Test Booklet Code-A

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 16-JULY-2023 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
2. The test is of 3 Hours 20 Minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in
each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to
135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to
150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen)
in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered
by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, ONE Mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
6. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
7. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

02. Three boxes are placed in a lift.

When acceleration of the lift is 4
Attempt All 35 Questions m/s2, the net force on the 8 kg box
is closest to:
01. Four blocks of same mass connected by cords are (1) 80 N
pulled by force F on a smooth horizontal surface, as (2) 48 N
in figure. The tension T1, T2 and T3 will be: (3) 40 N
(4) 32 N

03. A block B is tied to one end of a uniform rope R as

shown. The mass of block is 2 kg and that of rope is
1 kg. A force F = 15 N is applied at angle 37° with
vertical. The tension at the mid-point of rope is:
(1) T1 = F/4, T2 = 3F/2, T3 = F/4
(2) T1 = F/4, T2 = F/2, T3 = F/2 (1) 1.5 N
(2) 2 N
(3) T1 = 3F/4, T2 = F/2, T3= F/4
(3) 3 N
(4) T1 = 3F/4, T2 = F/2, T3 = F/2
(4) 4.5 N
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 1
Test Booklet Code-A
04. In the given figure, find mass of the block A, if it
remains at rest, when the system is released from
rest. Pulleys and strings are massless. [g = 10 m/s2]
08. Same spring is attached with 2 kg, 3 kg and 1 kg
blocks in three different cases as shown. If x1, x2 and
x3 be the extensions in the spring in these three
cases, when acceleration of both the blocks have
same magnitude, then:

(1) m (2) 2m
(1) x2 > x3 > x1 (2) x2 >x1 > x3
(3) 2.5 m (4) 3 m
(3) x3 >x1 >x2 (4) x1 > x2 > x3
05. The pulleys are strings shown in the figure are
09. On a particular day rain drops are falling vertically at
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to
a speed of 5 m/s. A man holding a plastic board is
remain in equilibrium, the angle θ should be:
running to escape from rain as shown. The lower end
of board is at a height half that of man and the board
makes 45° with horizontal. The maximum speed of
man so that his feet does not get wet, is:

(1) 0° (2) 30°

(3) 45° (4) 60°

06. A block resting on a smooth inclined plane is acted (1) 5 m/s (2) 5 2 m/s
upon by a force F as shown. If mass of block is 2 kg (3) 5 2 m / s (4) Zero
3
and F = 20 N and sin 37° = , the acceleration of
5 10. A man wishes to swim across a river 400 m wide
block is: flowing with a speed of 3 m/s, such that he reaches
the point just in front on the other bank in time not
greater than 100s. The angle made by the direction
he swims and river flow direction is:
(1) 90° (2) 127°
(3) 150° (4) 143°

11. Two monkeys of masses 10kg and 8kg are moving

(1) 2 m/s 2
(2) 6 m/s 2 along a vertical light rope, the former climbing up
(3) 8 m/s2 (4) Zero with an acceleration of 2 m/s2, while the latter
coming down with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Find
07. In arrangement shown the block A of mass 15 kg is tension in the rope at the fixed support.
supported in equilibrium by the block B. Mass of the
block B is closest to:

(1) 2 kg (2) 3 kg (1) 180 N (2) 200 N

(3) 4 kg (4) 5 kg (3) 80 N (4) 216 N
2 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.

12. In a given figure system is in equilibrium. If
W1 = 300 N, Then W2 is approximately equal to
Test Booklet Code-A
16. If same force acts on different bodies (Both bodies
are moving with different velocities) for same time,
then:
(1) Change in speed in same for each
(2) Change in momentum in same for each
(3) Change in position will be same for each
(4) Acceleration will be same for each

17. Coordinates of a particle as a function of time t are

(1) 500 N (2) 400 N x = 2t, y = 4t. It can be inferred that the path of the
(3) 670 N (4) 300 N particle will be :
(1) straight line (2) ellipse
13. A carpenter of mass 50 kg is standing on a weighing (3) parabola (4) hyperbola
machine placed in a lift of mass 20 kg. A light string
is attached to the lift. The string passes over a smooth 18. A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to the
pulley and the other end is held by the carpenter as force exerted by:
shown. When carpenter keeps the lift moving upward (1) The road (2) The driver of car
with constant velocity : (g = 10m/s2) (3) The engine of the car (4) The tyre

19. A hockey player is moving northward and suddenly

turns westward with the same speed to avoid an
opponent. The force that acts on the player is :
(1) Frictional force along westward
(2) Muscle force along southward
(3) Frictional force along south-west
(4) Muscle force along south-west

20. A train is accelerating with constant acceleration ‘a’

on a straight track. If a ball of mass ‘m’ is dropped
outside from the window of train, then magnitude of
net acceleration of ball, with respect to observer
situated at ground, will be (neglect air resistance)
(1) The tension in the string is 200 N. (1) a (2) g
(2) The man applies a force of 350 N on the string (3) g + a (4) g2  a 2
(3) Net force on the man is 150 N
(4) Net force on the weighing machine is 150N
21. Statement-1:
14. A uniform rope of mass (m) and length (L) placed on If we consider system of two bodies A and B as a
frictionless horizontal ground is being pulled by two whole, FAB and FBA are internal forces of the system
forces FA and FB at its ends as shown in the figure. (A+B). They add to give a null force.
As a result, the rope accelerates towards the right. Statement-2:
Internal forces in a body or a system of particles
cancel away in pairs. Correct statements is/are:
(1) Only 1 (2) Only 2
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2
Acceleration (a) of the rope is
22. If no external force acts on particle, then which of the
FA  FB
(1) zero (2) a  following is incorrect about particle?
m (1) Particle may be at rest
FA  FB F F (2) Particle moves with uniform speed on linear path
(3) a  (4) a  B A
m m (3) Particle moves with uniform speed on circle
(4) None of these
15. If v = P + qt2 + rt3. Then net force acting on this
particle will be zero at t = 2 if: 23. Which of the following statement is not true for a
p q force?
(1) 0 (2)  3 (1) Force can produce deformation in a body
q r
(2) Force is the influence of one body on another
r 1 r 1 (3) Force can produce acceleration in a body
(3)  (4) 
q 3 q 3 (4) Force always acts in the direction of motion
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 3
Test Booklet Code-A
24. A body is said to be in equilibrium 29. To a person, going eastward in a car with a velocity
(1) If it is at rest of 25 km/hr, a train appears to move towards north
(2) If it is moving with constant speed with a velocity of 25 3 km/hr. The actual velocity
(3) If it is not accelerating
(4) If even number of forces are acting on the body of the train will be :
(1) 25 km/hr (2) 50 km / hr
25. According to Newton’s third law: (3) 5 km/hr (4) 5 3 km/hr
(1) Forces exist in pairs which are equal and
opposite
30. A rope of length 10m and linear density 0.5 kg/m is
(2) The action and reaction forces are always of the
lying length wise on a smooth horizontal floor. It is
same nature
(3) The action and reaction always act on different pulled by a force of 25N. The tension in the rope at a
bodies point 6m away from the point of application of force
(4) All of these is:
(1) 20N (2) 15N
26. Two masses of 5kg and 10kg are connected to a (3) 10N (4) 5N
pulley as shown. What will be the acceleration if the
pulley is set free ? [g = acceleration due to gravity] 31. Which of the following force is electromagnetic in
nature:
(1) Friction
(2) Tension in string
(3) Spring force
(4) All of these

32. The behavior of a body under zero resultant force is

given by:
(1) First law of motion
(2) Second law of motion
(3) Third law of motion
g (4) Law of gravitation
(1) g (2)
2
g g 33. If action force acting on a body is gravitational in
(3) (4)
3 4 nature, then reaction force:
(1) May be a contact force
27. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with (2) Must be gravitational force
angle of inclination ''. The incline is given an (3) May be gravitational or contact force
acceleration 'a' to keep the block stationary. Then a is (4) May be a force of any origin
equal to :
34. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5
meters per minute. A man on the south bank of the
river, capable of swimming at 10 meters per minute
in still water, wants to swim across the river in the
shortest time. He should swim in a direction:
(1) Due north
(1) g (2) g tan  (2) 30 east of north
(3) g / tan (4) g cosec  (3) 30 north of west
(4) 60 east of north
28. Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on the two
blocks of 2kg and 1kg kept on frictionless floor.
35. A ball of mass ‘m’ moves normal to a wall with a
What is the force exerted on 2 kg block by 1 kg
block? velocity ‘u’ and rebounds with a velocity ‘v’. The
change in momentum of the ball during the
rebounding is:
(1) m (u + v) towards the wall
(2) m (u − v) towards the wall
(1) 1 N (2) 2N (3) m (u + v) away from the wall
(3) 4N (4) 5N (4) m (u – v) away from the wall
4 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-A

This section will have 15 questions. Candidate

can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (1) Zero

these 15 questions. (2) F / m

36. Two bodies of masses 5kg and 4kg are tied to a (3)  F / m
string as shown. If the table and pulley are smooth, (4) Insufficient information
then acceleration of 5 kg mass will be:
40. Three force F1, F2 and F3 act on an
object simultaneously. These force
vectors are shown in the following free
body diagram. In which direction does
the object accelerate?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(1) 19.5 m/s2 (2) 0.55 m/s2
(3) 2.72 m/s2 (4) 5.45 m/s2
41. A block of weight W is suspended by a string of
37. From a motorboat moving downstream with a fixed length. The ends of the string are held at
velocity 2 m/s with respect to river, a stone is thrown. various positions as shown in the figures below. In
The stone falls on an ordinary boat at the instant which case, if any, is the magnitude of the tension
when the motorboat collides with the ordinary boat. along the string largest?
The velocity of the ordinary boat with respect to the
river is equal to zero. The river flow velocity is given
to be 1 m/s. The initial velocity vector of the stone (1) (2)
with respect to earth is:

(3) (4)

Take the value of g = 10 m/s2

Initial separation between the two 42. An ideal string is passing over a smooth pulley as
is 20m. shown. Two blocks m1 and m2 are connected at the
ends of the string. If m1 = 1 kg and tension in the
(1) 2i + 20j (2) 3i + 40j string is 10 N, mass m2 is equal to (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 3i +50j (4) 2i + 50j

38. A body of mass m1 exerts a force on another body of

mass m2. If the magnitude of acceleration of m2 is a2. (1) 1 kg
then the magnitude of the acceleration of m1 is (2) 1.5 kg
(considering only two bodies in space)
(3) 2 kg
m2 a2
(1) Zero (2) (4) 0.5 kg
m1
m1a2
(3) (4) a2 43. River of width 500 m is flowing at a speed of 10 m/s.
m2
A swimmer can swim at a speed of 10 m/s in still
39. A sphere of mass m is kept in equilibrium with the water. If he starts swimming at an angle of 120° with
help of several springs as shown in the figure. the flow direction, then the distance he travels along
Measurement shows that one of the springs applies of the river while crossing the river is :

a force F on the sphere. With what acceleration the (1) 250 m (2) 500 3 m
sphere will move immediately after this particular 500
(3) m (4) 500 m
spring is cut? 3
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 5
Test Booklet Code-A
44. Three forces F1 , F2 and F3 are simultaneously
acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ and keep it in
equilibrium. If F1 force is reversed in direction only, Attempt All 35 Questions
the acceleration of the particle will be:
51. What is the maximum number of emission lines
(1) F1 / m (2) 2 F1 / m when the excited electron of a H atom in n = 6 drops
(3)  F1 / m (4) 2 F1 / m to the ground state?
(1) 15 (2) 10
45. A body of mass M is being pulled by a string of mass (3) 20 (4) 5
m with a force P applied at one end. The force
exerted by the string on the body is: 52. What is the energy in joules, required to shift the
(1) Pm (2) PM electron of the hydrogen atom from the first Bohr
 M  m  M  m orbit to the fifth Bohr orbit. (energy of first Bohr
(3) Pm  M  m  (4) P orbit = 2.18  1011 ergs).
 M  m (1) 2.08  1014 erg (2) 2.09  1011 erg
46. Two blocks of masses m and M are placed on a
-10
(3) 2.09  10 erg (4) 2.09  109 erg
horizontal frictionless table connected by light spring
as shown in the figure. Mass M is pulled to the right 53. Which of the following are isoelectronic species i.e.,
with a force F. If the acceleration of mass m is a, then
the acceleration of mass M will be: those having the same number of electrons?
Na+, K+, Mg2+, Ca2+, S2, Ar.
(1) Na+, Mg2+, K+ (2) K+, Ca+2, Ar, Na+
+ +2 2
(3) K , Ca , S , Ar (4) K+, Mg2+, Ar

(1)
 F  ma  (2)
 F  ma 
54. Using s, p, d notations, describe the orbital with the
M M following quantum numbers.
F am (a) n =1, l = 0; (b) n = 3; l = 1
(3) (4)
M M (c) n = 4; l = 2 (d) n = 4; l = 3
(1) a1s, b3p, c  4d, d 4f
47. The pulley arrangements shown in figure are identical, (2) a3p, b2s, c  4f, d  4f
the mass of the rope being negligible. In case I, the (3) a4p, b1s, c  4f, d  4f
mass m is lifted by attaching a mass 2m to the other (4) a2p, b3s, c  4f, d  4f
end of rope and in case II with a constant downward
force F = 2 mg, where g is acceleration due to gravity. 55. The ejection of the photoelectron from the silver
The acceleration of mass m in case I is: metal in the photoelectric effect experiment can be
stopped by applying the voltage of 0.35V when the
radiation 256.7 nm is used. Calculate the work
function for silver metal.
(1) 5.26 ev (2) 6.36 ev
(3) 4.46 ev (4) 3.16 ev
(1) Zero
(2) More than that in case II 56. If the velocity of the electron in Bohr’s first orbit is
(3) Less than that in case II 2.19  106 ms1, calculate the de Broglie wavelength
(4) Equal to that in case II associated with it.
(1) 330 pm (2) 342 pm
48. A ball of mass 10 gm dropped from a height of 5m (3) 352 pm (4) 332 pm
hits the floor and rebounds to a height of 1.25m. If the
ball is in contact with the ground for 0.1s, the force
exerted by the ground on the ball is (g = 10 m/s2) 57. The orbital diagram in which principle of Hund’s
(1) 0.5 N (2) 1.5 N rule is violated is
(3) 0.15 N (4) 2.5 N
(1) (2)
49. A 120 m long train is moving towards west with a
speed of 10 m/s. A bird flying towards east with a
speed of 5 m/s crosses the train. The time taken by (3) (4)
the bird to cross the train will be :
(1) 16 sec (2) 12 sec 58. Indicate the number of unpaired electrons in:
(3) 10 sec (4) 8 sec (a) P, (b) Si ,(c) Cr, (d) Fe and (e) Kr.
50. If two bullets of same mass (m) thrown with different (1) P3, Si  2, Cr  6, Fe  4, Kr = 0
speeds v1 and v2 (v1 > v2) then which bullet damage more? (2) P4, Si  1, Cr  5, Fe  4, Kr = 0
(1) First bullet (2) Second bullet (3) P2, Si  3, Cr  4, Fe  4, Kr = 0
(3) Same damage by both (4) None of these (4) P1, Si  4, Cr  3, Fe  4, Kr = 0
6 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-A
59. A certain electronic transition from an excited state 67. The uncertainity in momentum of an electron is
to ground state of the H atom in one or more step 1  105 kg.m/s. The uncertainity in its position will be:
gives rise to three lines in the ultra violet region of (h = 6.62  1034 kg.m/s)
the spectrum. How many lines does this transition (1) 1.05  1028m (2) 1.05  1026m
produce in the infrared region of the spectrum: 30
(3) 5.27  10 m (4) 5.27  1028m
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 68. P-orbitals are _____ degenerate
(1) Two fold (2) Three fold
60. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr (3) Four fold (4) Five fold
orbit of a hydrogen atom [a0 is Bohr radius]
h2 h2 69. The no.of spherical nodes in a 4s orbital is
(1) (2) (1) Zero (2) 1
42 ma 02 162 ma 02 (3) 2 (4) 3
h2 h2
(3) (4) 70. The wavelength of the first member of the Balmer
322 ma 02 642 ma 02
series in hydrogen spectrum is xA 0 . Then the wave
length (in A 0 ) of the first member of Lyman series
61. Assertion: (A):
Hydrogen has only one electron in its orbit but in the same spectrum is
produces several spectral liens 5 4
(1) x (2) x
Reason: (R): 27 3
There are many excited energy levels available in a 27 5
(3) x (4) x
sample of Hydrogen gas 5 36
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A 71. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct 0.53 A 0 , the radius of Li2+ in the similar state is
explanation of A (1) 1.06.06 A° (2) 0.265 A°
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect (3) 0.175 A° (4) 0.53 A°
(4) A is incorrect, but R is correct 72. The uncertainities in the velocities of two particles A
and B are 0.05 and 0.02m.sec1 respectively. The
62. When electron jumps from 5th energy level to 1st
mass of B is five times to that of mass A. What is the
energy level, to which series the spectral line
belongs?  x 
ratio of uncertainities  A  in their positions
(1) Balmer (2) Lyman  x B 
(3) Paschen (4) Pfund (1) 2 (2) 0.25
(3) 4 (4) 1
63. Assertion: (A)
Bohr’s orbits are called stationary orbits 73. The orbital diagram in which both Pauli’s exclusion
Reason: (R) principle and Hund’s rule are violated is
Electron remain stationary in these orbits for some
time (1) (2)
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A (3) (4)
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
explanation of A 74. The number of radial nodes of 3p and 2s-orbitlas are
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect respectively
(4) A is incorrect, but R is correct (1) 2, 0 (2) 0, 2
(3) 1, 1 (4) 1, 2
64. Radius of 3rd Bohr orbit is 75. The probability distribution curve for 2s electron
(1) 6.529 A° (2) 2.116A° appears like
(3) 4.761 A° (4) 8.464 A°

65. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass (1) (2)

1g and velocity 100 m/s is
(1) 6.63  1033 m (2) 6.63  1034 m
35
(3) 6.63  10 m (4) 6.63  1036 m

66. Which electronic configuration does not follow the

Pauli’s exclusion principle? (3) (4)
(1) 1s2, 2s22p4 (2) 1s2, 2s22p4, 3s3
2 4
(3) 1s , 2p (4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 7
Test Booklet Code-A
76. The atomic size increase is largest between these two
elements
(1) Li  Na (2) Na  K This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(3) K  Rb (4) Rb  Cs can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions.
77. The alkali metal with lowest reducing power 86. The metal which does not react with propyne
(1) Li (2) Na (1) Cs
(3) K (4) Cs (2) K
(3) Na
78. The alkali metal which forms both oxide and nitride (4) Li
when reacts with air at high temperature
(1) Li (2) Na 87. The alkali metal nitrate which decomposes on
(3) Rb (4) Cs heating and evolve reddish brown gas is
(1) LiNO3
79. Density is lowest for among the given alkali metals (2) NaNO3
(1) Na (2) K (3) KNO3
(3) Rb (4) Cs (4) CsNO3

88. The solvay process cannot be extended to the

80. The most covalent lithium halide
preparation of K2CO3 due to
(1) LiCl (2) LiF (1) KHCO3 is insoluble in water
(3) LiBr (4) LiI (2) KHCO3 does not give K2CO3 upon heating
(3) KHCO3 in highly soluble in water
81. The liquid alkali metal which is used as coolant in (4) K2CO3 can be prepared from Na2CO3
fast breeder nuclear reactors
(1) Li (2) Na 89. The solution of which aqueous solution is highly
(3) K (4) Cs alkaline
(1) NaCl
82. The most stable super oxide (2) NaHCO3
(1) CsO2 (3) Na2CO3
(2) RbO2 (4) NH4HCO3
(3) KO2
(4) All are equally stable 90. This one is not an impurity in crude NaCl
(1) CaCl2
83. Choose incorrect statement (2) MgCl2
(3) Na2SO4
(1) fH0 values for fluorides becomes less negative
(4) MgSO4
as we go down the group
(2) fH0 values for Bromides become less negative 91. It is prepared by Castner Kellner cell method
as we go down the group (1) NaCl
(3) fH° values for chlorides become more negative (2) NaOH
as we go down the group (3) Na2CO3
(4) For a given metal fH0 always become less (4) NaHCO3
negative from fluoride to iodide.
92. The ionic conductance of this alkali metal ion is
84. Choose incorrect statement large in aqueous medium
(1) Super oxides of alkali metals are yellow or (1) Li+
orange in colour (2) Na+
(2) Super oxides of alkali metals are paramagnetic (3) K+
(3) Super oxides of alkali metals liberate O2 gas (4) Rb+
when they react with water
(4) Super oxides of alkali metals produce H2O2 and 93. The oxidation state K in KO2
O2 when they react with NaOH (1) 1
1
(2) 
85. The hydrogen carbonate of alkali metal which does 2
not exist in solid state 1
(3) 
(1) Li (2) Na 2
(3) Rb (4) Cs (4) +1
8 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-A
94. The colour imparted by Rb metal in oxidizing flame
(1) Blue
(2) Crimson Attempt All 35 Questions
(3) Violet 101. In which phase cells remain metabolically active but
(4) Red violet no longer divide :
(1) S (2) G2
(3) Prophase (4) G0
95. The most thermally stable carbonate of alkali metal
(1) Na2CO3 102. Which of the following statements is correct for
cells in quiescent stage (G0)?
(2) K2CO3 (a) are metabolically inactive
(3) Rb2CO3 (b) do not divide
(4) CS2CO3 (c) may divide if required for the organism.
(1) a only (2) a and b
(3) b and c (4) a, b and c
96. Li shows diagonal relationship with
(1) Al 103. The chromosomal material becomes untangled
during the process of chromatin condensation. This
(2) Mg statement is correct for which stage :
(3) Be (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(4) Ca (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
104. What is the significance of mitosis ?
97. Washing soda when heated at 100°C forms (1) For growth of multicellular organisms
(1) Na2CO3. 9H2O (2) For genetic recombination
(3) To restore nucleo–cytoplasmic ratio
(2) Na2CO3. 8H2O
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Na2CO3. 2H2O
105. Which of the following events take place during
(4) Na2CO3. H2O
Zygotene of prophase I of meiosis
(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex
98. The compound used in textile industries for (2) Formation of recombination nodule
mercerizing cotton fabrics is (3) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(1) Na2CO3 (4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complexes
(2) NaOH 106. In meiosis, sister chromatids separate during :
(3) K2CO3 (1) Metaphase-I (2) Anaphase-I
(3) Metaphase-II (4) Anaphase-II
(4) KHCO3
107. The gap between the two meiosis division is called as :
99. Choose correct statement (1) Synapsis (2) Interphase
(1) K+ ions participate in the transport of sugars and (3) Interkinesis (4) Plasmon
amino acids into cells
108. Chiasmata clearly observed in :
(2) Na+ ions inside blood cell activate enzymes (1) Diplotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Na+ ions inside blood cell participate in the (3) Zygotene (4) Leptotene
oxidation of glucose to produce ATP
109. During meiotic division :
(4) K+ ions inside the cell participate along with Na+
(1) Two sequential cycle of nuclear and cellular
ions outside cell in the transmission of nerve division occur
signals (2) Two turns of DNA replication occur
100.Choose incorrect statement (3) Four diploid cells are formed at end of Meiosis-II
(1) Na dissolves in liquid ammonia (4) Separation of homologous chromosomes occur at
Anaphase-II
(2) Liquid ammonia solution of Li is paramagnetic
(3) Liquid ammonia solutions of alkali metals are 110. Which statement is not true ?
deep blue coloured due to ammoniated alkali (1) Growth of multicellular organisms occurs by
metal ion mitosis
(4) In concentrated solution of alkalimetal in liquid (2) In meiosis nuclear division occurs twice but
DNA replication only once.
ammonia the blue colour changes to bronze
(3) In Animals, meiosis occurs in diploid cell
(4) All four cells produced by meiosis are similar
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 9
Test Booklet Code-A
111. If at the end of meiosis, each daughter cells have 4 118. Choose the correct option based on given diagram :
chromosomes, how many chromosomes were in the
mother cell :
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 2 (4) 4

112. During meiosis, crossing over occurs between :

(1) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosome
(2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous
chromosome
(3) Sister chromatids of non-homologous
chromosome
(4) Non-sister chromatids of non- homologous
chromosome

113. The sequence of events, by which a cell duplicates

its genome, synthesises other constituents and
eventually divides into daughter cells, is termed as :
(1) Interphase
(2) M-phase
(3) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4) Cell cycle

114. Which of the following phase of mitosis is 119. The cell is metabolically active and continuously
essentially the reverse of prophase in term of nuclear grows but does replicates its DNA. This statement is
changes ? correct for:
(1) S phase (2) Anaphase (1) G0 - phase (2) G1– phase
(3) Telophase (4) Interphase (3) S-phase (4) M-phase

115. Liquid endosperm in coconut results due to : 120. Which type of DNA is found in G1 phase of cell
(1) Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis cycle ?
(2) Failure of karyokinesisis followed by cytokinesis (1) 1 stranded (2) 4 stranded
(3) Karyokinesis twice followed by single cytokinesis (3) 8 stranded (4) 2 stranded
(4) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
121. The amount of DNA after S-phase of onion root cell
116. Bivalent are formed in _____(A)____ but clearly is 40 pg. What was the amount of DNA in the cell at
visualized in ____(B)_____ What are A and B the time of entry in cell cycle ?
respectively ? (1) 20 pg (2) 40 pg
(1) Zygotene and Leptotene (3) 10 pg (4) 5 pg
(2) Leptotene and Zygotene
(3) Zygotene and Pachytene 122. How many chromosome will the cell have during
(4) Pachytene and Diplotene mitosis at G1, S and in anaphase respectively if it has
14 chromosome prior to interphase :
117. Diagrams given below showing the phases of cell (1) 14, 28, 28 (2) 14, 14, 28
division. Choose the correct option regarding their (3) 7, 7, 7 (4) 7, 14, 14
identification:
123. If spindle fibres are not properly attached with
kinetochores of chromosomes then which
checkpoint will be activated ?
(1) G1/S
(2) G2/M
(3) Metaphase - Anaphase transition
(4) G2/M and M

124. Which of the following is not correct for the shortest

phase of Karyokinesis in mitosis?
(1) A = Anaphase-II, B = Metaphase-I (1) Centromeres split and chromatids separate
(2) A = Anaphase-I, B = Metaphase-II (2) Daughter chromosomes move to opposite poles
(3) A = Anaphase-I, B = Metaphase-I (3) Reformation of ER and Golgi apparatus
(4) A = Anaphase-II, B = Metaphase-II (4) Number of chromosomes become double in cell
10 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.

125. Assertion (A) :
Meiosis is known as reductional division.
Reason (R) :
During meiosis, the chromosome number gets
reduced by half of its total number.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is not a correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Test Booklet Code-A
131. Few events regarding meiosis is given below :
Arrange these events in ascending order and select
the correct option given below :
(A) Terminalization of chiasma.
(B) Arrangement of bivalent on equator.
(C) Formation and separation of daughter
chromosome.
(D) Formation of bivalent.
(E) Segregation of homologous chromosome.
(F) Exchange of genetic material.
(1) A→B→C→D→E→F (2) D→F→A→B→C→E
(3) D→F→A→B→E→C (4) F→D→A→B→C→E

126. If a diploid cell has 2n=4 and total DNA content is 132. If pollen grain contains 30 chromosomes and 50 pg
4C during prophase-I then choose the correct option DNA, then what will be the number of
for A, B, C respectively : chromosomes and DNA amount in
microspore(pollen) mother cell in G2 phase, meiosis-
I product ?

(1) A = 2n=4/4c, B = n = 2/2C, C = n = 4/2C

(2) A = 2n=4/2c, B = n = 2/2C, C = n = 4/2C
(3) A = 2n=2/4c, B = n = 2/2C, C = n = 4/2C
(4) A = 2n=4/4c, B = n = 4/2C, C = n = 2/2C

127. If in a cell two tetrads are present in prophase-I then

what will be the number of chromatids in anaphase-I 133. If a single yeast divide up to 3 days then how much
and metaphase-II in each cell ? total cell cycle it will run :
(1) Anaphase-I = 4, Metaphase-II = 4 (1) 248 (2) 48
(2) Anaphase-I = 8, Metaphase-II = 4 (3) 224 (4) 24
(3) Anaphase-I = 8, Metaphase-II = 8
134. Match item in column-I with column-II.
(4) Anaphase-I = 4, Metaphase-II = 8

128. In anaphase-I as compared to metaphase-I, cell

possess :
(1) same number of chromosomes and same number
of chromatids in each chromosome
(2) half number of chromosomes and half number of
chromatids in each chromosome
(3) half number of chromosomes and same number
of chromatids in each chromosome
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2)A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(4) half number of chromosomes and double number
(3)A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (4)A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
of chromatids in each chromosome
135. Match column I and column II :
129. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct
sequence :
I - Terminalization of chiasmata
II - Crossing over
III - Synapsis
IV - Disjunction of homologous chromosomes
(1) IV, III, II, I (2) III, II, I, IV
(3) II, I, IV, III (4) I, IV, III, II

130. Which of the following stage is affected by

colchicine :
(1) Metaphase (2) Prophase (1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D (2) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
(3) Interphase (4) Anaphase (3) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A (4) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 11
Test Booklet Code-A
144. Photosynthesis is :
(1) Oxidative, exergonic, catabolic
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (2) Redox-reaction, endergonic, anabolic
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (3) Reductive, exergonic, anabolic
these 15 questions. (4) Reductive, endergonic, catabolic
136. Cell division occurs when the cell
(1) is haploid 145. An elegant experiment with an aquatic plant showed
(2) becomes diploid that in bright sunlight, small bubbles were formed
(3) attains optimum growth around the green parts while in the dark they did not.
(4) any time It was done by :
(1) Jan Ingenhousz (2) Von Sachs
137. Which of the following event is not observed during (3) Priestley (4) Van Niel
meiosis-I ?
(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes 146. Based on his studies of purple and green bacteria
(2) Segregation of homologous chromosomes who demonstrated that photosynthesis is essentially
(3) Crossing over a light dependent reaction in which hydrogen from a
(4) Division in centromere suitable oxidisable compound reduces CO2 to
carbohydrates?
138. If the haploid number of chromosomes in a cell is 8. (1) Van Niel (2) Von Sachs
What shall be the number of chromatids in each (3) Calvin (4) Priestley
daughter cell after meiosis-I ?
(1) 4 (2) 8
147. Which one of the following pigment does not occur
(3) 16 (4) 24
in the chloroplast?
139. How many chromosomes are present in meiocyte if (1) Carotene (2) Xanthophyll
egg cell has 20 chromosomes ? (3) Chlorophyll-b (4) Anthocyanin
(1) 20 (2) 40
(3) 10 (4) Can't be determined 148. Chlorophyll is present :
(1) In the grana of chloroplasts
140. Statement-I: (2) On the surface of chloroplasts
The growth of multicellular organismis due to (3) Dispersed throughout the chloroplasts
mitosis. (4) In the stroma of chloroplasts
Statement-II:
Mitosis is also called as equational division and it 149. Assertion (A) :
offers genetic stability. Cytoplasmic division in animals occur by
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. constriction and furrow formation.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Reason (R) :
incorrect.
Cytokinesis in plants occur in centripetal order.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
correct. (1) If (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect. correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
141. Oxygen which is liberated during photosynthesis (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
comes from : (4) If (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the
(1) Carbondioxide (2) Water correct explanation of (A).
(3) Chlorophyll (4) Phosphoglyceric acid
150. Assertion (A) :
142. Name the scientist, who first pointed out by bell jar Replication of DNA during cell division occur in
experiment that plants purify foul air : s-phage of interphase.
(1) Engelmann (2) Robert Hooke Reason (R) :
(3) Priestley (4) Ruben & Kamen Histone proteins are synthesized during G1 phase of
interphase.
143. Moll's half leaf experiment explains that : (1) If (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the
(1) Carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis correct explanation of (A).
(2) Chlorophyll and water are necessary for (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
photosynthesis
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) Light and water are essential for photosynthesis
(4) If (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the
(4) H2S is source of electron in photosynthetic
bacteria correct explanation of (A).
12 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-A
161. Vasa efferentia in male frog opens into?
(1) Ova (2) Bidder’s canal
Attempt All 35 Questions (3) Cloaca (4) Urinogenital duct

151. A frog never drinks water but absorbs it through one 162. In male frog Urinogenital duct receive
of its respiratory organ. Identify the organ. (1) Sperms (2) Urine
(1) Skin (3) Faecal matter (4) Both 1 and 2
(2) Lung
(3) Buccopharyngeal cavity 163. Fertilised eggs of frog develop into
(4) All of the above. (1) Adult frogs (2) Tadpoles
(3) Nymph (4) Both 1 and 2
152. Which one of the following is not a characteristic
feature of frog? 164. Following is the diagram of the male reproductive
(1) The skin is moist and slimy system of frog select the correct set of names
(2) Each of the fore limbs and hind limbs end in five labelled A, B, C and D
digits
(3) Hepatic portal and renal portal systems are
present
(4) Skin, Buccopharyngeal and lungs are the
respiratory organs

153. The sensory papillae tangoreceptor in frogs are

associated with
(1) smell (2) hearing
(3) respiration (4) touch

154. The forelimb of a adult male frog is distinct from

female frog due to the presence of
(1) Forearm (2) Thumb
(3) Web (4) Copulatory pad
155. The third eyelid in frog is called
(1) Pineal eye
(2) Nictitating membrane
(3) Lower eyelid
(4) Upper eyelid
156. The length of alimentary canal in adult frog is
A B C D
(1) Longer as it is a carnivore
1. Fat bodies Ureter Bidder’s Vasa
(2) Longer as it is herbivore
canal efferentia
(3) Shorter as its is a carnivore
(4) Shorter as it is a herbivore 2. Fat bodies Bidder’s Ureter Vasa
canal efferentia
157. In frog the skin helps in exchange of gases because 3. Adrenal Bidder’s Ureter Vasa
(1) It is kept moist by the mucus and water gland canal efferentia
(2) It is thin 4. Testes Adrenal Bidder’s Vasa
(3) It is richly supplied with blood vessels gland canal efferentia
(4) All of these
165. Consider the following four statements (A-D)
158. Heart of frog is related to the common the from Rana tigrina, and
(1) Neurogenic (2) Myogenic select the correct option stating which ones are true
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these (T) and which ones are false(F) Statements
(A) Female frog lays 2500-3000 ova in one breeding
159. Frog mainly excretes period batches
(1) Ammonia (2) Uric acid
(B) It has four chambered heart
(3) Citrulline (4) None of these
(C) Frog excretes urea
(D) Its life history is carried out in pond water
160. Ureters in frog open into
(1) Kidneys -ventrally (1) A  F, B  F, C  T, D  T
(2) Cloaca- ventrally (2) A  F, B  T, C  T, D  F
(3) Urinary bladder- dorsally (3) A  T, B  F, C  F, D  T
(4) None of these (4) A  T, B  T, C  F, D  F
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 13
Test Booklet Code-A
166. During hiebernation the respiratory organ of frogs is
(1) Buccal cavity (2) Skin
(3) Lungs (4) Both (1) and (3)
167. A thin-walled, triangular chamber attached dorsally
to heart of frog is known as
(1) Conus arteriosus (2) Sinus venosus
(3) Atrium (4) Ventricle
168. In frog’s testes are attached to kidney by a double
fold of peritoneum known as
(1) Pericardium (2) Mesorchium
(3) Urinogenital duct (4) Vasa efferentia
169. Arrange the following in a sequence – Sperm path in Frog.
A. Urinogenital ducts
B. Vasa efferentia
C. Spermatogenesis in testes
D. Cloaca E. Bidder’s canal
(1) D-B-C-E-A (2) C-E-A-D-B
(3) C-B-E-A-D (4) C-B-E-D-A
170. Assertion : Frog has Renal portal system
Reason : A special venous connection between
kidney and upper parts of the body are present in
frog called Renal portal system
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, assertion is
correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
171. Statement-I: Frog hearing carried by tympanum
with internal ears
Statement-II: In frog among sense organs eyes and
internal ears are not well-organised structures and
the rest are cellular aggregations around nerve
endings
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
172. Statement-I: In female frogs ureters and oviducts
not separately open into cloaca
Statement-2: The thin walled urinary bladder is
present dorsal to the rectum which also opens in the
cloaca
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
173. Statement-I: Only in male frog fore limbs has 4
digits.
Statement-II: In female frog presence of vocal sacs
by produce louder sound to attract male frogs.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
14 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
174. Assertion:
Frogs during peak summer and winter take shelter in
deep burrows to protect them from extreme heat and
cold
Reason:
During Aestivation and Hibernation gaseous
exchange take place through skin
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, assertion is
correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
175. Statement-I:
Each kidney is composed of few structural and
functional units called uriniferous tubules.
Statement-II:
In male frog two ureters emerge from kidneys open
into cloaca and acts as urinogenital ducts
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
176. In male frog how many vasa efferentia arise from
testes
(1) 10-12 (2) 20-24
(3) 10-24 (4) 12-24
177. Frogs help human as they:
(1) Eat insect and protect the crop
(2) Maintain ecological balance
(3) In some countries the muscular legs of frog are
used as food by man
(4) All are correct
178. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans
occur in
(1) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
(2) bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(3) bile duct and oesophagus
(4) fallopian tubes and urethra
179. Tendons and ligaments are the examples of
(1) areolar connective tissue
(2) adipose tissue
(3) dense regular connective tissue
(4) loose connective tissue
180. The supportive skeletal structures in the human
outer ear joint, Tip of Nose are examples of
(1) ligament (2) areolar tissue
(3) bone (4) cartilage
181. The fibres of which of the following muscles are
fusiform and do not show striations
(1) Skeletal muscles (2) Cardiac muscles
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Smooth muscles
 Test Booklet Code-A
182. Mast cells are associated with
(1) exocrine glands (2) endocrine glands
(3) areolar connective tissue (4) neural tissue This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
183. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct ? these 15 questions.
(i) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts,
macrophages. 186. Match the terms given in column-I with their feature
(ii) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective given in column-II and choose the correct option.
tissue located mainly beneath the skin. Column-I Column-II
(iii)Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense (Terms) (Features)
irregular connective tissue. They help to stop
(iv) Cartilage, bone and blood are various types of A. Exocrine gland I. substances from leaking
specialized connective tissue. across a tissue
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (ii) and (iv) Hormones are secreted
(3) Both (i) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) B. Endocrine gland II. directly into the fluid
bathing the gland
184. Identify figures-I and II.
They perform cementing
C. Tight junctions III. to keep neighboring cells
together.
Secretes mucus, saliva,
Adhering earwax, oil, milk,
D. IV.
junctions digestive enzymes and
other cell products
(1) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(2) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(3) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(4) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III

Figure I Figure II 187. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls
(1) Dense regular Dense irregular
of blood vessels is
connective tissue connective tissue
(1) cuboidal epithelium
(2) Loose irregular Loose regular
connective tissue connective tissue (2) columnar epithelium
(3) Adipose tissue Specialized (3) ciliated columnar epithelium
connective tissue (4) squamous epithelium
(4) Dense irregular Dense regular
connective tissue connective tissue 188. Frog never drink water because
(1) It’s food have rich of water
185. A student was given a sample of two tissues. He (2) It lack of urinferous tubule
observes the tissues under the microscope and draws (3) Due to presence of urinogenital tract
their figures (1 and 2) as shown below. (4) None of these

189. Read the following statements and answer the

question.
(i) They have a hard and non-pliable ground
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen
fibres.
(ii) They support and protect softer tissues and
organs.
Identify the tissues (1 and 2). (iii)Osteocytes are present in the spaces called
(1) 1: Columnar cells bearing cilia; 2: Unicellular lacunae.
glandular epithelium
(iv)They also interact with skeletal muscles attached
(2) 1: Cuboidal cells bearing cilia; 2: Multicellular
glandular epithelium to them to bring about movements.
(3) 1: Compound cells bearing cilia; 2: Unicellular Which of the following type of tissue is being
glandular epithelium described by above statements ?
(4) 1: Columnar cells bearing cilia; 2: Multicellular (1) Cartilage (2) Bone
glandular epithelium (3) Blood (4) Neurons
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 15
Test Booklet Code-A
190. The intercellular material of the given figure is solid 196. In frog, deoxygenated blood is received by
and resists compression. Identify the figure and the (1) Sinus venosus
label marked as A and B. (2) Left atrium
(3) Ventricle
(4) Truncus arteriosus

197. Identify the incorrect description for the given

alphabets.

Fig A B
(1) Cartilage Collagen Chondrocyte
(2) Cartilage Collagen Chondroclast
(3) Bone Microtubule Chondroclast
(4) Bone Collagen fibres Osteoblast

191. Smooth muscles are held together by (1) Adrenal gland (2) B-Oviduct
(1) Ligaments (3) C-Cloaca (4) D-Anus
(2) Tendons
(3) Cell junctions 198. Observe the given and choose the correct statements
(4) Communication junctions

192. Which of the following is not a characteristic of

cardiac muscle?
(1) Presence of intercalated discs
(2) Presence of alternate lights and dark bands
(3) Multi nucleate
(4) Involuntary in activity

193. The similarity between cardiac muscles and skeletal

muscles is
(1) Presence of intercalated discs
(2) Voluntary in activity
(3) Involuntary in activity
(4) Presence of striations
(I) Development is indirect.
(II) Viviparous with direct development.
194. Which of the following statements regarding frog is
(III) Female produces 2500-3000 eggs in its life time
not correct?
(IV) Larva undergoes metamorphoses to form adult.
(1) Fertilization is external and takes place in water.
(1) I and III (2)II, III and IV
(2) External ear and tympanum can be seen
(3) I, III and IV (4) I and IV
externally.
(3) In females the ureters and oviduct open
199. Which statements regarding frog is incorrect?
separately in the cloaca.
(1) Ureter in female frog acts as a urinogenital duct
(4) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs
(2) It is ureotelic
and vocal sac are present in male frog.
(3) It has both renal and hepatic portal system
(4) Vas efferentia from testes open into Kidney
195. Mark the false statement with regard to frog
(1) Pancreatic juices digest carbohydrates and 200. Which statement for frog is correct?
proteins. (1) Female reproductive organ ovary has functional
(2) There are ten pairs of cranial nerves arising from connection with kidney
brain (2) Only one ovary is functional in female
(3) Forebrain includes cerebellum and diencephalon (3) RBCs are non-nucleated
(4) Midbrain is characterised by a pair optic lobes (4) All are incorrect
16 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-A

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 16-JULY-2023 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

ANSWER KEY
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
01 3 26 3 51 1 76 2 101 4 126 1 151 1 176 2
02 4 27 2 52 2 77 2 102 3 127 2 152 2 177 4
03 1 28 3 53 3 78 1 103 1 128 1 153 4 178 2
04 4 29 2 54 1 79 2 104 4 129 2 154 4 179 3
05 3 30 3 55 3 80 4 105 1 130 1 155 2 180 4
06 1 31 4 56 4 81 2 106 4 131 3 156 3 181 4
07 2 32 1 57 1 82 1 107 3 132 1 157 4 182 3
08 2 33 2 58 1 83 2 108 1 133 2 158 2 183 3
09 1 34 1 59 1 84 4 109 1 134 3 159 4 184 1
10 2 35 3 60 3 85 1 110 4 135 3 160 4 185 4
11 2 36 4 61 1 86 4 111 1 136 3 161 2 186 1
12 4 37 4 62 2 87 1 112 2 137 4 162 2 187 4
13 2 38 2 63 3 88 3 113 4 138 3 163 2 188 4
14 4 39 3 64 3 89 3 114 3 139 2 164 4 189 2
15 3 40 4 65 1 90 4 115 4 140 1 165 1 190 1
16 2 41 1 66 2 91 2 116 3 141 2 166 2 191 3
17 1 42 1 67 3 92 4 117 2 142 3 167 2 192 3
18 1 43 3 68 2 93 4 118 2 143 1 168 2 193 4
19 3 44 4 69 4 94 4 119 3 144 2 169 3 194 2
20 2 45 2 70 1 95 4 120 4 145 1 170 3 195 3
21 3 46 1 71 3 96 2 121 1 146 1 171 2 196 1
22 3 47 3 72 1 97 4 122 2 147 4 172 4 197 4
23 4 48 2 73 2 98 2 123 3 148 1 173 4 198 4
24 3 49 4 74 3 99 4 124 3 149 2 174 2 199 1
25 4 50 1 75 1 100 3 125 1 150 2 175 3 200 4

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 17

 Test Booklet Code-B
RM-NEET Batch, Weekly Test-4, Hint. Solution, Date: 16-JULY-2023
01. Answer (3) 05. Answer (3)
F  4ma 2T cos   2mg
F
a 2mg cos   2mg
4m
F  T1  ma ........(i) 2
cos  
T1  T2  ma ........(ii) 2
1
T2  T3  ma ........(iii) cos      45o
2
T3  ma ........(iv)
06. Answer (1)
mF mF F cos37  Mg sin 37  ma
T3  F  T1 
4m 4m 4 3
F F 20   20   2a
T3  F  T1 5 5
4 4 16  12  2a
3F 4  2a
T1 
4 2a
T1  T2  ma 07. Answer (2)
3F F 3F F
 T2    T2
4 4 4 4

02. Answer (4)

Net force = Ma  8  4  32
03. Answer (1)

For B : T = mg
For A : 5T = 15g
08. Answer (2)

3
F sin q  15   3
5
F  ma
9  3a
3a
The tension at mid point of rod due to
1 3
T  (3)   1.5
2 2 T = mg 30–T = 3a 20–T = 2a
04. Answer (4) T = 20 N a=2 10 = 3a
3mg  T  3ma 10
30 – T = 6 a
T  mg  ma 3
20
g 24 = T2 20 – T =
a 3
2
x2  x1  x3
mg
T  mg 
2 09. Answer (1)
3mg 
T vr / g  5m / s
2
u sin 45o  5
2T  M ' g
u 5 2
3mg  M ' g
Vm / r  5 2
M '  3m

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 18

 Test Booklet Code-A
(Vm / r ) 2  Vr / g   Vm / g  13. Answer (2)
2 2

Man N + T = mg
50  25 N + T = 500 .... (i)
25  Vm / g Weghing machine
Vm / g  5 m / s T = mg + N
T – N = 200 ....(ii)
N + T = 500
10. Answer (2) T – N = 200
2T = 700
T = 350
14. Answer (4)
FB  FA  ma
FB  FA
a
m
15. Answer (3)
 dp
F
400 400
dt
&t  &100  16. Answer (2)
vy vy  
P  F t
Vy  4m / sec & 17. Answer (1)
vy 4 Y = 2x (straight line)
tan       53o  900    127 o 18. Answer (1)
vx 3 External force is exerted by ground.
11. Answer (2) 19. Answer (3)

Tension = T – mg = ma Force is along P
T = m(g+a) 20. Answer (2)
T = 10(10+2) Only force is due to gravity.
T = 10  12 = 120 21. Answer (3)
 
Upper support FA / B  FB / A
120 + 80 = 200 22. Answer (3)
 
(80) weight of latter monkey F  0; a  0
12. Answer (4) 23. Answer (4)

Force is along v
24. Answer (3)
 
F  0; a  0
25. Answer (4)
26. Answer (3)
(m1  m2 ) g
a
m1  m2
27. Answer (2)
28. Answer (3)
29. Answer (2)
30. Answer (3)
Mass of rope = 10  0.5 = 5kg
T3 sin 37 = 300 T2 = T3 cos 37
Given force = 25 n
3 4 Acceleration = F/m = 25/5 = 5 m/s2
T3   300 T2  500   400
5 5 Length of remaining rope = 4m
T3  500 Hence mass of remaining rope
T1 cos37  400 = 4/2 = 2kg
T1  500 Hence tension on the rope at a point 6m away
 ma  2  5  10
T1 sin 37  W2 31. Answer (4)
3 32. Answer (1)
500   W2
5 33. Answer (2)
300  W2 34. Answer (1)

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 19

 Test Booklet Code-B
35. Answer (3) 61. Answer (1)
36. Answer (4) 62. Answer (2)
37. Answer (4) For Lyman  n1 = 1 n2 = 2, 3…..∞
38. Answer (2) 63. Answer (3)
39. Answer (3) 64. Answer (3)
40. Answer (4) 0.53 n 2
41. Answer (1) r Å
42. Answer (1) z
43. Answer (3) 65. Answer (1)
Answer (4) h
44. 
45. Answer (2) MV
46. Answer (1) 66. Answer (2)
47. Answer (3) 67. Answer (3)
48. Answer (2) h
49. Answer (4) X 
50. Answer (1)
4P
51. Answer (1) 68. Answer (2)
69. Answer (4)
n(n  1)
No. of spectral lines  Spherical node = n - ℓ - 1
2 70. Answer (1)
n = n2 – n1 1 1
1
52. Answer (2)  R  2  2  z2
1 1
  n1 n2 
  2.18 1011  2  2  z 2 71. Answer (3)
 n1 n2  0.53 n 2
53. Answer (3) r Å
Iso electronic species = same no of electron z
containing. 72. Answer (1)
54. Answer (1) h
x.P 
ℓ Sub shell 4
0 s X A PB
1 p

X B PA
2 d
73. Answer (2)
3 F
74. Answer (3)
55. Answer (3) No. of radial node = n - ℓ - 1
h  W0  KE 75. Answer (1)
56. Answer (4) No. of peak = n  ℓ
76. Answer (2)
h
 Sodium and potassium
MV 77. Answer (2)
57. Answer (1) Li highest reducing power
58. Answer (1) Na lowest reducing power
P  3s 2 3 p 3 Si  3s 2 3 p 2 Cr  3d 4 4s1 78. Answer (1)
Only Li among alkali metals react both with oxygen
Fe  3d 6 4s 2 Kr  4 s 2 4 p 6 and nitrogen.
59. Answer (1) 79. Answer (2)
Potassium due to large size.
3
IR 80. Answer (4)
2 I– large ion easily distorted
1 81. Answer (2)
Liquid Na is used as coolant
60. Answer (3) 82. Answer (1)
nh n2 Large anions are stabilised by large cations.
MVr  r  a0
2 z 83. Answer (2)
nh 1 For chlorides, bromides, codides  f H o values more
v K  MV 2
2 mr 2 –ve from TOP to Bottom.

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 20

 Test Booklet Code-A
84. Answer (4) 121. Answer (1)
Super oxides donot react with NaOH. G1 is the 1st phase of cell cycle.
85. Answer (1) G1  S  G2
Li does not form solid bicarbonates. 20pg 40pg 40pg
86. Answer (4) 122. Answer (2)
Except Li all react with propyne. Prior to interphase means in a somatic
87. Answer (1) cell = 14 chromosome –
4 LiNO3  2 Li2O  4 NO2  O2 G1 S G2 P M A T
88. Answer (3) 14 14 14 14 14 28 28
KHCO3 being more soluble cannot be separated. 123. Answer (3)
89. Answer (3) 124. Answer (3)
Shortest phase of karyokinesis is anaphase.
CO32  H 2O  HCO3  OH  125. Answer (1)
90. Answer (4) 126. Answer (1)
91. Answer (2) 127. Answer (2)
Electrolysis of NaCl give NaOH. 1 tetrad = 4 chromatids in a homologouns pair of
92. Answer (4) chromosome.
Hydrated Li+ Large. 2 tetrad = 8 chromatids (4 chromosome)
93. Answer (4) Meiosis-I Meiosis-II
KO2 P-I M-I A-I T-I P-II M-II A-II T-II
+1 Chromosome 4 4 4 4 2 2 4 4
94. Answer (4) Chromatids 8 8 8 8 4 4 4 4
95. Answer (4) 128. Answer (1)
96. Answer (2) P-I M-I A-I T-I
97. Answer (4) Chromosome 46 46 46 46
10 o Chromatids 92 92 92 92
Na2CO3 H 2O 
1000 C
 Na2CO3 H 2O  9 H 2O 129. Answer (2)
98. Answer (2) Disjunction /separation of homologous chromosome
99. Answer (4) take place in anaphase-I.
K+ ions inside cell, Na+ ions out side cell. 130. Answer (1)
100. Answer (3) 131. Answer (3)
Ammoniated electron impact blue colour. 132. Answer (1)
101. Answer (4) Pollen grain  haploid
102. Answer (3) microspore mother cell  Diploid
103. Answer (1) 133. Answer (2)
104. Answer (4) 3 days = 3 × 24 hours
105. Answer (1) = 3 × 24 × 60 minute
106. Answer (4) = 4320 minute
Splitting of centromere take place in anaphase-II so, 4320
sister chromatids of a chromosome separated. Total no. of cell division   48
107. Answer (3) 90
Interkinesis is a modified form of interphase in 134. Answer (3)
which s-phase is absent. 135. Answer (3)
Interkinesis take place in cell cycle of meiosis-II. 136. Answer (3)
So, it is also called as a gap between meiosis-I and 137. Answer (4)
meiosis-II. 138. Answer (3)
108. Answer (1) 139. Answer (2)
109. Answer (1) Meiocyte  Gamete mother cell
110. Answer (4) Example: Pollen mother cell & megaspore mother cell
111. Answer (1) 140. Answer (1)
112. Answer (2) 141. Answer (2)
113. Answer (4) 142. Answer (3)
114. Answer (3) 143. Answer (1)
115. Answer (4) 144. Answer (2)
It is example of free-nuclear endosperm. 145. Answer (1)
116. Answer (3) 146. Answer (1)
117. Answer (2) 147. Answer (4)
118. Answer (2) 148. Answer (1)
119. Answer (3) 149. Answer (2)
120. Answer (4) 150. Answer (2)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 21
 Test Booklet Code-B
151. Answer (1) 169. Answer (3)
The frog never drinks water but absorbs it through 170. Answer (3)
the skin. The skin is always maintained in a moist 171. Answer (2)
condition.
172. Answer (4)
152. Answer (2)
Frog having a pair of forelimb and hindlimb is 173. Answer (4)
appended to the trunk. The forelimb consists of the 174. Answer (2)
proximal upper arm, the middle fore arm, wrist and 175. Answer (3)
a hand bearing four digits. The hindlimb consists of 176. Answer (2)
proximal thigh, the middle shank, a long ankle and a 177. Answer (4)
foot bearing five toes. 178. Answer (2)
153. Answer (4)
Ciliated columnar epithelium is usually found in the
Frog has different type of sense organs like organs
respiratory tract and fallopian tubes.
of touch (sensory papillae), taste (taste buds), smell
(nasal epithelium), vision (eyes) and hearing 179. Answer (3)
(tympanum with internal ears). Tendons, which attach skeletal muscles to bones and
154. Answer (4) ligaments which attach one bone to another are
In male frog, during breeding season, a copulatory examples of dense regular connective tissues in
pad is formed for clasping the female which collagen fibres are present in rows between
155. Answer (2) many parallel bundles of fibres.
From the lower eyelid arises a transparent third 180. Answer (4)
eyelid covers and protects the eye during Cartilage is a type of connective tissue which is
swimming.
present in human external ears, the nose tip, ribcage
156. Answer (3)
joints, etc.
The alimentary canal is short, because frogs are
carnivores and hence the length of intestine is 181. Answer (4)
reduced. Cells of smooth muscle tissue are spindle shaped
157. Answer (4) and pointed at their ends. Striations are absent due
Skin is thin, richly supplied with blood and kept to different arrangement of action and myosin
moist by the mucus and water. filaments.
158. Answer (2) 182. Answer (3)
159. Answer (4) Mast cell are a cell found in areolar connective
Frog is ureotelic animal. tissue that contains numerous basophilic granules
160. Answer (4)
and release substances such as heparin and
Ureters are fine, white tubes which extend backward
to open into the dorsal wall of cloaca. histamine in response to injury or inflammation of
161. Answer (2) tissues.
The sperm produced by testes are passed into 183. Answer (3)
Bidder’s canal via vasa efferentia. Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue
162. Answer (2) located mainly beneath the skin.
Cloaca receive faecal matter, urine and sperms. 184. Answer (1)
163. Answer (2) The figure I & II represent dense regular and dense
Within two weeks (averages about 6 to 21 days), irregular connective tissue respectively. In the dense
fertilised eggs develop into free swimming aquatic regular connective tissues, the collagen fibres are
larvae called tadpole which undergo metamorphosis
present in rows between many parallel bundles of
to become adult frogs.
164. Answer (4) fibres. Tendons and ligaments are example of this
165. Answer (1) tissue. Dense irregular connective tissue has
Frog excretes urea. Its life history is carried out in fibroblasts and many fibres (mostly collagen) that
pond water. Female frog lays 2500- 3000 ova at a are oriented differently. This tissue is present in the
time. skin.
166. Answer (2) 185. Answer (4)
During hibernation the frog respires through the Tissue 1 is columnar cells bearing cilia and tissue 2
skin. is multicellular glandular epithelium. Ciliated
167. Answer (2) columnar epithelial cells possess fine hairlike
A triangular structure called sinus venosas attached outgrowths, cilia on their free surfaces. These cilia
dorsally of heart of frog.
are capable of rapid, rhythmic, wavelike beatings in
168. Answer (2)
a certain direction.
In frogs tests are attached to kidney by double fold
of peritoneum known as merorchium. 186. Answer (1)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 22
 Test Booklet Code-A
187. Answer (4) and ankles; ends of the ribs; between the vertebrae
Squamous epithelium is formed of thin polygonal in the spine; ears and nose; bronchial tubes or
cells that fit like tiles in a floor, so is also called airways. Cartilage is made up of specialized cells
pavement epithelium. It is found in the walls of called chondrocytes (2). These chondrocytes
blood vessels, in the alveoli of lung for exchange of produce large amounts of extracellular matrix
gases, and in Bowman’s capsule of nephron for ultra composed of collagen.
filtration. 191. Answer (3)
188. Answer (4) In smooth muscle, cell junctions held them together
189. Answer (2) and they are bundled together in a connective tissue
All the given statements are associated with bone. sheath.
Bone is a rigid body tissue consisting of cells
192. Answer (3)
embedded in an abundant, hard intercellular
material. This material consists of two important 193. Answer (4)
components - collagen and calcium phosphate. It 194. Answer (2)
forms the major portion of the human skeleton. In frog external ear absent.
Bone support and protect the various organs of the 195. Answer (3)
body, produce red and white blood cells, store 196. Answer (1)
minerals and also enable motility. 197. Answer (4)
190. Answer (1) Cloaca ends with cloacal aperture. Rectum (Large
The given figure represents the image of cartilage. intestine) ends with anus open into cloaca.
Cartilage is an important structural component of 198. Answer (4)
the body. It is a firm tissue but is softer and much
199. Answer (1)
more flexible than bone. It is a connective tissue
found in joints between bones e.g. the elbows, knees 200. Answer (4)

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