Allen Test Paper 2023

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(Academic Session: 2022 - 2023)
ONLINE TEST SERIES CONTACT PROGRAMME

Batch: OLTS-NT-13-23-CL
OLTS-NT-MA-23-NO
Date: 29-01-2023 Paper Type: Major Test - 1
Paper : Physics, Chemistry & Biology

TEST SYLLABUS
Physics : Thermal Physics, Thermodynamics, WPE, Rotational, Fluid,
Chemistry : Full Syllabus 11th
Biology : Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Morphology of Flowering Plants,
Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition, Photosynthesis in Higher
Plants, Respiration in Plants, Plant Growth and Development, Cell : The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle and
Cell Divison
W
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and it contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct
response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 720.
2. In this Test, subject Physics will consist of two sections (Physics A & Physics B). Physics A Section will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Physics B Section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
3. Subject Chemistry will consist of two sections (Chemistry A & Chemistry B). Chemistry A Section will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Chemistry B Section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. Subject Biology will consist of two sections (Biology A & Biology B). Biology A Section will consist of 70 questions
(all questions are mandatory) and Biology B Section will have 30 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any
20 questions out of these 30 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 20 questions, first 20 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
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Part-I (Physics)
Section-A
1. On increasing the temperature of a gas filled in a closed container by 1°C its pressure
increases by 0.4%, then initial temperature of the gas is.
(1) 25°C
(2) 250°C
(3) 250K
(4) 2500°C
2. The root-mean-square (rms) speed of oxygen molecules (O2) at a certain absolute

temperature is v. If the temperature is doubled and the oxygen gas dissociates into atomic
oxygen, the rms speed would be :
(1) v
(2) 2v
(3) 2v
(4) 2 2v
3. At what temperature is the Fahrenheit scale reading equal to twice of Celsius :

(1) –40°C
(2) 100°C
(3) 160°C
(4) 212°C
4. A cyclic process ABCA is shown in P–T diagram. When presented on P–V, it would
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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5. In case of simple pendulum, time period versus length is depicted by :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
6. The ratio of the velocity of sound in hydrogen gas to that in helium gas at the same
temperature is :-
(1) 21 /5
(2) 42 /5
(3) 5/42
(4) 5/ 21
7. Graph shows three waves that are separately sent along a string that is stretched under a
certain tension along x-axis. If ω1, ω2 and ω3 are their angular frequencies respectively
then :-
(1) ω1 = ω3 > ω2
(2) ω1 > ω2 > ω3
(3) ω1 > ω2 = ω3
(4) ω1 = ω2 = ω3
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g
8. The depth at which the effective value of acceleration due to gravity is is :-
4
(1) R
3R
(2)
4
R
(3)
2
R
(4)
4
9. Gravitational force between two point masses m & M separated by a distance is F. Now if a
point mass 2m is placed next to ‘m’ in contact with it, the force on M due to ‘m’ & total force
on M are :-
(1) 2F, F
(2) F, 2F
(3) F, 3F
(4) F, F
10. A planet moving around sun sweeps area A1 in 2 days, A2 in 3 days and A3 in 6 days. Then
the relation between A1, A2 and A3 is :-
(1) 3A1 = 2A2 = A3

(2) 2A1 = 3A2 = 6A3
(3) 3A1 = 2A2 = 6A3
(4) 6A1 = 3A2 = 2A3
11. Thermal capacity doesn't depend on

(1) Property of material
(2) Mass of the body
(3) Temperature
(4) depends on all
12. The number of possible natural oscillation of air column in a pipe closed at one end of
length 17 cm whose frequencies lie below 4000 Hz are (velocity of sound = 340 m/s)
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 6
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13. If a star emitting light of wavelength 4000 Å is moving towards earth with a velocity of 3 ×
106 m/s then the shift in the wavelength due to Doppler's effect will be :
(1) 2.5 Å
(2) 250 Å
(3) 40 Å
(4) zero
14. A metal wire is first stretched beyond its elastic limit and then released. It :-
(1) loses its elastic property completely and it will not contract
(2) will contract to its original length
(3) will contract to its length at elastic limit
(4) will contract but final length will be greater than original length
15. An object of uniform density is allowed to float in water kept in a beaker. The object has
triangular cross-section as shown in the fig. If the water pressure measured at the three
point A, B and C below the object are pA, pB and pC respectively. Then :
(1) PA > PB > PC

(2) PA > PB < PC
(3) PA = PB = PC
(4) PA = PB < PC
1 1 1
16. Find 1 + + + + ....... upto ∞
2 4 8
(1) ∞
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 1.925
   
17. The value of (A + B) × (A − B) is :-
(1) 0
2 2
(2) A
 – B
(3) B × A 

(4) 2(B × A)
18. Their resultent force is :-

(1) F/2
(2) F
(3) 3F
(4) 5F
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19. Find the least count of the given instrument :
(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.001 mm
20. The radius of a ball is (5.2±0.2) cm. The percentage error in the volume of the ball is
(1) 11%
(2) 4%
(3) 7%
(4) 9%
21. Which of the following Position -Time graphs correctly represents two moving objects A
and B with zero relative velocity ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
22. An athlete completes one round of a circular track or radius R in 40 sec. What will be his
displacement at the end of 2 min. 20 sec.
(1) Zero
(2) 2R
(3) 2πR
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23. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked
up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the
moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk
up on the moving escalator will be
t t
(1) 1 2
t2 − t1
t t
(2) 1 2
t2 + t1
(3) t1 – t2
t +t
(4) 1 2
2
24. Figure shows two block A and B pushed against the wall with force F. The wall is smooth
but the surface in contact of A and B are rough. Which of the following is true for the system
of blocks to be at rest against wall ?
(1) F should be equal to weight of A and B

(2) F should be less than weight of A and B
(3) F should be more than weight of A and B
(4) System cannot be in equilibrium (at rest).
25. A constant force starts acting on a body of mass m at rest. The velocity v acquired in
traveling a specific distance depends on m as :-
1
(1) v ∝
m
1
(2) v ∝
m
(3) v ∝ m
(4) v ∝ m
26. For the given force-time graph, impulse acting in first 3 second is :-
(1) 50 N-sec
(2) 150 N-sec
(3) 100 N-sec
(4) 200 N-sec
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
27. Find work done by F in 1 sec :-
(1) 100 J
(2) 50 J
(3) 25 J
(4) None
28. A force F acting on a object varies with distance x as shown here :

Find work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 8m :-
(1) 70J
(2) 20J
(3) 50J
(4) 80J
29. A stone is projected vertically up with a velocity U, reaches upto maximum height h. When
3h
it is at a height of from the ground, the ratio of KE and PE at that point is:- (PE = 0 at
4
the point of projection)
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1
30. The angular velocity of the second needle in watch is (in rad/sec) -
π
(1)
30
(2) 2π
(3) π
60
(4)
π
31. A particle of mass m moves with velocity v0 = 10 m/sec towards a wall that is moving with
velocity v = 5 m/sec. If the particle collides with the wall elastically, the speed of the
particle just after the collision is :-
(1) 30 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 25 m/s
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32. A 1 kg stationary bomb is exploded in three parts having mass ratio 1 : 1 : 3. Parts having
same mass move in perpendicular directions with velocity 30 m/s, then the velocity of
bigger part will be :-
(1) 10 2m / s
10
(2) m/s
2
(3) 15 2m / s
15
(4) m/s
2
33. A uniform rod of length  is hinged at one end. It is taken to horizontal position and
released from rest.
2g
(1)

3g
(2)

g
(3)

6g
(4)

34. The graph between angular momentum J and angular velocity for a body is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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35. Three parallel forces are acting on a rod at distances of 40 cm, 60 cm and 80 cm
respectively from one end of the rod (as shown in figure). Assuming no other forces, the
rod under the influence of these forces will :-
(1) be at rest
(2) exhibit rotational motion only
(3) exhibit translational motion
(4) exhibit combined rotational and translational motion
Section – B
36.
As shown above initial length of each strip was 50 cm at temperature of 30°. Now
temperature is raised to 90°C. Find difference in length.
(1) 0.06 mm
(2) 0.09 mm
(3) 0.18 mm
(4) 0.24 mm
37. Rate of heat flow through two conducting rods of identical dimensions having thermal
conductivities K1 and K2 are Q1 and Q2 when their ends are maintained at the same
difference of temperature individually. When the two rods are joined in series with their
ends maintained at the same temperature difference (as shown in the figure), the rate of
heat flow will be :
Q1 + Q 2
(1)
2
(2) ( K1Q1 + K2Q2 )
K1Q1 + K2Q2
(3)
K1 + K 2
QQ
(4) 1 2
Q1 + Q 2
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38. Find the resultant amplitude of the following simple harmonic equations:
X1 = 5 sin ωt
X2 = 5 sin (ωt + 53°)
X3 = –10 cos ωt
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
 π
39. =
The displacement of a SHM is given by x A cos  ωt +  . Find the time when its speed will
 4
be maximum :-
T
(1)
8
T
(2)
4
T
(3)
2
3T
(4)
4
40. What will be time period of the displaced body of mass m ?
m
(1) 2π
2k
3m
(2) 2π
k
3m
(3) 2π
2k
3m
(4) π
k
41. The vibrations of four air columns of same length are represented in the figure. The ratio
of frequencies np : nq : nr : ns is :-
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(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1
(4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4
42. Two spheres of the same material but of radii 0.01 m and 0.02 m are dropped one by one
in the same viscous fluid their terminal velocities respectively will be in the ratio :-
(1) 1:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 1:4
(4) 4:1
43. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R),
Assertion (A): Out of three measurement A = 0.7 m, b = 0.70 m and C = 0.700 m, the least
one is most accurte.
Reason (R): In every measurement only the last significant digit is not accurately known.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
44. A person walks 80 m east, then turns right through angle 143o walks further 50 m and
stops. His position relative to the starting point is
(1) 50 m, 53o east of south
(2) 50 m, 53o south of east
45. In a ballistics demonstration a police officer fires a bullet of mass 40.0 g with speed
200 m/s on a soft plywood of thickness 4.00 cm. The bullet emerges with only 25% of its
initial kinetic energy. The emergent speed of the bullet will be
(1) 25 m/s
(2) 75 m/s
(3) 40 m/s
(4) 100 m/s
46. In the spring block system shown in figure the spring is compressed by 0.4 m and then
released. The maximum height to which the block rises is :-
(1) 0.4 m
(2) 0.8 m
(3) 1.6 m
(4) 2.4 m
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47. A particle moving in a circle of radius 2m whose speed is varying as, v = 2t. If the particle
starts from t = 0, then match the column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) 2 (P) Centripetal acceleration at t = 3s.
(B) 18 (Q) Tangential acceleration at t = 2s.
(C) 45 (R) Angle (in degree) rotated in π sec.
(D) 90 (S) Angle (in degree) between acceleration and velocity at t = 1
(1) (A) → P ; (B) → Q ; (C) → R ; (D) → S
(2) (A) → P ; (B) → S ; (C) → Q ; (D) → R
(3) (A) → Q ; (B) → P ; (C) → S ; (D) → R
(4) (A) → Q ; (B) → R ; (C) → S ; (D) → P
48. Choose the correct statement
(1) it is not possible

(2) whatever may be the speed of the blocks the centre of mass will remain stationary
(3) the centre of mass of the system is moving with a velocity of 2 in ms–1
(4) the centre of mass of the system is moving with a velocity of 1 ms–1
49. The coordinate of the centre of mass of a system as shown in figure :–
a 
(1)  ,0 
3 
a a
(2)  , 
2 2
a a
(3)  , 
3 3
 a
(4)  0, 
 3
50. A plank is moving with a velocity of 4 m/sec. A disc of radius 1m rolls without slipping on
it with an angular velocity of 3 rad/sec as shown in figure. Find out the velocity of centre
of the disc.
(1) vcm = 7 m/s

(2) vcm = 8 m/s
(3) vcm = 9 m/s
(4) vcm = 10 m/s
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Part-II (Chemistry)
Section-A
51. Total number of sp2 hybridised ‘C’ in acetylene.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
52. Assertion :- Pyridine is a heterocyclic compound.

Reason :- It has 3π bond and 1 l.p.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
53. IUPAC name for :
(1) 4-Amino cyclopent-2-enamide

(2) 3-Amino cyclopent-4-enamide
(3) 4-Amino cyclopent-2-enecarboxamide
(4) 3-Amino cyclopent-4-enecarboxamide
54. How many alkenes (only structural isomers) are possible with the molecular formula C4H8
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 8
(4) 6
55. Which of the following has strong +I effect ?

(1) OΘ
(2) –Et
(3) –CH3
(4) –NH–CH3
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56. Most stable carbocation is :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
57. Which of the following is most stable carbocation ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
58. C-C (single) bond length in ethane is 154 pm while C=C (double) bond length in ethene is
134 pm, The C-C bond length in benzene is found to be:
(1) 164 pm
(2) 130 pm
(3) 139 pm
(4) 120 pm
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59. The alkane which on mono chlorination gives maximum number of isomers is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
60. Major product :

Major product is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
61. Which of following is not correctly match

(1) Column chromatography – Al2O3 is stationary phase
(2) Paper chromatography – Stationary phase is water
(3) Thin layer chromatography – Example of partition chromatography
(4) Chromatography can be use to check purity of compounds
62. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) CO is produced by incomplete combustion of coal
(2) Acid rain always has the pH lesser than 4.6
(3) CO2 is confined to troposphere only
(4) Ozone is thermodynamically unstable
63. In the redox reaction

MnO + PbO2 + HNO3 → MnO4– + Pb(NO3)2 + H2O :-
(1) MnO acts as reductant
(2) MnO acts as oxidant
(3) MnO acts as both oxidant as well as reductant
(4) MnO acts as Lewis acid
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64. For the gaseous reaction A → 2B + C if heat at constant pressure is 28 kcal mol–1. Then heat
at constant volume at 27°C will be -
(1) 28 kcal mol–1
(2) 25.4 kcal mol–1
(3) 29.2 kcal mol–1
(4) 26.8 kcal mol–1
65. Change in entropy for an isothermal reaction is given by

V
(1) 2.303 nR log10 V2
1
V2
(2) nR log e
V1
P1
(3) nR log e P
2
(4) All of these
66. For I2(g)  2I(g), KC at 1000 K is 10–6. One mole I2 is added in a one-litre container. Which
of the following expressions is correct for the above system at equilibrium ?
(1) [I2] + [I] = 1 + x
1
(2) [I2] = [I]
2
(3) [I2(g)] >>[I(g)]
(4) Both (1) and (3)
67. The solubility of sparingly soluble salt AB2 is 2 × 10–5 M then its solubility product is :-
(1) 2 × 10–5
(2) 4 × 10–10
(3) 8 × 10–15
(4) 3.2 × 10–14
68. Which statement is true for reversible expansion of ideal gas ?

(1) It takes place in single step.
(2) It is a sudden process.
(3) Driving force is approximately equal to opposing force.
(4) External pressure is constant.
69. KC for the esterification reaction :

CH3COOH + C2H5OH  CH3COOC2H5 + H2O is 4. If 4 mol each of acid and alcohol are taken
initially, what is the equilibrium concentration of the acid :-
2
(1)
3
4
(2)
3
3
(3)
4
3
(4)
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70. Which of the following statement is incorrect about internal energy ?
(1) The absolute value of internal energy can not be determined.
(2) The internal energy of one mole of a gas remain same at all temperature.
(3) The mesurement of heat of reaction in bomb calorimeter is equal to internal energy
change.
(4) Internal energy is state function.
71. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is ?
h
(1)
π
1 h
(2)
2m π
h
(3)
2π
1 h
(4)
m π
72. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in it. Its empirical formula is-
(1) SO2
(2) SO3
(3) SO
(4) S2O
73. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P., the moles of
HCl(g) formed is equal to :-
(1) 1 mol of HCl (g)
(2) 2 mol of HCl (g)
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl (g)
(4) 1.5 mol of HCl (g)
74. The hydroxide ion concentration of a wine is 8 × 10–11 M. What is the pH of the wine ?
(1) 2.10
(2) 2.9
(3) 3.9
(4) 4.9
75. When Zeolite is treated with hard water the sodium ion are exchanged with :-
(1) H+
(2) Ca+2
(3) Mg+2
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76. Metal that liberates hydrogen with cold water is
(1) Na
(2) Ni
(3) Pb
(4) Fe
77. Oxidation state of sodium in sodium amalgam is :-

(1) +1
(2) –1
(3) Zero
(4) +2
78. Which of the following silicate is formed when three oxygen atoms of [SiO4]4– tetrahydral
units are shared?
(1) Sheet silicate
(2) Pyrosilicate
(3) Three dimensional silicate
(4) Linear chain silicate
79. Correct statement for C–60 fullerene :-

(1) having sp3 hybridisation
(2) number of pentagonal ring is greater than hexagonal ring
(3) number of hexagonal ring is greater than pentagonal ring
(4) impurest form of carbon
80. The increasing order of density of alkali metals :-

(1) Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs
(2) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
(3) Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li
(4) Li < Na < Rb < K < Cs
81. Assertion (A) : Second E.A. for halogen is almost zero.

Reason (R) : Flourine has maximum value of E.A.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
82. In which series are the species listed in order of increasing size : -
(1) F– < S2– < Al3+ < Mg2+
(2) F– < S2– < Mg2+ < Al3+
(3) Mg2+ < F– < Al3+ < S2–
(4) Al+3 < Mg+2 < F– < S2–
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83. Which of the set of species have same hybridisation state but different shapes:-
(1) NO2+ ,NO2 ,NO2−
(2) ClO4− ,SF4 ,XeF4
(3) NH4+ ,H3O+ ,OF2
(4) SO4−2 ,PO4−3 ,ClO4−
84. Select the correct order of polarising power of cation?

(1) Na+ < Mg+2 < Si+4 < Al+3
(2) Mg+2 < Si+4 < Al+3 < Na+
(3) Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3 < Si+4
(4) Al+3 < Si+4 < Mg+2 < Na+
85. Which of following is an example of super octet molecule?

(1) ClF3
(2) PCl5
(3) IF7
(4) All of three
Section-B
86. Identify relation that is incorrect
(1) and
Functional isomers
(2) and
Ring chain isomers
(3) and
Metamers
(4) and
Position isomers
87. Which can show geometrical isomerism :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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88. Which of the following have Z-configuration ?
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All
89. Which of the following pairs of compounds are not isomers ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
90. Which of the following does not contain the plane of symmetry :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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91. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The
molecular weight of X is
(1) 64
(2) 32
(3) 4
(4) 8
92. Which of the following resultant solution has pH=1 :-

N M
(1) 100ml HCl + 100 ml NaOH
100 100
M M
10 10
M M
10 10
M M
5 5
93. A certain acidic buffer solution contains equal concentration of X– and HX. The Kb for X– is
10–10. The pH of the buffer is :-
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 10
(4) 14
94. Which of the following electron transitions in a hydrogen atom will require the largest
amount of energy :-
(1) from n = 1 to n = 2
(2) from n = 2 to n = 4
(3) from n = 5 to n = 1
(4) from n = 3 to n = 5
95. In a 0.25 L tube dissociation of 4 mol of NO is take place. If its degree of dissociation is 10%.
The value of KP for reaction 2 NO  N2 + O2 is :-
1
(1)
(18)2
1
(2)
(8)2
1
(3)
16
1
(4)
32
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96. The shapes of XeF4, XeF , and SnCl2 are respectively :
5
−1
(1) Octahedral, trigonal bipyramidal and bent

(2) Square pyramidal, pentagonal planar and linear
(3) Square planar, pentagonal planar and angular
(4) See-saw, T-shaped and linear
97. The ratio of number of 3C–2e– bond and 2C-2e– bond in B2H6 is :-
(1) 4 : 2
(2) 2 : 4
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 4 : 1
98. Assertion (A) : I3− & N3− are linear as well as planar molecule.
Reason (R) : Both having same type of hybridisation of central atom.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
99. A sudden jump between the values of second and third ionization energies of an element
would be associated with the electronic configuration:-
(1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1
(2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2
(4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
100. 4d35s2 configuration belongs to which group ?

(1) IIA
(2) IIB
(3) VB
(4) IIIB
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Part-III (Biology)
Section-A
101. Read the following statement :-

(i) Increase in mass
(ii) Maturation
(iii) Increase in number of individual
(iv) Consciousness
Which two statements are known as the twin characteristics of growth ?
(1) i and ii
(2) i and iv
(3) ii and iii
(4) i and iii
102. Which of the following characters are synonymous in unicellular organisms but mutually
exclusive events in majority of higher plants and animals ?
(1) Growth and Metabolism
(2) Reproduction and Metabolism
(3) Growth and Reproduction
(4) Metabolism and cellular organisation
103. Which of the following can differentiate slime mould with diatoms and dinoflagellates ?
(1) Cell wall in vegetative stage
(2) Presence of mitochondria
(3) Presence of well-defined nucleus
(4) Both (1) and (2)
104. Sexual reproduction is absent in :-

(1) Puccinia
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Neurospora
(4) Agaricus
105. The cyanobacteria are :-

(1) Not associated with water bloom
(2) Considered as first oxygenic phototrophs
(3) Responsible for red tide of sea
(4) Show symbiotic association with humans in their intestine
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106. How may plants in the list given below are dioecious but phanerogames ?
Chara, Pinus, Cycas, Sphagnum, Marchantia, Papaya, date palm
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five
107. Pigments in Phaeophycae :-

(1) Chlorophyll a
(2) Chlorophyll c
(3) Fucoxanthin
(4) All the above
108. In moss, meiosis occurs in :-

(1) Antheridia
(2) Archegonia
(3) Capsule
(4) Protonema
109. Neel dye is obtained from a plant of family fabaceae, its botanical name is :-
(1) Abrus precatorius
(2) Lupinus albus
(3) Indigofera tinctoria
(4) Glycirrhiza glabra
110. Which type of phyllotaxy is found in Alstonia?

(1) Alternate
(2) Opposite
(3) Whorled
(4) Marginal
111. 'G' condition of Gynoecium represents :-

(1) Superior ovary
(2) Inferior ovary
(3) Half inferior
(4) Epigynous flower
112. Vascular bundles in which phloem is found on both sides of xylem are called :-
(1) Collateral
(2) Bicollateral
(3) Radial
(4) Amphicribral
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113. Root hair is developed from :-
(1) Protoderm
(2) Ground meristem
(3) Procambium
(4) Tunica
114. What is function of aerenchyma ?

(1) Material transport
(2) Conduction of water and minerals
(3) Providing buoyancy
(4) Providing support
115. The accurate equation for presenting water potential is :-

(1) ΨW = ΨS + ΨP
(2) Ψs = ΨW + ΨP
(3) ΨW = ΨS - ΨP
(4) ΨW = -ΨS - ΨP
116. Osmotic potential (O.P.) of pure water is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 10
(4) 100
117. Frankia produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of :-

(1) Alnus which is non leguminous plant
(2) Alnus which is a leguminous plant
(3) Lentils which is a leguminous plant
(4) Lentils which is a non-leguminous plant
118. Kranz type of anatomy is found in :-

(1) C2 plants
(2) C3 plants
(3) C4 pants
(4) CAM plants
119. The current level of CO2 is limiting to :-

(1) C2 plants
(2) C3 plants
(3) Both C3 and C4 plants
(4) Neither C3 nor C4 plants TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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120. First stable compound in C3 cycle is PGA(3C). What is the first acceptor of CO2 during this
process ?
(1) A 5C compound
(2) A 2C compound
(3) A 4C compound
(4) A 3C compound
121. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-
(1) b-malic acid, d-OAA, c-α ketoglutaric acid, c-succinic acid, a-citric acid
(2) a-malic acid, c-OAA, b-α ketoglutaric acid, d-succinic acid, e-cirtic acid
(3) c-malic acid, e-OAA, d-α ketoglutaric acid, a-succinic acid, b-citric acid
(4) e-malic, acid, a-OAA, c-α ketoglutaric acid, b-succinic acid, d-citric acid
122. Sequence of cytochromes is :-

(1) Cyt. a, b, c1 , a3
(2) Cyt. b, c1 , a, a3
(3) Cyt. b, a, a3 , c1
(4) Cyt. b, c1 , a3 , a
123. Which is not a character of arithmetic growth?

(1) Constant growth rate
(2) Linear growth curve
(3) Presence of stationary phase
(4) Commonly seen in root meristems
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124. Select the incorrect statement for the Ethephon.
(1) It hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples
(2) It is a source of ethylene
(3) It promotes male flowers in cucumber thereby increases yield
(4) It accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits
125. How many of the following functions/effects are related to the cytokinins ?
Bolting, lateral shoot growth, nutrient mobilisation, apical dominance, internode
elongation, delay of leaf senescence, breaking seed dormancy.
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
126.
Column-I Column-II
(I) IAA (A) Terpenes
(II) GA (B) Indole Compounds
(III) ABA (C) Adenine derivatives
(IV) C2H4 (D) Gases
(V) Kinetin (E) Carotenoid derivatives
(1) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-D, V-C
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D, V-E
(3) I-E, II-D, III-A, IV-B, V-C
(4) None of these
127. Match the Column I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
a. Yellow 1. Chlorophyll a
b. Yellow green 2. Chlorophyll b
c. Yellow to yellow orange 3. Carotenoids
d. Bright or blue green 4. Xanthophylls
(1) 1-a, 3-b, 1-c, 2-d
(2) 3-a,4-b, 1-c, 2-d
(3) 4-a, 2-b, 3-c, 1-d
(4) 2-a, 1-b, 4-c, 3-d
128. Assertion :- C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3–plants.
Reason :-No photorespiration found in C4-plants.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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129. Which of the following statement is incorrect according to fluid mosaic model?
(1) Many protein remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer and cannot be
separated easily.
(2) Peripheral proteins are loosely connected to membranes and, therefore, can be easily
removed in aqueous medium.
(3) Lipids show flip-flop movements.
(4) Cell membrane is made up to lipid bilayer coated with protein layers on both surfaces.
130. The protein present in the axoneme of cilia/flagella, having ATPase activity is :-
(1) Nexin
(2) Tubulin
(3) Myofibrils
(4) Dynein
131. Select the incorrect statement with respect to endoplasmic reticulum (ER) :-
(1) Steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER.
(2) The ER often shows ribosomes attached to their inner surface.
(3) RER is frequently observed in the cells actively involved protein synthesis.
(4) The ER is also included in endomembrane system.
132. Choose the appropriate answer regarding acrocentric chromosomes.

(1) The centromeres is situated close to its end, forming one extremely short and one very
long arm
(2) The centromeres is situated close to its end forming two extremely short and one very
long arm.
(3) Chromosomes has a terminal centromere.
(4) Chromosomes has centromere slightly away from the middle
133. Which of the following statements are incorrect about meiosis?

(A) It yields four genetically identical cells.
(B) It involves two successive division without any DNA replication occurring between
them.
(C) Intrameiotic interphase involves replication of DNA and centrioles.
(D) Meiosis-I results in the formation of two daughter cells each with haploid number of
chromosomes and 1C DNA content.
(1) A, B and C
(2) A and B
(3) A, C and D
(4) C and D
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134. The figures below show three stages (A, B, C) of mitotic division. Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it represents ?
Options :-
(1) B – Individual chromosomes can no longer be seen
(2) A – Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(3) C – Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle
(4) B – Chromosomes consist of one chromatid
135. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence ?

A–Terminalisation of chiasmata
B–Crossing over
C–Synapsis
D–Disjunction of chromosomes
E–Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is :-
(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) A → D → C → B → E
(3) C → B → D → E → A
(4) C → B → E → A → D
136. Match the following & choose the correct option :-

a Human cell divides in i 90 minutes
b Yeast cell divides in ii 1 hour
c More than 95% of cell cycle iii 24 hours
d Cell division in human last for iv Interphase
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
137. Assertion (A) : Amino acids are called α-amino acids .

Reason (R): Amino acids are organic compound containing amino group and an basic
group as substituents on the α-carbon.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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138. I. Right end of polysaccharide is called non-reducing end while left end is called reducing
end.
II. Starch can hold I2 molecules in its helical secondary structure but cellulose being
nonhelical, cannot hold I2
III. Starch and glycogen are branched molecule
IV. Starch in plant and glycogen in animal are store houses of energy
(1) I and IV are correct
(2) II, III and IV are correct
(3) Only IV is correct
(4) All are correct
139. Match the columns :
(A) (B)
(i) Glutamate (a) Aromatic amino acid
(ii) Valine (b) Basic amino acid
(iii) Lysine (c) Acidic amino acid
(iv) Phenylalanine (d) Neutral amino acid
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) a c d b
(2) b d a c
(3) c b d a
(4) c d b a
140. In some place a protein molecule may twist or fold back on itself this is called ____ and the
coil of folds are held in place by____.
(1) Primary structure, covalent bond
(2) Tertiary structure, hydrogen bond
(3) Secondary structure, peptide bond
(4) Secondary structure, hydrogen bond
141. Statement-A : In hemichordates, body is cylindrical and composed of anterior proboscis,

a collar and a short trunk.
Statement-B : In hemichordata, fertilization is internal and development is indirect.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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142. In following diagram this structure belongs to phylum :-
(1) Ctenophora
(2) Porifera
(3) Coelenterata
(4) Platyhelminthes
143. Match the column I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given
:-
Column I Column II Column III
(Figure) (Type of coelom) (Example)
a. 1. Pseudocoelomate Q. Fasciola
b. 2. Acoelomate R. Asterias
c. 3. Coelomate S. Roundworm
(1) a–3–R, b–1–S, c–2–Q

(2) a–2–R, b–3–S, c–1–Q
(3) a–3–S, b–1–Q, c–2–R
(4) a–1–R, b–2–S, c–3–Q
144. Correct features for describing phylum Annelida, Mollusca and Hemichordata are :-
Bilateral symmetry, Pseudocoelomate, Radial symmetry, Absent circulatory system,
Organ system level of organisation.
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
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145. Which of the following epithelium lines proximal convoluted tubule?
(1) Ciliated cuboidal
(2) Cuboidal brush border epithelium
(3) Columnar brush border epithelium
(4) Flat cells
146. How many of the following structure are an example of dense connective tissue
Smooth muscle, Femur, Patella, Tendon, Ligament, Eustachian tube :-
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
147. Assertion : Tendon and Ligaments are the examples of dense connective tissue.
Reason : In tendon and ligament amount of matrix is more than the amount of fibres.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) incorrect.
148. Identify the wrong statements about human excretory system and choose the correct
option accordingly.
I. Kidneys are reddish brown and bean-shaped structure.
II. Kidneys are situated between the last thoracic
III. Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm
thickness, and average weight 120-170 gram.
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and I
(4) None of these
149. Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six animals
according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C), they give out
A B C
AMMONOTELIC UREOTELIC URICOTELIC
(1) Aquatic Amphibia Frog, Humans Pigeon, Lizards, Cockroach
(2) Aquatic Amphibia Cockroach, Humans Frog, Pigeon, Lizards
(3) Pigeon, Humans Aquatic Amphibia, Lizards Cockroach, Frog
(4) Frog, Lizards Aquatic Amphibia, Humans Cockroach, Pigeon
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4 TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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150. Read the following statements ?
I. Glomerular filtrate is isotonic to plasma.
II. When the urine passes into collecting tubule, it becomes hypotonic.
III. Filtrate is isotonic in proximal convoluted tubule.
IV. Filtrate becomes more and more hypotonic as it passes through descending limb of
Henle's loop.
Correct statements are :-
(1) I and III
(2) I, II and III
(3) II and III
(4) Only II
151. Given below is the diagram of fore limb in which alphabets A-D shows the joints between
bones. Choose the correct option in which two joints and their respective articular bones
are correctly matched.
(1) (A) Indicates : Shoulder Joint →Between head of humerus and glenoid cavity
(B) Indicates : Elbow joint →Between humerus and ulna
(2) (A) Indicates : Elbow joint → Between humerus and ulna.
(C) Indicates : Pivot joint → Between radius & ulna.
(3) (A) Indicates : Shoulder joint→ Between head of humerus & acetabulum cavity
Indicates : Wrist joint → Between carpals.
(4) (A) Indicates : Shoulder joint →Between head of humerus & glenoid cavity
(D) Indicates : Wrist Joint → Between carpals and femur.
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152. Go through the following diagram describing muscle contraction
E A
D B
Now identify A to E.
(1) A-Cross bridge, B-Cross bridge formation, C-Breaking of cross bridge, D-Sliding
(rotation), E-ATP
(2) A-Cross bridge, B-Cross bridge formation, C-Sliding/rotation, D-Breaking of cross
bridge, E-ATP
(3) A-Cross bridge, B-Breaking of Cross bridge, C-sliding/rotation, D-Cross bridge
formation, E-AMP
(4) A-Cross bridge, B-Cross bridge formation, C-Sliding/rotation, D-ADP, E-Breaking of
crossbridge
153. Choose the correct sequence of muscle contraction:

(a) Ca++ ion bind with troponin
(b) ATP hydrolysis on myosin head
(c) Unmasking of myosin binding site at actin molecule
(d) Formation of cross bridge
(1) a, b, d, c
(2) a, c, b, d
(3) a, c, d, b
(4) a, b, c, d
154. Which of the following types of teeth differ in number in deciduous teeth and adult teeth ?
(a) Incisors (b) Canine (c) Molars (d) Premolars
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (c) only
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (d) only
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155. Identify enzymes A, B, C and D in digestion of carbohydrates :-
(1) A-Amylase, B-Invertase, C-Maltase, D-Lactase

(2) A-Amylase, B-Lactase, C-Maltase, D- Invertase
(3) A-Amylase, B-Maltase, C-Lactase, D- Invertase
(4) A-Amylase, B-Maltase, C-Invertase, D-Lactase
156. Statement A : In human, milk teeth replace permanent teeth.

Statement B : Tongue is a freely movable muscular organ.
(1) Only statement B is correct.
(2) Only statement A is correct.
(3) Both statement A and B are correct.
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect.
157. How many of the following statement are not true?

(I) The partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg
(II) the partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is 104 mm Hg
(III) the partial pressure of O2 in the alveolar air is 40 mm Hg
(IV) The partial pressure of CO2 in deoxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg.
(1) II and I
(2) I, II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) All are correct.
158. Haemoglobin of human foetus :-

(1) Has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
(2) Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult
(3) Has a lower affinity for oxygen, than that of the adult
(4) Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult
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159. Given below is a diagram of section of an alveolus with a pulmonary capillary. Find out
the correct diagram:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
160. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

reason (R)
A : Mature human RBCs are non-nucleated.
R : Absence of nucleus in RBCs helps to accommodate maximum amount of heamoglobin.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4).
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161. In which of the above phase (a,b,c,d) of cardiac cycle blood moves rapidly and passively
from atria to ventricles?
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d
162. Which wave represents depolarisation of ventricles :-
(1) P-wave
(2) Q-wave
(3) QRS-wave
(4) T-wave
163. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting
from its deficiency?
(1) Luteinizing hormone–Failure of ovulation
(2) Insulin–Diabetes insipidus
(3) Thyroxine–Tetany
(4) Parathyroid hormone –Diabetes mellitus
164. Mark the correct matching regarding the hormone chemical nature and function :-
Hormone Chemical Function
nature
(1) Gonadotrophins Steroid Development of follicle and produce
anti-inflammatory reactions
(2) Parathormone protein Inhibit bone resorption to decrease
blood Ca
(3) Somatostatin Peptide Stimulate secretion of GH from
adenohypophysis
(4) Cortisol Steroid Stimulate gluconeogenesis lipolysis and
proteolysis
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165. Identify A, B, C and D in the given flow chart and select the correct option.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Neurohypophysis Adenohypophysis Pars distalis Pars intermedia
(2) Adeno hypophysis Neuro Pars intermedia Pars distalis
hypophysis
(3) Adeno hypophysis Neuro Pars distalis Pars intermedia
hypophysis
(4) Neuro hypophysis Adeno Pars intermedia Pars distalis
hypophysis
166. Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse are given below
A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the entry of ions, a new action potential is
generated in the post-synaptic neuron.
B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post synaptic membrane
C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic membrane, neurotransmitter releases into
synaptic cleft.
D. Depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane
E. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal.
In which sequence to the events occur?
(1) E→D→C→B→A
(2) A→B→C→D→E
(3) A→B→D→C→E
(4) E→D→C→A→B
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167. Choose the incorrect statement for figure :
(1) It is a process of response to peripheral neurons stimulation occuring involuntary

(2) It cannot occurs without involvement of CNS
(3) It involves the inter neuron in it
(4) Efferent neuron carries signal from CNS to effector
168. Which structure form Brain stem
(1) A, B, C
(2) G, D, F
(3) D, H
(4) E, F, H
169. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of impulse conduction in an axon. Identify
the following correct option :
(1) C-Repolarisation, opened Na+ VGC, more Na+ influx

(2) A-polarisation, opened Na+ VGC, more Na+ outflux
(3) B-Depolarisation, opened Na+ VGC, Generation of action potential
(4) C-Hyper polarisation, opened K+ VGC, More K+ influx
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170. Assertion :-Voltage gated channel is significant characteristic of Neuron.
Reason :-Voltage gated channel receives stimulus/information from external environment
& create excitement in neuron (excitable cell)
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
Section-B
171. Reproduction is a characteristic of living organisms, but it can not be regarded as defining
property because :-
(1) Asexual reproduction involves only single parent
(2) Lower organisms do not reproduce under stressful environment
(3) All living beings do not have the capacity to reproduce
(4) For lower plants growth and reproduction are mutually inseparable phenomenon
172. How many organism in the list given below are photoautotrophic prokaryotes ?
Oscillatoria, Chlorobium, Clostridium, Nitrobacter, Lactobacillus, Rhizobium, Nostoc,
Chromatium,Euglena, Chara, Cycas, Azolla, Anabaena
(1) Ten
(2) Six
(3) Five
(4) Eight
173. Select the incorrect match :-

(1) Plant virus - TMV
(2) Viroids - PSTD
(3) Prions - Kuru disease
(4) Bacteriophage - Herpes
174. Match the following column :-

Column-I Column-II
(a) Pteropsida (i) Psilotum
(b) Sphenopsida (ii) Selaginella
(c) Lycopsida (iii) Equisetum
(d) Psilopsida (iv) Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) TG: @Chalnaayaaar

TG: @Chalnaayaaar

175. In Pinus ovule the number of integument is :-
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
176. In pinnately compound leaf :-

(1) All leaflets are attached on leaf apex
(2) All leaflets are attached on upper end of petiole
(3) All leaflets are attached on both sides of rachis
(4) All of the above
177. Which of the following are not characters of sap wood?

(i) Light in Colour (ii) Present in Central region
(iii) Conduction of water and minerals (iv) Also called Duramen
(v) Does not imbibe water
Options :-
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v)
(4) (ii), (iv), (v)
178. Look at the walls of the guard cells and the orientation of cellulosic microfibrils in them
and select the correct statements :-
Statement I: The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the pore or stomatal aperture, is
thick and elastic.
Statement II: Cellulose microfibrils are oriented longitudinally rather than radially
making it easier for the stoma to open.
(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is also correct
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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179. Mass flow differs from simple diffusion in :–
(1) Showing the short distance movement of different substances as a result of pressure
differences
(2) Movement of different substances at the same pace
(3) Independent movement of different substances depending on their concentration
gradient
(4) All of these
180. Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduces the dry weight of tissues by about
10 per cent is considered :-
(1) Deficient
(2) Sufficient
(3) Toxic
(4) Efficient
181. Identify the process shown below as well as right place of its occurence in plants and select
the right option for the two together :-
Options :-
Process Site of occurrence
(1) Cyclic ETS Granal thylakoid
(2) Non-cyclic ETS Stromal thylakoid
(3) Z-scheme Granal thylakoid
(4) Z-scheme Stromal thylakoid
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182. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of respiratory pathways. Identify the compounds
labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them :-
Options :-
A B C D
(1) Pyruvic acid Acetyl CoA Fatty acid Glyceraldehyde-
3-phosphate
(2) Glyceraldehyde- Fatty acid Acetyl CoA Pyruvic acid
3-phosphate
(3) Fatty acid Glyceraldehyde- Pyruvic acid Acetyl CoA
3-phosphate
(4) Acetyl CoA Pyruvic acid Glyceraldehyde- Fatty acid
3-phosphate
183. Match the column :-
Column I Column II
A. Substitute of vernalization i. Cytokinin
B. Critical photoperiod ii. ABA
C. Stress hormones iii. Gibberellin
D. Senescence iv. SDP or LDP
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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184. Which one of following is not correct with respect to below diagram :-
(1) Such growth pattern is observed in root apex

(2) Growth rate is constant throughout the time
(3) Lt = L0 + rt
(4) Sigmoid growth curve is obtained
185. Choose the correct option with respect to A, B, C & D given in the diagram:-
A B C D
(1) RuBP Carboxylation OAA Regeneration
(2) Carboxylation RuBP Triose-P Regeneration
(3) RuBP Carboxylation Triose-P Regeneration
(4) PEP Carboxylation Triose-P Regeneration
186. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the similarities between mitochondria
and chloroplast?
(1) Both are semi-autonomous organelles, as both contain DNA, RNA and ribosomes.
(2) Both have circular DNA not associated with histones and have 70S ribosomes.
(3) Mitochondria and chloroplast undergo meiosis and mitosis independent of nucleus.
(4) Both existed as independent micro-organisms which, during evolution developed a
symbiotic relationship with plant and animal cells and evolved into their present
state.
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187. Which stage of meiosis can last for months or years?
(1) Pachytene stage of prophase - I
(2) Diplotene stage of prophase - I
(3) Diakinesis stage of prophase - II
(4) Diplotene stage of prophase - II
188. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Biomolecule Type of bond
(1) Monosaccharides Glycosidic bond
(2) Trypsin Peptide bond
(3) Lecithin Ester bond
(4) Adenosine N-glycosidic Bond
189. Common characteristics found in between aves and mammals are :

(a) Respiration by lungs (b) Heart is four-chambered
(c) Homoiothermy (d) Larva is not found
(e) Dioecious and internal fertilisation (f) Jaws are provided with teeth
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
190. Refer the figures A, B, C and D given below. Which of the following option shows the
correct name of the animals shown by the figures A , B, C and D ?
(1) A-Locusta, B-Butterfly, C-Scorpion, D-Prawn

(2) A-Locusta, B-Prawn, C-Scorpion, D-Butterfly
(3) A-Locusta, B-Scorpion, C-Prawn, D-Butterfly
(4) A-Butterfly, B-Scorpion, C-Prawn, D-Locusta
191. Assertion (A) :

The cells of connective tissue secretes fibres.
Reason (R) :
Blood also secretes fibres.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false is false.
(4) If assertion and reason are false statements.
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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192. Tendon which attach skeletal muscle to bones and ligaments which attach one bone to
another are example of which tissue :-
(1) Loose connective tissue
(2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(4) None of these
193. Identify a, b, c and d in the given figure :-

b
a
c
(1) a-Cortex, b-Renal column, c-Renal Pelvis, d-Medullary pyramid

(2) a-Renal column, b-Medullary pyramid, c-Calyx, d-Renal Pelvis
(3) a-Cortex, b-Medullary pyramid, c-Calyx, d-Ureter
(4) a-Renal column, b-Medullary pyramid, c-Renal Pelvis, d-Calyx
194. Identify the A, B, C and D in the given diagram and choose the correct option :
A. B.
C. D.
(1) A-Hypopharynx, B-Mandible, C-Labrum, D-Maxilla
(2) A-Labrum, B-Maxilla, C-Mandible, D-Hypopharynx
(3) A-Hypopharynx, B-Labrum, C-Maxilla, D-Mandible
(4) A-Mandible, B-Hypopharynx, C-Labrum, D-Maxilla
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195. Isotropic band contains :-
A. Actin rods B. Myosin rods C. Cross arm D. ATP- Binding sites
E. Troponin protein F. HMM.
(1) A, D
(2) E, F
(3) A, E
(4) B, C
196. Which statement is correct :

(1) Pancreas situated between the limbs of the 'C' shaped jejunum.
(2) Mucosal brunner's gland help in provide alkaline medium.
(3) Damage in oxyntic cell lead anaemia.
(4) All of these
197. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the
correct only :-
(a) O2 is utilised by the organisms to directly breakdown nutrient molecules like glucose
and to derive energy.
(b) Mammals have ill developed respiratory system.
(c) The branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli comprises the lungs.
(d) The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using a
spirometer.
(1) statements a, c and d
(2) statements c and d
(3) statements a, b and c
(4) statements b and c
198. Cardiac output is :-

(1) Stroke volume x heart beat
(2) Stroke volume - heart beat
(3) Stroke volume + heart beat
(4) Stroke volume ÷ heart beat
199. Consider the following disease related with human body -

(i) Acromegaly disease (ii) Addison disease
(iii) Diabetes insipidus (iv) Grave disease
(v) Diabetes melitus (vi) Gigantism
How many of the above disease are caused by hyposecretion of hormone :-
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four TG: @Chalnaayaaar

TG: @Chalnaayaaar

200. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-
(1) a–axon, b–synaptic cleft, c–pre synaptic membrane, d–synaptic vesicle, e–receptor, f–
postsynaptic membrane
(2) a–axon terminal, b–synaptic vesicles, c–pre synaptic membrane, d–synaptic cleft, e–
postsynaptic membrane, f–neurotransmitters
(3) a–synaptic vesicles, b–axon terminal, c–post synaptic membrane, d neurotransmitter,
e–presynaptic membrane, f–receptor
(4) a–axon terminal, b–synaptic vesicles, c–pre synaptic membrane, d–synaptic cleft, e
postsynaptic membrane, f–receptors
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

TG: @Chalnaayaaar
(Academic Session: 2022 - 2023)
ONLINE TEST SERIES CONTACT PROGRAMME

Batch: OLTS-NT-13-23-CL
OLTS-NT-MA-23-NO
Date: 29-01-2023 Paper Type: Major Test - 1
Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Solution 3 3 3 3 2 2 1 2 3 1 3 1 3 4 3
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Solution 3 4 2 1 1 1 2 2 4 2 1 3 1 3 1
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Solution 2 1 2 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 1 4
Question 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Solution 2 3 4 3 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 1
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Solution 3 2 1 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 4
Question 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Solution 1 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 3 4 3 2 4 4 3
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Solution 1 1 1 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 1 2 2
Question 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Solution 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 3 1 1 1 3 2 1
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
Solution 3 2 3 3 4 1 3 1 4 4 2 1 3 2 4
Question 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Solution 2 2 2 4 4 2 3 1 2 2 1 3 4 1 1
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
Solution 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 3
Question 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Solution 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 4 2 1 3 4 2 2 3
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195
Solution 3 2 3 4 3 3 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 3
Question 196 197 198 199 200
Solution 3 2 1 3 4
Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation
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Hints & Solutions
Part-I (Physics)
1. Ans. (3)
Closed container ⇒ V = constant
∆P ∆T P
= ⇒ T = × ∆T
P T ∆P
100
T= ×1K = 250 K
0.4
2. Ans. (3)
v ∝ T / MW
3. Ans. (3)
F − 32 C − 0
 =
180 100
2x − 32 x − 0
⇒ =
180 100
⇒ x = 160°C
4. Ans. (3)
A → B ⇒ P = constant & T↓ So V↓ ⇒ IBC

B → C ⇒ T = constant & P↓ So V ⇒ ITE
C → A ⇒ V = constant & P So T ⇒ IC
5. Ans. (2)

T = 2π → T2 ∝ parabola
g
6. Ans. (2)
γ RT
v=
M0
v H2 γ H2 (M0 )He (7 /5) 4 42
= = = ·
v He γ He (M0 )H2 (5/3) 2 5
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7. Ans. (1)
Wave (1) & (3) having same frequency and (2) is less frequency.
8. Ans. (2)
 d g  d 3
g′= g 1 −  ⇒ = g 1 − ⇒ d= R
 R 4  R 4
9. Ans. (3)
GmM
F=
R2
GM(3m) 3GmM
=F' = = 3F
R2 R2
10. Ans. (1)

A A A A
= constant ⇒ 1 = 2 = 3
T 2 3 6
11. Ans. (3)

Thermal capacity is independent of temperature.
12. Ans. (1)

v
n× = 4000
4
4000 × 4 × 17 × 10−2
=n = 8
340
So n = 1, 3, 5 and 7 are possible for closed organ pipe.
13. Ans. (3)

V 3 × 106
∆λ= λ= (4000Å)= 40Å
C 3 × 108
14. Ans. (4)
Stress-strain graph of ductile material is shown in figure. Point A shows limit of

proportionality. Hook’s law is valid upto this limit. Point B shows yield point.TG:
Material is
@Chalnaayaaar

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elastic upto this point. If the material is strained upto this point, then on releasing it will
regain its original shape and size. But the material is deformed beyond this limit, say upto
point P; then or releasing, it will follow dotted line PQ. It means, a deformation OQ will
remain permanently. Hence, final length of the wire will contract but final length will be
greater than original length. Therefore, only option (4) is correct.
15. Ans. (3)

In horizontal direction pressure remains constant unless it is accelerated.
16. Ans. (3)
1 a 1
Here, a = 1, r = , So, S∞ = S∞ = = = 2
2 1−r 1− 1
2
17. Ans. (4)

   
( ) (
A +B × A −B )
       
= A × A − A × B + B× A − B× B
 
= 2B × A
18. Ans. (2)
R= A2 + B2 + 2AB.cos θ
= F2 + F2 + 2.F.F.cos20°
R =F
19. Ans. (1)
1MSD = 1 mm MSD = 10 VSD
9
L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD 1 VSD = MSD
10
 9 
=  1 −  × 1mm
 10 
1
= = mm 0.1mm
10
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20. Ans. (1)
∆r
Percentage error= = 3 × 100
r
0.2 200
=×
3 × 100 = = 11%
5.4 18
21. Ans. (1)

vA = vB = tan θ
same slope.
22. Ans. (2)

2 min 20 sec = 120 + 20 = 140 sec
140 20  1 
=+
3 =3 +  trip
40 40  2
So displacement = 2R
23.Ans. (2)
V1 → velocity of Preeti
V2 → velocity of escalator
ℓ → distance
  t 1t 2
=t = =
V1 + V2  +  t1 + t2
t1 t2
24. Ans. (4)

For system A and B together there is no upward force to balance the weight (mA + mB)g. So,
system can never be in equilibrium
25. Ans. (2)

u = 0, a = F/m, Apply v2 = u2 + 2as
2F 2Fs
⇒ v2 = 02 + s ⇒ v2 =
m m
1 1
⇒ v2 ∝ ⇒ v ∝
m m
26. Ans. (1)

I = Area of F-t graph
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27. Ans. (3)
Fx 20cos60°
=a= = 5ms−2
m 2
1 1 5
= at 2 =
S= (5)(1)2 m
2 2 2
51
=W Fs cosθ = 20   = 25J
22
28. Ans. (1)

w = Area under the curve
1
= × 10[6 + 8] =70J
2
29. Ans. (3)

1
mu2 = mgh
2
3h  3h 
at height P.E. = mg  
4  4 
h
K.E. = mg  
4
KE : pot. energy
1:3
30. Ans. (1)

∆θ 2π π
ω= = =
∆t 60 30
31. Ans. (2)
e = 1 ⇒ 10 + 5 = v – 5 or v = 20 m/s
32. Ans. (1)
Total momentum = 0
∴m × 30 × 2 = 3m × v
v = 10 2 m / s
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33. Ans. (2)
Energy conservation
K1 + U1 = K2 + U2
1 2 
O + mg =Iω + mg
2 2
l 11 2 2
=
mg m  ω
2 2  3 
34. Ans. (1)

J = Iω∴ J ∝ ω
⇒ straight line
35. Ans. (1)

 
Σ
F= 0,
Στ = 0
36. Ans. (2)

Let difference of length is "ΔL"
So ∆= ′Cu − ′Au
∆ ′Cu ·(1 + αCu ·∆T ) – ′Au ·(1 + α Au ·∆T )
=
{
∆ 0.5 (17 − 14 ) × 10−6 × ( 90 − 30)
= }
∆ = 9 × 10−5 m.= 9 × 10–2 mm.
∆ =0.09 mm
37. Ans. (4)

2 1 1
= +
K eq K1 K2
K1 A ∆θ K A ∆θ
Q1 =and Q2 = 2
L L
A ∆θ 1 A ∆θ
=Q K=
eq .
2L 1 2L
K eq
1 A ∆θ
Q= .
1 1 1  2L
 + 
2  K1 K 2 
1
Q= ;
A ∆θ A ∆θ
+
Q1L Q2L
A ∆θ 1 Q Q
= = 1 2
L 1 1 Q1 + Q 2
+
Q1 Q 2 TG: @Chalnaayaaar

TG: @Chalnaayaaar
38. Ans. (2)
For equation no – 3
X3 = 10 sin (ωt + 270°)
From the Phasor diagram, By using principle of superposition resultant amplitude is given
by
R= 82 + 62 = 10
39. Ans. (1)

 π
=x A cos  ωt + 
 4
 π
v =− Aω sin  ωt + 
 4
π π
For maximum speed ωt + =
4 2
π 2π π
ωt = ⇒ ×t =
4 T 4
T
t=
8
40. Ans. (3)
k1k 2 k × 2k 2k
Equivalent force constant of three springs,=
k eq = =
k1 + k 2 k + 2k 3
m m
T=
2π =
2π
k eq. 2k /3
3m
⇒T =
2π
2k
41. Ans. (2)

v v
= np = , nq
4L 2L
2v 3v
=nr = , ns
2L 4L
∴ np : nq : nr : ns = 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
42. Ans. (3)
2(ρ − σ)r2g
Since terminal velocity v =
η
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v1 r12
So =
v2 r22
v1 (0.01)2 1
⇒= =
v2 (0.02)2 4
⇒ v1 : v 2 =
1: 4
43. Ans. (1)

last digit is not acccurately knoun to us.
More than number of significant figures more will be its accuracy.
44. Ans. (1)
AC = 40 m
CB = 30 m
OC = OA – AC = 40 m
=
OB OC2 + CB2 = 50 m
∠COB = 37°

OB = 50 m , 53° east of south
45. Ans. (4)

1
k i = mv2i
2
1
k f = mv2f
2
1 25 1
mv2f
= mv2i
2 100 2
1
v2f = (200)2
4
v f = 100 m / s
46. Ans. (2)

From COME
Uspring = Ublock TG: @Chalnaayaaar

TG: @Chalnaayaaar

1 2
Kx = mghmax
2
1 2
× 200 × ( 0.4 ) =2 × 10 × hmax
2
∴ hmax =
0.8 m
47. Ans. (3)

v = 2t
dv
a=t = 2
dt
v2
a=
c = 2t 2
R
a
α = t= 1
R
1
θ = αt 2
2
a 
tan −1  c 
 at 
48.
Ans. (4)
=
(1)(5) + (1)( −3)
v cm = 1 m / s
1+1
49. Ans. (3)

m1 = M (Solid sphere)
rx1 = 0 ry 1 = a
Hollow sphere m2 = M
rx2 = 0 ry 2 = 0
Disc. m3 = M
rx3 = a ry 3 = 0
m1rx1 + m2rx2 + m3rx3
rxcm =
m1 + m2 + m3
0 + 0 + aM a
= =
3M 3
m1ry 1 + m2ry 2 + m3ry 3
ry cm =
m1 + m2 + m3
Ma + 0 + 0 a
= =
3M 3
a a
So co-ordinate of centre of mass of system will be  , 
3 3 TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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50. Ans. (1)
vcm – ωR = v
∴ vcm = v + Rω
= 4 + 3 × 1 = 7 m/s
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Part-II (Chemistry)
51. Ans. (1)
So sp2 "C" is zero.
52. Ans. (2)

Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
53. Ans. (3)
⇒ 4-amino cyclopent-2-ene carboxamide
54. Ans. (2)

C4H8
H2C = CH—CH2—CH3, H3C—CH = CH—CH3
3(Alkenes) structure are possible
55. Ans. (1)

(1) OΘ ← +I effect
(2) —Et ← +I effect
(3) —CH3 ← +I effect
(4) —NH–CH3 ← –I effect
Order +I effect :- —OΘ > —CH2—CH3 > —CH3
56. Ans. (2)
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57. Ans. (3)
is most stable carbocation due to presence of more no. of alkyl groups (E.D.G.)
on meta position .
58. Ans. (3)

⇒ C–C bond length in Benzene is 139 pm
59. Ans. (2)
60. Ans. (1)
61. Ans. (3)

Thin layer chromatography – Example of partition chromatography
62. Ans. (2)

Acid rain always has the pH lesser than 4.6
63. Ans. (1)

Oxidation number of manganese has increased and it has reduced Pb+4 to Pb+2. So, it acts
as reductant.
64. Ans. (4)

A → 2B + C T = 27°C = 300 K
Heat at constant pressure = ΔH
ΔH = 28 K cal mol–1
Heat at constant volume =ΔU
ΔH = ΔU + Δng RT R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1
28 K cal = ΔU + 2 × 2 × 300
1200
ΔU = 28 – = 26.8 K cal mol–1
1000
ΔU = 26.8 K cal mol–1
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65. Ans. (4)
2 2
d0 2 Pdv
ΔS = ∫=
ds ∫7 T + ∫1 T
1
Isothermal process
2
Pdv
=∫
T
V   V2 
ΔS = nRh  2  = nR log e  
 V1   V1 
V 
= 2.303 × nR log  2 
 V1 
Constant temperature
V2 P
= 2
V1 P2
P1
ΔS = nR log ×
P1
66. Ans. (4)

I2(g)  2I(g)
1 0
1 –x 2x
x<1 K < 10–3
So reactants dominate
67. Ans. (4)

AB2
Ksp = 4s3
= 4(2 × 10–5)3
= 32 ×10–15
= 3.2× 10–14
68. Ans. (3)

Driving force is approximately equal to opposing force.
69. Ans. (2)

CH3COOH + C2H5OH  CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
4 4
4–x 4–4 x x
(x)(x) 2
K= ⇒ 4= x 2
(4 – x)(4 – x) (4 – x)
x
2=
(4 – x)
8
x=
3
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70. Ans. (2)
Internal energy of a substance depends upon temperature.
71. Ans. (2)

h
According to Heisenberg → (∆P) × (∆x) ≤ ……..(1)
4π
If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal i.e. ∆P = ∆x
h
So from (1) ( ∆P)2 ≤
4π
h
(m∆v)2 ≤
4π
1 h
∆v ≤
2m π
72. Ans. (1)

In oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur and 50% of oxygen
S → 50gm ; O → 50gm
50 50
Moles of 'S' = Moles of 'O' =
32 16
⇒ 1.56 ⇒ 3.125
Moles ratio S : O
1.56 : 3.125
1 : 2
Empirical formula SO2
73. Ans. (1)

Reaction H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl (g)
22.4L 11.2L
L.R.
1 L of Cl2 (g) formed 2L of HCl (g)
So, 11.2 L of Cl2 (g) formed 2 × 11.2 L of HCl (g)
⇒ 22.4 L of HCl (g)
Volume(L)
Mole =
22.4(L)
22.4(L)
Mole = ⇒ 1 mole of HCl (g)
22.4(L)
74. Ans. (3)

[OH–] = 8 × 10–11
pOH = 11 – log8
pH = 14 – pOH
= 14 – (11 – log 8) = 3 + log 8 = 3.9
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75. Ans. (4)
Na2Z + Ca+2 → CaZ + 2Na+
or
Mg+2
76. Ans. (1)

Na is highly reactive
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2
77. Ans. (3)

Sodium amalgam Na(Hg)
Amalgams are mixture not compounds. So there is no chemical combination of mercury
and metal. Therefore the O.S. of metal in amalgam is always zero.
78. Ans. (1)

In sheet silicate three oxygen atoms are shared.
79. Ans. (3)

In C–60 fullerene
No. of hexagonal ring = 20
No. of pentagonal ring = 12
80. Ans. (1)

Density order of alkali metals
Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs
81. Ans. (2)

Second EA for halogen is almost zero due to anion-electron repulsion.
Cl has max. EA.
82. Ans. (4)

Correct order is
Al+3 < Mg+2 < F– < S2–
Zeff ↓ Size ↑
83. Ans. (3)

Species σ p Steric no Hybridisation Shape
NH4⊕ 4 0 4 sp3 Tetrahedral

H3O⊕ 3 1 4 sp3 Pyramid
OF2 2 2 4 sp3 V-Shape
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84. Ans. (3)
Polarising power of cation or ionic
Chargeof cation
Potential ∝
Sizeof cation
∴ order is Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3 < Si+4
85. Ans. (4)

Central atom of
ClF3 has 10e–
PCl5 has 10e–
IF7 has 14e–
86. Ans. (3)
Aldehyde Ketone
Different F.G So,
functional group isomers.
87. Ans. (2)
88. Ans. (4)

(1)
(2)
(3)
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89. Ans. (4)
So both compounds are homomers (Identical).
90. Ans. (3)
POS absent
91. Ans. (1)

1
r∝ M → Molecular mass
M
rmethane = 2rx
rmethan Mx
= 2=
rx Mmethane
Mx M
2= ;4= x
16 16
Mx = 64
92. Ans. (1)

pH = 1 ⇒ pH = –log10 [H+]
1 = –log10[H+]
[H+] = 0.1 M
M M
75 ml HCl + 25 ml NaOH
5 5
nH+ = 75 × 0.2 nOH– = 25 × 0.2
Finally nH+ = 75 × 0.2 – 2.5 × 0.2 = 10 millimole
10
[H+] = = 0.1 M
75 + 25
93. Ans. (1)

[C·Base]
pH = pKa + log
[Acid]
Ka × Kb = Kw
10-14 -4
Ka = -10 = 10 pKa = 4
10
x
pH = 4 + log  
x
pH = 4
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94. Ans. (3)
1 1
E = –13.6 (Z)2  2 − 2 
 n 2 n1 
For hydrogen, z = 1
So e–, transition that will require
Largest amount of energy → from n = 5 to n = 1
 1 1 
E = –13.6 × (1)2  2 − 2 
 (5) (1) 
E = 13.056 (Maximum)
95. Ans. (1)

2 NO  N2 + O2
4 0 0
4 –2x x x
4 –0.4 0.2 0.2
3.6 0.2 0.2
2x
α=
4
x
0.1 =
2
x = 0.2
2
(0.2)(0.2)  1 
K= K= =
(3.6)(3.6)  18 
P C
96. Ans. (3)

XeF4 → 4 σ + 2 . P.
XeF5– → 5 σ + 2 . P.
Pentagonal planar
SnCl2 → 2 σ + 1 . P.
angular
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97. Ans. (2)
3C–2e– bonds present in B2H6 ⇒ 2

2C–2e– bonds present in B2H6 ⇒ 4
So ratio of 3C–2e– and 2C–2e– bonds ⇒ 2 : 4
98. Ans. (2)
99. Ans. (4)

The sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionisation energies of an
element is because after losing two elements it has acquired stable configuration. So in
order to remove third e– much higher energy is needed in 1ss 2s3 2p6 3s2.
100. Ans. (3)

4d35s2 configuration [d-block element]
group = (n – 1)d e– + ns e–
3 + 2 = 5th group/VB group
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Part-III (Biology)
101. (4)
102. (3)
NCERT # XI, Pg. # 4
103. (1)
NCERT # XI, Pg. # 20, 21
104. (2)
105. (2)
106. (1)
107. (4)
108. (3)
109. (3)
110. (3)
NCERT # XI, Pg. # 71
111. (1)
112. (2)
113. (1)
114. (3)
115. (1)
116. (1)
117. (1)
118. (3)
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119. (2)
120. (1)
121. (3)
122. (2)
123. (3)
124. (3)
125. (4)
126. (1)
127. (3)
128. (1)
129. (4)
130. (4)
131. (2)
132. (1)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139
133. (3)
134. (2)
135. (4)
NCERT # XI, Pg. 168, 169
136. (2)
137. (2)
138. (2)
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139. (4)
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140. (4)
141. (2 )
NCERT # XI, Pg. 51,52,54
142. (3)
143. (1)
144. (2)
NCERT # XI, Pg. 60
145. (2)
146. (1)
147. (3)
148. (4)
149. (1)
150. (1)
151. (1)
152. (2)
153. (2)
154. (3)
155. (2)
156. (3)
157. (3)
158. (2)
159. (2)
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160. (1)
161. (3)
162. (3)
163. (1)
164. (4)
NCERT # XI, Pg. 335
165. (3)
Adenohypophysis consists of (Pars distalis &Pars Intermedia) while Neurohypophysis
consists of Pars Nervosa which secretes Oxytocin and ADH
166. (1)
167. (3)
NCERT # XI, Pg. 322
168. (3)
NCERT # XI, Pg. 320
169. (3)
170. (1)
171. (3)
172. (3)
Oscillatoria Chlorobium, Nostoc, Chromatium, Anabaena.
173. (4)
174. (2)
175. (1)
176. (3)
177. (4) TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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178. (2)
179. (2)
180. (3)
181. (3)
182. (2)
183. (3)
184. (4)
185. (3)
186. (3)
187. (2)
188. (1)
189. (3)
190. (1)
191. (3)
192. (2)
NCERT # XI, Pg. 103
193. (2)
194. (1)
195. (3)
196. (3) TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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197. (2)
198. (1)
199. (3)
200. (4)
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar

(Academic Session: 2022 - 2023)

ONLINE TEST SERIES CONTACT PROGRAMME

Date: 29-01-2023 Paper Type: Major Test - 1

Paper : Physics, Chemistry & Biology

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

Target: Pre-Medical 2023/29-01-2023

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2. The root-mean-square (rms) speed of oxygen molecules (O2) at a certain absolute

3. At what temperature is the Fahrenheit scale reading equal to twice of Celsius :

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(1) 3A1 = 2A2 = A3

11. Thermal capacity doesn't depend on

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(1) PA > PB > PC

18. Their resultent force is :-

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(1) F should be equal to weight of A and B

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28. A force F acting on a object varies with distance x as shown here :

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40. What will be time period of the displaced body of mass m ?

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48. Choose the correct statement

(1) it is not possible

49. The coordinate of the centre of mass of a system as shown in figure :–

(1) vcm = 7 m/s

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51. Total number of sp2 hybridised ‘C’ in acetylene.

52. Assertion :- Pyridine is a heterocyclic compound.

53. IUPAC name for :

(1) 4-Amino cyclopent-2-enamide

55. Which of the following has strong +I effect ?

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57. Which of the following is most stable carbocation ?

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60. Major product :

61. Which of following is not correctly match

62. Select the incorrect statement.

63. In the redox reaction

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65. Change in entropy for an isothermal reaction is given by