02/07/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 16 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
 
2 (1) A (2) B
1. Change in wavelength is  = –  cos.  
mv 2 (3) C (4) D
Here symbols have their usual notations (except
3. A rocket rises vertically up from the surface of
of ).  can represent
earth so that its distance from the earth's surface
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Power
is l = ct2 where c is a constant. After 10 sec the
(3) Force (4) Pressure
rocket has travelled 2 km. Determine its speed
2. You have a ring balanced at the center of the (in m/s) at that moment.
  
table by three forces F1, F2 and F3 . The forces (1) 100 (2) 200
 
F1 and F2 have components. (3) 300 (4) 400
F1x = 10 N F1y = – 50 N 4. If block A shown in figure is moving with speed v
F2x = – 40 N F2y = 100 N as observed by a person on ground then the
magnitude of velocity of A with respect to the
block B is (the wedge is fixed)


The force F 3 is required to make the ring v
(1) v (2)
stationary at the center of the table. Which one of 2

the 4 vectors in the diagram could represent F 3 ? (3) v 3 (4) Zero

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Test-16 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

5. A block starts motion at t = 0 with constant
acceleration a, on a horizontal plane. After
t0 second, the acceleration remain same in
magnitude what reverse its direction. After what
time of starts does it come back to initial point
(1) 2t0 (2) 2t0
9. The system shown in figure is released from rest
with spring at natural length. The spring starts
extending as soon as it is released. (Neglect
friction and masses of pulley, string and spring)

(3)  2  2  t0 (4) 2  2  t0
6. A cannon ball is thrown with an initial velocity of
40 m/s at an angle of 53° above the horizontal
from ground. After some time, the ball is seen to
travel at an angle of 37° below horizontal. Find
the time elapsed (in second) till then.
(1) 3 (2) 7
(3) 5 (4) 8
7. Figure shows two swimmers starting from point
A and B on opposite banks. They started at same
(1) if M > m
instant with a constant velocity. Both of them
start to swim in a direction parallel to line AB (2) if M > 2m
always. The river flows towards east. (3) if M > m/2
(4) For any value of M
10. A particle is moving on a circle of radius 1 m and
its speed is changing as v = 2t. The magnitude of
the acceleration of particle at t = 1 sec is
(1) 4 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(3) 2 3 m/s2 (4) 2 5 m/s2
(1) Swimmers A and B cannot collide.
11. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 3 kg are kept on
(2) Swimmers A and B will definitely collide
level ground, having coefficient of static friction
somewhere on line AB.
0.3 and 0.4 respectively from ground. The blocks
(3) Swimmers A and B will definitely collide are connected by a spring of constant 100 N/m.
somewhere to the east of line AB. What can be a possible extension in the spring
(4) Swimmers A and B will definitely collide so that both the blocks are in equilibrium? (g = 10
somewhere to the west of line AB. ms2)
8. A horizontal force F = 2 N is applied on the (1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm
system shown in the figure. All surfaces are
(3) 9 cm (4) 15 cm
smooth. All pulleys and string are ideal. Mass of
A and B each is 1 kg. What is the acceleration of 12. A particle moving along the x axis is acted upon
B with respect to A. by a single force F = F0e–kx, where F0 and k are
constants. The particle is released from rest at x
= 0. It will attain a maximum kinetic energy of
F0
(1)
k
F0
(2)
kek
kF0
(3)
ek
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2 (4) Zero (4) kek F0

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-16 (Code-A)

13. A ball hits a smooth surface and rebounds with 17. When the speed of a rear wheel-drive car is
the same speed, as diagramed below. The increasing on a horizontal road the direction of
changes in the components of the velocity of the the frictional force on the tyres is
ball are (1) Forward for all tyres
(2) Backward for all tyres
(3) Forward for the front tyres and backward for
the rear tyres
(4) Backward for the front tyres and forward for
the rear tyres
18. A horizontal rod of mass 'M' and length 'L' is tied
to two vertical string symmetrically as shown in
(1) vx > 0, vy > 0 (2) vx = 0, vy > 0 the figure. One of the strings at end Q is cut at
t = 0 and the rod starts rotating about the other
(3) vx < 0, vy > 0 (4) vx = 0, vy = 0 end P. Then
14. A block of mass m placed on a smooth horizontal
surface is attached to a spring and is held at rest
by a force P as shown. Suddenly the force P
changes its direction opposite to the previous
one. Find the ratio l2/l1, where l2 is the maximum
extension in the spring and l1 is the initial
compression.
(1) At t = 0, angular acceleration of rod about P
3g
is
2L
(2) At t = 0, angular acceleration of rod about
(1) 3 (2) 2
3g
(3) 1 (4) 4 C.M. of rod is
2L
15. A ball A moving with certain velocity along
positive x-axis collides with a stationary ball B. 3g
(3) At t = 0, acceleration of C.M. of rod is in
After collision their directions of motion make 4
angles  and  with the x-axis. The possible downward direction.
values of  and  are (4) Both (1) and (3) are correct.
(1)  = 30° and  = – 45° 19. L shaped narrow tube containing liquid of density
(2)  = 90° and  = – 120°  accelerating horizontally with acceleration g.
The pressure at A will be (atmospheric pressure
(3)  = 0° and  = – 30°
is P0)
(4)  = 45° and  = 0°
16. A metal sheet 14 cm × 2 cm of uniform thickness
is cut into two pieces of width 1 cm each. The
two pieces are joined and laid along XY plane as
shown. The centre of mass has the coordinates.

(1) P0 + 3gh (2) P0 + gh

(3) P0 – gh (4) P0 + 2gh
20. A metallic vessel of negligible heat capacity
contains 0.5 kg of water (of specific heat capacity
–1
4200 J kg–1 K ). It is heated from 15°C to 85°C
by 750 W immersion heater in 4 minutes. The
 19 19  average loss of heat in watts to the surroundings
(1) (5, 4) (2)  , 
 7 7 from the vessel during this time is nearly
 8 8  17 15  (1) 70 (2) 123
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
 7 7  4 4 (3) 138 (4) 212

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Test-16 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

21. 10 litre of water per second is lifted from well 25. Two masses are executing SHM under influence
through 20 m and delivered with a velocity of of a vertical spring as shown with an amplitude of
10 ms–1, then the power of the motor is 2 cm and angular frequency of 5 rad/s. When the
(1) 4.5 kW (2) 2.5 kW extension of spring is maximum, suddenly the
string breaks and 3 kg mass falls off. What is the
(3) 3.8 kW (4) 6.7 kW maximum velocity of the 1 kg mass (in cm/s)
22. A snapshot of a travelling wave is shown in during subsequent motion?
figure-1 and a snapshot of a standing wave is
shown in figure-2. (Particles are at their
respective extremes. The amplitude, frequency,
and the speed of both the waves are the same.
The string in both the cases is identical). If the
energy per unit length of system at point A in
figure-1, is x1 and that in figure-2 is x2. What is
x1 (1) 320 (2) 175
value of ?
x2 (3) 225 (4) 288
26. Consider two infinitely long parallel uniformly
charged non conducting wires with linear
charged density  & –2 as shown. A charge
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 hangs in equilibrium by means of an insulating
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 1 chargeless thread between the wires. The mass
of the charge is given by
23. Two point sound sources S1 and S2 are both of
same power and send out sound waves in the
same phase. The wavelength of both the waves
48
is m. The intensity due to S2 alone at D is
5
25 W/m2. The resultant intensity at D is I. Find I
(in W/m2).

40 q 4 q
(1) (2)
90 lg 90 lg
160 q 40 q
(3) (4)
(1) 28 (2) 37 90 lg 30 lg
(3) 61 (4) 85 27. In a double slit experiment, two parallel slits are
24. The young's modulus of material of a thin ring illuminated first by light of wavelength 400 nm
shaped elastic body is Y. The mass of ring is m, and then by light of unknown wavelength. The
area of cross section is A, its initial radius is R. fourth order dark fringe resulting from the known
Ring is a little elongated, then left alone. At what wavelength of light falls in the same place on the
time will ring circumference be same as it was screen as the second order bright fringe from the
initially. (Neglect loss of energy) unknown wavelength. The value of unknown
wavelength of the light is
mR 3 mR (1) 900 nm
(1) (2)
8YA 2 YA
(2) 700 nm
mR mR (3) 300 nm
(3) 2 (4)
YA 2YA (4) None of these

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-16 (Code-A)

28. Three charges are placed (fixed) at the vertices 32. Two light bulbs shown in the circuit have ratings
of an isosceles right angle triangle ABC with A(24 V, 48 W) and B(24 V and 36 W) as shown.
point charge +Q, +2Q & –Q are placed at points When the switch is closed
A, B & C respectively. The magnitude of electric
field strength at point D (mid point of AC) is 
KQ
. Find .
a2

(1) The intensity of light bulb A decreases and of

B increases
(2) The intensity of light bulb A as well as B
increases.
(3) The intensity of light bulb A as well as B
(1) 32 (2) 17 decreases
(3) 22 (4) 88 (4) The intensity of light bulb A increases and of
29. Consider a grounded conductor with a spherical B decreases
cavity in it. A point charge Q is placed in it. The 33. Three copper rods are subjected to different
electric potential at centre of cavity is _______ potential difference. Compare the drift speed of
electrons through them. Assume that all 3 are at
volts. Given K = 9 × 109 Nm2/C2, a = 1m,
the same temperature.
1
b= m, Q = 1×10–9C. Length Diameter Potential difference
2
a. L 3d V
b. 2L d 2V
c. 3L 2d 2V
(1) v1 = v2 > v3 (2) v1 > v2 > v3
(3) v1 < v2 > v3 (4) None of these
(1) 3 (2) 7 34. On quadrupling (making four times) the
(3) 2 (4) 9 resistance 'R' connected to a battery the power
dissipated in the resistance surprisingly does not
30. 2 C charge is shifted from P to Q. If workdone
change. What is the internal resistance of the
by external force in this process is 160 × 10–6
battery in Ohm? (Take R = 10 )
joule, then potential difference between points P
and Q i.e. VP – VQ is (1) 32 (2) 15
(1) – 160 volt (2) 160 volt (3) 20 (4) Not possible

(3) 40 volt (4) 80 volt 35. In the given circuit, ratio of charge on capacitor
2C and capacitor C in steady state is
31. A hollow conducting sphere of inner radius R and
outer radius 2R is given a charge Q as shown in
the figure, then the

(1) Potential at A and B is different (1) 1 : 1

(2) Potential at O and B is different (2) 2 : 1
(3) Potential at O and C is different (3) 1 : 2
(4) Potential at A, B, C and O is same (4) 2 : 3

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Test-16 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

36. Two particles having the same specific charge 41. A glass hemisphere of refractive index 4/3 and of
enter a uniform magnetic field with the same radius 4 cm is placed on a plane mirror. A point
speed but at angles of 30° and 60° with the field. object is placed at distance 'd' on axis of this
Let a, b and c be the ratios of their pitches, radii sphere as shown. If the final image is at infinity,
and periods of their helical paths respectively, then find the value of 'd' in cm.
then
(1) abc > 1 (2) a + b = 2 c
2
(3) a = c (4) ab = c
37. Bohr model is applied to singly ionized helium
He+. Consider the lines that lie in the visible
region of the spectrum. Which of the following
transitions can give a photon of visible light?
(1) 3 (2) 7
(1) n = 5 to n = 4 (2) n = 7 to n = 4
(3) n = 2 to n = 1 (4) n = 8 to n = 3 (3) 2 (4) 4
38. From a cylinder of radius R, a cylinder of radius 42. All electrons ejected from a surface by incident
R/2 is removed, as shown. Current flowing in the light of wavelength 200 nm can be stopped
remaining cylinder is . Magnetic field strength is before travelling 1 m in the direction of uniform
electric field of 4 N/C. The work function of the
surface is
(1) 4 eV (2) 6.2 eV
(3) 2 eV (4) 2.2 eV
43. The rate of disintegration of a radioactive
substance falls from 800 decay/min to
100 decay/min in 6 hours. The half-life of the
radioactive substance is
0 I (1) 6/7 hour (2) 2 hrs
(1) Zero at point A (2) at point A
3R (3) 3 hrs (4) 1 hr
0 I 44. When a battery is connected to a P-type
(3) at point B (4) Both 2 and 3 semiconductor with a metallic wire, the current in
3R
the semiconductor (predominantly), inside the
39. A uniform magnetic field exists in region given by
 metallic wire and that inside the battery
B  3 iˆ  4 jˆ  5 kˆ . A rod of length 5 m which is
respectively due to
placed along y  axis is moved along x  axis with (1) Holes, electrons, ions
constant speed 1 m/sec. Then induced e.m.f. in
the rod will be (2) Holes, ions, electrons
(1) Zero (2) 25 volt (3) Electrons, ions, holes
(3) 20 volt (4) 15 volt (4) Ions, electrons, holes
40. A transparent cylinder has its right half polished 45. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and
so as to act as a mirror. A paraxial light ray is separation between the plates d, is charged by a
incident from left, that is parallel to principal axis, constant current i. Consider a plane surface of
exits parallel to the incident ray as shown. The area A/2 parallel to the plates and drawn
refractive index n of the material of the cylinder is symmetrically between the plates, the
displacement current through this area, will be
(1) i
i
(2)
2
i
(3)
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.5 4
(3) 1.8 (4) 2.0 (4) None of these

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-16 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY
46. The normality of H+ ions in a resulting solution 54. The solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M CaCl2 is (Ksp of
obtained by mixing 200ml, 2 M HCl with 500ml, AgCl = 1 ×10–10)
1 M NaOH and 250ml, 1 M H2SO4 solution will be (1) 10 × 10–10 M (2) 5 × 10–10 M
(1) 0.24 N (2) 0.42 N –10
(3) 1 × 10 M (4) 2 × 10–10 M
(3) 0.8 N (4) 0.6 N 55. Most acidic compound among the following is
47. Which among the following is a representative
element?
(1)
(1) Se (2) Fe
(3) Ce (4) Tb
(2)
48. The ratio of potential energy to total energy of
electron of H-atom is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3)
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
49. Which of the following pair have same (4)
hybridisation for central atom?

(1) CO2 and SO2 (2) CH3 and XeF4
56. The major product (A) of the following reaction

(3) I3 and NO2 (4) XeF2 and I3
, is
50. The interaction force present between H2
molecules are
(1) (2)
(1) Dipole- dipole (2) H-bonding
(3) London forces (4) Ion-dipole
(3) (4)
51. The compressibility factor for one mole of real
gas at very low pressure is 57. Consider the following reaction sequence
b R 1% HgSO
CH3 – C  CH  conc.
 X  Y
(2) 1 
4
(1) 1+ dil H SO H SO
RT aVT 2 4 2 4

The number of -bonds in ‘Y’ is

aR a
(3) 1  (4) 1  (1) 20 (2) 24
VT VRT
(3) 18 (4) 21
52. The number of moles of FeC2O4 required to react
completely with 1 mole of K2Cr2O7 in acidic 58. Number of P = O and P–O–P bonds in (HPO3)3
medium is respectively are
(1) 2 (2) 6 (1) 6 and 3 (2) 3 and 0
(3) 1 (4) 3 (3) 6 and 6 (4) 3 and 3
53. Select the correct statement for the following 59. Electrolyte having highest coagulation value for
equilibrium As2S3 sol is
(1) KCl (2) AlCl3
1 

NaNO 2 (s)  O 2 (g) 
 NaNO3 (s) (3) CaCl2 (4) MgCl2
2
(1) On increasing temperature, reaction goes 60. A gas absorb a photon of 300 nm and then emit
two photons, if wavelength of one photon is
in backward direction
500 nm then wavelength of second photon will be
(2) On increasing pressure, reaction goes in
(1) 750 nm (2) 650 nm
backward direction
(3) 550 nm (4) 850 nm
(3) On adding NaNO2(s), reaction goes in
forward direction 61. Hybridisation of Be in solid BeCl2 is
(4) On adding O2(g), reaction goes in (1) sp (2) sp3
backward direction (3) sp2 (4) sp3d

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Test-16 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

62. The major product obtain when anisole is treated 68. The entropy change (in cal K–1 mol–1) when one
mole of an ideal gas at 27°C is expanded
with (i) / AlCl3 (ii) H2O is reversibly from 1  to 10 l is
(1) Zero (2) 2.6
(3) 4.6 (4) 5.4
(1) (2)
69. Select the incorrect statement among the
following regarding H2O2
(1) It behaves as an acid when reacts with
Na2CO3
(2) It is used as antichlor to remove traces of
(3) (4) chlorine
(3) It is used to restore colour of old oil paintings
(4) It oxidises acidified K2Cr2O7 into red peroxide
63. The most reactive chloride towards SN 2 reaction of chromium.
among the following is 70. The negative standard reduction potential
 
EM2+ /M is maximum for

(1) CH3Cl (2) (1) Ti (2) Zn

(3) Mn (4) Fe
71. The IUPAC name of [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] is
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–Cl (4) (1) Diammine silver (I) dicyanidoargentate (I)
(2) Diammine silver (I) dicyanidoargentate (III)
64. In a crystal of NaCl, if all the ions along one of (3) Diammine silver (III) dicyano argentite (I)
the body diagonal are removed then the simplest
(4) Diammineargentate (I) dicyanosilver (I)
formula of the crystalline solid will be
72. Select the incorrect match
(1) NaCl (2) Na4Cl5
(1) Poling : Puritication of copper
(3) Na2Cl3 (4) Na3Cl5
(2) Distililation : Purification of Zinc
65. In which of the following options osmosis take
place when the solutions are separated by a (3) Mond’s process : Purification of Titanium
semipermeable membrane? (4) Thermite process : Reduction of Cr2O3
(1) 0.1 M urea and 0.05 M NaCl 73. Derivatives of Barbituric acid are well known as
(2) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M Glucose (1) Antibiotics (2) Tranquillizers
(3) 0.15 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (3) Antiseptics (4) Antipyretics
(4) 0.1 M Na2SO4 and 0.1 M Glucose 74. The utilization of the existing knowledge and
practices so as to bring about reduction in the
66. Select the correct statement(s) for lead storage
production of pollution is called
battery during charging
(1) Anti-pollution chemistry
(1) At cathode, Oxidation of PbSO4 into PbO2
take place (2) Green chemistry
(2) At anode, reduction of PbSO4 into Pb take (3) Blue chemistry
place (4) White chemistry
(3) Concentration of H2SO4 increases 75. Among 13th group elements, which element is
(4) All of these used in high temperature thermometry?
(1) Al (2) Ga
67. For a first order reaction, A  products, the
initial concentration of A decrease from 0.1 M to (3) B (4) In
0.05 M in 1 minutes. The initial rate of the 76. The disease convulsions is caused due of
reaction (in M s–1) is deficiency of
(1) 2.5× 10–3 (2) 1.95×10–2 (1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B1
(3) 1.15×10–3 (4) 3.1×10–4 (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin B6

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-16 (Code-A)

77. The monomer of neoprene is 83. Which of the following compound will release
(1) maximum energy on combustion?
(1) (2)

(2) CH2  CH  CN
(3) (4)
(3) CH2  CH  CH  CH2
84. A solution of (+)-2-chloro-2-phenylethane in
(4) toluene racemises slowly in the presence of a
small amount of SbCl5, due to formation of

78. The major product obtained when (1) Carbocation

m-dinitrobenzene is treated with NH4HS, is (2) Carbon free radical
(3) Carbanion
(4) Carbene
(1) (2)
85. The mass percentage of a metal in its sulphate is
50%. The equivalent weight of metal will be
(1) 48 (2) 50
(3) (4) (3) 46 (4) 52
86. In which of the following molecules all atoms do
79. The co-ordination number of Cu in CuSO4.5H2O not lie in same plane?
is (1) H2O (2) CH2=C=CH2
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) (4) XeF4
(3) 3 (4) 2
80. Identify (A) in the following reaction sequence 87. XeO3 can be obtained by the complete hydrolysis
PO H2O/H  of
A 
2 5

B   CH3CH2COOH
(1) XeF2 and XeF4 only
(1) CH3CH2COOH (2) CH3CH2CONH2 (2) XeF2 and XeF6 only
(3) CH3CH2CH2OH (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) XeF4 and XeF6 only
81. Consider the reaction sequence
(4) XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6
88. The electronic configuration  Xe 4f 7 6s 2 belongs
to
(1) Sm (2) Gd
(3) Pm (4) Eu
89. Which of the following compounds does not
The molecular formula of D is decompose on heating?
(1) C5H8O (2) C4H6 (1) MgCO3 (2) K2CO3
(3) C4H8O (4) C5H8 (3) ZnCO3 (4) Li2CO3
82. Which of the following ethers can not be 90. The correct statements among the following
prepared by Williamson’s synthesis? is/are
(1) At 83 K, nitrogen is physioadsorbed on Iron
(1) CH3–O–CH3 (2) surface as N2 molecule
(2) Above 773 K, nitrogen is chemisorbed on
Iron surface as N atom
(3) At 25°C, there is almost no adsorption of
(3) (4) Nitrogen on iron surface
(4) All of these

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Test-16 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

BOTANY
91. In binomial nomenclature 98. Aqautic fern which is used in paddy field to
(1) Both genus and species names are increase the yield is
underlined if handwritten (1) Salvinia (2) Azolla
(2) Genus name starts with small letter (3) Marchantia (4) Selaginella
(3) Species name starts with capital letter 99. Polysomes which are commonly found in
(4) Genus name is written after species name prokaryotic cells are composed of
92. The group of fungi which do not have any sexual (1) mRNA and DNA
phase is (2) DNA and tRNA
(1) Rhizopus, Mucor and Aspergillus (3) Ribosomes and mRNA
(2) Yeast, Agaricus and Puccinia (4) tRNA and mRNA
(3) Trichoderma and Alternaria 100. Which of the given structures are common in
(4) Aspergillus and Claviceps both prokaryotic cell and plants cell?
93. Which of the following statement is not correct (1) Nucleus and mitochondria
about chrysophytes? (2) Chloroplast and cytoplasm
(1) Diatoms have silicified cell wall (3) Ribosomes and cell wall
(2) Diatoms are chief producers of ocean (4) Flagella and nucleus
(3) They also include slime moulds 101. All of the given mode of transport across the
(4) Diatoms lack flagella except in reproductive membrane require a carrier protein except
stage (1) Facilitated diffusion
94. Aseptate mycelium is commonly found in which (2) Simple diffusion
of the following class of fungi? (3) Active transport
(1) Ascomycetes (4) Uphill transport
(2) Basidiomycetes 102. Micortubules attach to kinetochore of sister
(3) Phycomycetes chromatids during
(4) Deuteromycetes (1) Anaphase-I (2) Porphase-II
95. Match the following and select the correct option (3) Metaphase-II (4) Anapahse-II
a. Oomycetes (i) Algal fungi 103. Which of the following is not related to meiosis
b. Basidiomycetes (ii) Fungi imperfecti phase of cell cycle?
c. Ascomycetes (iii) Sac fungi (1) Recombination
d. Deuteromycetes (iv) Club fungi (2) Crossing over
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) DNA replication
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) Sister chromatid separation
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) 104. For stomatal opening, which of the following
group of factors are responsible?
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) CO2 concentration and temperature
96. Select the mismatched pair from given below
(2) NO2 concentration and light
(1) Chlamydomonas – Non-flagellated alga
(3) Temperature and N2 concentration
(2) Volvox – Colonial alga
(4) N2 concentration and light
(3) Laminaria – Flattened leaf like
thallus 105. During water absorption turgor pressure is
increased in root epiblema cells due to
(4) Chlorella – Unicellular alga
(1) High water potential of cortex
97. Which of the following groups is also known as
vascular cryptogams? (2) Entry of water into roots hairs from soil
(1) Mosses (2) Ferns (3) Exit of water from cortical cells
(3) Liverworts (4) Gymnosperms (4) Osmotic diffusion of water into pericycle cells

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-16 (Code-A)

106. Which of the following equation is correct for a 114. Which of the following statement is not correct?
plasmolysed cell? (1) Banana and ginger reproduce by rhizome
(1) DPD = OP + TP (2) DPD = OP (2) Water hyacinth can grow rapidly and deplete
(3) DPD = –TP (4) OP = TP the oxygen in a water body
107. The correct sequence of electron transport (3) Offsprings produced by sexual reproduction
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation is are called clone
(1) PS-II  Cyt b6f  PS-I (4) Asexual spores produced by some algae are
called zoospores
(2) PS-I  Cyt c  PS-II
115. Somaclonal variation can be seen in plants which
(3) Cyt bc  PS-I  PS-II are produced by
(4) PS-I  PS-II  Cytbc (1) Gamma rays mutation
108. Pace of EMP pathway can be regulated by (2) Chemical mutation
enzyme (3) Plant tissue culture
(1) Hexokinase (4) Sexual reproduction
(2) Phosphofructokinase 116. Which of the following groups of plants can
(3) Enolase reproduce through specialised asexual
reproductive structure?
(4) Pyuruvate dehydrogenase
(1) Algae and angiosperms
109. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. carbon
numbers in a molecule (2) Angiosperms and gymnosperms
(1) Acetyl CoA – 2 C Compound (3) Pteridophytes and fungi

(2) Pyruvate – 3 C Compound (4) Algae and fungi

117. In angiosperms, zygote undergoes
(3) Citric Acid – 5 C Compound
(1) Meiosis (2) Mitosis
(4) OAA – 4 C Compound
(3) Differentiation (4) Both (2) and (3)
110. How many acetyl CoA molecules will be
produced if one sucrose molecule is used as a 118. Cleistogamous flowers
respiratory substrate? (1) Open during the self pollination
(1) 10 (2) 32 (2) Remain close and are bisexual
(3) 4 (4) 6 (3) Are female flowers and never open
111. Which of the following pair of plant hormones is (4) Are bisexual and open during cross pollination
responsible for seed germination and apical 119. Endosperm cell of an angiosperm has 36
dominance respectively? chromosomes and has 12 chromosomes in
(1) ABA and GAs (2) Auxins and GAs synergids. The number of chromosomes in male
gamete would be
(3) GAs and IAA (4) Ethylene and ABA
(1) 12 (2) 24
112. Read the following statements and select the
(3) 36 (4) 6
incorrect one
120. Which of the following statements are true about
(1) Cytokinins help in lateral bud growth
the flowering plants?
(2) Ethylene is a gaseous hormone
I. Endothecuim lies below the epidermis.
(3) IAA is auxin hormone II. Synergids are triploid.
(4) 2,4-D is synthetic cytokinin hormone III. Antipodal cells are haploid.
113. Flowering in rice can be induced by IV. Syngamy involve triple fusion.
(1) Short days and interrupted long nights (1) I, II and III
(2) Long days and interrupted long nights (2) I and IV only
(3) Long days and uninterrupted short nights (3) I and III only
(4) Short day and uninterrupted long nights (4) II and III only

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Test-16 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

121. Filiform apparatus in angiosperms 129. Monascus purpureus a fungus, produces the
(1) Open the germ pore of pollen grain blood cholesterol lowering agent called
(2) Guides the pollen tube entry into antipodal (1) Cyclosporin A (2) Statins
cells (3) Streptokinase (4) Lipase
(3) Helps in entry of pollen tube into synergids 130. Select the mismatched pair from the following
(4) Prevent the triple fusion (1) Citric acid – Aspergillus
122. Innermost layer of pollen sac is responsible for (2) Butyric acid – Clostridium
(1) Protection of anther (3) Anabeana – Nitrogen fixer
(2) Nourishing to growing pollen grains (4) Rhizobium – Nitrifying bacteria
(3) Dehiscence of anther 131. Vertical stratification of plants groups can be
(4) Providing mechanical strength to anther seen in
123. In Lac operon Lac z gene encodes (1) Tundra (2) Rain forest
(1) Repressor protein (3) Desert (4) Temperate forest

(2) -galactosidase enzyme 132. A young fox has eaten a mouse and a hawk
attacks the fox and consumes it. Here fox, in the
(3) Inducer protein
ecological terms, is
(4) Transacetylase enzyme
(1) Producer
124. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for
(2) Primary consumer
relieving the supercoiling in DNA during DNA
replication? (3) Secondary consumer

(1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase (4) Tertiary consumer

(3) DNA ligase (4) Topisomerase 133. In an island local species became extinct within a
decade after an alien species introduced in
125. Read the following statements and select the
island, because
correct option.
(1) Resources become abundant
Statement-A : mRNA has information for
translation into protein. (2) Greater efficiency of native species for
resource utilisation
Statement-B : rRNA is synthesised in cytoplasm
(3) Interspecific competition
(1) Both A and B are correct
(4) Co-evolution
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
134. Read the statements and select the incorrect
(3) Only A is correct
option.
(4) Only B is correct
(1) Cold blooded animals can regulate their
126. An octamer composed of four histone proteins temperature physiologically
and DNA is called
(2) Warm blooded animal includes birds and
(1) Chromatin (2) Endosome mammals
(3) Nucleolus (4) Nucleosome (3) Phytoplanktons are primary producer in
127. Sterile female lacks one X chromosome. This oceans
female is suffering from (4) Only 1-5 % of sunlight is used to synthesis of
(1) A disease caused due to trisomy biomass
(2) Klinfelter’s syndrome 135. Greenhouse gases
(3) Turner’s syndrome (1) Absorbs all sunlight and warm the
(4) Phenylketonuria atmosphere
128. Bacteria responsible for gobar gas formation are (2) Include gases such as CO2 and O2
(1) Methanogens (2) Thermophilic (3) Are responsible for ozone layer formation
(3) Ammonifying (4) Nitrifying (4) Are mainly CO2 and CH4

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-16 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following epithelium lines the inner 141. Choose the correct inference w.r.t a certain
surface of the urinary bladder and ureters? biochemical reaction represented in the below
(1) Pseudostratified epithelium given graph.
(2) Transitional epithelium
(3) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(4) Brush bordered epithelium
137. The muscle cells represented by the below given
diagram are

(1) Heat is released in the surrounding in this

reaction.
(2) ‘A’ represents energy released by the
substrate.
(3) ‘B’ represents activation energy of the
reaction.
(4) It is an endothermic reaction because energy
content of the product is higher than that of
(1) Involuntary in their action
the substrate.
(2) Multinucleated
142. The passage of food from oesophagus into the
(3) Found in intestine and lungs stomach is regulated by
(4) Fusiform (1) Cardiac sphincter (2) Ileo-caecal valve
138. How many of the below given macromolecules (3) Sphincter of Oddi (4) Frenulum
are not correctly paired with one of their
characteristics? 143. Select the correct pair of digestive enzymes
which work optimally in the alkaline pH range.
a. Chitin – Its basic unit is a nitrogen
containing glucose (1) Gastric lipase and Lactase
derivative. (2) Rennin and Sucrase
b. Cellulose – Unbranched polymer of (3) Dipeptidase and Nucleotidase
glucose which produces (4) Salivary amylase and Pepsin
blue colour with iodine.
144. Match the items given in Column I with those in
c. Haemoglobin – Has four subunits i.e., Column II and select the correct option given
polypeptide chains forming a below.
quaternary structure.
Column-I Column-II
d. GLUT 4 – Enables insulin transport
a. Inspiratory capacity (i) IRV + EC
into cells.
b. Vital capacity (ii) TV + IRV
(1) One (2) Two
c. Residual volume (iii) TLC –VC
(3) Three (4) Four
d. Functional residual (iv) TLC – IC
139. A basic amino acid among the following is
capacity
(1) Glutamate (2) Aspartate
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Lysine (4) Valine

(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
140. How many nucleotides are present in 68 A long 145. Excessive cigarrete smoking leading to damage
B-DNA strand? of alveolar walls is associated with
(1) 20 (2) 40 (1) Asthma (2) Emphysema
(3) 60 (4) 80 (3) Silicosis (4) Botulism

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Test-16 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

146. Choose the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t 152. Which part of the brain regulates smooth and
certain formed elements in the human blood. balanced muscular activity while swimming or
(1) Erythrocytes – Biconcave and riding a bicycle?
enucleated (1) Hypothalamus
(2) Neutrophils – Engulf bacteria and dead (2) Cerebellum
cells (3) Corpus callosum
(3) Thrombocytes – Help in blood clotting (4) Limbic system
(4) Basophils – Secrete antibodies 153. Parts A, B, C and D of the human ear are shown
147. Choose the correct statement regarding in the diagram. Select the option which gives
mechanism of concentration of the nephric filtrate incorrect identification along with its
in humans. functions/characteristics.
(1) The capability of concentrating the urine is
majorly related to the diameter of efferent
arteriole.
(2) NaCl and urea maintain the osmolarity
gradient in the medullary interstitium.
(3) Osmotic concentration of the glomerular
filtrate is the lowest at the bottom of the
U-shaped Henle’s loop.
(4) Glomerular filtration is an active process
requiring high amount of energy.
148. Substance ‘X’ which converts angiotensinogen to (1) A : External ear – Collects the vibrations
angiotensin I is secreted by in the air
(1) Wall of heart (2) Adrenal cortex (2) B : Eustachian tube – Connects the middle
ear cavity with the
(3) Liver (4) JG cells
pharynx
149. Three of the following pairs of the disorder of
(3) C : Malleus – Increase the efficiency
muscular or skeletal system are correctly
of transmission of
matched with their respective description. Select
sound waves
the non-matching pair.
(1) Myasthenia – Neuromuscular junctions (4) D : Cochlear nerve – Carry sensory
gravis are affected impulses to the
auditory cortex of the
(2) Muscular – Progressive degeneration of
brain
dystrophy skeletal muscle
154. A lipid soluble hormone which crosses the
(3) Gout – Accumulation of uric acid
plasma membrane of the target cell and attaches
crystals
to intracellular receptors is
(4) Arthritis – Decreased levels of
(1) Insulin
estrogen is a common
cause (2) Epinephrine
150. Palm bones and ankle bones are respectively (3) Cortisol
termed (4) Thyrocalcitonin
(1) Metacarpals and tarsals 155. Cretinism is caused by deficiency of
(2) Phalanges and tarsals hormones in which results in mental
(3) Metatarsals and carpals retardation and stunted growth. Here ‘a’ and ‘b’
are
(4) Metacarpals and carpals
a b
151. Cells of eye which possess photopigments that
respond to red, green and blue light are present (1) Thyroid Embryonic stage
in (2) Adrenal Puberty
(1) Blind spot (2) Iris (3) Thyroid Adulthood
(3) Ciliary body (4) Fovea (4) Adrenal Embryonic stage
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-16 (Code-A)

156. Choose the option which contains only incorrect 162. Select the option which correctly states the
statements. given statements as true (T) or false (F).
a. Goitre may be caused by iodine deficiency in a. Each human testis has about 250
the diet. seminiferous tubules.
b. Target gland of PRL is corpus luteum. b. Fimbriae help in collection of the ovum.
c. Oxytocin causes ejection of milk from c. The human male ejaculates about 200 to 300
mammary gland. million sperms per coitus.
d. ADH maintains the 24-hour diurnal rhythm of d. Blockage of vas deferens would prevent
the body. incorporation of sperms in ejaculate.
e. The major role of thymus is the development a b c d
of emergency hormones. (1) T T T T
(1) a, b and d (2) b, d and e (2) F F T T
(3) c, d and e (4) a and e (3) F T T T
157. Glucagon is a (4) T F T T
(1) Hypoglycemic hormone 163. A viral venereal disease among the following is
(2) Hyperglycemic hormone (1) Hepatitis - B (2) Gonorrhoea
(3) Hypocalcemic hormone (3) Chlamydiasis (4) Trichomoniasis
(4) Hypercalcemic hormone 164. How many among the following are non-
158. Choose the odd member w.r.t sexuality of medicated IUDs?
organism. Cu 7 Multiload 375
(1) Cockroach (2) Tapeworm
LNG-20 Lippes loop
(3) Leech (4) Earthworm
CuT Progestasert
159. Which of the following options correctly
arranges the events of development of the foetus (1) One (2) Two
in its gestational period? (3) Three (4) Four
(a) Development of limbs and digits 165. Choose the incorrect statement.
(b) Major organ systems are formed (1) Darwin’s finches exemplify adaptive radiation
(c) Heart is formed and founders effect.
(d) Eye-lids separate (2) The basic unit of evolution is an individual
(e) Hair appear on the head (3) Neanderthal man used animal hides to cover
their bodies and buried their dead members.
(1) c  b  a  d  e
(4) The most significant event in evolution of
(2) b  c  a  e  d
modern man is brain with increased cranial
(3) c  a  b  e  d capacity.
(4) a  d  e  c  b 166. The spark chamber in S. L. Miller’s famous
160. Capacitation of sperms, in humans occurs in electric discharge experiment did not have
(1) Vas deferens (1) Methane (2) Ammonia
(2) Female genital tract (3) Hydrogen (4) Helium
(3) Penile urethra 167. The correct ages of Universe and Earth are
represented by
(4) Epididymis
Universe Earth
161. The number of sperms and ova that could be
formed by 100 primary spermatocytes and 100 (1) 20 bya 4.5 bya
primary oocytes are respectively (2) 12 bya 3.5 bya
(1) 200 and 50 (2) 400 and 200 (3) 2 bya 350 mya
(3) 50 and 100 (4) 400 and 100 (4) 22 bya 9.5 bya

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Test-16 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

168. Choose the odd one w.r.t physical carcinogens 175. A technique which uses electric field to separate
(1) Tobacco smoke (2) Gamma rays negatively charged DNA molecules is
(3) UV rays (4) X-rays (1) Elution (2) Electrophoresis
169. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct (3) Biolistics (4) Spooling
option. 176. The first gene therapy was given to a 4-year old
Typhoid : Widal test : : HIV : _______ girl with deficiency of
(1) VDRL test (2) Schick test (1) Pancreatic lipase
(3) ELISA test (4) Mantoux test (2) Alkaline phosphatase
170. Select the mismatched pair. (3) Adenosine deaminase
(1) Morphine – Papaver somniferum (4) Carbonic anhydrase
(2) Crack – Erythroxylum coca 177. Mature insulin differs from pro-insulin because
the former does not have
(3) Ganja – Atropa belladona
(1) A-chain
(4) Hashish – Cannabis sativa
171. In MOET, the female animal is made to super (2) B-chain
ovulate. This is possible under the influence of (3) C-chain
hormones which mimic the effect of (4) Disulphide bridges
(1) Oxytocin (2) Prolactin 178. A transgenic rice which is modified to be able to
(3) FSH (4) Progesterone produce beta-carotene can help to
172. Restriction enzymes found in prokaryotic cells (1) Overcome problems related to vitamin-A
function naturally to deficiency
(1) Ligate DNA pieces in the cells (2) Increase shelf life of the produced grain
(2) Breakdown foreign DNA of bacteriophage (3) Naturally resist pests and insects
(3) Replicate chromosomal DNA (4) Resist nematode infestation
(4) Destroy old and worn out DNA 179. Orchidectomy is surgical removal of
173. After inspecting the length of a DNA sequence, (1) Testes (2) Prostate gland
Eco RI would cut between bases (3) Foreskin of penis (4) Oviducts
(1) T and A (2) G and A 180. If a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium has
(3) C and T (4) T and G 16% homozygous individuals with a recessive
174. On insertion of a gene of interest at Bam HI site allele ‘a’ then the frequencies for given
of pBR322, the plasmid would genotypes would be
(1) Acquire resistance to kanamycin AA% Aa%
(2) Lose resistance to tetracycline (1) 36 48
(3) Not be able to start replication (2) 16 36
(4) Transform into a linear DNA and integrate (3) 48 16
with chromosomal DNA (4) 36 16

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Edition: 2020-21