused on a mark on a piece of (3) 98 N (4) 490 N
a paper then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm & 35. The radius of the smallest orbit of electron in
refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. 0.51
hydrogen-like ion is ( × 10−10 ) metre;
How should the microscope be moved to get the 4
mark in focus again. then it is :-
(1) 1 cm upward (2) 4.5 cm downward (1) hydrogen atom (2) H+
(3) 1 cm downward (4) 2 cm upward (3) Li2+ (4) Be3+
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SECTION - B ( PHYSICS ) 40. An 8 m long copper wire and 4 m long steel
wire, each of cross section 0.5 cm2 are fastened
36. A bus starts moving with acceleration 2 ms – 2. A end to end and stretched by 500 N force. The
cyclist 96 m behind the bus starts simultaneously elastic potential energy of the system is :-
towards the bus at 20 m/s. After what time will (Young's modulus: Ycu = 1 × 1011 N/m2,
he be able to overtake the bus ? Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2)
(1) 4 s (2) 8 s (3) 12 s (4) 16 s (1) 1/4 J
37. A wire carries a current I & Its radius is R then (2) 1/3 J
find out magnetic field at a point which is
located R/3 distance from the surface of the wire (3) 1/2 J
and inside the wire :- (4) 1 J
(1) μ 0 I (2) μ 0 I 41. The main scale of a screw gauge moves by
6πR 5πR
μ 0I μ 0I
0.5 mm in one complete rotation of circular
(3) (4) scale having 50 divisions. The screw gauge
3πR 4πR
38. The acceleration-displacement graph of a shows +2 divisions on the circular scale and
particle executing simple harmonic motion is zero on main scale when jaws are in
shown in fig. The time period of simple contact. The diameter of a wire if the main
harmonic motion is:
scale reads 2 divisions and the circular scale
shows 20 divisions coinciding with reference
line of the main scale is:
(1) 0.125 cm
(2) 0.120 cm
(3) 0.225 cm
4π
(1) s (4) 0.118 cm
√ 3
2π 42. Potential difference V = (8 ± 0.5) volt and
(2) s
√ 3 current I = (2 ± 0.2)A, The value of resistance R
The given graph doesn't represent simple in Ω is :-
(3)
harmonic motion
(1) 4 ± 16.25% (2) 4 ± 6.25%
(4) Information is insufficient
(3) 4 ± 10% (4) 4 ± 8%
39. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by
the equations : 43. A body of mass 8kg is moved by a force F = 3x N,
y1 = 0.1 sin(100 π t +
π) where x is the distance covered. Initial position is
3
y2 = 0.1 cos (100 π t) x = 2m and the final position is x = 10 m. the
The phase difference of the velocity of particle – 1 initial speed is zero. The final speed is :-
with respect to the velocity of particle – 2 is :
(1) 6 m/s (2) 12 m/s
π π π π
(1) − (2) (3) − (4) (3) 18 m/s (4) 14 m/s
3 6 6 3
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44. Consider following in AC circuits and their 48. In the circuit shown in fig. the cell is ideal with
characteristics : e.m.f. 9 V. If the resistance of the coil of
List-I List-II galvanometer is 1 Ω , then incorrect option will
be :-
Purely
Current leads source
(P) resistive (1)
voltage
circuit
L-R series Current lags source
(Q) (2)
circuit voltage
R-C series Current may lead or
(R) (3)
circuit lag voltage
Current &
L-C series
(S) (4) source voltage are in
circuit
same phase.
(1) No current flows in the galvanometer
(1) P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3, S - 4
(2) Charge flowing through 8 µF is 40 µC
(2) P - 1, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 3
(3) Potential difference across 10 µF is 5V
(3) P - 4, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 3
(4) Potential difference across 10 µF is 4 V
(4) P - 3, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 1
49. The range of a projectile, thrown with an initial
45. An unbanked curve has a radius of 60m. The speed u at the angle of projection 15o from
maximum speed at which a car can make a turn horizontal is R. What will be the range if it is
if the coefficient of static friction is 0.75 is :- thrown with an initial speed 2u at an angle 30 °
from horizontal ?
(1) 2.1 m/s (2) 21 m/s
(1) 2 √3 R (2) 4 √3 R
(3) 14 m/s (4) 7 m/s
(3) √ 3R (4) 5 √3 R
46. A stone is rotated in a vertical circle, speed at
50. The resistance of wire ABC is double of
bottom most point is 8gR where R is the radius
√

resistance of wire ADC. The magnetic field at O

of circle. The ratio of tension at the top and the
is :-
bottom is :-
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4
47. A neutron makes a head-on elastic collision with
a stationary deutron. The fractional energy loss (1) μ 0 i ,⊙ (2) μ 0 i , ⊙
12R 6R
of the neutron in the collision is :-
μ 0i μ 0i
(3) ,⊙ (4) ,⊙
(1) 16/81 (2) 8/9 (3) 8/27 (4) 2/3 3R 2R
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SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 57. Which of the following reactions are

disproportionation reactions :
51. Match the columns : (a) 2Cu+ → Cu+2 + Cu
List-I List-II (b) 2KMnO4 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(a) ICl2 – (i) sp3d2 (c) 2MnO4 – + 3Mn+2 + 2H2O → 5MnO2 + 4H+
(d) 3MnO4 – 2 + 4H+ → 2MnO4 – + MnO2 + 2H2O
(b) PCl6 – (ii) sp
(c) HCN (iii) sp3 (1) a, b, c (2) a, c
(d) NH3 (iv) sp3d (3) a, d (4) a, b, c, d
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 58. Assertion (A) :- MX6 and MX5L type of
complex (where X & L are monodentate) do not
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i show Geometrical isomerism.
52. Which of the following correct order of dipole Reason (R) :- Complexes with coordination
moment : number 6 does not show geometrical isomerism.
(1) CO2 < NH3 < HF < H2O (1) Both A and R correct and R is correct
explanation of A
(2) CO2 < HF < NH3 < H2O
(2) Both A and R correct but R is not correct
(3) CO2 < NH3 < H2O < HF explanation
(4) HF < H2O < NH3 < CO2 (3) A is correct, R is incorrect
53. Identify correct order : (4) Both A & R are correct
(1) C2 < O2, Bond energy 59. Which of the following complex show
+ –
(2) O2 > O2 > O2 , Bond length geometrical isomerism -
(3) N2 > N2+1 > N2 – 1, Stability (1) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+ (2) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]+1
(4) C2 < B2, Bond order (3) [Co(NH3)6]+3 (4) [Co(CN)5(NC)] – 3
54. Which of the following sulphide has the 60. Which of the following complex is heteroleptic ?
maximum solubility product (Ksp) : (1) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 (2) [Fe(NH3)4Cl2]
(1) HgS (2) PbS (3) CuS (4) MnS (3) [Mn(CN)6] – 4 (4) None
55. Mohr salt is prepared from equimolar solution of : 61. In which of the following oxy acid of 'P' have
(1) Green vitriol and potassium sulphate two P – OH, two P – H and two P = O bonds :
(2) Green vitriol and amonium sulphate (1) H4P2O6 (2) H4P2O7
(3) Blue vitriol and potassium sulphate (3) H4P2O5 (4) H3PO4
(4) Blue vitriol and amonium sulphate 62. On heating lanthanides with carbon carbides
56. Incorrect order of size : formed are :
(1) Li > Br > Cl (2) Li < Mg (1) Ln3C (2) LnC2
(3) F < N < O < C (4) Ca > Mg > P > Cl (3) Ln2C3 (4) All of these
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63. Assertion (A) :- From the value of | Ψ |2 at 66. Assertion :- Mixture of chloroform and acetone
different points within an atom, it is possible to forms a solution shows negative deviation from
predict the region around the nucleus where Raoult's Law.
electron will most probably be found.
Reason (R) :- With the help of quantum Reason :- Entropy of mixing ( Δ Smix) for above
mechanical model of atom, exact position of an solution is less than zero.
electron in an atom can be determined.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion
reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason reason is not a correct explanation of
is not the correct explanation of assertion assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect (4) Both assertion and reason are false
64. Which of the following statement is incorrect : 67. Two liquids A and B on mixing show positive
(1) The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty deviation from Raoult's law. If the boiling
principle is significant only for motion of temperature of pure A and B are 340K and 390K
microscopic objects and is negligible for
respectively then the boiling temperature of
that of macroscopic objects.
resulting solution may be :
(2) In multi-electron atom, energies of the
orbitals in the same subshell decrease with (1) 393 K (2) 342 K
increase in the atomic number. (3) 386 K (4) 337 K
(3) 2s subshell have 2 spherical nodes. 68. The oxidation potential of Hydrogen
(4) The negative electronic energy for electrode dipped in a solution of pH = 4 at
hydrogen atom means that the energy of the 25°C and PH2 = 1 atm would be :
electron in H-atom is lower than the energy
(1) 0.01475 V (2) 0.236 V
of a free electron at rest.
(3) 0.0295 V (4) 0.118 V
65. Consider following equilibrium :
2NO2 (g) ⇌ N2 O4 (g), Δ H = – 57.2 kJ/mol 69. The rate constant for a first order reaction whose
(Brown colour) (Colourless)
reaction rate is 0.06 M sec – 1 at 10 minutes and
Which of the following statement are correct :
0.02 M sec – 1 at 20 minutes will be nearly :
(A) At low temperature, intensity of brown colour
decreases. (1) 1.83 × 10 – 3 sec – 1
(B) The equilibrium constant for given reaction (2) 2.45 × 10 – 3 sec – 1
increases as the temperature increases.
(3) 3.42 × 10 – 2 sec – 1
(C) At low temperature, the brown colour intensifies.
(D) On increasing pressure, the reaction goes in the (4) 1.45 × 10 – 2 sec – 1
forward direction. 70. The sum of oxidation state of terminal carbon
(1) A & B only (2) B, C & D atoms in C3O2 (carbon suboxide) is :-
(3) B & C only (4) A & D only (1) +2 (2) +3 (3) +4 (4) +6
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71. Match the items in column I with relevant items 73. Assertion : T, P, V are called state variables or
in column II state function.
Reason : Their values depend on the state of the
Column-I Column-II system and how it is reached.
Oxidation number 1 (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(i) (a) –
of oxygen in OF2 2 Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Oxidation number
(ii) (b) – 1 (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
of oxygen in H2O2
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Oxidation number Assertion.
(iii) (c) +2
of oxygen in RbO2 (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Oxidation number (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(iv) (d) +1
of oxygen in O2F2 74. Match the items in Column-I with items in
Column-II
(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
Column-I Column-II
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
CH3COONa
(3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c) (i) (a) Cationic hydrolysis
in water
(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
Neutral solution
72. Consider the following statements and select the NH4Cl in
(ii) (b) which does not
water
correct option undergo hydrolysis
Statement-I : The laws of thermodynamics deal NaCl in
with energy changes of microscopic systems (iii) (c) Anionic hydrolysis
water
involving a few number of molecules rather than CH3COONH4 Both cationic and
macroscopic systems containing a large number (iv) (d)
in water Anionic hydrolysis
of molecules.
(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
Statement-II : Laws of thermodynamics apply
(2) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
only when a system is in equilibrium or moves
(3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
from one equilibrium state to another
equilibrium state. (4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)

(1) Statement- I is correct and statement-II is 75. Which of the following name is correct
incorrect according to IUPAC rules ?

(2) Statement- I is incorrect and statement-II is (1) 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene

correct (2) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol
(3) Both the statements are correct (3) Hexane-3,5-dione
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (4) 6-Methyloctan-3-ol
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76. Compound which can't shows metamerism and 79.
functional group isomerism both :-
(1) H – COOCH2CH3

(2) C2H5 – O – CH=CH2

(3) CH3OH Find the correct statement regarding both

(4) CH2=CH – S – CH2 – CH3 reaction :-
(1) Both reaction are electrophilic substitution
77. reaction
(2) Both reaction are called Reimer-Tiemann
reaction
(3) Both reaction involved formation of
dichlorocarbene (singlet form)
(4) Each product of both the reactions has two
different functional group
Find the incorrect statement for acidic strength :- 80. Consider the following reactions, which of the
(1) B have more Ka value than A following product (major) shows tautomerism :-

(2) D have less pKa than C (1)

(3) A more easily dissociate than D

(4) C have less stable conjugate base than that (2)
of A
78. Benzene shows following electrophilic (3)
substitution reaction. In which reaction product,
(4)
benzene ring will be activated towards attack of
electrophile? 81. Which of the following alcohol is benzylic as
(1) Nitration well as secondary :-

(2) Friedal craft acylation (1) (2)

(3) Chlorination
(3) (4)
(4) Friedal craft alkylation
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82. Which of the following reaction have incorrect 84. Which of the following reaction of carboxylic
intermediate :- acid have not involvement of carbon oxygen
bond cleavage.

(1) (1)

(2)

(2) (3)

(4)

85. Consider the following reactions :

(A)
(3)

(B)

(C)
(4)
(D)

83. Match the following columns :- (E)

Column-I Which reaction produced aromatic product.
Column-II (Reagents)
(Transformation) (1) A,B,C,E (2) A,B,E
(A) Hexan-1-ol to Hexanal (P) NaOI, H+ (3) A,B,C,D (4) All of these
C6H5NH CrO3Cl–
⊕

P-Fluorotoluene to SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY )

(B) (Q)
P-Fluorobenzoic acid (PCC)
86. Correct statement regarding formal charge.
Mesityloxide to (a) Formal charges do not indicate real charges
(C) (R) AlH(isobutyl)2(DiBaL-H)
3-Methylbut-2-enoic acid seperation within molecule.
(b) Formal charges help in the selection of the
(D) Ethanenitrile to Ethanal (S) KMnO4/KOH, H+ lowest energy structures from a number of
(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R possible Lewis structures for a given species.
(c) Generally the lowest energy structure is one
(2) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R with the smallest formal charges on the atoms.
(3) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R (1) a and c only (2) a, b and c
(4) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P (3) a and b only (4) b and c only
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87. Choose correct order : 93. Consider the statements given below :
(1) B < Be < N < O (I.E.) (A) For the spontaneous cell reaction Ecell > 0
and Δ rG < 0
(2) S > O > Se > Te (E.A.) electron affinity (B) Kohlrausch law of independent migration of
(3) V2O3 < V2O4 < V2O5 Acidic strength ions is applicable for strong electrolytes only
(4) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (C) In a mercury cell, the product at cathode is
Oxidizing power Hg( ℓ )
(D) The conductivity of electrolytic solution
88. KMnO4 acts as oxidising agent in basic medium, increases with increase in temperature
when Basic KMnO4 reacts with KI then iodide Select the correct option given below
ion oxidises into : considering whether statement is true (T) or
(1) I2 (2) IO – (3) IO3 – (4) IO4 – False (F) :
89. Which of the following element does not show (1) TFTF
allotropy ? (2) TFTT
(1) P (2) As (3) C (4) N (3) FTFT
90. Which element is found in carbonic anhydrase ? (4) TFFT
(1) Cu (2) Mg (3) Zn (4) Fe 94. Match the column-I with column-II
91. Match the column :
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
Thermal decomposition Zero order
(A) 0.0052 (P) Two significant figures (A) (P)
of HI on gold surface reaction
(B) 2.005 (Q) Three significant figures
Pseudo
(C) 200 eggs (R) Four significant figures
(B) Inversion of cane sugar (Q) first order
(D) 4.01 × 102 (S) Infinite significant figures reaction
(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q) Hydrogenation of First order
(C) (R)
(2) (A)-(P), (B)-(R), (C)-(Q), (D)-(S) ethene reaction
(3) (A)-(P), (B)-(R), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q) The decomposition of
Second
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(Q), (D)-(S) gaseous ammonia on a
(D) (S) order
92. CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g) hot platinum surface at
reaction
Experimentally, it has been found that at 1100 K, high pressure
the pressure of CO2 gas is 2.0 × 105 Pa at
equilibrium. Equilibrium constant (Kp) at 1100 K (1) A→P, B→Q, C→S, D→P
for the above reaction is : (2) A→Q, B→P, C→S, D→R
(1) 2 × 105 (2) 2.0 (3) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→P
(3) 105 (4) 1 (4) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
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95. Which aqueous solution has pH equal to 10 ? 98. In which reaction product is less basic in nature
(1) 10 – 10 M KOH than reactant :-
(2) 10 – 4 M KOH H /Ni
(1) CH3 – C ≡ N −−2−−→
(3) 10 – 10 M HCl
(4) 10 – 4 M HCl Br2
(2) −−−−→
NaOH
96. Find false statement regarding conformational
isomerism :-
(3) CH3 – NH2 −CH 3 Cl
−−−→
(1) Spatial arrangement of atoms in space
which can be convert into one another by (CH3 CO)2 O
(4) −−−−−−−→
P yridiene
rotation around C – C single bond are called
rotamer. 99. Which of the following reagents can not convert
(2) Rotation around C – C single bond is isobutane into isobutylene ?
completely free, it have zero energy (1) Bromination in presence of ultra violate
barrier.
light followed by alc. KOH.
(3) One of the conformation of ethane, in
(2) Monochlorination followed by
which hydrogen atoms attached to two
dehydrohalogenation
carbon are as closed together as possible is
called eclipsed conformation and other in (3) Acidic KMnO4 followed by conc. sulphuric
which hydrogen atoms are as far apart as acid in presence of heat.
possible is called staggered conformation. (4) Hydroboration oxidation followed by
(4) Any other intermediate between eclipsed dehydration with conc. sulphuric acid.
and staggered are called skew 100. Consider the following resonating structure
conformation.
97. Aldol condensation (simple as well as crossed) andresonating hybrid of an intermediate of
product of following reaction which can't shows reaction :
geometrical isomerism :
1.OH − (dil.)
Cyclopentanone + Acetaldehyde −−−−−−−→
2. Δ

(1)
Find the type of reaction -
(2) CH3 – CH=CH – CHO (1) Electrophilic substitution reaction

(3) (2) Nucleophilic addition reaction

(3) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(4) None of these (4) Electrophilic addition reaction
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( BOTANY ) 105. Assertion (A) :- In gymnosperms, seeds are naked.

Reason (R) :- Gymnosperms do not produce ovary.
101. Read the following characters (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Binary fission, Cell type, Chemosynthesis, Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Decomposers, Unicellular, Cell wall (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
composition, Nuclear-envelope. is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
How many characters are common in protista (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
and Monera ?
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(1) Six (2) Four (3) Three (4) Five 106. Ground nut belongs to family:-
102. (1) Fabaceae (2) Malvaceae
(3) Liliaceae (4) Cucurbitaceae
107. Pappus in sunflower family is the modification of :-
(1) Hairs (2) Anthers (3) Calyx (4) Corolla
Identify the organism and feature associated with it :-
108. Which of the following is true regarding root hairs ?
(1) Morchella - Edible fungus
(1) They are always unicellular
(2) Agaricus - Edible fungus
(2) They are unbranched
(3) Rhizopus - Bread mold (3) They are short lived and endogenous
(4) Alternaria - Pathogenic fungus (4) All of the above
103. The algae shown in the figure belong to the Class:- 109. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Endarch and exarch are the terms
often used for describing the position of
secondary xylem in the plant body.
Statement II : Exarch condition is the most
common feature of the root system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Chlorophyceae correct answer from the options given below;
(2) Phaeophyceae (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Rhodophyceae (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(4) Cyanophyceae (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
104. Pectin and polysulphate ester are present in the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
cell wall of 110. The given pyramid represents___________
(1) Green algae parameter in _________ ecosystem :-
(2) Brown algae
(3) Red algae (1) Number, pond (2) Standing crop, Tree
(4) Both 1 and 2 (3) Number, Grassland (4) Standing crop, pond
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111. Which one of the following is not a structural 116. When resources in habitat are unlimited, Growth
unit of an ecosystem ? show :-
(1) Stratification (2) Decomposition
(1) Sigmoid growth curve
(3) Dominance (4) Species diversity
(2) J-shaped growth curve
112. Given pie chart is showing number of vertebrate species.
In above pie chart S is representing species of :- (3) Logistic growth curve
(4) Both 1 and 3 given above
117. Statement-I : A population at any given time is
composed of individuals of same age.
(1) Reptiles (2) Amphibians Statement-II : The shape of age pyramid reflects
(3) Birds (4) Fishes the growth status of the population.
113. The percentage of land area under forest cover (1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are
according to National forest policy should be :-
correct.
(1) 43% (2) 23% (3) 33% (4) 13%
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
114. Assertion : Unique assemblage of more than 200
incorrect.
species of cichlid fish in lake Victoria has been
extinct. (3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
Reason : An Alien species Nile perch had correct.
introduced into lake Victoria.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. incorrect.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason 118. Population size more technically is designated as
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
population density. Select correct statement with
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. respect to this :-
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (a) Not necessarily be measured in number only.
115. Sum total of biotic and abiotic factors that do not (b) Can be measured as biomass per unit area or
allow a population to achieve its maximum
volume.
biotic potential is:
(c) Number of individuals per unit area.
(1) Represented by dN
= rN
dt (1) Only (c) is correct
(2) Called carrying capacity
(2) Only (a) and (c) are correct
(3) Known as environmental resistance
N −K (3) Only (b) and (c) are correct
(4) Represented as
N
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
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119. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify 122. Which organelle out of these does not participate
the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the in photorespiration ?
right option about them :- (1) Peroxisomes (2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplasts (4) Golgi bodies
123. Cytochrome which donates electrons to O2 is:-
(1) UQ (2) FMN (3) Cyto-a (4) Cyto-a3
124. Which of the following is tightly bound to
Apoenzyme ?
(1) Coenzyme (2) Prosthetic group
A B C D (3) Metal ion (4) Holoenzyme
Central Anti podal Filiform 125. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram of
(1) Synergids
cell cells apparatus glycolysis :-
Anti podal Central Filiform
(2) Synergids
cells cell apparatus
Anti podal Central
(3) Synergids Egg cell
cells cell
Primary
Egg
(4) Apical cells endosperm Synergids
apparatus
cell

120. Pollen grains are shed in 2-celled stage in :-

(1) over 90% angiosperms
(2) over 50% of angiosperms
(3) over 60% of angiosperms
(4) over 40% of angiosperms
121. Match the Column I with Column II :-
Column I Column II
A. Funicle I. Mass of cells within ovule with
more food
B. Hilum II. Basal part of ovule
C. Integument III. One or 2 protective layers of ovule
Region where body of ovule fuses
D. Chalaza IV.
with funicle
E. Nucellus V. Stalk of ovule
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V A B C
1 ATP ATP H2O
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
2 NADH+H+ H2O ATP
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III, E-V 3 NADH+H+ ATP ATP
(4) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-II, E-IV 4 H2O ATP ATP
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126. I. Mycelium is branched and septate
II. No asexual spores are formed
III. Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is
common
IV. Sexual reproduction takes place by somatogamy
V. Karyogamy and meiosis occur in basidium to
form four haploid basidiospores
VI. Basidia are arranged in basidiocarp
The above characteristics are assigned to
(1) Sac fungi (2) Club fungi
(3) Algal fungi (4) Fungi imperfecti
127. Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose
by enzyme :-
(1) Maltose (2) Anylase
(3) Invertase (4) Hexokinase
128. Statement-I : Growth is the most fundamental
characteristic of a living being.
Statement-II : Generally growth is not
accompanied by metabolic processes.
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct
129. Split genes include :-
(1) Exons (2) Introns
(3) Pseudoalleles (4) Both (1) and (2)
130. The distillation process is required in the
formation of :-
(1) Rum (2) Brandy
(3) Whisky (4) All of these
131. The technology of biogas production in India has
been developed by the effort of :-
(A) Khadi and Village Industries Commision
(KVIC)
(B) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
(C) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI)
(D) Indian Council of Medical Reasearch (ICMR)
(1) A,C,D (2) C,D (3) A,C (4) A,B
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132. Select incorrect match :-
(1) Citric acid: Aspergillus flavus
(2) Clot Buster: Streptococcus
(3) Cyclosporin A: Trichoderma polysporum
(4) Butyric acid: Clostridium butylicum
133. The salient feature of DNA are :
(i) It is made of two polynucleotide chains
(ii) Two chains have parallel polarity
(iii) Bases in two strands are paired through H-
bond
(iv) The two chains are always coiled in left
handed fashion
(1) i, iv (2) i, ii, iii, iv
(3) i, iii (4) i, ii, iv
134. Which one is wrong statement about genetic
material?
(1) It should be able to express itself in the
form of Mendelian characters
(2) DNA chemically is less reactive and
structurally more stable than RNA
(3) RNA can directly code for the synthesis of
proteins
(4) Only DNA is able to mutate not RNA
135. Read the following statement for a trihybrid plant in
which all the three genes show complete linkage :-
(a) On selfing, it produces 1:1 phenotypic ratio.
(b) On test cross, it produces 3:1 genotypic ratio.
(c) It produces some new combination in
offsprings.
(d) It produces only two types of gametes.
Select the correct statements :-
(1) only a & b (2) a, b & d
(3) only d (4) only c & d
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SECTION - B ( BOTANY ) 140. The aestivation in petals of lady finger and
Calotropis plants are respectively :-
136. Which of the following match is not correct ?
(1) Mg++ → Dehydrogenase
(2) Cu++ → Tyrosinase
(3) Fe++ → Carbonic anhydrase
(4) Mo → Nitrogenase
137. Identify the given diagram and select the correct
option :- (1) A & D (2) B & A (3) D & A (4) D & B
141. Highest net primary productivity can be observed at :
(1) Lake (2) Ocean
(3) Tropical rain forest (4) Coral Reef
142. Assertion : Tropics harbour more species than
(1) Epigynous flower (2) Half inferior ovary temperate and polar areas.
(3) Perigynous flower (4) Both (2) and (3) Reason : Tropical environments are less seasonal
and more constant which promote niche-
138.
specialization and greater species diversity.
(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason
is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason
Which of the following is incorrect with respect
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
to figure given above ?
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(1) Undifferentiated cortex
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.
(2) Open vascular bundles
143. Match some examples of recent extinctions of
(3) Presence of parenchymatous starch sheath animals in the column-A with their locations
(4) Absence of sclerenchymatous bundle sheath (Countries) in column-B :-
139. Select the false statement from following :- Column-A Column-B

(1) Vascular bundles without cambium are (a) Steller’s Sea cow (i) Africa
called closed vascular bundles (b) Thylacine (ii) Indonesia
(c) Javan Tiger (iii) Mauritius
(2) Open vascular bundles are found in
dicotyledonous stem (d) Quagga (iv) Russia
(v) Australia
(3) In conjoint type of vascular bundles, the xylem
& phloem are situated at the same radius (1) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(v), c(iii), d(i)
(4) Conjoint bundles are common is roots (3) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
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144. The ploidy levels of the cells of nucellus, 147. Assertion : Development is considered as the
MMC, functional megaspore and female sum of growth and differentiation.
gametophyte are respectively :- Reason : Development is a term that includes all
changes that an organism goes through during its
(1) 2n, 2n, n, n
life cycle from germination of the seed to
(2) 2n, 2n, 2n, n senescence.
(3) 2n, 2n, n, 2n (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(4) n, 2n, n, n Assertion.
145. Which of the following radioactive component (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
used by Calvin to discover that the first CO2 Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
fixation product was a 3 carbon organic acid : –
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) 14C
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) 15C
148. DNA and RNA differ by :-
(3) 14O
(1) Nitrogen bases and sugars
(4) 18O
(2) Nitrogen bases and phosphate groups
146. Identify the correct match from column I, II and III
(3) Number of C-atoms in sugars
(4) Sugar and phosphate groups
Column I Column II Column III 149. Number of different alleles and genotypes of
Promote human ABO blood types respectively are :-
1 GA a Gaseous i
bolting (1) 2, 4 (2) 3, 6 (3) 6, 3 (4) 4, 2
2 Auxin b Cytokinesis ii Zeatin 150.

Flowering in
3 Cytokinins c Phototropism iii
Pineapple

4 Ethylene d Acidic iv Fruit ripening

(1) 1 – d – ii, 2 – a – iv, 3 – c – iii, 4 – b – i

This type of sex determination is found in:
(2) 1 – d – i, 2 – c – iii, 3 – b – ii, 4 – a – iv
(1) Most of the insects
(3) 1 – c – i, 2 – b – iv, 3 – a – ii, 4 – d – iii (2) Honey bee
(3) Tortoise
(4) 1 – b – ii, 2 – c – i, 3 – d – iii, 4 – b – iv
(4) Grass hopper
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS
SECTION - A ( ZOOLOGY )
151. Water vascular system is present in : -
(1) Porifera (2) Coelenterate
(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata
152. Few cnidarians like corals have a skeleton
composed of :-
(1) Calcium hydroxide
(2) Calcium sulphate
(3) Calcium carbonate
(4) Sodium bicarbonate
153. Statement-A : The most unique mammalian
characteristic is the presence of milk producing
glands by which the young ones are nourished.
Statement-B : In mammals, external ears are
present.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
154. Areolar tissue is a -
(1) Loose connective tissue
(2) Specialized connective tissue
(3) Dense connective tissue
(4) Both (1) and (2)
155. Tadpole larva of frog excretes ....a.... while adult
frog excretes ....b...., a and b in given statement
are -
(1) (a) Ammonia ; (b) Ammonia
(2) (a) Ammonia ; (b) Urea
(3) (a) Urea ; (b) Uric acid
(4) (a) NH3 ; (b) Guanine
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156. Blood groups are controlled by antigens present :-
(1) Inside RBC
(2) In yellow bone marrow
(3) On leucocyte membrane
(4) On erythrocyte membrane
157. Reduction in respiratory surface of the lungs due
to damage is the alveolar wall :-
(1) Asphyxia (2) Bronchitis
(3) Asthma (4) Emphysema
158. How many molecules of oxygen are carried by
one molecule of haemoglobin?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Six
159. Statement I :- Ammonia produced by
metabolism is converted into urea in the Liver.
Statement II :- Aquatic animals are ammonotelic
in nature.
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct
160. In only one stage, where Na+-K pumps get shut down.
Identify the stage of nerve impulse conduction :-
(1) Depolarisation (2) Repolarisation
(3) Hyperpolarisation (4) Polarisation
161. Which of the following statements is true ?
(1) Saltatory conduction is seen in non-
myelinated nerve fibres.
(2) Nissl's granules synthesize protein to
regenerate damaged part of neuron.
(3) Neurofibril inhibits internal conduction of
nerve impulse.
(4) Trigger zone, triggers nerve impulse at base
of dendron.
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162. Which of the following is a correct statement? 165. Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.
Column-
(1) In an adult female, hypothyroidism may Column-I Column-III
II
causes irregular menstrual cycle
Proliferative Formation of corpus
(A) (a) 14th day (i)
(2) Hyperthyroidism may result due to cancer phase luteum
of thyroid gland Secrectory Ist - 5th Development of
(B) (b) (ii)
phase day Graffian follicle
(3) Defeciency of iodine in our diet results in
15th - 28th Shedding of stratum
(C) Bleeding (c) (iii)
hypothyroidism day functionalis
(4) All Release of
Ovulatory 6th - 13th
(D) (d) (iv) secondary
163. Which of the following statements about phase day
oocyte
hormone is/are correct ? (1) A → d → iii; B → c → i, C → b → iv,
(A) Hormone may be protein or steroids. D → a → ii
(B) Hormones are non nutritive, non antigenic (2) A → c → ii; B → b → iii, C → a → i,
and non species specific. D → d → iv
(C) Hormones are not stored without any (3) A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii,
D → a → iv
exception.
(4) A → d → iii; B → b → iv, C → a →
(D) All hormone have same mechanism of
ii, D → c → i
binding for functioning.
166. Match the column-A with column-B.
(1) A & C are correct and B & D are false Column-A Column-B
(2) B & D are correct and A & C are false A Menstrual phase i Corpus luteum
Breakdown
(3) A & B are correct and C & D are false B Follicular phase ii
of endometrium
(4) C & D are correct and A & B are false Fully
164. Which points are correct with the regard to the C Ovulatory phase iii mature graafian
follicle
skeletal muscles?
D Luteal phase iv Release of ovum
(1) Their activities are under the involuntary
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-ii (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
conrol of the nervous system
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) They are located in the inner walls of 167. Identify the barrier methods of contraceptive -
visceral organs (1) Progestert, Condoms
(3) They are primarily involved in locomotory (2) CuT, Pills
actions and changes of body postures (3) Vesectomy, Cu7
(4) They have no actin and myosin filaments (4) Female condoms, Cervical caps
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168. The first antibody during primary immune 173. Which one of the following has its own DNA ?
response is ? (1) Peroxisome (2) Mitochondria
(1) IgG (2) IgM (3) IgA (4) IgD (3) Dictyosome (4) Lysosome
169. An example of innate immunity is :- 174. Which of the following is not a membrane-
(1) T-lymphocyte (2) B-lymphocyte bound cell organelle ?
(3) Neutrophils (4) Memory cell (1) ER (2) Mitochondria
170. Identify the correct match from the columns I, II (3) Ribosome (4) Golgi complex
and III :-
175. A is responsible for increasing the surface area.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Infection
1 Bacteria a Plasmodium i
of lungs
Wuchereria Fever
2 Virus b ii
bancrofti with chill
Haemophilus Inflammation
3 Protozoa c iii Identify the A?
influenzae of lower limbs
Infection of (1) Matrix
4 Helminths d Rhino virus iv upper respiratory
(2) Inter membrane space
tract
(3) Cristae
(1) 2-c-i, 1-d-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii
(4) ATP synthase
(2) 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii, 2-c-iv, 1-d-i
176. “Omnis cellula-e cellula” explains that –
(3) 4-b-iii, 3-a-ii, 1-c-i, 2-d-iv
(1) All living organisms are composed of cells
(4) 4-b-iii, 3-a-i, 1-c-ii, 2-d-iv
(2) All living organisms are composed of
171. Primary response which is of ____(A)____ products of cell
intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same
pathogen elicit a ___(B)___intensified (3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
___(C)___ response.
(4) A cell is capable of independent existence
(A) (B) (C)
(1) High Low Anamnestic 177. Which one of the following structure is not
related to the protein synthesis?
(2) Low High Primary
(3) Low High Secondary (1) Nuclear membrane (2) RER
(4) High Low Primary (3) Ribosome (4) Lysosome
172. Which of the following are not homologous? 178. During quiescent phase of cell cycle
(1) Insect mouthparts (1) Cell remain metabolically active
(2) Insect legs (2) Cell does not divide
(3) Vertebrate forelimbs (3) DNA replication can occur
(4) Bird and insect wings (4) Both (1) and (2)
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179. An egg cell has 10 picogram of DNA in its
nucleus. How much amount of DNA will be in
this animal, at the end of G2- phase of mitosis ?
(1) 10 picogram (2) 20 picogram
(3) 30 picogram (4) 40 picogram
180. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : Meiosis involves two sequential
cycles of nuclear and cell division but only a
single cycle of DNA replication.
Statement-II : Meiosis-II is initiated after the
DNA replication in S-phase of interkinesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both statement-I & II are correct
(2) Both statement-I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
correct
181. Match the following with respect to the average
composition of cells
% of the total
Component
cellular mass
a. Proteins (i) 5-7
b. Carbohydrates (ii) 3
c. Lipids (iii) 10-15
d. Nucleic acids (iv) 2
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
182. Upon hydrolysis of Lactose there will be
formation of :-
(1) 2 molecules of Glucose
(2) 2 molecules of Galactose
(3) One molecule of each glucose and galactose
(4) One molecule of each glucose and fructose.
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183. A typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing
migration of set of DNA fragments :-
which of the following statement is correct
regarding this ?
(1) Only lane 1 shows undigested DNA fragment
(2) Only lane 4 shows digested DNA fragment
(3) Lane 1 to lane 3 show digested DNA
(4) Only lane 4 shows undigested DNA fragments
184. The enzyme which catalyses the removal of
nucleotides from the ends of DNA is :-
(1) Exonuclease (2) Endonuclease
(3) DNA ligase (4) RNA polymerase
185. Gel electrophoresis is used for
(1) Cutting of DNA into fragments
(2) Separation of DNA fragments according
totheir size
(3) Construction of recombinant DNA
byjoining with cloning vectors
(4) Isolation of DNA molecule
SECTION - B ( ZOOLOGY )
186. Assertion : Biolistic or gene gun method is
generally suitable for plant cell.
Reason : In this method cell are bombarded with
high velocity micro particles of gold & tungsten
coated with RNA.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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187. The process by which restriction endonuclease 190. Statement I :- ADA enzyme is transferred to
cut the DNA molecule :- patient for permanent cure.
(1) Reduction (2) Oxidation Statement II :- ADA deficiency can be cured by
(3) Hydrolysis (4) Carboxylation ADA enzyme replacement therapy and bone
188. Match column-I with Column-II and select the marrow transplantation.
answer from the codes given below. (1) Only Statement I is correct
Column-I Column-II
(2) Only Statement II is correct
Effort to correct the
(A) Biopiracy (i) (3) Both Statements are correct
non-functional gene
(B) Biopatent (ii) Gene silencing (4) Both Statements are incorrect
Gene Illegal exploitation of 191. Select the correct option for statement-I &
(C) (iii)
therapy biological materials statement-II.
Right granted for Statement-I : Worm like marine cylindrical
(D) RNAi (iv)
biological entities animals includes in Phylum Hemichordata.
(1) A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (ii) Statement-II : In echinodermates mouth present
on lower side and anus present on upper side.
(2) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)
(1) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is
(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii) incorrect.
(4) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i) (2) Statement-I is incorrect, statement-II is
correct.
189. Given below are 2 statements one is labelled as
Assertion(A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). (3) Statement-I & II both are incorrect.
Assertion (A) : Toxic insecticidal protein of (4) Statement-I & II both are correct.
Bacillus thuringiensis does not kill Bacillus
192. During ventricular systole –
itself.
Reason (R) : In Bacillus Bt toxin protein exist as (1) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta
inactive protoxins. and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the
In the light of above statements, choose the pulmonary artery
correct answer from the options given below : (2) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood
is pumped into the artery
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Oxygenated blood is pumped into aorta and
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not deoxygenated blood is pumped into
the correct explanation of (A) pulmonary vein
(4) Oxygenated blood is pumped into
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct pumped into pulmonary artery
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193. To keep the osmolarity, small amount of urea 197. Due to inability of the male partner to inseminate
moves into medullary interstitium from - the female, which ART method could be used?
(1) PCT (1) ICSI (2) AI
(2) Thin segment of loop of Henle (3) GIFT (4) ZIFT
(3) Thick segment of loop of Henle 198. How many statements given below are wrong ?
(4) Distal part of collecting duct (a) With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance
level of the receptors present in our body
194. Match column-I with Column-II :- increases.
(b) Smoking increases carbon monoxide (CO)
Column-I Column-II
content in the blood and reduces the
(a) ADH (i) Glucocorticoids concentration of haembound oxygen.
(c) Smack is chemically diacetylmorphine
(b) ACTH (ii) Mineralocorticoids (d) The plant illustrated is Atropa belladona and
has hallucinogenic properties
(c) Aldosterone (iii) Diabetes mellitus

(d) Insulin (iv) Diabetes insipidus

(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

195. How many bones are included in cranium : 199. Arrange the events of chemogeny and biogeny,
Maxilla, Mandible, Sphenoid, Nasal, Ethmoid given below in correct order :-
bone, Lacrymal, inferior, turbinal, occipital (A) Origin of simple inorganic compounds.
bone :-
(B) Origin of complex organic compounds.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(C) Origin of living giant molecules.
196. Assertion (A) : Ovaries are the primary sex
(D) Origin of free atoms.
organs of female.
Reason (R) : Ovaries produce gametes and no (E) Origin of pre-biotic soup.
hormones. (F) Origin of Prokaryotes.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (1) A, B, C, D, E, F (2) D, A, B, C, E, F
correct explanation of (A) (3) F, E, D, C, B, A (4) D, A, B, E, C, F
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not 200. Dicotyledons arose from :-
the correct explanation of (A)
(1) Cycads (2) Lycopods
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) Seed ferns (4) Conifers
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
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the Invigilator on duty.

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.

6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

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