SB - NCERT-BASED

TEST SERIES
(SB – NBTS)
CLASS 11TH
MOCK TEST 01
Date : --/--/--- Duration : 3 Hours 20 Mins M.Marks : 720

Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
2. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum mark is 720.
3. There are four Sections in the Question Paper, Sections I, II, III, and IV consisting of
Section I (Physics), Section II (Chemistry), Section III (Botany) and Section IV
(Zoology)
have 50 Questions in each Subject and each subject is divided into two Sections,
Section A consists of 35 questions (all questions compulsory) and Section B consists
of 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
4. There is only one correct response for each question.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong
MCQ response.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed, or written, bits of paper,
pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. Inside the examination room/hall.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the Candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.

1
 Physics
SECTION – A (c) 5.4 cm
(d) 2.7 cm
1. The surface tension of a liquid is 5 N/m.
If a film is held on a ring of area 0.02 𝑚2 , 6. The diagonal of a parallelogram is 2𝑖̂ and
its surface energy is about: 2𝑗̂. What is the area of the parallelogram?
(a) 5 × 10−2 𝐽 (a) 0.5 unit
(b) 2.5 × 10−2 𝐽 (b) 1 unit
(c) 2 × 10−1 𝐽 (c) 2 unit
(d) 3 × 10−1 𝐽 (d) 4 unit

2. The upper end of a wire of radius 4mm 7. A body thrown from the ground vertically
and length 100 cm is clamped and its up passes from the height of 55 m twice
other end is twisted through an angle of in an interval 10 sec. Its initial velocity is
30°. Then angle of shear is: (𝑔 = 10𝑚/𝑠 2 ):
(a) 12° (a) 30 m/s
(b) 0.12° (b) 40 m/s
(c) 1.2° (c) 60 m/s
(d) 0.012° (d) 90 m/s

3. Temperature of a piece of metal is 8. Five identical beads each of mass m

increased from 27°𝐶 to 327°𝐶. The rate of connected to each other by means of five
emission of heat by radiation by a metal massless strings are suspended from a
will become: rigid support as shown in figure. The
(a) Double ratio of tensions in the strings 3 and 4
(b) Four times is:
(c) Eight times
(d) Sixteen times

4. In arrangement given in figure. If the

block of mass m is displaced. The
frequency is given by

1 𝑘1 −𝑘2
(a) 𝑛 = 2𝜋 √( ) (a) 3:2
𝑚
(b) 2:3
1 𝑘1 +𝑘2
(b) 𝑛 = 2𝜋 √( ) (c) 4:5
𝑚
(d) 5:4
1 𝑚
(c) 𝑛 = 2𝜋 √(𝑘 )
1 +𝑘2
9. A block of mass m slides down the plane
1 𝑚
(d) 𝑛 = √(𝑘 −𝑘 ) inclined at angle 30° with an
2𝜋 1 2 𝑔
acceleration 4 . The value of coefficient of
5. A string of a musical instrument is 50cm kinetic friction will be:
2√3+1
long and its fundamental frequency is (a) 2
270 Hz. If a frequency of 1000 Hz is to 1
(b)
be produced, then required length of 2√3
string is: (c)
√3
2
(a) 13.5 cm 2√3−1
(b) 10.3 cm (d) 2

2
 14. The height at which acceleration due to
10. A particle P is moving in a circle of radius 1
gravity will become 4 𝑡ℎ of its value on
‘a’ with a uniform speed V. C is the the surface of earth. (R is radius of
center of the circle and AB is a diameter. earth):
When passing through B the angular (a) R
velocity of P about A and C are in the
(b) 2R
ratio:
(c) 3R
(a) 1:1
(d) 4R
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:1
15. An incompressible liquid flow through a
(d) 4:1
horizontal tube as shown in the figure.
Then the velocity ‘v’ of the fluid is:
11. Four particles of mass 𝑚1 = 2𝑚, 𝑚2 =
4𝑚, 𝑚3 = 𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚4 are placed at four
corners of a square. What should be the
value of 𝑚4 so that the center of mass of
all the four particles are exactly at the
center of the square?

(a) 3.0 m/s

(b) 1.5 m/s
(c) 1.0 m/s
(d) 2.25 m/s

16. A thermodynamic system is taken

(a) 2m through the cyclic process ABCDA as
(b) 8m shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas
(c) 6m during the cycle is:
(d) None of these

12. A bomb initially at rest explodes by itself

into three equal mass fragments. The
velocities of two fragments are (3𝑖̂ +
2𝑗̂)𝑚/𝑠 . 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (4𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂)𝑚/𝑠 The velocity of
the third fragment is (in m/s):
(a) 7𝑖̂ + 5𝑗̂
(b) 7𝑖̂ − 5𝑗̂ (a) 2 PV
(c) −7𝑖̂ + 5𝑗̂ (b) -2 PV
(d) −7𝑖̂ − 5𝑗̂ (c)
1
𝑃𝑉
2
(d) PV
13. For a satellite moving in an orbit around
the earth, the ratio of magnitude of
potential energy to kinetic energy is: 17. What is the reading of micrometer screw
1 gauge shown in figure. Circular scale
(a)
√2 has 100 division:
(b) 2
(c) √2
1
(d) 2

3
 (a) 2.31 mm 22. If a vector 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 8𝑘̂ is perpendicular to
(b) 2.29 mm the vector 4𝑖̂ − 4𝑗̂ + 𝛼𝑘̂, then the value of
(c) 2.36 mm 𝛼 is:
(d) 2.41 mm (a) 2
(b) 1/2
18. A chain of mass m and length ℓ is held (c) -(1/2)
on a frictionless table in such a way that (d) 2
2ℓ
its 5
part is hanging below the edge of
table. Find work done to pull the 23. Three forces acting on a body are shown
hanging part of chain: in the figure. To have the resultant force
2𝑚𝑔ℓ only along the y-direction, the
(a)
25 magnitude of the minimum additional
𝑚𝑔ℓ
(b) force needed is:
50
𝑚𝑔ℓ
(c) 25
4𝑚𝑔ℓ
(d) 25

19. A solid sphere of mass M rolls without

slipping on an inclined plane of
inclination 𝜃 . What should be the
minimum coefficient of friction, so that
the sphere rolls down without slipping? (a) √3𝑁
2
(a) tan 𝜃 (b) 0.5 N
5
2 (c) 1.5 N
(b) tan 𝜃 √3
7
5
(d) 𝑁
4
(c) 7
tan 𝜃
(d) tan 𝜃 24. For angles of projection of a projectile at
angles (45° − 𝜃) and (45° + 𝜃), the
20. Ship A is moving at a speed of 3 m/s horizontal ranges described by the
towards East and ship B towards North projectile are in the ratio of:
with a speed of 4m/s. If ship A is chosen (a) 1:1
as frame of reference, the direction and (b) 2:3
magnitude of velocity of ship B will be: (c) 1:2
(a) 5 m/s; 53° North of West (d) 2:1
(b) 5 m/s; 37° North of East
(c) 5 m/s; 37° East of South 25. A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has
(d) 5 m/s; 53° South of West a speed of 10 m/s when it has reached
one half of its maximum height. How
21. Match the following. high does the ball rise? (Taking 𝑔 =
List I List II 10 𝑚/𝑠 2 )
(A) Angular (i) [𝑀−1 𝐿3 𝑇 −2 ] (a) 6 m
momentum (b) 10 m
(B) Torque (ii) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 ] (c) 14 m
(C) Gravitational (iii) [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ] (d) 18 m
constant
(D) Tension (iv) [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −1 ]
26. A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12
(a) 𝐴 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑣)
m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30°
(b) 𝐴 − (𝑖𝑣), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑖)
with the wall. It is reflected with the
(c) 𝐴 − (𝑖𝑣), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖) same speed and the same angle. If the
(d) 𝐴 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑣), 𝐶 − (𝑖𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖) ball is in contact with the wall for 0.25 s,
the average force acting on the wall is:
4
 30. A bomb of mass 30kg at rest explodes
into two pieces of masses 18kg and
12kg. The velocity of 18 kg is 6 𝑚𝑠 −1 . The
kinetic energy of the other mass is:
(a) 324 J
(b) 486 J
(a) 8N (c) 256 J
(b) 24 N (d) 524 J
(c) 16 N
(d) 96 N 31. A wooden plank of mass 20kg is resting
on a smooth horizontal floor. A man of
27. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the mass 60kg starts moving from one end
tension in the supporting cable is 28000 of the plank to the other end. The length
N, then its acceleration is: of the plank is 10m. Find the
(a) 4 𝑚𝑠 −2 upwards. displacement of the plank over the floor
(b) 4 𝑚𝑠 −2 downwards. when the man reaches the other end of
(c) 14 𝑚𝑠 −2 upwards. the plank:
(d) 30 𝑚𝑠 −2 downwards.

28. A force F acting on an object varies with

distance x as shown in the figure. The
force is in N and x is in m. The work done (a) 4.5
by the force in moving the object from (b) 7.5 m
𝑥 = 0 𝑡𝑜 𝑥 = 6 𝑚 is: (c) 6.5 m
(d) 3m

32. If ‘S’ is stress and ‘Y’ is Young’s modulus

of material of wire, the energy stored in
the wire per unit volume is:
𝑆
(a) 2𝑌
(a) 10.5 J (b)
2𝑌
𝑆2
(b) 13.5 J 𝑆2
(c) 8.5 J (c) 2𝑌
(d) 6.5 J (d) 2𝑆 2 𝑌

29. A stone tied to the end of a string of 33. A candle of diameter d is floating on a
length 1m is whirled in a horizontal liquid in a cylindrical container of
circle with a constant speed. If stone diameter D (D >>d) as shown in figure. If
makes 22 revolutions in 44 second, what it is burning at the rate of 2 𝑐𝑚/ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟
is the magnitude and direction of the then the top of the candle will:
acceleration of stone?
(a) Acceleration will be 𝜋 2 𝑚/𝑠 2 radially
inwards.
(b) Acceleration will be 𝜋 2 𝑚/𝑠 2 radially
outwards
(c) Acceleration will be 𝜋 2 𝑚/𝑠 2 along
the tangent to the circle. (a) remain at the same height
𝜋
(d) Acceleration will be 𝑚/𝑠 2 radially (b) fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour
4
(c) fall at the rate of 2 cm/hour
inwards.
(d) go up at the rate of 1 cm/hour

5
34. By sucking through a straw, a student (c) 𝑎/(𝑣 − 𝑣1 )
can reduce the pressure in his lungs to (d) 𝑎/(𝑣 + 𝑣1 )
750 mm of Hg (density = 13.6 𝑔𝑚/𝑐𝑚3 ).
Using the straw, he can drink water from 39. A block of mass 𝑚 is in contact with cart
a glass up to a maximum depth of: C as shown in the figure.
(a) 10 cm
(b) 75 cm
(c) 13.6 cm
(d) 1.36 cm

35. Two Simple Harmonic Motions of The coefficient of static friction between
angular frequency 100 𝑟𝑎𝑑 𝑠 −1 and 1000 the block and the cart is 𝜇 . The
rad 𝑠 −1 have the same displacement acceleration 𝛼 of the cart that will
amplitude. The ratio of their maximum prevent the block from falling satisfies:
𝑚𝑔
accelerations is: (a) 𝛼 > 𝜇
(a) 1: 104 𝑔
(b) 𝛼 > 𝜇𝑚
(b) 1: 10
𝑔
(c) 1: 102 (c) 𝛼 ≥ 𝜇
(d) 1: 103 (d) 𝛼 < 𝜇
𝑔

SECTION – B 40. An engine pumps water continuously

through a hose. Water leaves the hose
36. One gram of ice at 0°𝐶 is added to 5
with a velocity 𝑣 and 𝑚 is the mass per
grams of water at 10°C. If the latent heat
unit length of the water jet. What is the
of ice be 80 Cal/g, then the final
rate at which kinetic energy is imparted
temperature of the mixture is:
to water?
(a) 5°𝐶
(a) 𝑚𝑣 2
(b) 0°𝐶 1
(c) -5°𝐶 (b) 𝑚𝑣 2
2
1 2 2
(d) None of the above (c) 𝑚 𝑣
2
1
(d) 𝑚𝑣 3
37. An ideal gas heat engine operates in 2
Carnot cycle between 227°𝐶 and 127°𝐶 .
It absorbs 6 × 104 Cal of heat at higher 41. A uniform rod of length 𝑙 and mass m is
temperature. Amount of heat converted free to rotate in a vertical plane about A.
to work is: The rod initially in horizontal position is
(a) 2.4 × 104 𝐶𝑎𝑙 released. The initial angular acceleration
(b) 3.6 × 104 𝐶𝑎𝑙 of the rod is:
(c) 1.2 × 104 𝐶𝑎𝑙
(d) 6.4 × 104 𝐶𝑎𝑙
3𝑔
38. Two boys are standing at the ends A and (a) 2𝑙
B of a ground where 𝐴𝐵 = 𝑎. The boy at (b)
2𝑙
3𝑔
B starts running in a direction 3𝑔
perpendicular to AB with velocity 𝑣1 . The (c)
2𝑙 2
boy at A starts running simultaneously (d)
𝑙
2
with velocity 𝑣 and catches the other boy
in a time 𝑡, where 𝑡 is:
42. Two bodies have their moments of
(a) 𝑎/√𝑣 2 + 𝑣12 inertia I and 2I respectively about their
(b) √𝑎2 /(𝑣 2 − 𝑣12 ) axis of rotation. If their kinetic energies

6
 of rotation are equal, their angular
momenta will be in the ratio:
(a) 1:4
(b) √2: 1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1: √2
43. Imagine a new planet having the same
density as that of earth but it is 3 times
bigger than the earth in size. If the
acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of earth is g and that on the
surface of the new planet is g’, then:
(a) 𝑔′ = 3𝑔
(b) 𝑔′ = 𝑔/9
(c) 𝑔′ = 9𝑔
(d) 𝑔′ = 𝑔/3
44. Two vibrating tuning forks produce
progressive waves given by 𝑦1 =
4 sin 500 𝜋𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦2 = 2 sin 506 𝜋𝑡. Number
of beats produced per minute is:
(a) 360
(b) 180
(c) 120
(d) 30
45. Statement I: The equation of motion
can be applied only if acceleration is
along the direction of velocity and is
constant.
Statement II: If the acceleration of a
body is zero then its motion is known as
uniform motion.
(a) Both statement I and II are correct
(b) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement II is correct but
statement I is incorrect.
46. Assertion: The maximum horizontal
range of projectile is proportional to
square of initial velocity.
Reason: The maximum horizontal range
of projectile is equal to maximum height
attained by projectile.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is not the
correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason
is false.
(d) The assertion is false but the reason
is true.
47. Statement I: Static friction is self
adjusting force.
Statement II: Friction does not depend
on the normal reaction.
(a) Both statement I and II are correct.
(b) Both statement I and II are
incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement
II is incorrect.
(d) Statement II is correct but
statement I is incorrect.
48. The moment of force applied on a door is
18 N-m and a force 4.5 N is applied by a
boy perpendicular to plane of door, the
distance of the handle from the pivot is
(a) 0.25 m
(b) 1.25 m
(c) 2 m
(d) 4 m
49. Statement: I When a spring is elongated
work done by spring is negative but
when it is compressed work done by
spring is positive.
Statement: II Work done by spring is
path dependent
(a) Both statement I and II are correct.
(b) Both statement I and II are
incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect.
(d) Statement II is correct but
Statement I is incorrect.
50. How much force is required to produce
an increase of 0.2% in the length of a
brass wire of diameter 0.6 mm
(Young’s modulus for brass = 0.9 × 1011
(a) Nearly 17 N
(b) Nearly 51 N
(c) Nearly 27 N
(d) Nearly 37 N
7
 Chemistry
SECTION – A 57. The radiation of low frequency will be
emitted in which transition of hydrogen
51. A container of volume V, contains 0.28 g atom:
of N2 gas. If same volume of an unknown (a) n = 1 to n = 4
gas under similar condition of (b) n = 2 to n = 5
temperature and pressure weighs 0.44 (c) n = 3 to n = 1
g, the molecular mass of the gas is (d) n = 5 to n = 2
(a) 22
(b) 44
58. The graphical representation of energy of
(c) 66
electron and atomic number is:
(d) 88

52. The atomic weight of a metal (M) is 27

(a)
and its equivalent weight is 9, the
formula of its chloride will be:
(a) MCl
(b) MCl2
(c) M3Cl
(d) MCl3
(b)
53. Number of molecules in 100 mL of each
of O2, NH3 and CO2 at STP are:
(a) in the order CO2 < O2 < NH3
(b) in the order NH3 < O2 < CO2
(c) NH3 = CO2 = O2
(c)
(d) NH3 = CO2 < O2

54. Two flasks A and B of equal capacity of

volume contain NH3 and SO2 gas
respectively under similar conditions.
Which flask has more number of moles:
(a) A
(b) B (d)
(c) Both have same moles
(d) None

55. The first three radius ratio of Bohr orbits: 59. Match Column I with Column II.
(a) 1 : 0.5 : 0.5 Column I Column II
(b) 1 : 2 : 3 (Volume of R) (Unit of R)
(c) 1 : 4 : 9 (A) 0.082 (a) erg K-1 mol-1
(d) 1 : 8 : 27 (B) 2 (2) J K-1 mol-1
(C) 8.314 (3) cal K-1 mol-1
56. In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an (D) 8.314 × 107 (4) L atm K-1 mol-1
electron in ground state is − 13.6 eV,
then energy in the 2nd excited state is: (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(a) −1.51 eV (b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) −3.4 eV (c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(c) −6.04 eV (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) −13.6 eV

8
60. Calculate the energy of a photon of respectively then the value of
wavelength 5520 Å equilibrium constant will be:
(a) 2.24 eV (a) K/2
(b) 3.4 eV (b) K
(c) 1.5 eV (c) K2
(d) 4.5 eV (d) 1/K

61. Assertion: ∆ H is positive for 65. The highest pH value is of:

endothermic reactions. (a) 0.1 M NaCl
Reason: If total enthalpies of reactants (b) 0.1 M NH4Cl
and products are HR & HP respectively (c) 0.1 M CH3COONa
then for an endothermic reaction HR < (d) 0.1 M CH3COONH4
H P.
66. Which of the following has maximum
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
solubility (Ksp value is given in brackets)?
and the reason is the correct
(a) HgS (1.6 × 10-54)
explanation of the assertion.
(b) PbSO4 (1.3 × 10-8)
(b) If both assertion and reason are true
(c) ZnS (7.0 × 10-26)
but reason is not the correct
(d) AgCl (1.7 × 10-10)
explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is
false. 67. In the balanced chemical reaction,
(d) If the assertion is false and reason is IO− − +
3 + aI + bH ⟶ cH2 O + dI2

true. a, b, c and d respectively correspond to

(a) 5, 6, 3, 3
62. For the reaction A(s) ⟶ B(s) + C(g) the (b) 5, 3, 6, 3
value of ∆H = 30.56 kJ mol-1 and ∆S = 66 (c) 3, 5, 3, 6
JK-1 mol-1. The temperature at which the (d) 5, 6, 5, 5
free energy change for the reaction will
be zero is: 68. In which of the following pairs both are
(a) 373 K isoelectronic but radii of first species is
(b) 413 K greater than second species?
(c) 463 K (a) S 2− , O2−
(d) 493 K (b) Cl− , S 2−
(c) F − , Na+
63. If the equilibrium constant for a reaction (d) N 3− , P3−
is 10, then the value of ∆G° will be
(R = 8 JK-1 mol-1, T = 300 K) 69. The first four I.E. values of an elements
(a) +5.527 kJ mol-1 are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ/mole.
(b) −5.527 kJ mol-1 The number of valence electrons in
(c) +55.27 kJ mol-1 elements are :-
(d) −55.27 kJ mol-1 (a) 1
(b) 2
64. In an experiment the equilibrium (c) 3
constant for the reaction A + B ⇌ C + D (d) 4
is K when the initial concentration of A
and B each is 0.1 mol L-1 under the 70. The incorrect match among the following
similar conditions in an another is -
experiment if the initial concentration of (a) B < C < N < O (Increasing first
A and B are taken 2 and 3 mol L-1 ionisation enthalpy)

9
 (b) I < Br < F < Cl (increasing electron (c) sp3
gain enthalpy) (d) dsp2
(c) Li < Na < K <Rb (increasing metallic
radius) 76. Among the following pair of species
(d) Al3+ < Mg 2+ < Na+ < F − (increasing which are not isostructural is: -
ionic size) (a) IO−
3 and NH3
⊕
71. Give the correct order of strength of H- (b) BH4− and NH4
bond (c) PF6− and SF6
(A) O — H-----O (d) SiF4 and SF4
(B) F — H -----F
(C) Cl — H ----- Cl 77. Which of the following molecules has the
(D) N — H ----- N maximum dipole moment?
(a) A > B > C > D (a) CO2
(b) B > A > C > D (b) CH4
(c) B > A > D > C (c) NH3
(d) B > A > C > D (d) NF3

72. Statement I: CH4 and CH2 F2 are having
regular tetrahedron geometry.
Statement II: Both are having same
hybridization.
(a) Statement-I is true, statement-II is
true and statement-II is the correct
explanation for statement-I.
(b) Statement-I is true, statement-II is
true and statement-II is NOT the
correct explanation for statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is true, statement-II is
false.
(d) Statement-I is false, statement-II is
false.
73. Which compounds doesn’t exist?
(a) He2
(b) O2
(c) N2
(d) B2
78. Assertion (A): If aluminum atoms
replace a few silicon atoms in three-
dimensional network of silicon dioxide,
the overall structure acquires a negative
charge.
Reason (R): Aluminum is trivalent while
silicon is tetravalent.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
79. Which statement is not correct:-
(a) 𝜎 is directional bond
(b) p-p orbitals forms both 𝜎 and 𝜋
bond
(c) 𝜎 is stronger than 𝜋 − bond
(d) 𝜋 is stronger than 𝜎 − bond

74. Total number of elements of 5th period

80. Which of the following statements are
which have one or more than one 5d
correct?
electrons :-
(A) B2 H6 act as a lewis acid
(a) 10
(b) 16 (B) In BeCl2 (s) Octet is complete
(c) 30 (C) Hybridization of Al in Al2 Cl6 is sp3
(d) Zero
(D) In B2 H6 octet is incomplete.
75. In C3 O2, the hybridization state of C is– (a) A, B, C, D
(a) sp2 (b) A, B
(b) sp (c) A, C, D
(d) A, B, D

10
81. Correct order of stability of oxidation R C 1-Bromo-2-
state – chlorocyclohexen
(a) Pb+2 > Sn+2 > Ge+2 e
(b) Ge+2 > Sn+2 > Pb+2 S D 6-Bromo-1-
(c) Sn+2 > Ge+2 > Pb+2 chlorocyclohexen
(d) Pb+2 > Ge+2 > Sn+2 e

(a) P-C, Q-D, R-B, S-A

82. Which two elements are in same period (b) P-C, Q-D, R-A, S-B
as well as in same group of long form of (c) P-D, Q-C, R-A, S-B
periodic table? (d) P-D, Q-C, R-B, S-A
(a) Z = 23, Z = 31
(b) Z = 65, Z = 66 SECTION – B
(c) Z = 52, Z = 87
86. Which of the following compound is not
(d) Z = 58, Z = 46
resonance stabilized?

83. Match the species given in Column I with

the properties mentioned in Column II. (a)
Column I Column II
A. BF4 −
1. Oxidation state of the
central atom is +4
B. AlCl3 2. Tetrahedral shape
C. SnO 3. Lewis acid
D. PbO2 4. Can be further (b)
oxidized
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 4 3 2 (c)
(d) 4 1 3 2

84. The number of sigma and pi-bonds in

1-butene-3-yne are:
(a) 5 sigma and 5 pi
(b) 7 sigma and 3 pi
(c) 8 sigma and 2 pi
(d)
(d) 6 sigma and 4 pi

85. Matrix:
List I List II
87. Match the terms mentioned in List I with
(Compound) (IUPAC names)
the terms in List II.
P A 1-Bromo-4-
List I List II
chlorocyclohexen
e
(P) Carbocation (A) Species that
can supply a
Q B 4-Bromo-1- pair of
chlorocyclohexen electrons.
e (Q) Nucleophile (B) Conjugation
of electrons of

11
 C–H 𝜎 -bond 89. What product would result from the
with empty p- following reaction?
orbital
HBr
present at →
adjacent
positively
charged
carbon.
(R) Hyper (C) sp2
conjugation hybridised
carbon with (a)
empty p-
orbital
(S) Electrophile (D) Species that
can receive a
pair of
electrons (b)

(a) P-C, Q-A, R-B, S-D

(b) P-B, Q-A, R-D, S-C
(c) P-B, Q-D, R-C, S-A
(d) P-C, Q-D, R-A, S-B
(c)

88.

Na
→ ?
Dry ether
(d)

(a)
90. The products of the following reaction
are?

(b)

(i) O3
→ ?
(ii) H2 O, Zn

(c)

(d) (a) A and B

(b) A and C
(c) A and D
(d) B and C

12
91. What is the major organic product of the
following reaction?
(c)

Hg2+
→
H2 SO4 (d)

(a) 93.

AlCl3
→ Major
(anhydrous)

(b) product is:

(c)
(a)

(d)

(b)

92. Which undergoes electrophilic

substitution on the ring most rapidly?

(a)

(c)

(b)

(d)

13
94. Which of the following pairs are keto-
enol tautomers?
(a) CH3 − CH2 − CH = CH − CH2 − OH and
O
|| (d)
CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − C − H
(b) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH = CHOH and
O
||
CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − C − CH3
(c) CH3 CH2 CH = CH − OH and
O
97. Which of the following compounds has
|| Wrong IUPAC name?
CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − C − H (a) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − COO − CH2 CH3 ⟶
OH O
| || (ethyl-butanoate)
(d) CH3 − CHCH3 and CH3 − C − CH3 (b) CH3 − CH − CH2 − CHO ⟶
|
CH2 −CH3
95. For which of the compounds below are (3-ethyl-butanal)
cis-trans isomers possible? (c) CH3 − CH − CH − CH3 ⟶
(A) CH3 CH = CH2 | |
OH CH3
(B) CH3 CH = CHCH2 CH3
(3-methyl-2-butanol)
(C) CH3 CH = CHCH3 O
||
(a) Only B
(d) CH3 − CH − C − CH2 − CH3 ⟶
(b) Both A and B |
CH3
(c) Both B and C
(2-methyl-3-pentanone)
(d) All three

96. Which of the following pairs of molecules 98. Compare acidic-strength of following
represents a pair of enantiomers? compounds

(a)

(a) N>O>P>Q
(b) (b) Q>P>O>N
(c) N>O>P>Q
(d) Q>P>N>O

99. Which of the following compound is non-

aromatic?
(c)

(a)

14
 (b)

(c)

(d)

100. Every option in List I is associated with

one option of List II.
List I List II
P Dumas method A AgNO3
Q Kjeldahl's B Silica gel
method
R Carius method C Nitrogen
gas
S Chromatography D Ammonium
sulphate
(a) P-D, Q-A, R-B, S-C
(b) P-C, Q-D, R-A, S-B
(c) P-B, Q-D, R-A, S-C
(d) P-D, Q-B, R-A, S-C

15
 Botany

SECTION – A (a) It represents prophase of mitosis

(b) Bivalents align on the equatorial
101. In chloroplast sugar synthesis is plate in metaphase -I
dependent on the products of light (c) It shows the end of anaphase -I
reaction, which not involve : (d) Bivalents align on the equatorial
(a) PS-II and PS-I plate in anaphase
(b) Photolysis in granal thylakoid
(c) Synthesis of NADPH by PS-I 107. The enzymes involved in primary
(d) Photolysis occur in stromal lamellae CO2 fixation in C3 plants is __A__ and
by PS I located in __B__:
A B
102. Step of Calvin cycle which involve (a) PEPCase - Granal
reduction of NADP : chloroplast
(a) Oxidation (b) RuBisCO - Stroma
(b) Carboxylation (c) PEPCase - Cytosol of
(c) Regeneration mesophyll cells
(d) None (d) RuBisCO - Bundle sheath
cells
103. The plasmid DNA not have feature
similar to Nucleoid: 108. Which of the following (labelled as A, B,
(a) Present in all bacteria and carry all C, D) shows conformational change for
essential genes the synthesis of energy packed
(b) Is doble stranded and linear molecules during chemiosmosis?
(c) Is found in prokaryotes
(d) It carry gene

104. Which of the following first sugar

product of C-4 cycle :
(a) PGA
(b) OAA
(c) Malate
(d) Triose phosphate

105. Which one of plants have RUBISCO in

Bundle sheath cell
(a) Neem (a) A
(b) Pea (b) C
(c) Potato (c) D
(d) Maize (d) B

106. Select the correct option with respect to 109. Adventitious roots that provide extra
the following figure:- mechanical support to the plants is/are:
A. Stilt root
B. Prop root
C. Pneumatophores
(a) (B) and (C) only
(b) (A) only
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) (A), (B) and (C) only

16
110. The structure derived from the stem (a) Anaphase -I
only: (b) Prophase -II
(a) Tendrils of watermelon and tendrils (c) Metaphase -I
of pea (d) Prophase -I
(b) Thorns of Citrus and spines of
Opuntia 116. How many of the following terms are
(c) Stem of Euphorbia and petiole of associated with Auxin hormone?
Australian Acacia Parthenocarpy, Weedicide, Promote seed
(d) Tendrils of pumpkin and thorns of dormancy, Internodal elongation,
Bougainvillea Rooting in stem cutting, Promote female
flower in cucumber
111. Select the correct statement for (a) Two
Secondary medullary rays:- (b) Three
(a) Narrow band of collenchyma which (c) Four
passes through secondary xylem and (d) One
secondary phloem
(b) Developed due to redifferentiation 117. Redox equivalent generated during
(c) Developed from cambium and oxidation of succinate in the TCA cycle is
translocate only water up of cork received by:
cells (a) Complex -I
(d) Made up of cork cells (b) Complex -II
(c) Cytochrome c
112. Mitochondria and chloroplast differ from (d) Complex III
each other by:
(a) Presence of circular ds-DNA 118. Which of the following cannot synthesise
(b) Double membrane wall its own food?
(c) Presence of ribosomes (a) Heterocyst
(d) Presence of crista (b) Nostoc
(c) Azolla
113. Select the incorrect one with respect to (d) Sulphur bacteria
ribosomes:-
(a) Found in both prokaryotes and 119. Which one is true for the outermost layer
Eukaryotes of bacterial cell envelop?
(b) Composed of DNA and proteins (a) It is made up of mucous of
(c) Not surrounded by the any peptidoglycan
membrane (b) It protects the cell from loss of water
(d) Prokaryotic ribosomes are of 70 S and nutrients
type (c) It does not help in adhesion
(d) Its thickness and chemical
114. Select the correct statement with respect composition are same in all bacterial
to interkinesis: cells
(a) Chromosomes reach the extremely
extended state 120. Non -membrane bound organelle(s)
(b) It is exactly same like the interphase found in eukaryotic cells are:
before mitosis (a) Ribosomes
(c) Centriole duplication takes place (b) Centrioles
(d) DNA replicates during this state (c) Plastids
(d) Both (a) and (b)
115. In which of the following stages of cell
division recombinase enzymes is
required?

17
121. Consider the following statements and 126. Consider the following statements (A-C).
select the correct option for statement I Choose the correct option to fill in the
and II: blanks:
I. Chromosomes has one extremely short A. __(i)__ is the causative organism of
and one very long arm is known as dysentery.
Acrocentric. B. Spores of slime moulds are dispersed
II. Nucleolus has a site for active by __(ii)__.
synthesis of rRNA. C. Chrysophytes includes __(iii)__ and
(a) Statement – I is correct but __(iv)__.
statement – II is incorrect. (a) (i) Entamoeba (ii) Water
(b) Statement – I is incorrect but (b) (iii) Gonyaulax (iv) Golden algae
statement – II is correct. (c) (ii) water (iii) Diatoms
(c) Both statement – I and statement -II (d) (i) Entamoeba (iv) Desmids
are correct.
(d) Both statement – I and statement – II 127. Match the following columns and select
are incorrect. the correct option:
Column I Column II
122. Human cells in culture, divide once in A. Protozoans (i) Silica in wall
approximately every 24 hours. During B. Euglena (ii) Marshy
this: areas
(a) Interphase lasts for 4 hours C. Methanogens (iii) Plasmodium
(b) Completion of G1 , S and G2 phases D. Diatoms (iv) Pellicle
takes nearly 2 hours A B C D
(c) Interphase takes more than 95% of (a) iii iv ii i
the duration (b) iii ii iv i
(d) M-phase starts with disintegration of (c) ii iii i iv
nuclear membrane (d) i ii iii iv

123. Two sister chromatids move away from 128. Region of maturation in a tap root:
equatorial plate of cell in _______ phase (a) Is made up of small, thin-walled
(a) Anaphase dead cells
(b) Prophase (b) Is situated proximal to elongation
(c) Metaphase zone towards root cap
(d) Telophase (c) Undergoes rapid cells elongation and
enlargement
124. Which tissue is part of ground tissue not (d) Gives rise to unicellular root hairs
stele from some of its epidermal cells.
(a) Root hair
(b) Pith 129. The given aestivation is ___(i)__ and
(c) Pericycle found in __(ii)__.
(d) Cortex

125. Select the odd match for kingdom

Monera:
(a) Photosynthetic autotrophs: Blue
green algae
(b) Chemosynthetic autotrophs: Archae
bacteria
(c) Common shaped bacterium : Vibrio
(d) Heterotrophic bacteria : Anabaena
Here (i) and (ii) are respectively:
(a) Twisted and China rose
(b) Vexillary and Indigofera
(c) Valvate and Calotropis
(d) Vexillary and Lily

18
130. In which of the following plants, the (a) Ectocarpus
margin of thalamus grows further (b) Dictyota
upward completely enclosing the ovary (c) Laminaria
and getting fused with it and bears the (d) Porphyra
sepals, petals and stamens above the
ovary?
(a) Hypogynous SECTION – B
(b) Perigynous
(c) Epigynous 136. The given figure shows the
(d) Half inferior haplodiplontic life cycle.

131. Read the given statements and choose

the correct option:
I. In glycolysis of one glucose molecule,
4 ATP are directly synthesized
II. During glycolysis of one glucose
molecule, 2 ATP are consumed.
(a) Statement – I is correct but
statement -II is incorrect.
(b) Statement – I is incorrect but
statement – II is correct.
(c) Both statement – I and statement -II
are correct. Select the incorrect statement with
(d) Both statement – I and statement -II respect to given type of life cycle.
are incorrect. (a) Meiosis occurs at the time of spore
formation in sporophytic plant.
132. Which is not true about Agaricus (b) Gametophytic plant is produced by
(a) Dikaryon germination of spores.
(b) Septate hyphae (c) Most algae also show this type of life
(c) Exogenously produced asexual cycle.
spore (d) This life cycle is exhibited by many
(d) Exogenously produce sexual spore bryophytes and pteridophytes.

133. Which of the best stage to study the 137. Identify the (i), (ii) and (iii):
morphology of chromosomes?
(a) Metaphase
(b) Prophase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase

134. How many of the given organisms have

coenocytic mycelium? (a) (i) Selaginella, (ii) Equisetum, (iii)
Rhizopus, Neurospora, Ustilago, Azolla
Penicillium, Albugo, Morels, Mucor. (b) (i) Salvinia, (ii) Lycopodium, (iii)
(a) Five Azolla
(b) Three (c) (i) Sphagnum, (ii) Lycopodium, (iii)
(c) Four Selaginella
(d) Two (d) (i) Selaginella, (ii) Equisetum, (iii)
Salvinia
135. Gametes bear two laterally attached
flagella in all the given, except:

19
138. Match the entities in column I with their
character in column II:
Column I Column II
A Chlorophyce i Freshwater(so
ae me), brackish
water, salt
water (most)
B Phaeophyce ii Freshwater,
ae brackish
water, salt
water
C Rhodophyce iii Freshwater
ae (rare) brackish
water, salt
(a) (A)- Dicot stem, (B) – Monocot stem
water
(b) (A)- Dicot root, (B)-Monocot root
D Liverworts iv Moist shady
(c) (A)- Monocot stem, (B)-Dicot stem
areas in the
(d) (A)-Monocot Root, (B)-Dicot root
hills and have
leafy stage and
141. Identify given diagrams X, Y and choose
protonema
the correct answer for labelled (A), (B),
E Mosses v Moist, shady
(C) and (D) of given diagrams.
habitats such
as banks of
streams,
marshy
ground, damp
soil, bark of
trees and deep
in the woods.
(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v)
(c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)
(d) More than one

139. Assertion : Cassia and Gulmohur, the

aestivation is called imbricate.
Reason : One margin of the appendage
overlaps that of the next one and so on
it is called imbricate.
(a) Assertion and reason both are true
and the reason is correct explanation
of assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are true
but reason is not correct explanation
of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(d) Assertion and reason both are wrong
140. Identify given diagrams (A) and (B),
choose the correct option.
(a) (X) – Monocot stomata; (Y) -Dicot
stomata; (A) -Epidermal cell, (B)-
Subsidiary cell, (C)-Chloroplast, (D)-
Guard cell
(b) (X) – Dicot stomata; (Y) -Monocot
stomata; (A) - Subsidiary cell, (B)-
Epidermal cell, (C)-Guard cell, (D)-
Chloroplast
(c) (X) – Dicot stomata; (Y) -Monocot
stomata; (A) – Epidermal cell, (B)-
Subsidiary cell, (C)-Chloroplast, (D)-
Guard cell
(d) (X) – Dicot stomata; (Y) -Monocot
stomata; (A) - Chloroplast, (B)-Guard
cell, (C)-Epidermal cell, (D)-
Subsidiary cell

20
 (C) Convolvulaceae (iii) Family
142. A disc-shaped structure which present (D) Polymoniales (iv) Specific
for attachment with spindle fibre is epithet
called: A B C D
(a) Kinetochore (a) ii iv iii i
(b) Centrosome (b) iv iii i ii
(c) Telomere (c) iii ii iv i
(d) Chromatids (d) iv ii i iii

143. Match the entities in column I with their 147. Cotton fibre and pulp from tree mainly
character in column II: have :
Column I Column II (a) Chitin
(A) Inclusion (i) Blue-green, (b) Glucosamine
bodies purple and (c) Cutin
green (d) Cellulose
photosynthetic
bacteria 148. Select the incorrect statement about
(B) Mesosome (ii) Subunits – taxon – genus.
50S and 30S (a) It is a group or assemblage of related
(C) Gas (iii) Analogous to species
vacuoles mitochondria (b) A genus essentially possesses more
(D) 70S (iv) Translate the than one number of species
ribosomes m-RNA into (c) Lion, tiger, Leopard are closely
proteins in related species which have been
prokaryotes placed in the genes Panthera
(E) Polysome (v) Reserve (d) Solanum, Penicillium and Canis are
material in the examples of genera.
prokaryotes
(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii) 149. How many statements are incorrect
(b) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(iii) about viroids?
(c) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iv) (A) They can pass through bacteria-
(d) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iii) proof filters
(B) They are nucleoprotein
144. Homopolymer which is part of Acid (C) They are non-pathogenic
insoluble pool is : (D) High molecular weight
(a) Glycogen (a) One
(b) Insulin protein (b) Two
(c) Palmitic acid (c) Three
(d) tRNA (d) Four

145. Which of the following are not secondary 150. Choose the Odd one w.r.t. examples of
metabolites in plants? presence of endosperm in seed
(a) Lectins, Gums (a) Maize
(b) Morphine, Cellulose (b) Soyabean
(c) Glycine, Ribose (c) Castor
(d) Abrin, Curcumin (d) Wheat

146. Match List -I with List -II:

List -I List -II
(A) Mangifera (i) Order
(B) tuberosum (ii) Genus

21
 Zoology
155. Match the following columns.
SECTION – A Column – I Column – II
A. These possess 1. Trygon
151. Amino acids are organic compounds electric organs
containing B. Animals of this 2. Cyclostomata
(a) Amino group only class are
(b) Acidic group only poikilothemous
(c) An amino group and an acidic group C. These possess 3. Torpedo
as substituents on the same carbon poison string
(d) An amino group and an acidic group D. These migrate 4. Chondrichthyes
as substituents on the different for spawning to
carbon freshwater
5. Petromyzon
152. Which one of the following phyla is 6. Exocoetus
correctly matched with its general Codes:
characteristics? A B C D
(a) Porifera – Cellular level of (a) 6 1 3 2
organization and external (b) 1 4 6 5
fertilization (c) 3 4 1 5
(b) Coelenterate – Diploblastic and (d) 3 4 6 2
mostly Asymmetric
(c) Aschelminthes – Pseudocoelomates 156. Which of the following statements are
and dioecious true/false?
(d) Hemichordate – Coelomates and I. Cell aggregate body plan is found in
closed circulatory system Taenia
II. Pleurobrachia posses radial symmetry
153. Which of the following groups of animals III. Pseudocoelom is found in Nereis.
have the following feature? IV. Nephridia help in osmoregulation
I. Diploblastic organization and excretion in Locusta
II. Acoelomate V. The members of subphylum
III. Radial symmetry Vertebrata possess vertebral column
(a) Planaria, Physalia, Aurelia, during the embryonic period and in
(b) Taenia, Fasciola, Wuchereria adult stage
(c) Adamsia, Meandrina (a) I and V are true and II, III and IV are
(d) Fasciola, Sycon, Sea walnut false
(b) II, III and V are true and I and IV are
154. Which of the following correctly state as false
it happens in the common cockroach? (c) I, II and III are true and IV and V are
(a) Malpighian tubules are excretory false
organs projecting out from the colon. (d) I, III, IV and V are false, only II is true
(b) Oxygen is transported by
hemoglobin in blood. 157. The most important muscular structure
(c) Nitrogenous excretory product is in respiratory system of human is
urea. (a) External intercostal muscles
(d) Gizzard helps in grinding the food (b) Internal intercostal muscles
particles. (c) Diaphragm
(d) Vertebral column

22
158. Respiration involves the following steps, 164. Number of cranial nerves in frog is :
except: (a) 10 pairs
(a) Diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 across (b) 12 pairs
alveolar membrane (c) 8 pairs
(b) Transport of gases by the blood (d) 14 pairs
(c) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between
blood and tissues 165. Match column-I with column-II w.r.t.
(d) Pulmonary ventilation by which renal disorders and select the correct
atmospheric air is released out and option given below :
CO2 rich air is draw in Column-I Column-II
a. Uraemia i. The
159. Air that remains in lung after most concentration
powerful expiration is of urea is
(a) Inspiratory air increased in
(b) Dead space air blood
(c) Tidal air b. Glomerulonephritis ii. Inflammation
(d) Residual air of glomeruli
c. Renal calculi iii. Stone or
160. Select the correct statement related to insoluble
squamous epithelium mass of
(a) Made of a single thin layer of flattened crystallized
cells with irregular boundaries salts formed
(b) Found in the walls of blood vessels in kidney
and air sacs of lungs d. Glycosuria iv. Presence of
(c) Involved in functions like forming a glucose in
diffusion boundary urine
(d) All of these
(a) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(b) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
161. The second heart sound (dubb) is
(c) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
associated with the closure of
(d) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(a) Tricuspid valve
(b) Semilunar valves
166. A special case of Rh incompatibility has
(c) Bicuspid valve
been observed in which case :
(d) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(a) Foetus 𝑅ℎ− and Mother 𝑅ℎ+
(b) Mother 𝑅ℎ− and Foetus 𝑅ℎ+
162. Each rib is a thin flat bone connected
(c) Foetus 𝑅ℎ+ and Mother 𝑅ℎ+
dorsally to?
(d) Foetus 𝑅ℎ− and Mother 𝑅ℎ−
(a) Sternum
(b) Vertebral column 167. Which type of WBCs are most abundant
(c) Diaphragm in blood ?
(d) Scapula (a) Acidophils
(b) Basophils
163. How many in the given examples of (c) Lymphocytes
animals are Coelenterates -? (d) Neutrophils
Physalia, Obelia, Planaria, Pennatula,
Gorgonia, Pleurobrachia, Meandrina 168. In which one of the following groups all
and Taenia. animals are hermaphrodite:
(a) Hydra, Ascaris, Pheretima
(a) Three
(b) Hydra, Homo sapiens, Leech
(b) Four
(c) Tapeworm, Toad, Starfish
(c) Five
(d) Spongilla, Leech, Tapeworm
(d) Six
23
169. Match the column-I with the column-II 173. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body
and find out the correct answer : continuous to beat for sometimes.
Column-I Column-II Select the best option from the following
A. Spongocoel i. Arthropoda statements
B. Dorso- ii. Cnidaria (i) Frog is a poikilotherm
ventrally (ii) Frog does not have any coronary
flattened circulation
body (iii) Heart is “Myogenic” in nature
C. Coelenteron iii. Porifera (iv) Heart is auto excitable
cavity Options:
D. Chitinous iv. Platyhelminthes (a) Only iv
exoskeleton (b) i and ii
(c) iii and iv
(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (d) Only iii
(b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i 174. Which of the following is incorrect match
(d) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i of W.B.Cs with its functions :
(a) Neutrophils - Phagocytic cells
170. Find out the correct match from the (b) Eosinophils – Resist infections and
following table : are also associated with allergic
Column I Column II Column reactions
III (c) Basophils – Secrete histamine
(i) At tissue 𝑝𝑂2 = 40 𝑝𝐶𝑂2 = 45 serotonin and Heparin
level mm Hg mm Hg (d) T-Lymphocytes – 20-25 percent of
(ii) In 𝑝𝑂2 = 95 𝑝𝐶𝑂2 = 50 total WBCs
pulmona mm Hg mm Hg
ry vein 175. Read the following statement and select
(iii) In 𝑝𝑂2 = 40 𝑝𝐶𝑂2 = 40 incorrect one :
systemic mm Hg mm Hg (a) Low temperature preserves the
artery enzyme in a temporarily inactive
(iv) In alveoli 𝑝𝑂2 = 104 𝑝𝐶𝑂2 = 40 state
mm Hg mm Hg (b) Enzyme activity increases above
(a) Both (i) and (ii) optimum temperature
(b) Both (iii) and (iv) (c) Enzyme gets denatured at high
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) temperature
(d) Both (i) and (iv) (d) Enzymes generally function in a
narrow range of temperature and pH
171. One of the following is a very unique
feature of the mammalian body - 176. Conversion of tadpole into adult is called
(a) Presence of Mammary gland (a) Metagenesis
(b) Four chambered heart (b) Metamorphosis
(c) Tympanum (c) Metamerism
(d) Homeothermy (d) All of these

172. Incorrect statement related to- 177. Assertion A: Testosterone is a steroid

Ornithorhynchus is hormone.
(a) Belongs to class Mammalia Reason R: Cortisol is produced by
(b) Also called platypus adrenal cortex.
(c) Give birth to young ones (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
(d) None of these true and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.

24
 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are (b) Somatostatin
true but Reason is not a correct (c) Vasopressin
explanation of the Assertion. (d) Growth hormone releasing hormone
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is
false. 182. Which one of the following disease is not
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are concerned with thyroxine?
false. (a) Acromegaly
(b) Goitre
178. Glucose and amino acids in the filtrate (c) Critinism
are reabsorbed by tubular epithelial cells (d) Grave's disease
through
(a) Active transport 183. Which epithelium is found in ducts of
(b) Passive transport glands and tubular parts of nephrons in
(c) Both (1) and (2) kidneys
(d) Osmosis (a) Columnar Epithelium
(b) Squamous Epithelium
179. Correctly match column-I with column- (c) Cuboidal Epithelium
II. (d) Stratified Epithelium
Column-I Column-II
184. Match the following joints with the bones
A. Cardiac (i) Heart not
involved:
arrest pumping blood
a. Gliding i. Between carpal
effectively
joint and metacarpal
B. Heart (ii) Heart muscle is
of thumb
Failure suddenly
damages b. Hinge joint ii. Between Atlas
C. Heart (iii) Acute chest and Axis
attack pain c. Pivot joint iii. Between the
D. Angina (iv) Heart stops Carpals
beating d. Saddle iv. Knee joint
joint
(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) Select the correct option from the
(b) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) following:
(c) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (a) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) (b) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(c) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
180. Statement A: Carbonic anhydrase (d) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)
is present in the erythrocytes.
Statement B: In erythrocytes the 185. The receptors of protein hormones are
carbon-dioxide combine with water and present on
is transported. (a) Nucleous
(a) Statement A and B are correct. (b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Statement A is incorrect but (c) Cell surface
Statement B is correct (d) Cytopiasm
(c) Both Statement A and B are
incorrect SECTION – B
(d) Statement A is correct and statement 186. Function of cementing to keep
B is incorrect neighbouring cells together is performed
by :
181. Which of the following hormones is not (a) Tight junction
transported from hypothalamus to (b) Gap junction
pituitary by portal system (c) Adhering junction
(a) GnRH (d) All of these
25
187. Which of the following is also known as 194. Transmission of nerve impulse is
antidiuretic hormone? unidirectional due to
(a) Oxytocin (a) Insulation of nerve fibre by
(b) Vasopressin medullary sheath
(c) Adrenaline (b) Neurotransmitter released only by
(d) Aldosterone the axon endings
(c) Neurotransmitter released only by
188. Chemically glomerular filtrate is similar the dendrite ends
to blood plasma, except (d) Sodium pump starts from cyton and
(a) Urea then continues into the nerve fibre
(b) Glucose
(c) Proteins 195. Role of calcium during muscle
(d) Electrolytes contraction is that
(a) Binds with a subunit of troponin on
189. Each eye of cockroach consist of about: myosin filaments and thereby
(a) 200 hexagonal ommatidia remove the masking of active sites
(b) 2000 hexagonal ommatidia for actin
(c) 20000 hexagonal ommatidia (b) Binds with a subunit of troponin on
(d) 400 hexagonal ommatidia actin filaments and thereby remove
the masking of active sites for
190. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to myosin
release ________, which can stimulate (c) It binds to actin binding site on
the glomerular blood flow and thereby myosin
restore the GFR back to normal. (d) It prevents contraction of sarcomere
(a) Renin
(b) Angiotensin-II 196. Assertion: Neurons are excitable cells.
(c) Rennin Reason: Their membranes are in a
(d) Erythropoietin polarized state.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
191. In a DNA molecule adenine of one strand and reason is the correct explanation
base pairs with ______ on the other of assertion
strand (b) If both assertion and reason are true
(a) Guanine but reason is not the correct
(b) Thymine explanation of assertion
(c) Cytosine (c) If assertion is true but reason is
(d) Both (a) and (c) false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
192. Which of the following is not related to
Aves? 197. Brain can be divided into
(a) Presence of feathers (a) Three major parts-cerebrum,
(b) Pneumatic bones thalamus and hypothalamus
(c) Poikilothermous (b) Three major parts- piamater,
(d) Respiration by lungs arachnoid and durameter
(c) Three major parts – pons,
193. What should be added to a nucleoside to cerebellum and medulla
yield a nucleotide? (d) Three major parts – forebrain,
(a) Sugar midbrain and hindbrain
(b) Phosphate
(c) Nitrogenous base
(d) Sugar and nitrogenous base

26
198. Which of the following is not a part of
axial skeleton
(a) Skull
(b) Vertebral column
(c) Ribs
(d) Carpels

199. Function of our visceral organs is

controlled by
(a) Sympathetic and somatic neural
system
(b) Sympathetic and parasympathetic
neural system
(c) Central and somatic nervous system
(d) None of the above

200. Number of phalanges in human hand is

(a) 14
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 16

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