11th Full Syllabus Test - 04 (NEET)

Physics
Write answers in the provided space. MM : 720 (+4R, -1W)

1. Which of the following represents the correct 6. A force of –F k̂ acts on O, the origin of coordinate
dimension of the cofficient of viscosity ? system torque about the point (1, –1) is
(1) ML–1T–2 (2) MLT–1 (1) F(iˆ – ˆj) (2) –F (iˆ  ˆj)
(3) ML–1T–1 (4) ML–2T–2
(3) F ( î  ĵ) (4) –F(iˆ – ˆj)
2. A particle moves along a circle of radius 20 cm
with a constant tangential acceleration 5 cm/s2. 7. Reading shown in two spring balances, S1 and S2
How much time is needed after motion begins for is 60 kg and 30 kg respectively and lift is
the normal acceleration of the particle to be equal accelerating upward with acceleration 10 m/s2.
to tangential acceleration ? The mass is stationary with respect to lift. Then
(1) 1 sec (2) 2sec the mass of the block will be
(3) 3 sec (4) 4 sec 10 m/s2
3. A thin wire of length 2 and mass  is bent in the
form of a semicircle. Its moment of inertia about S1
the line joining the free ends would be :-
(1) 2  (2) 4  (3) 6  (4) None
4. Two solids A and B float in water. It is observed m
that A floats with half its volume immersed and
S2
B floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed.
Compare the densities of A and B:
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (1) 45 kg (2) 30 kg
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 1 : 3 (3) 60 kg (4) 15 kg

5. A thermodynamic process is shown in the 8. A wheel initially at rest, is rotated with a uniform
following figure. The pressure and volumes angular acceleration. The wheel rotates through
corresponding to some points in the figure are : an angle 1 in first one second and through an
PA = 3 × 104 Pa, VA = 2 × 10–3 m3 additional angle 2 in the next two second. The
PB = 8 × 104 Pa, VD = 5 × 10–3 m3 2
ratio  is
1
B C
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 8 (4) 3

9. A ball rises to surface with constant velocity in

P a liquid whose density is 4 times that of material
A D
of ball. The ratio of force of friction and weight
V of ball is :-
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
In the process AB, 600 J of heat is added to the
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
system and in the process BC, 200 J of heat is
added to the system. The change in internal energy
of the system in the process AC would be :-
(1) 560 J (2) 800 J (3) 600 J (4) 640 J
10. Two simple harmonic motions of angular 15. A particle it the end of a spring executes simple
frequency 100 and 1000 rads–1 have the same harmonic mation with a period t1, while the
displacement amplitude. corresponding period for another spring is t2. If the
The ratio of their maximum accelerations is :- period of oscillation with the two springs in series is
(1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104 (3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102 T, then. :-
3
11. If y = x , draw the y–x graph.
(1) T = t1 + t2 (2) T 2  t12  t 22
y y
(3) T 1  t11  t 21 (4) T 2  t12  t 22
(1) x (2) x 16. The leastcount of a screw guage is 0.01 mm. The
percentage error in measuring 5 mm thickness will be :-
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.1%
y y
(3) 0.2% (4) 0.02%

(3) x (4) x 17. A 1kg block is being pushed against a wall by a

force F = 75 N as shown in the Figure. The
12. A helicopter of mass M is carrying a box of mass coefficient of friction is 0.25. The magnitude of
m at the end of a rope and is moving horizontally acceleration of the block is
with constant acceleration 'a'. The acceleration due
to gravity is 'g'. Neglect air resistance. The rope
is stretched out from the helicopter at a constant
angle  to the vertical. What is this angle?
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 20 m/s2
(1) sin = a/g
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) none
(2) cos = a/g
18. A satellite moving round the earth in a circular
(3) tan = a/g
orbit of radius r and speed v suddenly loses
(4) sin = ma/(Mg) some of its energy. Then :-
13. If a particle in a rigid body revolves through 120° (1) r will increase and v will decrease
in  minutes, then its angular velocity will be :– (2) both r and v will decrease
1 2 (3) both r and v will increase
(1) rad/sec. (2) rad/sec. (4) r will decrease and v will increase
90 3
19. Figure shows four P-V diagrams of the given
3.14 (4) It will be sample of gas. In which case no exchange of heat
(3) rad/sec. different for
180  6 occurs with the sample ?
different particles
14. Two jars A and B contain helium gas at pressure
of 1 atm and 2 atm respectively at room
P R
temerpature. They are mixed. If V1 is the P
Q S
RMS velocity of molecules in A, V2 of those
in B and V that of mixture, then check the
correct statement :- V

(1) V is less than V1 and V2 (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

(2) V is greater than V1 and V2
(3) V1 = V2 = V
(4) V is between V1 and V2
20. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by 25. Two waves are represented by the equations
y1 = asin(t + kx + 0.57) m and

y1  5 sin 2t  3 cos 2 t  y2 = acos(t + kx) m,

  Where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The phase

y 2  5sin  2t   difference between them is :-
 4
(1) 1.0 radian (2) 1.25 radian
The ratio of the amplitudes of two SHM'S is :-
(3) 1.57 radian (4) 0.57 radian
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
26. A ball A is thrown up vertically with a speed u
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1: 3 at the same instant another ball B is released from
21. A particle is moving with uniform acceleration a height h. At time t, the speed of A relative to
along a straight line AB. Its speed at A and B are B is :- (when both are in air)
2m/sec and 14 m/sec respectively. Then its speed (1) u (2) 2u
at the midpoint of AB is :- (3) u – 2gt (4) u 2  gt
(1) 10 m/sec (2) 8 m/sec
(3) 12 m/sec (4) 6 m/sec 27. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2kg varies
3t 2
22. A boy of mass m standing on a block of mass M with time as P = watt, Here t is in second.
which in turn lying on a rough surface of 2
If the velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, the
coefficient of static friction . Boy is pulling him
through pulley system shown in the figure. The velocity of particle at time t = 2 sec. will be :-
maximum force he can exert so that block does (1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s
not slip :
(3) 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m/s
28. A body weighs 250 N on the surface of the earth.
How much will it weigh half way down to the
centre of the earth ?
(1) 125 N (2) 150 N
(3) 175 N (4) 250 N
29. When x grams of steam at 100ºC is mixed with
mM
(1) m(M + m) g (2)  g y grams of ice at 0ºC, we obtain (x+y) grams of
Mm water at 100ºC. What is the ratio y/x ?
(M  m)g (M  m)g (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) (4)
(1 ) 1  30. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency 100 kHz
23. A saturn year is 29.5 times the earth year. in air. If this sound meets a water surface, the
How far is the saturn from the sun if the earth is
wavelengths of the reflected and transmitted
1.5 × 108 away from the sun ?
sound are (speed of sound in air = 340 m s–1 and
(1) 1.4 × 106 km (2) 1.4 × 107 km
(3) 1.4 × 108 km (4) 1.4 × 109 km in water = 1500 m s–1) :-
(1) 3.4 mm, 30 mm (2) 6.8 mm, 15 mm
24. Two spheres of radii R1 and R2 have densities
1 and 2 and specific heats C1 and C2. If they (3) 3.4 mm, 15 mm (4) 6.8 mm, 30 mm
are heated to the same temperature, the ratio of
their rates of cooling will be :-
R 2 2 C 2 R12C 2
(1) R  C (2) R  C
1 1 1 2 1 1

R 21C 2 R 22C1
(3) R  C (4) R  C
1 2 1 1 1 2
31. Two buses A and B are at positions 50 m and 35. String A has a length L, radius of cross-section r,
100 m from the origin at time t = 0. They start density of material  and is under tension T. String
moving in the same direction simultaneously with B has all these quantities double those of string A.
uniform velocity of 10 m/sec and 5 m/sec. if A and B are the corresponding fundamental
Determine the position from origin at which A frequencies of the vibrating string, then :-
over takes B.
(1) A = 2B
(1) 110m (2) 150 m
(3) 100m (4) 200m (2) A = 4B

32. v(in m/s) (3) B = 4A

(4) A = B
10
10 36. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the
0
t (in sec) ground and a student looking out of the window
–20
sees it moving upward past him at 10 m/sec. The
The velocity-time graph of a particle moving in window is at 15m above the ground level. The
a straight line is shown in figure. The mass of the velocity of ball 3sec after it was projected from
particle is 2kg. Work done by all the forces acting the ground is (g = 10 m/s2) :
on the particle in time interval between t = 0 to
(1) 10 m/sec up
t = 10 sec. is :
(2) 20 m/sec up
(1) 300 J (2) –300 J
(3) 400 J (4) –400 J (3) 20 m/sec down
(4) 10 m/sec down
33. An asteroid of mass m is approaching earth,
37. y
initially at a distance 10 RE with speed Vi. It hits
earth with a speed Vf (RE and ME are radius and
mass of earth), then :- a
2
2Gm  1  a a
(1) Vf2  Vi2  1   2
R E  10 
a x
2GM E  1  A square of side a and uniform thickness is divided
(2) Vf2  Vi2  1  
RE  10  into four equal parts. If the upper right part is
removed as shown in figure, then the coordinates
of centre of mass of remaining part are :
2GM E  1 
(3) Vf2  Vi2  1    5 5  7 7
RE  10  (1)  a, a  (2)  a, a 
 12 12   12 12 
1 1 1 1 
(4) Vf2  Vi2 
2Gm  1  (3)  a, a  (4)  a, a 
1   4 4  3 3 
R E  10 
38. A uniform steel rod of density , cross sectional
34. 1 mole of oxygen is mixed with 1 mole of area A and length  is suspended vertically. The
argon. The external work done when this stress at the middle point of the rod is :-
mixture is heated at constant pressure through 1 1
1ºC is :- (1) g (2) gl
2 4
(1) R (2) 2R (3) g (4) 2g
(3) 3R (4) 4R
39. A carnot engine uses first an ideal monoatomic 43.
gas ( = 5/3) and then an ideal diatomic gas
( = 7/5) as its working substance. The source and
sink temperature are 411ºC and 69ºC respectively
and the engine extracts 1000 J of heat from the
source in each cycle. Then :-
(1) the efficiencies of the engine in the two cases
are in the ratio 21 : 25 44.
(2) the area enclosed by the P–V diagram in the
first case only is 500 J
(3) the area enclosed by the P–V diagram in both
cases is 500 J
(4) the heat energy rejected by the engine in the
first case in 600 J while that in the second case
is 714.3 J
40. An organ pipe of length L open at both ends is
found to vibrate in its first harmonic when 45.
sounded with a tuning fork of 480 Hz. What
should be the length of a pipe closed at one end,
so that it also vibrates in its first harmonic with
the same tuning fork ?
Water rises to a height h in a capillary tube at the
surface of earth. On the surface of moon, the height
of water column in the same capillary will be:-
h
(1) 6h (2)
6
(3) h (4) zero
The radiant energy from the sun, incident normally
at the surface of earth, is 20 kcal/m2–min. What
would have been the radiant energy incident
normally on the earth, if the sun had a temperature
twice of the present one ?
(1) 40 kcal/m2–min
(2) 80 kcal/m2–min
(3) 160 kcal/m2–min
(4) 320 kcal/m2–min
A band playing music at a frequency  is moving
towards a wall at a speed v b. A motorist is
following the band with a speed vm. If v is the
speed of sound, the expression for the beat

L L frequency heard by the motorist is :-

(1) (2)
4 2 v  vm v  vm
(3) L (4) 2L (1) v  v  (2) v  v 
b b

41. The range of a projectile at angle is equal to

2v b (v  v m ) 2v m (v  v b )
half of the maximum range if thrown at the same (3)  (4) 
v 2  v 2b v 2  v 2m
speed. The angle of projection is given by :-
(1) 15º (2) 30º (3) 60º (4) 45º
V
A B C
42. m m 4m

Three blocks are initially placed as shown in the

figure. Block A has mass m and initial velocity
V to the right. Block B with mass m and block
C with mass 4m are both initially at rest. Neglect
friction. All collisions are perfectly elastic. The
final velocity of block A is :-
(1) 0.6V to the left
(2) 1.4V to the left
(3) V to the left
(4) 0.4V to the right
 Chemistry

46. Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of 52. An organic compound C4H6 on ozonolysis gives
basicity :- formaldehyde and glyoxal. The compound is :-
(a) C6H5–NH2 (b) o-NO2–C6H4–NH2 (1) CH3–CC–CH3
(c) m-NO2–C6H4–NH2 (d) p-NO2–C6H4–NH2
(2) CH2=CH–CH=CH2
(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > a > c > d
(3) Cyclobutene
(3) a > c > d > b (4) a > c > b > d
47. The reagent which is used to distinguish between (4) 2-Methylcyclopropene
propene and propyne is ? 53. Which of the following weak acids will make a
(1) Bromine (2) Alkaline KMnO4 salt with NaOH, that undergoes maximum
(3) Ammoniacal AgNO3 (4) Ozone hydrolysis under similar conditions ?
48. Which of the following on mixing can form a (1) HCN (Ka = 10–6M)
buffer solution ? (2) CH3COOH (Ka=10–5M)
(1) 0.2 mol HCN + 0.1 mol HCl (3) HCOOH (Ka = 10–4M)
(2) 0.5 mol NaCN + 0.2 mol HNO3 (4) HNO2 (Ka = 10–3M)
(3) 0.2 mol KOH + 0.1 mol HCl
54. The kinetic and potential energy (in eV) of
(4) 0.4 mol HCN + 0.2 mol NaCl
electron present in third Bohr's orbit of hydrogen
49. What is mass of N2F4 produced by the reaction
atom are respectively :-
of 2.0 g of NH3 and 8.0 g of F2
(1) –1.51, –3.02 (2) 1.51, –3.02
2NH3 + 5F2  N2F4 + 6HF
(3) –3.02, 1.51 (4) 1.51, –1.51
(1) 6.11 g (2) 4.33 g
55. Which of the following oxides has a three
(3) 7.92 g (4) 10 g
dimensional structure ?
50. Which of the following do not contains dangling
(1) CO (2) CO2 (3) SiO2 (4) SO2
bonds–
56. Arrange these three compounds in decreasing
(1) Diamond (2) Fullerene order of C–Cl bond length.
(3) Graphite (4) All of these (A) CH3–CH2–Cl (B) CH2=CH–Cl
(C) HCC–Cl
51. Which of the following carbanion is most stable?
(1) A > B > C (2) C > B > A
–
CH2 (3) B > C > A (4) A > C > B
–
CH2 57. The IUPAC name of Cl3C.CHO is :-
(1)
NO2
(2) (1) Trichloroacetaldehyde
(2) 1,1,1-Trichloroethanal
NO2
(3) 2,2,2-Trichloroethanal
– (4) Chloral
– CH2
CH2
CN
(3) (4)
CN
58. Based on the following thermochemical equations 63. Consider the following reaction,
H2O(g) + C(s)  CO(g) + H2(g); H = 131 kJ 3Br2 + 6CO32– + 3H2O  5Br– + BrO3– + 6HCO3–
CO(g) + 1/2O2(g)  CO2(g); H = –282 kJ Which of the following statements is true
H2(g) + 1/2O2(g)  H2O(g); H = –242 kJ regarding this reaction :-
C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g); H = X kJ (1) Bromine is oxidized and the carbonate is
The value of X will be :- reduced
(1) –393 kJ (2) –655 kJ (2) Bromine is reduced and the carbonate is
(3) +393 kJ (4) +655 kJ oxidized.
59. Which of the following set of quatum numbers (3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized.
is impossible for an electron ?
(4) Bromine is both reduced and oxidized.
1 64. Select pair of compound in which both have
(1) n = 1,  = 0, m = 0, s = +
2 different hybridisation but have same molecular
1 geometry:-
(2) n = 9,  = 7, m = –6, s = –
2 (1) BF3, BrF3 (2) ICl2, BeCl2
1 (3) BCl3, PCl3 (4) PCl3, NCl3
(3) n = 2,  = 1, m = 0, s = +
2
1 65. Which of the following reaction does not take
(4) n = 3,  = 2, m = –3, s = + place:-
2
(1) Na + H2O   (2) Mg + H O
Cold 

Hot 

60. X 

 Y 

 Z (Glassy material) 2
(3) Be + H O 
2
 (4) Li + H O 
Steam  2

H ot 

Oxidisin g
Z + CoO 
Flame
 W. (Blue bead)
66. The most stable free radical is :-
Incorrect statements is :-
Me
(1) Aqueous solution of X is basic in nature but
acidic buffer solution (1) (2)
(2) W is Co(BO2)
(3) Z is (NaBO2 + B2O3)
(4) X can be prepared by reaction of colemanite (3) (4)
with Na2CO3
61. Which of the following is a non-aromatic
compound/species ?
67. Total number of 1º isomeric alcohols with the
+ molecular formula C4H10O is :-
(A) (B)
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

+ 68. Choose the pair of species in which O.N. of

(C) (D) nitrogen is same :-
+
(1) NO2–, N2O3 (2) NO3–, NO2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (3) NO, N2O5 (4) None
62. The IUPAC name of the compound is
69. The correct order of B-F bond length follows the
CH3 sequence :-
HO CH3 (1) BF3 < BF4 < BF2OH

(1) 1,1-dimethyl-3-hydroxycyclohexane (2) BF2OH < BF3 < BF4

(2) 3,3-dimethyl-1-hydroxycyclohexane (3) BF3 < BF2OH < BF4
(3) 3,3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol (4) BF4 < BF3 < BF2OH
(4) 1,1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol
70. Correct option is :- 75. Match list I with list II and select the correct
Compound Use answer using the code given below :
(1) Gypsum rapid setting of cement List I List II
(2) K2O in submarines to purify air (Successive ionisation energies) Elements
(3) Zeolite catalyst & water softener IE1 IE2 IE3
–1
(4) All (KJ mo )
A 2080 3962 6130 (a) H
71. Which of the following compound is most acidic? B 520 7297 11810 (b) Li
OH C 900 1758 14810 (c) Be
NO2 D 800 2428 3660 (d) B
(1) OH (2) (e) Ne
(1) A-c, B-b, C-d, D-e (2) A-a, B-c, C-b, D-d
OH (3) A-d, B-a, C-b, D-d (4) A-e, B-b, C-c, D-d
OH 76. Which of the following species cannot function
as an electrophile ?
(3) (4)
(1) H3C  Cl
(2) C
NO2 NO2
2

(3) SiF4 (4) H 3O

72. Which of the following compound will show
geometrical isomerism ? 77. If 40 gm of CaCO3 is treated with 40 gm of HCl,
which of the reactants will act as limiting reagent?
Cl
(1) CaCO3 (2) HCl
(1) (2) CH3CH=NOH (3) Both are equal (4) Can't predict
Cl
78. The work done by a weightless piston in causing
an expansion V (at constant temperature), when
(3) (4) All of them
the opposing pressure P is variable, is given by :
73. Which of the following will have minimum
ionisation
(1) W = – z
(3) W = – PV
PdV (2) W = 0
(4) None
(1) 0.01 M HCN (2) 0.001 M HF
(3) 0.1 M HNO3 (4) 0.01 M HCl 79. Select incorrect order :-
74. Identify total correct statements :- (1) Thermal stability-LiNO3 < NaNO3 < KNO3
(a) BF3 is a weak lewis acid due to back bonding.
(2) Solubility-LiClO4 < NaClO4 < KClO4
(b) Me3 C–OH is a weak acid than Me3 Si–OH
(3) Thermal stability-Be(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 <
(c) CHF3 is a strong protonic acid than CHCl3
Sr(OH)2
(d) :CH2 is more stable than :CF2
(4) Solubility-Be(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2
(e) H–bond strength in Me3 Si–OH is more than
Me3 C–OH 80. Correct order of ionization energy for F, Cl, Br,
Option are :- Na is :-

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5 (1) F > Cl > Br > Na

(2) Cl > F > Br > Na
(3) Na > F > Cl > Br
(4) F > Cl > Na > Br
81. The order of reactivity of the following alkenes 86. The addition of HCl to 3,3,3-Trichloropropene
towards electrophilic attack is :- gives :-
(i) CH3CH = CH2 (ii) CH2 = CHCOOH (1) Cl3CCH(Cl)CH3

H3C (2) Cl3CCH2CH2Cl

(iii) CH2=CH2 (iv) CH2
H3C (3) Cl2CHCH(Cl)CH2Cl

(1) i > iii > iv > ii (2) i > iii > ii > iv (4) Cl2CHCH2CHCl2

(3) iv > i > iii > ii (4) i > iv > iii > ii 87. Kc for A + B  C + D is 10 at 25°C. If a
container contains 1,2,3,4 mol/litre of A,B,C and
82. A+B C+D D respectively at 25°C, the reaction will
If initial concentration of A and B are both equal proceed:-
but the equilibrium concentration of D is twice that (1) From left to right (2) From right to left
of A, then equilibrium constant of the reaction is :
(3) in Equilibrium (4) Either of these
4 9 1 88. A sample of PCl3 contains 1.4 moles of the
(1) (2) (3) (4) 4
9 4 9 substance. How many atoms are there in the
83. For the reaction sample ?
(1) 4 (2) 5.6
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) 3CO2(g) + 4H2O()
(3) 8.431 × 1023 (4) 3.372 × 1024
at constant temperature H – U
89. Which of the following is methanide :
(1) –RT (2) +RT
(1) Be2C (2) Al4C3
(3) –3RT (4) 3RT
(3) Mg2C3 (4) Both (1) & (2)
84. Four diatomic species are listed below in different 90. When temporary hard water containing
sequences. Which of these presents the correct Mg(HCO3)2 is boiled, the precipitate formed is of:-
order of their increasing bond order? (1) MgCO3 (2) MgO

(1) C22– < He2+ < NO < O2– (3) Mg(OH)2 (4) None

(2) He2+ < O2– < NO < C22–

(3) O2– < NO < C22– < He2+

(4) NO < C22– < O2– < He2+
85. In the compound M–O–H, the M–O bond will be
broken if
(1) (EN) of M and O < (EN) of O and H
(2) (EN) of M and O = (EN) of O and H
(3) (EN) of M and O > (EN) of O and H
(4) Can not be predicted according to (EN) data
 Biology

91. Select the correct option in respect of given diagrame. 94. Which is not a lipid ?
(1) Lanoline (2) Cholesterol
(3) Glycerol (4) Cerumen
95. Flowering in pinapples is promoted by
(1) Auxins (2) Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin (4) ABA
96. The inhibitors which react with protein side chain,
can not stop...........
(a) (b) (1) Diffusion (2) Facilitated Diffusion
(3) Active transport (4) Symport
(1) a - Penicillium b - Agaricus
(2) a - Aspergillus b - Agaricus 97. Members of which phylum are commonly known
(3) a - Rhizopus b - Mucor as sea walnut or comb jellies ?
(4) a - Aspergillus b - Penicillium (1) Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora
92. Which of the following option is correct ? (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Aschelminthes
(A) In gymnosperms the sporophyte and the 98. Mesothelium originate from :-
gametophytes do not have an independent (1) Mesoderm (2) Endoderm
free-living existence. (3) Ectoderm (4) Ectomesoderm
(B) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well- 99. Match the following columns-
adapted to with stand extremes of temperature
humidity and wind. Column-I Column-II
(C) Pollination in gymnosperms is mainly carried
Ball and Humerus and
by insects like honey bee. (A) (1)
socket joint Glenoid cavity
(D) The multicellular females gametophyte of
gymnosperm is retained with microsporangium. Between atlas
(B) Gliding joint (2)
(1) A, B, C and D = All incorrect and axis
(2) A, B, C and D = all correct
(3) A, B and C = correct (C) Pivot joint (3) Knee Joint
(4) A, D and C = correct
93. When placenta forms a ridge along the ventral (D) Hinge Joint (4) Between carpals
suture of the ovary and the ovules are borne on the
ridge forming two rows, the type of placentation A B C D
is termed as :- (1) 1 2 3 4
(1) Marginal (2) Axil
(2) 1 3 4 2
(3) Parietal (4) Free central
(3) 1 4 2 3
(4) 1 3 2 4
100. Anterior aorta in cockroach is :- 106. What is the correct sequence of following events ?
(1) Last heart chamber (a) Plasmatic growth (b) Differentiation
(2) 2nd heart chamber
(c) Senescence
(3) 1st heart chamber
(1) (a) – (b) – (c) (2) (b) – (c) – (a)
(4) 10th heart chamber
(3) (c) – (a) – (b) (4) (c) – (b) – (a)
101. How many statements are true about
Chrysophytes? 107. Following animals is ?
(1) They are found in fresh water as well as Marine
habitat
(2) They are microscopic structure and float
passively in water current
(3) This group includes diatoms and desmids
(4) They are mostly Saprophytic
Option : (1) Roundworm (2) Flatworm
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Earthworm (4) Sandworm
(3) Three (4) One 108. Match the following columns and choose the
102. Which of the following statement is correct :- correct answer from the options given below
(1) Capsule of moss and roots of club moss are (a) indigestion (i) ejection of stomach
diploid contents through
(2) Rhizoids of moss and roots of horse tails are mouth
diploid (b) constipation (ii) it reduces the
absorption of food
(3) Fronds of fern and protonema of moss are
haploid (c) diarrhoea (iii) the faeces are
retained in the
(4) Leaves and endosperm of gymnosperm are
rectum as the bowel
diploid movements
103. Which condition is not clear in the floral formula :- becomes irregular
K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A(9) + 1 G1 (d) vomiting (iv) food is not properly
digested
(1) Number of carpels
a b c d
(2) Aestivation of calyx and corolla
1 iv i ii iii
(3) Gamosepalous and polysepalous condition 2 iv iii i ii
(4) Position of ovary 3 i ii iii iv
104. DNA is made up of :- 4 iv iii ii i

(1) Amino acids 109. Total number of skull bones in human :-

(2) Fatty acids (1) 8 (2) 14 (3) 22 (4) 29
(3) Phosphoglycerides
(4) Nucleosidemonophosphates
105. ______ are organic compounds that are tightly
bound to the apoenzyme.
(1) Apoenzyme (2) Coenzymes
(3) Prosthetic group (4) Cofactors
110. Which of the following statement is false :- 115. What type of facilitated diffusion is represented
(1) Action potential is infact termed as nerve in the following diagram?
impulse
(2) The electrical potential difference across the
resting plasma membrane is called as the
resting potential. A
Carrier protein
(3) The rise in stimulus induced permeability to B
Na+ is extremely short lived.
(4) During resting, axonal membrane is Membrane
comparatively more permeable to Na+ and
nearly impermeable to K+ (1) Uniport (2) Antiport
(3) Symport (4) Simple diffusion
111. Archebacteria can survive in extreme adverse
conditions due to presence of ? 116. The digestive system has only a single opening
(1) Complex polysaccharide cell wall to the outside of the body that serves as both mouth
(2) Lipid chain in cell membrane and anus in which phylum ?
(3) Heterocyst cells (1) Annelida (2) Arthopoda
(4) All of these (3) Aschelminthes (4) Platyhelminthes
112. Some characters/structures are given below. How 117. Identify the correct matching pair ?
many of them are found in both bryophyta and (1) Pila – Pearl oyster
pteridophyta ? (2) Aplysia – Squid
(A) Archegonium (B) Protonema (3) Octopus – Cuttle fish
(C) Embryo (D) Ovule (4) Dentalium – Tusk shell
(E) Vascular tissue (F) Antheridium 118. Three major type of exocrine cells in stomach are
Option :- (1) mucous cells, chief cells, oxyntic cells
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (2) mucous cells, chief cells, enteroendocrine
cells
113. Match the following :-
(3) mucous cells, enteroendocrine cells, oxyntic
Column I Column II cells
(4) enteroendocrine cells, chief cells, oxyntic
(a) Jasmine (i) Sucker
cells
(b) Chrysanthemum (ii) Rhizome 119. Match the following columns :-
(c) Colocasia (iii) Stolon
Column-I Column-II
(d) Ginger (iv) Corm
(A) Carpal (1) Calcaneum
(1) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii (B) Tarsal (2) Dorsal spine
(2) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii (C) Scapula (3) Trapezium
(3) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv
(4) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii (D) Cranium (4) Ethmoid

114 Collagen is :- A B C D
(1) Lipid (2) Protein
(1) 1 3 2 4
(3) Carbohydrate (4) Sterol
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 3 1 4 2
120. Which of the following option gives the correct
(a) (b) (c)
categorisation of functioning of channels and
pump according to the stage:- (1) Sphagnum Lycopsida Haploid

A B C (2) Funaria Moss Haploid

Depolarisation Polarisation Repolarisation
(3) Funaria Liverwort Diploid
Na+–K+ pump, Na+ VGC, Na+–K + pump,
(1) (4) Equisetum Sphenopsida Diploid
ion channel K + VGC Na+ VGC
ion channel, Na+–K+ pump, K + VGC, 123. Underground stems of potato, ginger, turmeric,
(2)
Na+ VGC ion channel Na+–K + pump zamikand and colocasia are modified to :-
Na+–K+ pump, Na+–K+ pump, Na+ VGC, (1) Protection (2) Perform perennation
(3)
Na+ VGC Na+ VGC ion channel (3) Water absorption (4) Increase size
Na+ VGC, ion Channel, Na+ VGC, 124. Meiosis does not involve :-
(4)
K + VGC K + VGC K + VGC (1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(2) Recombination between homologous
121. Presense of Pyrenoids is character of algae, A
chromosomes
pyrenoid is consist of ?
(3) Chromosomal duplication at the S-phase
(1) Core of starch surrounded by protein (4) Two cycles of DNA replication
125. In the synthesis of one mole of glucose by C3 and
(2) Core of protein surrounded by starch
C4 plants, the number of moles of ATP used by
(3) Core of fatty acid surrounded by protein C3 and C4 plants is respectively:
(1) 15 and 30 (2) 10 and 20
(4) Nucleic acids and protein
(3) 18 and 30 (4) 15 and 20
122. Study the given diagram and give answer of
questions a, b and c. 126. Following diagram represent which type of
symmetry?

Strobilus

Node
Internode

Branch
(1) Asymmetry (2) Radial
(3) Biradial (4) Bilateral
Rhizome 127. Body divided into proboscis, collar and trunk in ?
(1) Ascidia (2) Branchiostoma
(3) Petromyzon (4) Balanoglossus

(a) Name of plant ?

(b) Class of plant ?
(c) Ploidy of Rhizome ?
128. Match column-I with column-II :- 132. Tyloses are :-
(1) Wound healing secretion
Column-I Column-II (2) Responsible for plugging the lumen of vessels
a Bilirubin i Sublingual (3) Special epidermal hairs covering stomata
(4) Callus secretion on sieve plates
b Hydrolysis of ii Bile 133. Thorn is a modified branch because :-
starch (1) It arises in the axil of a leaf.
c Digestion of fats iii Lipases (2) It hard, straight and pointed
(3) It is a defensive organ
d Salivary gland iv Anylases
(4) It arises from the leaf base
134. In meiosis, when does dissolution of
a b c d
synaptonemal complex take place ?
(1) i ii iii iv (1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(2) ii iv iii i
135. Match the column.
(3) ii iii iv i
Column-I Column-II
(4) ii iv i iii
A. Sulphur i. Chlorophyll
129. Pick up the true statement with reference to human
B. Zinc ii. Nitrogenase
skeleton :- C. Magnesium iii. Methionine
(A) Vertebral column is anteriorly placed D. Molybdenum iv. Auxin
(B) Vertebral column contain 26 vertebra (1) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
(C) Neural canal in vertebra is a passage for spinal (2) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii
cord (3) A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii
(D) Spinal cord is posteriorly placed
(4) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
(1) A and B true but C and D wrong
136. In which animal the cells are arranged in two
(2) A and B wrong but C and D correct
embryonic layers an external ectoderm and
(3) A wrong but B, C and D correct
internal endoderm :-
(4) All are correct
(1) Hydra (2) Taenia
130. Which of the following statement is false :- (3) Ascaris (4) Earthworm
(1) Hormones are small and their molecular 137. Air bladder present which regulate buoyancy
weight is low found in ?
(2) Hormones are species specific (1) Cartilagenous fish (2) Bony fish
(3) Hormones are non antigenic (3) Dog fish (4) Star fish
(4) The action of lipid soluble hormones is slower
138. On an average , _______ml of blood is filtered
and lasts longer
by kidney per minute .
131. Complex post fertilization development is seen in
(1) 1100 - 1200 (2) 1500 - 1600
which algae :-
(3) 2000 - 2200 (4) 4500 - 4600
(1) Green algae (2) Brown algae
139. I am a long slender bone with two curvatures.
(3) Yellow green algae (4) Red algae
I form a synovial joint with acromian process of
scapula indentify me :-
(1) Humerus (2) Sternum
(3) Clavicle (4) Radius
140. Which of the following disease is caused due to 147. Identify the following animal this animal belongs
degeneration of neurons of basal nuclei :- to class ?
(1) Alzheimer's disease (2) Epilepsy
(3) Huntington's chorea (4) Parkinson's disease
141. Taxonomic aid which contains information on any
one taxon, called :-
(1) Manuals (2) Monographs
(3) Museums (4) Flora
142. Interfascicular cambium is formed from :-
(1) Cell division (2) Cell differentiation (1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia
(3) Cell dedifferentiation (4) Redifferentiation (3) Aves (4) Mammalia
143. Choose the incorrect statement :- 148. Which one of the following statements in regards
(1) Permanent tissues having all cells similar in to the excretion is correct?
structure and function are called simple tissue. (1) ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable
(2) Complex tissue has different types of cells to electrolytes
performing different function altogether. (2) descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable
to water
(3) Secondary meristem is lateral meristem. –
(3) DCT is incapable to reabsorb HCO3
(4) The cells of permanent tissues do not
(4) nearly 99% of nephric filtrate is reabsorbed by
generally divide further.
the renal tubules
144. Endoreduplication leads to :-
149. Acetabulum cavity is present on which bone ?
(1) Polyploidy (1) collar bone (2) coxal bone
(2) Formation of syncytium (3) scapula (4) sacrum
(3) Polyteny 150. Which of the following statement is false for
(4) Formation of lampbrush chromosomes sympathetic nervous system :-
145. Identify the product marked A and B in the (1) Preganglionic nerve fibres are smaller than
following pathway post ganglionic nerve fibres
(2) Post ganglionic nerve fibres are myelinated.
3–Phosphoglyceric acid
(B) (3) Pre ganglionic nerve fibres are cholinergic.
NAD (4) Post ganglionic nerve fibres to sweat glands
CO2
(A) Pyruvate NADH + H are cholinergic
151. Which of the following characters are must for the
(1) (A) 2-Phosphoglycerate; (B) Acetyl Co-A
evolution of seed habit :–
(2) (A) PEP; (B) Lactic acid
(1) Heterospory
(3) (A) PEP; (B) Ethyl alcohol (2) Endosporic development of microspore
(4) (A) PEP; (B) Acetly Co-A product (3) Endosporic development of megaspore
146. In some animals the body cavity is not lined by (4) (1) and (3) both
mesoderm instead the mesoderm is present as 152. Which statement correctly defined the structure
scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and of isobilateral leaf ?
endoderm. These are called ?
(1) Bulliform cells are absent from the epidermis
(1) Acoelomate (2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Schizocoelomate (4) Enterocoelomate (2) Veins form a network
(3) Mesophyll is not differentiated
(4) Hypostomatic
153. Which one is true for the tissue which constitutes 158. Select the correct match ?
the hypodermis of dicot stem ? (1) Increase in GFR  Activate the JG cells to
(1) It is found either as a homogenous layer or in release renin
patches. (2) Angiotensin II  decrease the
glomerular blood
(2) It consists of cells which are much thickened
pressure and thereby GFR
at the corners due to deposition of cellulose,
(3)Renin   Carries out the
hemicellulose and lignin.
conversion of
(3) The cells are never photosynthetic. angiotensinogen in the
(4) Inter cellular spaces are abundantly present. liver to angiotensin I
(4) Aldosterone  Causes reabsorption of
154 RER is frequently observed in the cells actively
Na + and water from
involved in :-
the initial parts of the
(1) Protein synthesis tubule. This also leads
(2) Lipid synthesis to an increase in blood
pressure and GFR
(3) Polysaccharide synthesis
159. Which bone makes the greater portion of the sides
(4) Nucleic acid synthesis and roof of the cranial cavity ?
155. Development is considered as the sum of (1) Frontal (2) Parietal (3) Temporal (4) Occipital
160. Which of the following statement is false :-
(1) Cell division and cell elongation
(1) Hormones produce their effects on target
(2) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis tissues by binding to specific proteins called
hormone receptors.
(3) Growth and differentiation
(2) Each receptor is specific to one hormone only
(4) Morphogenesis and hence receptors are specific.
156. A mesodermally derived rod like structure formed (3) Target tissue metabolism and hence physiological
on the dorsal side during embryonic development functions are regulated by hormones.
in some animals is known as ? (4) Hormones which interact with intracellular
receptors generate second messengers.
(1) Nerve cord (2) Notocord
161. Which of the following eucaryotes are devoid of
(3) Spinal cord (4) Stomocord histone proteins ?
157. Bones are mainly formed of :- (1) Golden algae (2) Euglenoids
(3) Fire algae (4) Irish moss
(1) Sulphur and Magnesium
162. The meristem that is parallel to the longitudinal
(2) Calcium and Iron axis of the plant is :-
(3) Calcium and Magnesium (1) Tyloses (2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Phellogen (4) Apical meristem
(4) Calcium and Phosphorus 163. Which of the following match is correct ?
(1) Glycine, alanine = Acidic Amino Acid
(2) Lysine, Arginine = Basic Amino Acid
(3) Tyrosine, Tryptophan = Aromatic Amino Acid
(4) Both 2 & 3
164 Which of the following strucuture is found in
Prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells ?
(1) Polysome (2) Flagella
(3) Pili (4) Inclusion bodies
165. In the above scheme of nitrogen metabolism 174. Which force pushes water into the xylem as
number 1 and 2, stand for : osmosis moves water into the root?
1 2 (1) Water stress (2) Atmospheric pressure
– – (3) Root pressure (4) Pulling pressure
Decaying NH3 NO2 NO 3
biomass 175. What type of growth is represented in the
(1) Nitrogen fixation and nitrification respectively. following diagram ?
(2) Nitrification and ammonification respectively.
(3) Ammonification and nitrogen fixation respectively.
(4) Ammonification and nitrification respectively.
166. The best example of metamerism is ?
(1) Taenia (2) Ascaris
(3) Hydra (4) Earthworm
167. Mast Cell occur in :-
(1) Urothelium (2) PSCCGE
(3) Nervous tissue (4) Areolar Connective tissue
168. Wall of alimentary canal posesses four layers :-
(1) Arithmetic (2) Geometric
A = Muscularis B = Serosa
(3) Log-phase (4) Both (1) & (2)
C = Mucosa D = Sub-mucosa
176. Water transport or canal system is found in :-
The correct sequence from outer to inner is :-
(1) B, A, D, C (2) A, B, C, D (1) Gorgonia (2) Spongilla
(3) B, A, C, D (4) A, C, B, D (3) Tenoplana (4) Asterias
169. Which of the following structures does not help 177. In Hyaline cartilage matrix is :-
in locomotion in Earthworm :- (1) Transparent (2) Granular
(1) Setae (3) Semi transparent (4) Agranular
(2) Coelomic fluid and mucous 178. Choose wrong statements :-
(3) Circular and longitudinal muscle layer (a) Hepatic lobules are the structural and
(4) Septa and Coelosepta functional units of liver.
170. During functioning of which of the following (b) Hepato-pancreatic duct is guarded by sphincter
hormone second messenger are not formed :- of boyden.
(1) Insulin (2) Estradiol (c) Liver is covered by connective tissue sheath
(3) glucagon (4) Epinephrine called glisson's capsule.
171. Morels and truffles are edible fungi belongs to (1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) and (c)
which class :- (3) (c) & (a) (4) (a), (b) & (c)
(1) Basidiomycetes (2) Ascomycetes 179. In cockroach which gland form Ootheca or egg
(3) Deuteromycetes (4) Phycomycetes pouch :-
172. Which of the following represents the function of (1) Mushroom gland (2) Collatetrial gland
veins in the leaves ? (3) Uricose gland (4) Phallic gland
(1) Transport of water and minerals 180. Consider the following four statements and select
(2) Mechanical support correct one only :-
(3) Transport of organic food material (1) Invertebrates possess very complex endocrine
(4) All of these system with few hormones.
173. What is correct about protein amino acid ? (2) A large number of chemicals act as hormones
(1) Only essential amino acids are protein amino and provide coordination in the vertebrates.
acids. (3) The neural coordination is slow and long lasting.
(2) Only nonessential amino acids are protein (4) Exocrine glands lack ducts and are hence,
amino acids. called ductless glands and their secretion are
(3) They are twenty types. called hormones.
(4) They are gamma types of amino acids.