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यश TG~ @bohring_bot

PAPER CODE : 2701CJA101021240014

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME


Test Pattern
JEE (ADVANCED)
PART TEST#05
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2023-2024) 29–03–2024

JEE (Main + Advanced) : ENTHUSE COURSE


PAPER # 02
PHASE–I
Time : 3 Hours. Maximum Marks : 180

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY


GENERAL :

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.

2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.

3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.

4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.

5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 30 pages and that all
the 18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not, contact the
invigilator for replacement of the booklet.

6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.

8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.

9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on
the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken the
appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way.

14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or "un-
darken" a darkened bubble.

15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

Please see th e last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
यश TG~ @bohring_bot

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,

 Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1


1
 Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 0
 Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2
 Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
 Stefan–Boltzmann constant  = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
 Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
 Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4 × 10–7 NA–2
1
 Permittivity of vacuum 0 =
0 c 2
 Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s

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BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING


PART-I PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : 31 In all other cases
1. A concave mirror has focus 20cm. It is at the bottom of a glass that has water filled up to 5 cm
(see figure). If a small particle is floating of the surface of water, its image as seen, from directly
above the glass, is at a distance d from the surface of water. The value of d is close to :
(Refractive index of water = 1.33)

(A) 8.8 cm (B) 11.7 cm


(C) 6.7 cm (D) 13.4 cm
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2. A beam of light of uniform intensity and of a single wavelength strikes a screen in which there is a small
circular hole of area A. Some of the light passes through, and then spreads by diffraction, as shown
below. At the centre of the diffracted wave which reaches the centre of the screen, the intensity of the
light is I0 (intensity is the power per unit area). When the hole is made narrower, then the angular width
of the beam increases, in such a way that for the diffracted beam, half the diameter of the hole will result
in twice the width of the beam. If the diameter of the hole is halved, then what will be the new intensity
at the centre of the diffracted beam?

(A) I0/2 (B) I0/4


(C) I0/8 (D) I0/16
3. A light source, which emits two wavelengths » 1 = 400 nm and » 2 = 600 nm, is used in a Young's double
slit experiment. If recorded fringe widths for » 1 and » 2 are β 1 and β 2 and the number of fringes for them
within a distance y on one side of the central maximum are m1 and m2, respectively, then incorrect
option is :-
(A) β 2 > β 1
(B) m1 < m2
(C) From the central maximum, 3rd maximum of » 2 overlaps with 5th minimum of » 1
(D) The angular separation of fringes of » 2 is greater than » 1
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4. In the photoelectric experiment, fastest electron has speed v if wavelength used is » . If wavelength used
is 3 » , the speed of fastest electron will be :-
4
1 1

(3) v (4) v
2 2
(A) (B)
4 3
1 1

Less than ( 4 ) v Greater than ( 4 ) v


2 2
(C) (D)
3 3
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SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)


This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : 32 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in 32 marks.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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5. In the figure shown consider the first reflection at the plane mirror and second at the convex mirror. AB
is object.

(A) the second image is real, inverted of 1/5 th magnification w.r.t AB.
(B) the second image is virtual and erect with magnification 1/5 w.r.t AB.
(C) the second image moves towards the convex mirror.
(D) the second image moves away from the convex mirror.
6. A glass slab is of thickness d = a/2 is shown in figure. The refractive index of the slab varies according
to relation ¼ = a . Value of θ 0 tends to π /2, then choose the CORRECT statement (s):-
a−x

(A) The path of the light ray inside medium is a circle given by (x – a)2 + y2 = a2
(B) The path of the light ray inside medium is a parabola given by (x – a)2 = y
(C) The deviation of ray from its initial direction is δ = π /3
(D) Ray emerges grazing at the surface.
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7. A wide slab consisting of two media of refractive indices n1 and n2 is placed in air as shown in the
figure. A ray of light is incident from medium n1 to n2 at an angle θ , where sin θ is slightly larger than
1/n1. Take refractive index of air as 1. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) The light ray enters air if n2 = n1


(B) The light ray is finally reflected back into the medium of refractive index n1 if n2 < n1
(C) The light ray is finally reflected back into the medium of refractive index n1 if n2 > n1
(D) The light ray is reflected back into the medium of refractive index n1 if n2 = 1
8. In given young’s double slit experiment a point sources of wavelength » = 500 nm is placed slightly off
the central axis. Point A and B are in front of upper and lower slit respectively. If intensity from upper &
lower slits is I0 each on the screen, then

(A) Intensity at A, O and B is 4I0, 2I0 and 4I0 respectively.


(B) 70th maxima is formed at B
(C) 30th maxima is formed at A
(D) If a glass slab of thickness 0.02 mm and refractive index ¼ = 3/2 is kept in front of upper slit
then central maxima formed exactly at O.
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9. The collector of the photocell (in photoelectric experiment) is made of tungsten while the emitter is of
Platinum having work function of 10 eV. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 124 Å & power 100
watt is incident on emitter which emits photo electrons with a quantum efficiency of 1%. The
accelerating voltage across the photocell is of 10,000 volts. (Use : hc = 12400eV Å)
(A) The power supplied by the accelerating voltage source is 100 watt
(B) The minimum wavelength of radiation coming from the tungsten target (collector) is 1.23 Å
(C) The power supplied by the accelerating voltage source is 10 watt
(D) The minimum wavelength of radiation coming from the tungsten target (collector) is 2.23 Å
10. In an X-ray tube, electrons emitted from a filament (cathode) carrying current I hit a target (anode) at a
distance d from the cathode. The target is kept at a potential V higher than the cathode resulting in
I
emission of continuous and characteristic X-rays. If the filament current I is decreased to , the
2
potential difference V is increased to 2V and the separation distance d is reduced to d , then :-
2
(A) the cut-off wavelength will reduce to half and the wavelengths of the characteristic X-rays will
remain the same.
(B) the cut-off wavelength as well as the wavelengths of the characteristic X-rays will remain the
same.
(C) the cut-off wavelength will reduce to half and the intensities of all the X-rays will decrease.
(D) the cut-off wavelength will become two times larger, and the intensity of all the X-rays will
decrease.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)


This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 1 and 2

A ray of light is incident normally on one face 30° – 60° – 90° prism of refractive index µP = 5/3
immersed in water of refractive index µm = 4/3 as shown in the figure.

1. x
The exit angle θ 2 of the ray is sin−1 ( ), find the value of x.
16
2. The minimum refractive index of surrounding medium so that total internal reflection at point P ceases is
n
, find the value of n.
√3
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Paragraph for Questions 3 and 4

A narrow slit S transmitting light of wavelength » is placed a distance d above a large plane mirrors as
shown in the figure. The light coming directly form the slit and that coming after reflection from the
plane mirror interfere on a screen Σ placed at a distance D from the slit. Assume that the mirror is
100% reflecting. (Given D = 1m, d = 0.5 mm and » = 500 nm)

3. Find the fringe width (in mm) of the interference pattern formed on the screen.
4. Find the distance (in mm) of closest point to O on the screen where waves interfere with a phase
difference of π .
2
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Paragraph for Questions 5 and 6

The collector of the photocell (in photoelectric experiment) is made of tungsten while the emitter is of
Platinum having work function of 10 eV. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 124 Å & power 100
watt is incident on emitter which emits photo electrons with a quantum efficiency of 1%. The
accelerating voltage across the photocell is of 10,000 volts (Use : hc = 12400eV Å)

5. What is the power supplied by the accelerating voltage source (In watt)?
6. The minimum wavelength of radiation coming from the tungsten target (collector) is (Considering
kinetic energy of striking electron is converted into energy photon when it collide with collector) (in Å)
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SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)


This section contains THREE (03) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
7. dI
Scientists have made a light source whose spectral emissive power is constant over visible range.

Here I is intensity and l is wavelength. In other words, dI graph is shown below. This beam of area 1m2

is incident on emitter plate of photoelectric tube. The collector plate is sufficiently positive so that tube is
in saturation mode. Assume that each capable photon liberates 1 electron. If work function is 2eV, what
is the current (in A) the tube? Round off to nearest integer.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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8. A biconvex thin lens is prepared from glass (m = 1.5), the two bounding surfaces having equal radii of
25 cm each. One of the surfaces is silvered from outside to make it reflecting. An object is placed before
2ℓ
this lens at distance ℓ cm so that the image is formed on the object itself. The value of is. Lens is
5
placed in air (µ = 1)

9. A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm and a convex lens of focal length 10 cm are kept with their optic
axis parallel but separated by 0.5 mm as shown in figure. The distance between lens and mirror is 10 cm.
An object of height 3 mm is placed on the optic axis of lens at distance 15 cm from the lens. Find height
of image formed by mirror after refraction from lens (in mm).

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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PART-II CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : 31 In all other cases
1. Which of the following is an outer orbital complex ?
(A) [Fe(CN)6]4– (B) [Mn(CN)6]4–
(C) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (D) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
2. Total number of geometrical isomers for square planar shape complex ion [M(A) (B) (C) (D)]+x where,
A, B, C and D are monodentate ligand.
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6
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3.

Species A and D are respectively


(A) S2O32– (aq), SO32– (aq) (B) SO32– (aq), S
(C) SO32– (aq), S2O32– (aq) (D) S, SO42– (aq)
4. Match List – I with List – II :
List – II
List – I
(Number of lone pairs of electrons
(Species)
on the central atom)

(a) XeF2 (i) 0


(b) XeO2F2 (ii) 1
(c) XeO3F2 (iii) 2
(d) XeF4 (iv) 3

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(B) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(C) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(D) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)


This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : 32 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in 32 marks.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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5. O−(g) + e− → O−2
(g) Δ H1
O(g) + e− → O−(g) Δ H2
O2(g) → O+2(g) + e− Δ H3
O(g) → O+(g) + e− Δ H4
+
H2(g) → H2(g) + e− Δ H5
+
H(g) → H(g) + e− Δ H6
O(g) + 2e− → O−2
(g) Δ H7
Which of the following option(s) is/are correct?
(A) | Δ H1 | > | Δ H2 | (B) | Δ H4 | > | Δ H3 |
(C) | Δ H5 | < | Δ H6 | (D) Δ H7 is +ve
6. Choose the correct steps involved in extraction of Zinc from zinc blende:
(A) Concentration of the ore by froth floatation process, using NaCN as depressant
(B) Roasting of concentrated ore to convert it into ZnO
(C) Reduction of ZnO by excess carbon above boiling point of zinc
(D) Refining of the metal by vacuum distillation to obtain pure metal.
7. Which of the following is coloured d0 ion tetrahedral and d3s hydridisation ?
(A) CrO2−
4 (B) MnO−4

(C) MnO2−
4
(D) [Zn(NH3)4]2+
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8. In which of the following option(s) all species contains X 4 O 4 X bond(s) in structure ( X = central
atom)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
9. Select the correct orders according to their indicated property -
(A) Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < Cs2CO3 (solubility in water)
(B) NaF < MgO < ScN < TiC (lattice energy)
(C) PbF2 < PbCl2 < PbBr2 < PbI2 (covalent character)
(D) Cl3 – < Br3 – < I3 – (stability order)
10. The complex is oxidised to K2[Zn(CN)4(O2)2], then. Which of the following is/are
corect ?
(A) Zn(II) is oxidised to Zn(IV)
(B) O – O bond length decreases
(C) Magnetic moment increases
(D) Magnetic behaviour does not change
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SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)


This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 1 and 2

Imagine a universe in which the four quantum numbers can have the same possible values as in our
universe except the angular momentum quantum number ' ℓ ' can have integral values of 0, 1, 2.......,n
instead of 0, 1, 2,......(n – 1) and magnetic quantum number 'm' can have integral values of – ( ℓ + 1) to 0
to ( ℓ + 1) instead of – ℓ to 0 to + ℓ .
1. Based on above assumption if magnetic moment of the element with atomic number_18, is √x B.M.
Find out the value of ( x ).
4
2. Based on above assumption in the electronic configuration of the element with atomic number 25, find
out the number of electrons present in the subshell having ℓ = 1.
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Paragraph for Questions 3 and 4

The given following compounds were reacted with excess of AgNO3.


Moles of AgCl precipitated per mole
Formula
of the compounds
(i) PdCl2 ⋅ 4NH3 2
(ii) NiCl2 ⋅ 6H2O 2
(iii) PtCl4 ⋅ 2HCl 0
(iv) CoCl3 ⋅ 4NH3 1
(v) PtCl2 ⋅ 2NH3 0
3. The total number of compounds which contains secondary valences of metals of Six is ______
4. The Sum of number of ions obtained from the compound (iii) and (iv), when dissolved in the aqueous
solution is ______
Paragraph for Questions 5 and 6

Experimental enthalpy of hydration of Cr2+ is – 460 k cal mol –1. In the absence of crystal field splitting
the value of enthalpy of hydration of Cr2+ is – 436 k cal mol –1.
(Use 1k cal mol –1 = 350 cm –1)
5. Δ
The value of ( ) for [Cr(H2O)6]2+ in cm –1 is :
1000
6. Number of unpaired electron in eg set of the complex [Cr(H2O)6]2+ is :-
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SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)


This section contains THREE (03) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
7. Total number of yellow precipitates which is/are soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide (YAS).

8. Find the total number of complex which produce inner-orbital complex ?


[CO(C2O4)3] –3, [Fe(CN)6]3– [Zn(NO2)4] –2, [Ni(NH3)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]2+, [IrF6] –3
9. The number of molecules in which bond angle increases from their expected hybridisation angle due to
back bonding with respect to central atom (B, N and O).
(i) BF3 (ii) BCl3 (iii) H3SiNCS (iv) N(SiH3)3 (v) O(SiH3)2 (v) OCl2
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PART-III MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : 31 In all other cases

1. If then y(2) is equal to

(A) 2 + log2 3 (B) 2 + log32


(C) 2 – log32 (D) 2 – log23
2. dy
If x In x + y = 2 In x, y(e) = 2, then y(e2) =
dx
(A) 1 (B) 3
2
(C) 2 (D) 5
2
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3. where c is integral constant and f(1) = 0, then is

equal to
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 0 (D) 8
4.

1
(A) In (B) in 6 +
2

(C) (D)

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SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)


This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : 32 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in 32 marks.

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5. Let f : (0, ∞ ) → R be a differentiable function satisfying the equation


x
2f(x) = f(xy) + f ( ) ; ∀ x > 0, y > 0. If f(1) = 0 and f '(1) = 1. Then which of following is/are true
y
(A) f(x) has no local maxima and no local manima
f(x + 1)
(B) lim [ ] = 0, where [k] denotes greatest integer function less than or equal to k
x→0 x
(C) f(x) = ex has no real solutions
(D) The equation 2e. f(x) = x has exactly one real solution
6. Which of the following is/are correct
(A) Let f(x) = 2x3 – 9x2 + 12x + 8, the number of values of x for which y = f(f(x)) attains local
extremum is 3
(B) A rectangle ABCD is inscribed in the region bounded by y = sin x,x - axis where x ∈ [0, π ]
(as shown in figure), then area of rectangle is maximum when α = cot α

(C) If the two curves y = ax3 – 6ax2 + (12a + 12)x – (8a + 16) a ∈ R and y = x3 touches each
other at some point, then one of the possible value of 'a' is √2
3
+ √3
3

(D) Let f(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + a3x3 + a4x4 + a5x5 be a polynomial of degree 5 which increases in
the interval (− ∞ , 1] and [3, ∞ ) and decreases in the interval (1,3). Given that
88
f(0) = 2, f(1) = and f '(2) = 0 , then a5 is equal to 1/5.
15
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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7. Let f(x) be a non-constant, thrice differentiable function defined on R such that y = f(x) is symmetric
1
about line x = 1 and f(−1) = f ′ ( ) = f ′ ( 1 ) = 0, then which of following is/are correct
4 2
statement(s) ?
(A) f" (x) = 0 has atleast four real roots in the interval (0,2)
(B) f" (x) = 0 has atleast 3 real roots in the interval (0,2)

(C) there exist at least one C ∈ ( 3 , 7 ) such that f'(C) + Cf"(C) = 0


2 4

(D) for some C ∈ (1, 3 ), f'(C) = Cf"(C)


2
8. π
then find the value of ( 256I16 − 1 )
2
n
Let In = ∫ x(sin x) dx, n ∈ N
0 I14
(A) 230 (B) 224
(C) 250 (D) 240
9. dy
A solution curve of the differential equation (x2 + xy + 4x + 2y + 4) − y 2 = 0, x > 0, passes through
dx
the point (1,3). Then the solution of the curve is
(A) Intersects y = x + 2 exactly at three points
(B) Intersects y = x + 2 exactly at two point
(C) Intersects y = (x + 2 )2
(D) Does not intersect y (x + 3)2
x f(t)
10.
Let f is a differentiable function such that f(x) = 2(1 + x2) (1 + ∫ dt) then f(2) =
0 1 + t2
(A) e4 (B) 10e
10
(C) 10e4 (D)
e4
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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यश TG~ @bohring_bot Target:JEE-ADVANCE/29-04-2024/Paper-1

SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)


This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 1 and 2

Let f be a real valued continuous function on R (the set of all real numbers) and satisfying

(x y)f (y)dy where x and y are independent variables.

1. π /2
If h(t) = f( – t) – f(t) for every t ∈ R, then the value of definite integral ∫ h (t) sin t dt is equal to
0

2. If the range of function g(x) = 3f(x) + b + 4 for every real x is [0, ∞ ), then 'b' equals
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Paragraph for Questions 3 and 4

π /2
Let a real valued function f defined on real number satisfies ∫ t2 f(2x − t)dt = 2e2x − 4x2 + 2x − 2 2 and
20

g(x) + g'(x) = f( – x) with g(1) = 1 .


e
3. f –1 (e) is equal to
4. Area bounded by y = g(x) and x-axis will be
Paragraph for Questions 5 and 6

[Note: [k] denotes greatest integer function less than or equal to k.]
5. The value of (a + b) is equal to
6. Number of integral value of » so that the equation bx 2 – b 2 x + » = 0 has roots α , β such
that 1 < α < 2 and 2 < β < 3 is
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SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)


This section contains THREE (03) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
7. If domain of function

x ∈ (a,b) – {c,d,e} then the value of a + b + c + d + e, where [ ] is GIF and { } is fractional part of x.

8.

9. equal to

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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यश TG~ @bohring_bot

Allen Career Institute, P.No-1, Gopal Krishna Education Centre,


Yeshwant College Road, Shyam Nagar, Nanded, Maharashtra. 431602

E-30/30 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE 2024 2701CJA101021240014

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