03 - 02 - 2019 Question

Paper Code
ENGLISH
(0000CJA103118012) )0000CJA103118012)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)
JEE (Main + Advanced) : LEADER & ENTHUSIAST COURSE

TARGET : JEE (ADVANCED) 2019
Test Type : ALL INDIA OPEN TEST Test Pattern : JEE-Advanced
TEST DATE : 03 - 02 - 2019
Time : 3 Hours PAPER – 2 Maximum Marks : 180
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 32 pages and
that all the 18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not,
contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/LEADER & ENTHUSIAST COURSE/JEE (Advanced)/03-02-2019/PAPER-2
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
· Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 pe0
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
m0 c2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
Space for Rough Work
E-2/32 0000CJA103118012
HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen
and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with
second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result
in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks.
Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without
selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct
option(s) will result in –2 marks.
1. A bob of mass 1kg is hanging from an inextensible massless string of length 2m. The string is
pulled slowly at the midpoint to the left so that both portions of string are taut. The midpoint
is now held at 0.5 m away from the original vertical position by a horizontal force. The same
experiment is repeated, but with a hinged massless rod replacing the string :-
1m
1m
F F'
0.5m
1m 0.5m
1m
(A) The force required to hold the midpoint is same in both cases.
(B) The force required to hold the midpoint is larger in second case.
(C) The tension in the string between the midpoint and the hinge is less than the tension in
the rod between the midpoint and the hinge.
(D) The tension in the string between the midpoint and the bob is more than the tension in
the rod between the midpoint and the bob.
0000CJA103118012 E-3/32
2. A simple pendulum of length l = 30 cm and mass m = 2kg is attached to a cart of mass 3 kg.
The cart can move frictionlessly on level ground. The bob is released from rest when string
makes an angle of 1.8° with the horizontal :-
1.8°
m = 2kg
3kg
p
(A) The amplitude of oscillation of cart is cm .
5
p
(B) The time period of oscillation is sec
5
(C) The cart and bob oscillate with phase difference of p.
p 3
(D) The time period of oscillation is sec .
5
E-4/32 0000CJA103118012
3. Consider the potential energy given by
x4 x 3
U= - - 3x 2
4 3
(A) x = 0 is position of stable equilibrium.
(B) x = 3 is position of stable equilibrium.
16
(C) If body starts from x = –2, it can go to x = 3 if its kinetic energy is greater than J.
3
(D) If body starts from x = –2, it can go to x = 3 even if its initial kinetic energy is zero.
4. Consider 4 well lagged rods as shown. Point A is maintained at 100°C and C at 0°C. All rods
have same cross sectional area :-
B
k = 2W/mk
k = 1W/mk
l = 3/2m
l = 1m
A C
k = 1W/mk
k = 2W/mk
l = 0.5m
l = 1.25m D
400
(A) Temperature of junction D = °C
7
300
(B) Temperature of junction B = °C .
7
(C) Rate of heat flowing through AB is less than heat flowing through AD.
(D) Rate of heat flowing through AB is more than rate of heat flowing through AD.
0000CJA103118012 E-5/32
5. In a tank filled with water, a small hole is made on the side. The emerging water jet falls to a
distance of 0.8 m from the base as shown :-
y
1m
0.8m
(A) As the level falls, the range decreases.

(B) As the level falls, the time of flight for water jet remains the same.
(C) y can be 0.8 m.
(D) y can be 0.2 m.
6. In a standard YDSE setup, the fringe width on the screen is 1.5 mm. When a thin glass film is
pasted in front of the upper slit, the fringe pattern shifts up. But it is seen that at a point P
above central maxima where intensity was one fourth the intensity at central maxima, intensity
remains the same. There were no maxima between central maxima and point P before film
was introduced. What can be the thickness of the film ? Take µ = 1.5, l = 450 nm :-
(A) 3 × 10–7m (B) 5 × 10–7 m (C) 9 × 10–7 m (D) 1.4 × 10–6 m
E-6/32 0000CJA103118012
SECTION–I(ii) : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR questions.
Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
7. A rigid uniform wire frame of mass 1kg has dimension as shown. It is free to rotate about
vertical axis supported by two hinges as shown. A current of 1A flows in the frame. A
r
magnetic field B is on. Assume that the current in the frame remains unchanged and frame
is initially at rest.
1m
0.5m
A y
1m 2m
B x
0.5m
List–I List–II
r
(P) B = 4iˆ tesla (1) The frame starts rotating in anticlockwise direction
as seen from above (along y-axis).
r
(Q) B = -4iˆ tesla (2) The frame starts rotating in clockwise direction as
seen from above (along y-axis).
r
(R) B = 3 ˆj tesla (3) Hinge A exerts a non zero force in +ve z direction.
r
(S) B = 6kˆ tesla. (4) Hinge B exerts a non zero force in +ve z direction.
(5) Hinge A exerts a non zero force in +ve x direction.
(6) Hinge B exerts a non zero force in +ve x direction.
(A) P ® 2,3,4,6; Q ® 1,5; R ® 4,6; S ® 6
(B) P ® 1,3,4; Q ® 2,5; R ® 2,4,6; S ® 1,6
(C) P ® 2,3,4; Q ® 1,3,6; R ® 1,4,6; S ® 2,6
(D) P ® 1,3,; Q ® 2,5,6; R ® 4,6; S ® 1,3,5
0000CJA103118012 E-7/32
8. In the list–I, there are certain situations depicted and list–II gives the description of speed
and acceleration of particle. Match them. Neglect air resistance and assume uniform
gravitational field wherever applicable. Consider time before it hits the ground.
List–I List–II
displacement
(P) (1) speed increases & then decreases
time
Particle moving in 1 dimension

(Q) x = t2 + 3t (2) speed decreases & then increases
(R) A projectile thrown on level (3) speed increases continuously.
ground at an angle to the
horizontal
(S) A ball thrown vertically down (4) speed decreases continuously
from a cliff. (5) acceleration is initially opposite to velocity.
(6) acceleration is initially in the same
direction as the velocity
(A) P ® 1,5; Q ® 2,6; R ® 4; S ® 2,5
(B) P ® 2, 5; Q ® 3, 6; R ® 2; S ® 3, 6
(C) P ® 1,5; Q ® 4,6; R ® 1,6; S ® 2,5
(D) P ® 2,6; Q ® 2; R ® 3,6; S ® 3,6
E-8/32 0000CJA103118012
9. The P–V diagram shows a cyclic process on a monoatomic gas.
P A B
D adiabatic
C
isothermal
V
List–I List–II
(P) A®B (1) DU = +ve
(Q) B®C (2) DU = –ve
(R) C®D (3) Wby gas = +ve
(S) D®A (4) Wby gas = –ve
(5) heat is given to gas
(6) heat is extracted from gas.
(A) P ® 2,3,5; Q ® 2,3; R ® 2,5; S ® 1,5
(B) P ® 1,5; Q ® 2 ; R ® 4; S ® 1,3
(C) P ® 1, 3, 5 ; Q ® 2, 3 ; R ® 4, 6 ; S ® 1, 5
(D) P ® 1,3,6; Q ® 2,4,5; R ® 1,5; S ® 4,6
0000CJA103118012 E-9/32
10. Match the list–1 with nature of image in list–II
List–I List–II
(P) 30cm (1) Erect image

f = 20cm
30cm
(Q) (2) Inverted image
f = –40cm
R = 10 cm
(R) µ = 1.5 (3) magnified image

20cm
(S) (4) diminished image

40cm f = 40cm
(5) real image

(6) virtual image
(A) P ® 2,3,5; Q ® 1,4,6; R ® 1,3,6; S ® 2,3,5
(B) P ® 1,4; Q ® 2,3,5; R ® 1,4,6; S ® 1,3,6
(C) P ® 1,4,6; Q ® 1,3,6; R ® 2,3,5; S ® 1,4
(D) P ® 2,3,5; Q ® 1,3,6; R ® ;1,3,6; S ® 1,4,6
E-10/32 0000CJA103118012
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT questions.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-
off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is
11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct) by darken the corresponding bubbles
in the ORS.
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill the bubbles as follows.
+ – + –
0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6
7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8
9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. What is the force/length between two long parallel current carrying wires carrying current
of 186 A and 24 A at a distance of 0.1 mm from each other. Give the answer correct to significant
digits (in N/m).
2. A point charge is kept on the axis of a circular non conducting disc. The distance is such that
1
th of the total electric flux coming from the charge passes through the disc. By what distance
4
1
(in cm) should the charge be moved along the axis so that th of the total electric flux coming
5
from the charge passes through the disc ? The radius of disc is 30 cm.
0000CJA103118012 E-11/32
3. In a series LR circuit connected to an alternating voltage source, it is observed that at the
instant voltage across the source is maximum, voltage across the inductor is 3V and voltage
across the resistance is 4V. If resistance is 2W, what is reactance (in W) of the inductor ?
1
4. The de-broglie wavelength of electrons striking the cathode to produce x rays is equal of
100
minimum wavelength of x ray produced. What is the voltage across x ray tube (in volt).
5. An AC source has voltage given by
0.2H
+1V
0.1sec 0.2sec 0.3sec
Time (sec)
~
–1V
The circuit is connected at t = 0 sec. The current in the inductor (in ampere) at t = 0.25 sec is.
E-12/32 0000CJA103118012
6. When switch is shifted from 1 to 2 current through R1 remains same in direction but becomes
Q
5 times. The initial charge on capacitor was Q. Final charge on capacitor is Q'. Find .
Q'
(consider only the charge and currents in steady state)
R 2R
R1
s
1 2
3R
7. A sample of b active nuclei has a half life of 100 min. Initially, there are 10 13 b active nuclei.
Assume that all b particles emitted leave the sample. What is the charge acquired (in µC) by
the sample in 200 min?
8. A cube is immersed in kerosene and water at rest without any external force as shown. To keep
it completely submerged in water, we need to apply an extra force of 4 N. If it was initially
a
submerged to depth of in kerosene, what is the length 'a' of the side of cube (in cm) ?
4
r = 0.8gm/cc kerosene
r = 1gm/cc water
0000CJA103118012 E-13/32
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
1. Which statement(s) is/are correct -
(A) If 0.1M CH3COOH aqueous solution (Ka = 1.8 × 10–5) is diluted at 25ºC, then [H+] will
increase.
(B) On heating a sample of pure water [H+] and [OH–] increases but the sample still remains
neutral
(C) 10–4M HCl solution is less acidic than 0.1M HCN (Ka HCN = 10–5) solution
(D) 10–8 M HCl aqueous solution will have pH exactly equal to 8
O CH3 O CH3

Acidic hydrolysis
CH3 – C – O – C – Ph CH3 – C – OH + Ph – C – CH3
2.
CH3 OH
correct statements regarding the above reaction is/are :
(A) Free carbocation is involved in the reaction as an intermediate
(B) Alkyl-oxygen bond cleavage takes place
(C) Acyl-oxygen bond cleavage takes place
(D) Alcohol formed in the reaction will give immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent
E-14/32 0000CJA103118012
3. Which of the following reaction is/are feasible?
(A) 2[Fe(CN)6]3– + 2OH– + H2O2 ® 2[Fe(CN)6]4– + 2H2O + O2
(B) 2K4[Fe(CN)6] + H2O2 + H2SO4 ® 2K3[Fe(CN)6] + K2SO4 + 2H2O
(C) 2KMnO4 + 3H2O2 ® 2KOH + 2MnO2 + 2H2O + 3O2
(D) 2KMnO4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO4 ® 2MnSO4 + K2SO4 + 5O2 + 8H2O
4. Select the correct statement(s)?
(A) Addition of HgI2 to aqueous solution of KI increases the freezing point since a complex
K2[HgI4] is formed
(B) Three aqueous solutions of ammonia labelled as A, B and C with concentrations 0.1 M,
0.01 M and 0.001 M respectively, then value of Van't Hoff factor for these solution will be in
order :- iA < iB < iC (consider degree of dilution)
(C) Vapour density of PCl5(g) dissociating into PCl3 (g) and Cl2(g) is 100. % dissociation of PCl5
is 4.25% [Given : atomic mass of P = 31, Cl = 35.5]
(D) If pH of 0.1 M monobasic acid is found to be 2, its osmotic pressure at a given temperature
T K is 0.11 RT
5. Compounds having heat of hydrogenation lesser than that of cyclohexa-1, 4-diene i.e.
[Hint resonance energy of benzene is 36 Kcal]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. Which of the following compound/s does not liberate acidic gas during its hydrolysis.
(A) Ca3P2 (B) AlN (C) Al2S3 (D) CaH2
0000CJA103118012 E-15/32
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
7. List-I List-II
(Electrolysis using inert electrode) (Product at anode or cathode.)
(P) Aqueous solution of sodium acetate (1) H2
(Q) Aqueous solution of sodium formate (2) CO2
(R) Concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl (3) Cl2
(S) Dilute aqueous solution of HCl (4) C2H6
(5) O2
The correct option is
(A) P ® 1,2,4; Q ® 1,2; R ® 1, 3; S ® 1, 5
(B) P ® 1,5; Q ® 2,4; R ® 1; S ® 3, 4
(C) P ® 1,4 ; Q ® 2,4; R ® 1, 5; S ® 3, 5
(D) P ® 2,4 ; Q ® 1,4; R ® 2, 5; S ® 1,5
E-16/32 0000CJA103118012
8. Match the list
List-I List-II
Br2 / CCl 4
(P) ¾¾¾¾¾ ® (1) Ionic organometalic product is formed
C – OAg
O
Br (i) NaNH / D
2
(Q) Ph3P + (ii) H – C – H (2) Product can show electrophillic addition

O
reaction with HBr (1 eq.)
alc KOH
(R) ¾¾¾¾ D
¾® (3) Reaction involve free radical as an intermediate
NaNH2 / D or
(S) ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
NaNH (paraffin )
¾® (4) Number of carbon in parent chain of product is 4
2
Select CORRECT code for your answer :

(A) P ® 3, 4; Q ® 2; R ® 2, 4; S ® 1, 4 (B) P ® 3, 4; Q ® 2; R ® 2, 4; S ® 1, 3
(C) P ® 3, 4; Q ® 1, 2; R ® 2, 4; S ® 1, 4 (D) P ® 2, 3; Q ® 2; R ® 2, 4; S ® 1, 4
0000CJA103118012 E-17/32
9. Match the list:
List- I List- II
(Complex Compounds) (Properties)
(P) [CoF 6]3– (1) Diamagnetic and low spin complex
(Q) [Cr(C2O4)3]3– (2) Paramagnetic and outer orbital complex
(R) [AuCl4] – (3) Paramagnetic and inner orbital complex
(S) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) Paramagnetic and low spin complex
The CORRECT option is
(A) P ® 1; Q ® 2; R ® 3; S ® 4 (B) P ® 2; Q ® 3; R ® 1; S ® 4
(C) P ® 2; Q ® 1; R ® 3; S ® 4 (D) P ® 1; Q ® 3; R ® 2; S ® 4
10. Match the list:
List- I List- II
Complex Compound Properties
(P) [Ni(H 2O)6]Cl2 (1) d2sp3 hybridisation
(Q) [Co(CN)2(NH3)4]OC2H 5 (2) Ionisation isomerism
(R) [IrCl6]3– (3) µ = 2.83 B.M.
(S) [PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 (4) D0 < P
(5) sp3d2 hybridisation
The CORRECT option is
(A) P ® 3,4,5; Q ® 1,2; R ® 1; S ® 1,2 (B) P ® 3,4; Q ® 1; R ® 2,3; S ® 1,2
(C) P ® 1,2,3; Q ® 1,4; R ® 4,5; S ® 2,5 (D) P ® 2,3; Q ® 2; R ® 3,4; S ® 1
E-18/32 0000CJA103118012
in the ORS.
+ – + –
0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6
7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8
9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9
1. For the first order reaction A(g) ® 2B(g) + C(g) the half life for decomposition of A is 3 minute
at 300K. Calculate the time (in minute) in which partial pressure of A(g) will drop from 2 bar
to 0.5 bar at 400K. Given activation energy of reaction is 840 R. (Take ln2 = 0.7)
2. 2 moles of methane gas are compressed from (1 bar, 2L) to 2 bar isothermally against constant
external pressure. Calculate work done in Joules.
3. For 10 minutes each, at 0°C, from two identical holes nitrogen and an unknown gas are leaked
into a common vessel of 4 litre capacity. The resulting pressure in vessel is 2.8 atm and the
mixture contains 0.4 mole of nitrogen. What is the molar mass of unknown gas?
(Take R = 0.0821 L –atm - mol–1 K–1)
0000CJA103118012 E-19/32
Me
H N - OH +
4. C = O ¾¾¾¾¾
2
4.6 - 6.4 pH
® Products ¾¾¾¾
H /D
® products
Et
Find out total number of final products?
5. How many of the following compounds given below have faster aromatic nucleophilic
Br
substitution rate than
NO2
F F Cl Cl I
NO2 NO2
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
NO2
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
Br
Cl Br
NO2 O2N
NO2
(vi) (vii) (viii)
NO2 NO2
NO2
E-20/32 0000CJA103118012
6. Find out total number of moles of Grignard reagent RMgX consumed when treated it with
1 mole of 'X'
O Cl
O Cl
O
O
O
1
7. Find the number of electrons having |m| £ 1, l = 2, ms = - in Pd(Z = 46).
2
8. During extraction of iron, CO is the chief reducing agent. If 72 Kg of carbon is available and
produced CO is completely used to reduce Haematite (present in excess amount) then
calculate how much Kg of Iron is obtained after reduction.
(Given : atomic weight of C–12 g/mol, O–16 g/mol, Fe–55.85 g/mol)
0000CJA103118012 E-21/32
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
1. If e1 is eccentricity of 9x2 + 4y2 = 36 and e2 is eccentricity of 9x2 – 4y2 = 36 then
(A) e12 + e22 < 3 (B) e12 + e22 > 3
(C) e12 + e22 < 4 (D) e12 + e22 > 4
2. Let ƒ : [0, 1] ® [0, ¥) be a differentiable function so that ƒ'(x) is decreasing function ; ƒ(0) = 0,
1
dx
ƒ'(0) > 0 and I = ò 1 + ƒ2 (x) dx then which of the following is INCORRECT ?
0
ƒ(1) ƒ(1) ƒ(1) ƒ(1)

(A) I £ (B) I < (C) I ³ (D) I >
ƒ '(1) ƒ '(1) ƒ '(1) ƒ '(1)
E-22/32 0000CJA103118012
3. The coordinates of four angular points of a tetrahedron OABC are (0,0,0), (0,0,2), (0,4,0) and
(6,0,0) respectively. A point P inside the tetrahedron is at the same distance r from the four
plane faces of tetrahedron. Which of following CANNOT be the value of r ?
2 2
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 3
3 5
é C k -1 0 ù
4. Let Ck = nCk for 0 £ k £ n and A k = ê for k ³ 1 and
ë 0 C k úû
éa 0 ù
A1A2 + A2A3 + A3A4 + ..... + An–1An = ê ú then
ë0 bû
(A) a = b (B) a + b = 2 (2nCn–1 – n)
(C) a = 2b (D) a + b = 0
1 3
5. Probability that the length of a randomly chosen chord of a circle lies between and of its
2 4
p
diameter is where p and q are coprime number, then
q
(A) p + q = 21 (B) q – p = 11 (C) p + q = 20 (D) q – p = 10
6. For two complex numbers z1 and z2 ; ( az1 + bz1 )( cz2 + dz2 ) = ( cz1 + dz1 )( az2 + bz2 ) if
a c a b
(A) = (B) = (C) |z1| = |z2| (D) arg(z1) = arg(z2)
b d d c
0000CJA103118012 E-23/32
Zero Marks : 0 I f none of t he bubbles is dar k ened.
æ x2 ö
Let f(x) = 3ƒ ç ÷ + ƒ ( 3 - x ) " x Î (–3, 4) where ƒ"(x) > 0 " x Î (–3, 4),
2
7.
è 3 ø
æ x xö
g(x) = (a2 - 3a + 2) ç cos2 - sin 2 ÷ + (a - 1)x + sin1
è 4 4ø
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.
List-I List-II
(P) f(x) is increasing in (1) (0, 1) È (1, 4)
é 3 ù é3 ö
(Q) f(x) is decreasing in (2) êë - 2 ,0úû ; ê 2 , 4 ÷
ë ø
(R) The set of values of a for which (3) æ 3ù é 3ù

ç -3, - 2 ú ; ëê0, 2 ûú
è û
g(x) does not possess critical point is
(S) The set of values of a for which (4) (–¥, 0] È {1} È [4, ¥)
g(x) possess critical point is
(A) P ® 2; Q ® 3; R ® 1; S ® 4 (B) P ® 2; Q ® 3; R ® 4; S ® 1
(C) P ® 3; Q ® 2; R ® 1; S ® 4 (D) P ® 3; Q ® 2; R ® 4; S ® 1
E-24/32 0000CJA103118012
8. S º x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 1 = 0 and S' º x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + 1 = 0 are equations of two circles.
List-I List-II
(P) Sum of number of tangents from (1, 3) to S and (1) 1
number of tangents from (1,3) to S' is
(Q) If r is radius of circle passes through point (2) 2
of intersection of S and S' and whose normal
is the straight line 2x + y – 6 = 0, then the
r2
value of is
4
(R) If m is slope of common tangent of S = 0 and (3) 3
S' = 0 then |m| is
(S) If l is length of common tangent of S and S' (4) 4
then the value of 2l2 is
(A) P ® 2; Q ® 1; R ® 2; S ® 3 (B) P ® 2; Q ® 2; R ® 1; S ® 4
(C) P ® 2; Q ® 2; R ® 4; S ® 1 (D) P ® 1; Q ® 1; R ® 4; S ® 2
0000CJA103118012 E-25/32
9. (1) The sum of all the values of r satisfying 39

C3r -1 - 39Cr2 = 39
Cr 2 -1 - 39 C3r is a1.
(2) If 2n +3
C2n - 2n +2C2n -1 = 15(2n + 1) then the value of n is a2
(3) If 56
Pr +6 : 54 Pr +3 = 30800 : 1 then the value of r is a3
(4) n+2
C8 : n -2 P4 = 57 :16 then the value of n is a4
List-I List-II
(P) The value of a1 is (1) 41
(Q) The value of a2 is (2) 8
(R) The value of a3 is (3) 14
(S) The value of a4 is (4) 19
(A) P ® 2; Q ® 3; R ® 1; S ® 4 (B) P ® 2; Q ® 3; R ® 4; S ® 1
(C) P ® 2; Q ® 1; R ® 3; S ® 4 (D) P ® 3; Q ® 2; R ® 1; S ® 4
E-26/32 0000CJA103118012
10. (i) Let harmonic mean, arithmetic mean and geometric mean of two positive numbers a and
b respectively be 4, A and G. If 2A + G2 = 27 then a2 + b2 = a1
(ii) If the value of x + y + z = 15 where a, x, y, z, b are in arithmetic progression while the value
1 1 1 5
of + + is where a, x, y, z, b are in harmonic progression, then the value of a2 + b2
x y z 8
is a2
æ 13 + 23 + ..... + r 3 ö
16
(iii) The value of å ç ÷ is a3
r =1 è 1 + 3 + ..... + (2r - 1) ø
(iv) If the geometric mean and harmonic mean of two positive numbers x 1 and x2 are 18
216
and respectively then the value of |x1 – x2| is a4.
13
List-I List-II
(P) The value of a1 is (1) 52
(Q) The value of a2 is (2) 45
(R) The value of a3 is (3) 446
(S) The value of a4 is (4) 15
(A) P ® 2; Q ® 1; R ® 2; S ® 3 (B) P ® 2; Q ® 2; R ® 1; S ® 4
(C) P ® 2; Q ® 1; R ® 3; S ® 4 (D) P ® 1; Q ® 1; R ® 4; S ® 2
0000CJA103118012 E-27/32
in the ORS.
+ – + –
0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6
7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8
9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9
æ 31 ö
1. In a triangle ABC(with usual notations), a = 5, b = 4 and A - B = cos -1 ç ÷ then the value
è 32 ø
c
of is
5
2. In the expansion of (1 – x)30(1 + x + x2)31 the coefficient of x 47 is (– 30Cr) then the value
r
of is
2
3. In the equation x5 – 5x4 + 9x3 – 9x2 + 5x – 1 = 0 if p is the sum of real roots and q is the product
q
of real roots then the value of is
p
E-28/32 0000CJA103118012
4. Let ƒ : (0, ¥) ® (0, ¥) be a function differentiable at 3 and satisfying ƒ(3) = 3ƒ'(3). If the value
x
æ æ 3öö
ç ƒ çè 3 + x ÷ø ÷ [L]
of lim çç ÷÷ is L then is (where [.] is greatest integer function)
x ®¥
è ƒ(3) ø 5
3p
4
cos x 22
5. The value of òp 1 - cos x dx is equal to (use p =
7
)
4
sec x cos x sec 2 x + cot x cos ecx + cos x

p/ 2
22
ò ƒ(x) dx is (use p =
2 2 2 4
6. Let ƒ(x) = cos x cos x cos ec x + cos x then the value )
0
7
1 cos2 x cos2 x
0000CJA103118012 E-29/32
2 æ 1ö
7. If y = 2x – 3 is a tangent to the parabola y = 4a ç x - ÷ then the value of |a| is
è 3ø
8. OA, OB, OC are the sides of a rectangular parallelopiped whose diagonals are OO', AA', BB'
and CC'. D is the centre of rectangle AC'O'B' and D' is centre of rectangle O'A'CB'. If sides
697 cos2 a
OA, OB, OC are in ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and ÐDOD' = a then is
128
(Centre of rectangle is mid point of diagonal)
E-30/32 0000CJA103118012
0000CJA103118012 E-31/32
QUESTION PAPER FORMAT AND MARKING SCHEME :
16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
17. Each part has two section as detailed in the following table.
Que. No. Category-wise Marks for Each Question Maximum
Section Type of Full Partial Zero Negative Marks of the
Que. Marks Marks Marks Marks section
+4 +1 0 –2
One or more If only the bubble(s) For darkening a bubble If none In all
I(i) correct corresponding corresponding to each of the other
option(s) 6 to all the correct correct option, provided bubbles is cases 24
option(s) is(are) NO incorrect option darkened
darkened darkened
Matching +3 0 –1
Lists Type If only the bubble If none In all
I(ii) (Single 4 corresponding to — of the other 12
correct the correct option bubbles is cases
option) is darkened darkened
+3 0
Numerical If only the bubble In all
II Value Type 8 corresponding — other — 24
(Up to second to correct answer cases
decimalplace) is darkened
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE ................................................................................................
FORM NO. .............................................
I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and Form
and shall abide by them. number of the candidate, and that question
paper and ORS codes are the same.
____________________________ ____________________________
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA 324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
E-32/32 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE 2019 0000CJA103118012

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JEE (Main + Advanced) : LEADER & ENTHUSIAST COURSE

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

Space for Rough Work

(C) The cart and bob oscillate with phase difference of p.

Space for Rough Work

(A) As the level falls, the range decreases.

Particle moving in 1 dimension

(P) 30cm (1) Erect image

(R) µ = 1.5 (3) magnified image

(S) (4) diminished image

(5) real image

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(A) 2[Fe(CN)6]3– + 2OH– + H2O2 ® 2[Fe(CN)6]4– + 2H2O + O2

(B) 2K4[Fe(CN)6] + H2O2 + H2SO4 ® 2K3[Fe(CN)6] + K2SO4 + 2H2O

(C) 2KMnO4 + 3H2O2 ® 2KOH + 2MnO2 + 2H2O + 3O2

(D) 2KMnO4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO4 ® 2MnSO4 + K2SO4 + 5O2 + 8H2O

4. Select the correct statement(s)?

[Hint resonance energy of benzene is 36 Kcal]

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for Rough Work

(Q) Ph3P + (ii) H – C – H (2) Product can show electrophillic addition

Select CORRECT code for your answer :

(P) [CoF 6]3– (1) Diamagnetic and low spin complex

(Q) [Cr(C2O4)3]3– (2) Paramagnetic and outer orbital complex

(R) [AuCl4] – (3) Paramagnetic and inner orbital complex

(S) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) Paramagnetic and low spin complex

The CORRECT option is

substitution rate than

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

ƒ(1) ƒ(1) ƒ(1) ƒ(1)

Space for Rough Work

(R) The set of values of a for which (3) æ 3ù é 3ù

(P) Sum of number of tangents from (1, 3) to S and (1) 1

number of tangents from (1,3) to S' is

(Q) If r is radius of circle passes through point (2) 2

of intersection of S and S' and whose normal

is the straight line 2x + y – 6 = 0, then the

(R) If m is slope of common tangent of S = 0 and (3) 3

S' = 0 then |m| is

(S) If l is length of common tangent of S and S' (4) 4

then the value of 2l2 is

9. (1) The sum of all the values of r satisfying 39

(P) The value of a1 is (1) 41

(Q) The value of a2 is (2) 8

(R) The value of a3 is (3) 14

(S) The value of a4 is (4) 19

Space for Rough Work

(P) The value of a1 is (1) 52

(Q) The value of a2 is (2) 45

(R) The value of a3 is (3) 446

(S) The value of a4 is (4) 15

Space for Rough Work

sec x cos x sec 2 x + cot x cos ecx + cos x

Space for Rough Work