Form Number : Paper Code : CJM202002230014

TEST PATTERN
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
ENGLISH

JEE (Main)
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) MINOR TEST - 6

JEE (Main) : NURTURE & NURTURE LITE COURSE (PHASE-I & II)

Time : 3 Hours TEST DATE : 10 - 09 - 2023 Maximum Marks : 300

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Important Instructions :
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DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet.
3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
4. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in
each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Integer Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
First 5 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
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 ALLEN

MINOR TEST # 06 Topics DATE : 10 - 09 - 2023

NURTURE COURSE (PHASE - I & II)
Physics : NLM, Friction, Work Energy Power, Circular Motion

Chemistry : Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding, Gaseous State

Mathematics : Quadratic Equation, P & C, Binomial Theorem

USEFUL DATA
Enthusiast Course / Phase - I(A) & =
1 amu Live-I(A)1.66
/ Score-I
× 10/–27
Paper-1
kg R = 0.082 L-atm K–1 mol–1 1001CJA102922053
English / 12112022 h = 6.626 × 10–34SPACE
J s FOR ROUGH
NAWORK= 6.022 × 1023 Page 1/16

me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg e = 1.6 × 10–19 C

c = 3.0 × 108 m s–1 F = 96500 C mol–1
RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J 4pÎ0 = 1.00 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–1
Atomic No. : H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Na = 11, Mg = 12, Al = 13,
Si = 14, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26,
Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,
I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 23.
Atomic Masses : H =1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
Topic : NLM, Friction, Work Energy Power, Circular Motion
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 particle moving with velocity v. These forces are
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions represented in magnitude and direction by the three
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
sides of a Δ ABC (as shown). The particle will now
marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. move with velocity.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. When forces F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle of
mass m such that F2 and F3 are mutually
perpendicular, then the particle remains stationary.
If the force F1, is now removed, then then
acceleration of the particle is (A) less than v
F1 F2 F3
(A) (B) (B) greater than v
m mF1
(F2 − F3 ) F2 (C) |v| in the direction of largest force BC
(C) (D)
m m
2. A light string passing over a smooth light pulley (D) v, remaining unchanged
connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2
(vertically). If the acceleration of the blocks is g/8, 5. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline
m1 and then slides a distance d. The time taken to slide
then the ratio of the masses ( ) is (m1 > m2)
m2
(A) 8 : 1 (B) 9 : 7 is n times as much to slide on rough incline than on
a smooth incline. The coefficient of friction is
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 5 : 3
1
3. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an (A) ∝ k = 1 −
n2
angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction between the block and the plane is 1
(B) ∝ k = √ 1−
0.8. If the frictional force on the block is 10 N, the n2
mass of the block (in kg) is (g = 10 m/s2) (C) ∝ s = 1 −
1
n2
(A) 2.0 (B) 4.0
1
(C) 1.6 (D) 2.5 (D) ∝ s = √ 1−
n2
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6. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a 10. A body of mass m = 10 – 2 kg is moving in a medium
velocity 1200 ms – 1. The man holding it, can exert and experiences a frictional force F = – kv2. Its
a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many initial speed is v0 = 10 ms – 1. If, after 10 s, its
1 2
bullets can he fire per second at the most? energy is mv , the value of k will be
8 0
(A) 1 (B) 4 (A) 10 – 3 kgs – 1
(C) 2 (D) 3 (B) 10 – 4 kgm – 1

7. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g (C) 10 – 1 kgm – 1 s – 1

moving at a speed of 20 m/s. If the catching (D) 10 – 3 kgm – 1
process is completed in 0.1 s, the force of the blow
exerted by the ball on the hand of the player is 11. A rocket with a lift-off mass 3.5 x 104 kg is blasted
equal to upwards with an initial acceleration of 10 ms – 2.
Then, the initial thrust of the blast is
(A) 150 N (B) 3 N
(A) 3.5 × 105 N
(C) 30 N (D) 300 N
(B) 7.0 × 105 N
8. A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force (C) 14.0 × 105 N
F= – kx with K = 15 Nm – 1. What will be its (D) 1.75 × 105 N
initial acceleration, if it is released from a point
20 cm away from the origin? 12. A lift is moving down with acceleration a. A man
(A) 3 ms – 2 (B) 15 ms – 2 in the lift drops a ball inside the lift. The
acceleration of the ball as observed by the man in
(C) 5 ms – 2 (D) 10 ms – 2
the lift and a man standing stationary on the ground
are respectively
9. Consider a car moving on a straight road with a
speed of 100 ms – 1. The distance at which car can (A) g, g
be stopped, is [µk = 0.5] (B) g – a, g – a
(A) 800 m (B) 1000 m (C) g – a, g
(C) 100 m (D) 400 m (D) a, g
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13. Two forces are such that the sum of their 17. A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a
magnitudes is 18 N and their resultant which has mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m, 1000 times.
magnitude 12 N, is perpendicular to smaller force. Assume that the potential energy lost each time he
Then magnitude of force are lowers the mass is dissipated. How much fat will he
(A) 12 N, 6 N (B) 13 N, 5 N use up considering the work done only when the
weight is lifted up? Fat supplies 3.8 × 107 J of energy
(C) 10 N, 8 N (D) 16 N, 2 N
per kg which is converted into mechanical energy
14. An elevator in a building can carry a maximum of with a 20% of efficiency rate. (Take, g = 9.8 ms – 2)
10 persons with the average mass of each person (A) 2.45 × 10 – 3 kg (B) 6.45 × 10 – 3 kg
being 68 kg. The mass of the elevator itself is 920
kg and it moves with a constant speed of 3 m/s. The (C) 9.89 × 10 – 3 kg (D) 12.89 × 10 – 3 kg
frictional force opposing the motion is 6000 N. 18. A uniform cable of mass M and length L is placed
If the elevator is moving up with its full capacity,
1
the power delivered by the motor to the elevator (g on a horizontal surface such that its ( ) th part is
n
= 10 m/s2) must be at least
hanging below the edge of the surface. To lift the
(A) 62360 W (B) 48000 W hanging part of the cable upto the surface, the work
(C) 56300 W (D) 66000 W done should be
15. A force acts on a 2 kg object, so that its position is 2MgL
(A) (B) nMgL
given as a function of time as x = 3t2 + 5. What is n2
MgL MgL
the work done by this force in first 5 seconds? (C) (D)
n2 2n2
(A) 850 J (B) 900 J 19. A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N/m is
(C) 950 J (D) 875 J stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched
position. Then, the work required to stretch it
16. A block of mass m is kept on a platform
g further by another 5 cm is
which starts from rest with constant acceleration
2 (A) 12.50 N – m (B) 18.75 N – m
upwards as shown in figure. Work done by normal
reaction on block in time t is (C) 25.00 N – m (D) 6.25 N – m

20. An athlete in the Olympic games covers a distance

of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be
mg 2 t2 3mg 2 t2 estimated to be in the range (mass = 60 kg)
(A) (B)
8 8
(A) 200 J – 500 J (B) 2 × 105 J – 3 × 105 J
mg 2 t2
(C) 0 (D) −
(C) 20000 J – 50000 J (D) 2000 J – 5000 J
8
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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 3. A particle (m = 1 kg) slides down a frictionless
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to track (AOC) starting from rest at a point A [height
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 2 m). After reaching C, the particle continues to
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted move freely in air as a projectile. When it reaching
questions will be evaluated. its highest point P (height 1 m), the kinetic energy
The answer to each question is an Integer Value Type of the particle (in J) is : (g = 10 ms – 2)
questions.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 4. A 60 HP electric motor lifts an elevator having a
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. maximum total load capacity of 2000 kg. If the
frictional force on the elevator is 4000 N, the speed of
1. You may have seen in a circus a motorcyclist the elevator at full load is close to (Take, 1 HP = 746 W,
driving in vertical loops inside a 'death well' (a g = 10 ms – 2) _______m/s (g = 10 ms – 2)
hollow spherical chamber with holes, so the
spectators can watch from outside). What is the
5. The momentum of a body is increased by 50%. The
minimum speed required in m/s at the uppermost
K.E. of the body will be increased by_______%
position to perform a vertical loop if the radius of
the chamber is 25 m? (g = 10 m/s2)
6. A particle is given an initial speed u inside a
smooth spherical shell of radius R so that it is just
2. A 70 kg man stands in contact against the inner wall of
able to complete the circle. Acceleration of the
a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 3 m rotating about
particle, when its velocity is vertical is g x m/s2 ,
√

its vertical axis with 200 rev/min. The coefficient of

find x. (g = 10 m/s2)
friction between the wall and his clothing is 0.15. What
is the minimum rotational speed of the cylinder to
enable the man to remain stuck to the w all (without
falling) when the floor is suddenly removed? (give ans
in rad/sec.) (g = 10 m/s2)
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7. A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at the
top of a hill of height 100 m. It rolls down a smooth
surface to the ground, then climbs up another hill
of height 30 m and finally rolls down to a
horizontal base at a height of 20 m above the
ground. The velocity attained by the ball is
________ m/s. (g = 10 m/s2)

8. A particle which is experiencing a force, given by

F = 3i^ − 12j^, undergoes a displacement of d = 4i^.
If the particle had a kinetic energy of 3 J at the
beginning of the displacement, what is its kinetic
energy at the end of the displacement? (give Ans in
Joules)

9. A man (mass = 50 kg) and his son (mass = 20 kg)

are standing on a frictionless surface facing each
other. The man pushes his son, so that he starts
moving at a speed of 0.70 ms – 1 with respect to the
man. The speed of the man with respect to the
surface is x × 10 – 1 m/s, find x.

10. Consider a force F = −xi^ + yj^. The work done by

this force in moving a particle from point A(1,0) to
B(0,1) along the line segment is (all quantities are
in SI units) ________Joules.

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Topic : Periodic Table, chemical Bonding, Gaseous State
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 5. Which of the following compounds of IV group
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 elements would you expect to be most ionic in
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions character?
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows: (A) CC14 (B) SiCl4
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. (C) PbCl2 (D) PbCl4
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. 6. Which one of the following has pyramidal structure?
1. Which of the following have identical bond order?
(A) NH3 (B) SiF4
(I) CN – (II) O−2 (III) NO+ (IV) CN+
(C) H2O (D) BF3
(A) I, III (B) I, II
(C) II, IV (D) I, II, III
7. The order of strength of hydrogen bond is :
2. The formal charge on the central oxygen atom in
O3 molecule is : (A) CI—H.....CI > N—H.....N > O—H.....O
> F—H.....F
(A) 0 (B) + 1
(B) N—H.....N > CI—H.....CI > O—H.....O
(C) – 1 (D) – 2
> F—H.....F
3. Both BF3 and NF3 are covalent compounds. BF3 is (C) O—H.....O > N—H.....N > CI—H.....CI
a nonpolar compound but NF3 is polar. The reason
> F—H.....F
is that:
(D) F—H.....F > O—H.....O > N—H.....N
(A) boron is a solid and nitrogen is a gas in free > CI—H.....CI
state
(B) BF3 is planar but NF3 is pyramidal in shape 8. Which of the following sets of species does not
(C) boron is a metalloid while nitrogen is a non – metal follow octet rule?
(D) atomic size of boron is smaller than that of nitrogen (A) CO, PCI5, PCI3, AICI3
4. The bond order of C—O bond in CO2−
3 is
(B) CO, B2H6, NH3, H2O
(A) 2 (B) 1.33 (C) AlCl3, BF3, PCl5, SF6
(C) 1.25 (D) 1.5 (D) H2O, NH3, CO2, CH4
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9. Which of the following molecules/ions does not 16. 2.5 L of a sample of a gas at 27°C and 1 bar
contain unpaired electrons? pressure is compressed to a volume of 500 mL
(A) O2− (B) B2 keeping the temperature constant, the percentage
2
increase in the pressure is:
(C) N2+ (D) O2
(A) 100% (B) 400% (C) 500% (D) 80%
10. Number of bonding pairs and lone pairs around the
central atom in the I3− ion are : 17. Which of the following gases will have density of
1.8 g L – 1 at 760 torr pressure and 27°C ?
(A) 2, 2 (B) 3, 2
(A) O2 (B) CO2 (C) NH3 (D) SO2
(C) 2, 3 (D) 4, 3
11. An element 'X' with atomic number 114 has 18. The molecular weights of two ideal gases A and B
recently been discovered. Its IUPAC name is: are respectively 100 and 200. One gram of A
occupies V litre of volume at STP. What is the
(A) Eka – lead (B) Ununfortium volume (in litre) occupied by one gram of B at
(C) Ununquadium (D) Bohrium STP?
12. The process requiring absorption of energy is: (A) V (B) V (C) V2 (D) 2V
2
(A) F → F – (B) H → H –
19. The volume-temperature graphs of a given mass of
(C) Cl → Cl – (D) O → O2 – an ideal gas at constant pressures are shown below.
13. Which transition involves maximum amount of energy? What is the correct order of pressures?
(A) M – (g) → M(g) + e
(B) M – (g) → M+(g) + 2e
(C) M+(g) → M2+(g) + e
(D) M2+(g) → M3+(g) + e
14. The second ionization energy is maximum for :
(A) P1 > P3 > P2 (B) P1 > P2 > P3
(A) boron (B) beryllium
(C) P2 > P3 > P1 (D) P2 > P1 > P3
(C) magnesium (D) aluminium
20. Boyle's law may be represented as:
15. The element having very high ionization enthalpy
but zero electron gain enthalpy is: dP dP K
(A) ( ) = K/V (B) ( ) =−
dV T dV T V
(A) H (B) F dP K dP K
(C) ( ) =− (D) ( ) =
(C) He (D) Be dV T V2 dV T V2
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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 5. The number of orbitals involved in the
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to hybridisation of XeF2 is :
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 6. Number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is:
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is an Integer Value Type 7. A sample of a gas occupies 600 mL at 27 °C and 1
questions. atm. What will be volume in ml at 127°C if the
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case pressure is kept constant?
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to 8. The density of a gas is 0.24 gL – 1 at 400 K and 190
the following marking scheme: 1
torr. Find its molar mass in g/mol. (R = Lit.
12
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. atm mol – 1 k – 1)
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
9. 3,2 g of oxygen and 0.2 g of hydrogen are placed in
1. The ratio of σ to π bonds in mesitylene is 1.12 litre flask at 0°C. The total pressure in atm of
the gas mixture will be.........; (R = 0.0821 Lit. atm
mol – 1 k – 1)

10. A gas is found to have the formula (C3O2)n. Its

vapour density is 34. The value of n will be.............

2. If for an element (X), the values of successive

ionisation energies I1, I2,I3, I4 and I5 are 800, 2427,
3658, 25024, 32824 kJ mol – 1 respectively, then the
number of valence electrons present are :

3. How many unpaired electrons are present in Co3+

ion?
4. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds
in which a water molecule can participate is:
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Topic : Quadratic Equation, P & C, Binomial Theorem
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 5. If 1 is a root of ax2 + bx + 1 = 0, where a, b
4 − 3i
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 are real, then
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions
(A) a = 25, b = – 8 (B) a = 25, b = 8
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows: (C) a = 5, b = 4 (D) none of these
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. 6. Let S be the set of values of 'a' for which 2 lie
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. between the roots of the quadratic equation
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. x2 + (a + 2) x – (a + 3) = 0, then S is given by
1. If nP5 = 9 × n – 1 P4, then the value of n is (A) ( – ∞ , – 5) (B) (5, ∞ )
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) ( – ∞ , – 5] (D) [5, ∞ )
(C) 5 (D) 9 7. If ( λ 2 + λ – 2)x2 + ( λ + 2)x < 1 for all x ∈ R then
2. The value of nPr is equal to λ belongs to the interval
n – 1P n–1 P 2
(A) r+r r–1 (A) ( – 2, 1) (B) ( −2,
5
)

(B) n.n – 1Pr + n – 1 Pr – 1 2

(C) (
5
, 1) (D) none of these
(C) n(n – 1Pr + n – 1 Pr – 1)
10
(D) n–1
Pr – 1 + n – 1 Pr 8. 6th term in expansion of (2x2 − 1 2 ) is
3x
3. If α, β are roots of the equation (x – a)(x – b) = c, 4580 896
(A) (B) −
c ≠ 0, then the roots of the equation 17 27
(x – a)(x – β) + c = 0 are 5580
(C) (D) None of these
17
(A) a, c (B) b, c
9. a 5
Coefficient of x in the expansion of ( x2 + ) is
(C) a, b (D) a + c, b + c x
(A) 9a2 (B) 10a3
4. If α, β, γ be the roots of the equation
x(1 + x2) + x2 (6 + x) + 2 = 0 then the value of (C) 10a2 (D) 10a
α–1 + β–1 + γ–1 is 10. If the roots of the equation x2 – 2ax + a2 + a – 3 = 0
1 are real and less than 3, then
(A) – 3 (B)
2 (A) a < 2 (B) 2 ≤ a ≤ 3
1
(C) − (D) none of these (C) 3 < a ≤ 4 (D) a > 4
2
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11. 4 Note of Rs. 100 and 5 note in which first of Rs. 1, 15. In the expansion of (1 + x)50, the sum of the
second of Rs. 2, Third of Rs. 5, fourth of Rs. 20 coefficient of odd powers of x is
and fifth one of Rs. 50 distributed in 3 children (A) 0 (B) 249
such that each child receive at least one note of Rs.
100. The total number of ways of distribution (C) 250 (D) 251
(A) 3 × 53 16. The sum of the digits in the unit place of all
numbers formed with the help of 3, 4, 5, 6 taken all
(B) 5 × 35
at a time is
(C) 36
(A) 18 (B) 432
(D) None of these
(C) 108 (D) 144
12. In a circus there are ten cages for accommodating
ten animals. Out of these four cages are so small 17. Six identical coins are arranged in a row. The
that five out of 10 animals cannot enter into them. number of ways in which the number of tails is
In how many ways will it be possible to equal to the number of heads is
accommodate ten animals in these ten cages (A) 20 (B) 9
(A) 66400 (C) 120 (D) 40
(B) 86400
18. There are 4 parcels and 5 post-offices. In how
(C) 96400 many different ways the registration of parcel can
(D) None of these be made
(A) 20 (B) 45
13. How many numbers less than 1000 can be made
from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 (repetition is not (C) 54 (D) 54 – 45
allowed)
19. The number of triangles that can be formed by 5
(A) 156 points in a line and 3 points on a parallel line is
(B) 160 (A) 8C3 (B) 8C3 – 5C3
(C) 150 (C) 8C3 – 5C3 – 1 (D) None of these
(D) None of these
20. If a polygon has 44 diagonals, then the number of
14. The last digit in 7300 is its sides are
(A) 7 (B) 9 (A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 1 (D) 3 (C) 8 (D) None of these
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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 6. If one root of the equation x2 – λ x + 12=0 is even
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
prime while x2 + λ x + μ = 0 has equal roots, then
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted μ is
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is an Integer Value Type 7. If x be real, then the maximum value of 5 + 4x - 4x2
questions. will be equal to
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to 8. The number of ways in which any four letters can
the nearest Integer).
be selected from the word 'CORGOO' is
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. 9. If the letters of the word SACHIN arranged in all
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. possible ways and these words are written out as in
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. dictionary, then the word SACHIN appears at serial
number
1. If x4 occurs in the rth term in the expansion of
15
1 10. The number of words which can be formed from
( x4 + ) , then r =
x3
the letters of the word MAXIMUM, if two
2. consonants cannot occur together, is
The number of ordered triplets of positive integers
which are solutions of the equation x + y + z = 100
is

3. If a, b, c, d, e are prime integers, then the number

of divisors of ab2c2de excluding 1 as a factor, is

4. The sum of the real roots of the equation

x2 + | x | – 6 = 0 is

5. The number of real solutions of the equation

6−x x
=2+ is
2
x −4 x+2
JEE (Main) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJM202002230014

English / 10092023 Space for Rough Work Page 11/12

 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JEE (Main) : Nurture Course (Phase - I & II) 3010CJM202002230014

Page 12/12 English / 10092023

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Form Number : Paper Code : CJM202466230007
TEST PATTERN
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
GUJARATI

JEE (Main)
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) MINOR TEST - 3

JEE (Main) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE (BHAVNAGAR)

Time : 3 Hours TEST DATE : 09 - 07 - 2023 Maximum Marks : 300

ykÃku÷ Mkq[Lkkyku æÞkLkÚke ðkt[ku

yøkíÞLke Mkq[Lkk :
1. Test Booklet Lkk yk ÃkuEÍ Ãkh íkhík s Vku{o Lktçkh ðkˤe fu fk¤e ÃkuLkÚke ¼he Ëku. ÃkuÂLMk÷Lkku WÃkÞkuøk Mk¾ík «ríkçktrÄík Au.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

2. W{uËðkhkuyu Œu{™ku Vku{o ™tƒh Test Booklet/Answer Sheet …h ƒesu fâkt (WÕ÷ur¾Œ søÞk r‚ðkÞ) ÷¾ðku òuEyu ™nª.
3. yk «&™Ãkºk{kt 90 «&™ku Au.
4. «§…ºk{kt 1,2,3 {kt ¼kirŒfþk†, h‚kÞýþk† y™u „rýŒ™k ºký ¼k„ Au. su{kt «íÞuf rð»kÞ{kt 30 «§ku Au y™u Ëhuf rð»kÞ{kt ƒu
rð¼k„ Au.
(i) rð¼k„-I {kt {kºk yuf ‚k[k rðfÕ… ‚kÚku 20 MCQ ™k «§ku Au.
Marking scheme : Mkk[ku sðkƒ nkuÞ íkku +4 økwý, fkuEÃký W¥kh sýkðu÷ Lk nkuÞ íkku þqLÞ økwý yLku çkkfeLkk çkÄk s rfMMkk{kt
(–1) økwý ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu.
(ii) Section-II {kt 10 «&™ku Au. rðãkÚkeoykuyu 10 {ktÚke 5 «&™kuLkk W¥kh ykÃkðkLkk Au.
òu 5 Úke ðÄw «&™kuLkk W¥kh ykÃku÷ nþu íkku «Úk{ 5 «&™LkkuLkwt {qÕÞktfLk fhðk{kt ykðþu. Ëhuf «&™Lkku sðkçk MktÏÞk¥{f Au.
Marking scheme : Mkk[ku sðkƒ nkuÞ íkku +4 økwý, fkuEÃký W¥kh sýkðu÷ Lk nkuÞ íkku þqLÞ økwý yLku çkkfeLkk çkÄk s rfMMkk{kt
(–1) økwý ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu.
5. W¥khÃkrºkfkLke Side–1 yLku Side–2 Lke çkkswyu ftEf ÷¾ðk{k{kt fu W¥kh {kxu Võík fk¤e fu ðkˤe ÃkuLkLkku s WÃkÞkuøk fhku. ÃkuÂLMk÷Lkku
WÃkÞkuøk Mk¾ík «ríkçktrÄík Au.
6. yku¤¾Ãkºk rMkðkÞ yLÞ fkuEÃký ðMíkw rðãkÚkeoyu suðe fu ÷¾u÷ MkkrníÞ, fkøk¤ fu r[êe, {kuçkkE÷ VkuLk fu yLÞ fkuE E÷uõxÙkuLkef MkkÄLk
÷kððwt Ãkheûkk¾tz{kt {kLÞ LkÚke.
7. hV fkÞo {kxu y÷økÚke fkøk¤ ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu Lknª. ykÃku÷ søÞk{kt s hV fÞko fhðwt.
8. Ãkheûkk Ãkqýo ÚkÞk çkkË, rðãkÚkeoyu Answer Sheet Ãkheûkk¾tzLkk rLkheûkfLku ykÃkðkLke hnuþu Ãký Test Booklet íku{Lke MkkÚku ÷E sE þfþu.
9. Answer Sheet ðk¤ðe Lkne fu íku Lkk Ãkh fku E zk½ ÷økkzðku Lkne.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Batch & Phase (in Capitals) :

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2024

ALLEN AHMEDABAD
“SADHYA - SBR" Opp. Saptavilla Bungalow, Behind Sindhubhavan, Thaltej, Ahmedabad (GUJARAT) 380059 +91-79-49033100
infoadi@allen.ac.in allen.ac.in/ahmedabad
Form Number : Paper Code : CJM202466230007
TEST PATTERN
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
GUJARATI

JEE (Main)
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) MINOR TEST - 3

JEE (Main) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE (BHAVNAGAR)

Time : 3 Hours TEST DATE : 09 - 07 - 2023 Maximum Marks : 300

ykÃku÷ Mkq[Lkkyku æÞkLkÚke ðkt[ku

yøkíÞLke Mkq[Lkk :
1. Test Booklet Lkk yk ÃkuEÍ Ãkh íkhík s Vku{o Lktçkh ðkˤe fu fk¤e ÃkuLkÚke ¼he Ëku. ÃkuÂLMk÷Lkku WÃkÞkuøk Mk¾ík «ríkçktrÄík Au.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

2. W{uËðkhkuyu Œu{™ku Vku{o ™tƒh Test Booklet/Answer Sheet …h ƒesu fâkt (WÕ÷ur¾Œ søÞk r‚ðkÞ) ÷¾ðku òuEyu ™nª.
3. yk «&™Ãkºk{kt 90 «&™ku Au.
4. «§…ºk{kt 1,2,3 {kt ¼kirŒfþk†, h‚kÞýþk† y™u „rýŒ™k ºký ¼k„ Au. su{kt «íÞuf rð»kÞ{kt 30 «§ku Au y™u Ëhuf rð»kÞ{kt ƒu
rð¼k„ Au.
(i) rð¼k„-I {kt {kºk yuf ‚k[k rðfÕ… ‚kÚku 20 MCQ ™k «§ku Au.
Marking scheme : Mkk[ku sðkƒ nkuÞ íkku +4 økwý, fkuEÃký W¥kh sýkðu÷ Lk nkuÞ íkku þqLÞ økwý yLku çkkfeLkk çkÄk s rfMMkk{kt
(–1) økwý ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu.
(ii) Section-II {kt 10 «&™ku Au. rðãkÚkeoykuyu 10 {ktÚke 5 «&™kuLkk W¥kh ykÃkðkLkk Au.
òu 5 Úke ðÄw «&™kuLkk W¥kh ykÃku÷ nþu íkku «Úk{ 5 «&™LkkuLkwt {qÕÞktfLk fhðk{kt ykðþu. Ëhuf «&™Lkku sðkçk MktÏÞk¥{f Au.
Marking scheme : Mkk[ku sðkƒ nkuÞ íkku +4 økwý, fkuEÃký W¥kh sýkðu÷ Lk nkuÞ íkku þqLÞ økwý yLku çkkfeLkk çkÄk s rfMMkk{kt
(–1) økwý ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu.
5. W¥khÃkrºkfkLke Side–1 yLku Side–2 Lke çkkswyu ftEf ÷¾ðk{k{kt fu W¥kh {kxu Võík fk¤e fu ðkˤe ÃkuLkLkku s WÃkÞkuøk fhku. ÃkuÂLMk÷Lkku
WÃkÞkuøk Mk¾ík «ríkçktrÄík Au.
6. yku¤¾Ãkºk rMkðkÞ yLÞ fkuEÃký ðMíkw rðãkÚkeoyu suðe fu ÷¾u÷ MkkrníÞ, fkøk¤ fu r[êe, {kuçkkE÷ VkuLk fu yLÞ fkuE E÷uõxÙkuLkef MkkÄLk
÷kððwt Ãkheûkk¾tz{kt {kLÞ LkÚke.
7. hV fkÞo {kxu y÷økÚke fkøk¤ ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu Lknª. ykÃku÷ søÞk{kt s hV fÞko fhðwt.
8. Ãkheûkk Ãkqýo ÚkÞk çkkË, rðãkÚkeoyu Answer Sheet Ãkheûkk¾tzLkk rLkheûkfLku ykÃkðkLke hnuþu Ãký Test Booklet íku{Lke MkkÚku ÷E sE þfþu.
9. Answer Sheet ðk¤ðe Lkne fu íku Lkk Ãkh fku E zk½ ÷økkzðku Lkne.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Batch & Phase (in Capitals) :

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2024

City Head Office : ALLEN AHMEDABAD “SADHYA - SBR" Opp. Saptavilla Bungalow, Behind Sindhubhavan, Thaltej,
Ahmedabad (GUJARAT) 380059 +91-79-49033100 infoadi@allen.ac.in allen.ac.in/ahmedabad