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Form Number : Paper Code : CJM202003230013

TEST PATTERN
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
ENGLISH

JEE (Main)
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) MINOR TEST - 9

ALL NURTURE & NURTURE LITE COURSE (PHASE-I, II & III)

Time : 3 Hours TEST DATE : 21 - 01 - 2024 Maximum Marks : 300

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Important Instructions :
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DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet.
3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
4. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in
each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Integer Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
First 5 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2025


City Head Office : ALLEN AHMEDABAD “SADHYA - SBR" Opp. Saptavilla Bungalow, Behind Sindhubhavan, Thaltej,
Ahmedabad (GUJARAT) 380059 +91-79-49033100 infoadi@allen.ac.in allen.ac.in/ahmedabad
MINOR TEST # 09 ALLEN
Topics DATE : 21 - 01 - 2024
NURTURE COURSE (PHASE - I, II & III)
Physics : SHM, Heat Transfer & KTG
Chemistry : IUPAC, GOC, Redox Reaction, Chemical & Ionic Equilibrium
Mathematics : Ellipse & Hyperbola

USEFUL DATA
1 amu = 1.66 × 10–27 kg R = 0.082 L-atm K–1 mol–1
h = 6.626 × 10–34 J s NA = 6.022 × 1023
me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg e = 1.6 × 10–19 C
c = 3.0 × 108 m s–1 F = 96500 C mol–1
RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J 4pÎ0 = 1.00 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–1
Atomic No. : H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Na = 11, Mg = 12, Al = 13,
Si = 14, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26,
Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,
I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 23.
Atomic Masses : H =1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.

Enthusiast Course / Phase - I(A) & Live-I(A) / Score-I / Paper-1 1001CJA102922053

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0
Topic : SHM, Heat Transfer & KTG
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. A body is vibrating in simple harmonic motion.. If
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 its acceleration is 12 cms – 2 at a displacement 3 cm
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions from the mean position, then time period is :
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, (A) 6.28 s (B) 3.14 s
marks will be awarded as follows:
(C) 1.57 s (D) 2.57 s
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 5. n moles of a gas expands from volume V1 to V2 at
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. constant temperature T. The work done by the gas is
1. Two particles are executing SHMs. The equations v2
(A) nRT ( )
v1
of their motions are :
v2
π) √ 3π (B) nRT ( − 1)
y1 = 10 sin( ω t + and y2 = 5 sin ω t +
( ) v1
4 4
What is the ratio of their amplitudes. v2
(C) nRT ln( )
v1
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1
v2
(D) nRT ln( + 1)
(C) 1:3 (D) None of these v1

2. The velocity-time diagram of a harmonic oscillator 6. Work done in converting one gram of ice at – 10°C
is shown in the adjoining figure. The frequency of into steam at 100°C is
oscillation is : (A) 3045 J (B) 6056 J
(C) 721 J (D) 616 J
7. The temperature at which the root mean square
velocity of a molecule will be doubled than at
100°C
(A) 25 Hz (B) 50 Hz
(A) 1219°C (B) 1492°C
(C) 12.25 Hz (D) 33.3 Hz
(C) 400°C (D) 400 K
3. A body oscillates with SHM according to the
8. The number of translational degrees of freedom for
equation x = 5 cos 2 π t + π . Its instantaneous
( )
4 a diatomic gas is
displacement at t = 1 s is :
1 5 1
(A) 2 (B) 3
√ 2 m m
(A) m (B) (C) (D) m
5 √ 3 √ 2 2 (C) 5 (D) 6
All Nurture Course (Phase - I, II & III) 3010CJM202003230013

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9. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm 14. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is
radiates 450 W power at 500 K. If the radius were nine times that of steel. In the composite cylindrical
halved and the temperature doubled, the power bar shown in the figure. What will be the
radiated in watts would be
temperature at the junction of copper and steel
(A) 225 (B) 450
(C) 900 (D) 1800

10. An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically


(A) 75°C (B) 67°C
to 8 of its original volume. If γ = 5 , then the
27 3
rise in temperature is (C) 33°C (D) 25°C

(A) 375 K (B) 650 K 15. In which of the following process, convection does
(C) 225 K (D) 405 K not take place primarily

11. (A) Sea and land breeze


If 300 ml of a gas at 27°C is cooled to 7°C at
constant pressure, then its final volume will be (B) Boiling of water
(A) 540 ml (B) 350 ml (C) Warming of glass of bulb due to filament
(C) 280 ml (D) 135 ml (D) Heating air around a furnace

12. How much work to be done on the gas in 16. Which of the following statement is correct ?
decreasing the volume of and ideal gas by an
amount of 2.4 × 10−4 m3 at normal temperature and (A) A good absorber is a bad emitter
constant normal pressure of 1 × 105 N/m2
(B) Every body absorbs and emits radiations at
(A) 28 joule (B) 27 joule
every temperature greater than 0 Kelvin.
(C) 25 joule (D) 24 joule
(C) The energy of radiations emitted from a black
13. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 77°C is to body is same for all wavelengths
have a 30% efficiency. It must take heat at (D) The law showing the relation of temperatures
(A) 127°C (B) 227°C with the wavelength of maximum emission
(C) 327°C (D) 673°C from an ideal black body is Plank’s law
All Nurture Course (Phase - I, II & III) 3010CJM202003230013

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17. Two stars emit maximum radiation at wavelength SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40)
3600 Å and 4800 Å respectively. The ratio of their This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
temperatures is
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 3 : 4 questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is an Integer Value Type
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 2 : 1 questions.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
18. The amplitude and the time period in a S.H.M. is of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
0.5 cm and 0.4 sec respectively. If the initial phase the nearest Integer).
is π /2 radian, then the equation of S.H.M. will be Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
(A) y = 0.5 sin 5 π t
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
(B) y = 0.5 sin 4 π t Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
(C) y = 0.5 sin 2.5 π t
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
(D) y = 0.5 cos 5 π t 1. The temperature on Celsius scale is 25°C. What is
the corresponding temperature on the Fahrenheit
19. scale
Which one of the following is a simple harmonic
motion 2. If the length of a cylinder on heating increases by
(A) A block connected with a spring and moving 2%, the find the percentage increase in area of its
to and fro. base
(B) Earth spinning about its own axis 3. A beaker contains 200 gm of water. The heat
(C) Ball bouncing between two rigid vertical capacity of the beaker is equal to that of 20 gm of
walls water. The initial temperature of water in the
(D) Particle moving in a circle with uniform speed beaker is 20°C. If 440 gm of hot water at 92°C is
poured in it, then find the final temperature of
20. Displacement of particle in a simple harmonic motion mixture in Kelvin ) (neglecting radiation loss) (in
nearest integer).
is represented by x(t) = 10 sin (20 t + 0.5). The
amplitude of the S.H.M. is 4. In order to double the volume of a given mass of an
ideal gas at 27°C keeping the pressure constant,
(A) a = 30 (B) a = 20 one must raise the temperature. Find the final
(C) a = 10 (D) a = 5 temperature in degree celsius.
All Nurture Course (Phase - I, II & III) 3010CJM202003230013

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5. The mean kinetic energy of a gas at 300 K is 100 J.
Find the mean energy of the gas at 450 K

6. When the amount of work done is 333 cal and


change in internal energy is 167 cal, Find the heat
supplied to the gas (in Cal)

7. A body radiates energy 5W at a temperature of


127°C. If the temperature is increased to
927°C, then Find the rate of heat radiates by it

8. Equal masses of three liquids A, B and C have


temperature 10°C, 25°C and 40°C respectively. If
A and B are mixed, the mixture has a temperature
of 15°C. If B and C are mixed, the mixture has a
temperature of 30°C. If A and C are mixed, the
mixture will have a temperature of _____ °C.

9. A mass M attached to a spring oscillates with a


period of 2 s. If the mass is increased by 2 kg the
period increases by one sec. If the initial mass is M
kg assuming that Hoocke's Law is obeyed, then
find value of 10 M.

10. If the displacement (x) and velocity (v) of a particle


executing SHM are related through the expression
3v2 = 30 – x2. If the time period of the particle is
T = π n, then what is the value of n ?

All Nurture Course (Phase - I, II & III) 3010CJM202003230013

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Topic : IUPAC, GOC, Redox Reaction, Chemical & Ionic Equilibrium
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Which of the following contains equal number of
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 1º, 2º & 3º carbon atoms.
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, (A) (B)
marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (C) (D)
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. Compound which is not heterocyclic -
4. IUPAC name of
(A) (A) Propa-1,2,3,triol
(B) 2-hydroxy propane-1,2-diol
(B) (C) 1,2,3-propanol
(D) propane -1,2,3-triol
(C)
5. Number of lone pair present in

(D)
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6
2. IUPAC name of compound 6. Correct IUPAC name for the given compound is -

(A) 2, 3-diethyl butane (A) 5, 6-Diethyl oct-4-ene


(B) 2-ethyl-3-methyl pentane (B) 3,4-Diethyl oct-4-ene
(C) 3-methyl-2-ethyl pentane (C) 3-(1-Ethyl propyl) hept-3-ene
(D) 3,4-dimethyl hexane (D) 5-(1-Ethyl propyl) hept-4-ene
All Nurture Course (Phase - I, II & III) 3010CJM202003230013

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7. Which of the following is not the correct order of -I 10. Correct order of stability among the following -
effect :
(A) – NO2 > – CN > – COOH
(A)
(B) – F > Cl > – Br > – I
(C) – OH > – F > – NO2 > – I
(B)
(D) – C ≡ CH > – Ph > – CH=CH2

8.
; (C)

(D) None of these

11. In the reaction, 2Na2S2O3 + I2 = Na2S4O6 + 2NaI, I2


The correct order of stability - acts as :
(A) I > II , I’ = II’ (B) I < II , I’ < II’
(A) reducing agent
(C) I = II , I’ = II’ (D) I > II , II’ > I’
(B) oxidising agent
9. Which of the following is stronger acid than others : (C) oxidising as well as reducing agent

(D) none of the above

(A) (B) 12. The oxidation number of phosphorus in PH4+,


PO23 – , PO43 – and PO33 – are respectively : –

(A) – 3, +1, +3, +5

(B) – 3, +3, +5, +1


(C) (D)
(C) +3, – 3, +5, +1
(D) – 3, +1, +5, +3
All Nurture Course (Phase - I, II & III) 3010CJM202003230013

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17. In the reaction PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 the partial
13. Which one of the following is not a redox reaction
pressure of PCl3, Cl2 and PCl5 are 0.3, 0.2 and 0.6
(A) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 atm respectively. If partial pressure of PCl3 and Cl2
(B) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O was increased twice, what will be the partial
(C) Na + H2O → NaOH + ½H2 pressure of PCl5 in atm :-
(D) MnCl3 → MnCl2 + ½Cl2 (A) 0.3

14. In system A(s) 2B(g) + 3C(g) at equilibrium if (B) 1.2


concentration of 'C' is doubled then concentration (C) 2.4
of B at equilibrium. (D) 0.15
(A) Double its original concentration 18. Hydrogen ion concentration in mol/L in a solution
(B) Half its original concentration of pH = 5 will be -
(C) 2√2 its original concentration (A) 105
1
its original concentration (B) 108
(D)
2 √2
(C) 10 – 5
15. When rate of forward reaction becomes equal to
backward reaction, this state is termed as:- (D) 10 – 6
(A) Irreversible state 19. What is the molar solubility of MgF2, Ksp = 32 × 10 – 12,
(B) Reversible state in water
(C) Equilibrium (A) 8.0 × 10 – 4 M
(D) All of these (B) 4.0 × 10 – 4 M
16. Consider the reaction equilibrium (C) 2.0 × 10 – 4 M
2SO2(g) +O2(g) 2 SO3(g) ; Δ H° = – 198 kJ (D) 2.7 × 10 – 4 M
On the basis of Le-Chatelier's principle, the
condition favourable for the forward reaction is - 20. What is the solubility product of PbCl2 if
(A) Lowering the temperature and increasing the solubility of PbCl2 in water 2 × 10 – 9M
pressure (A) 3.2 × 10 – 27
(B) Any value of temperature as well as pressure (B) 1.6 × 10 – 27
(C) Lowering of temperature as well as pressure (C) 3.2 × 10 – 26
(D) Increasing temperature as well as pressure (D) 2.0 × 10 – 27
All Nurture Course (Phase - I, II & III) 3010CJM202003230013

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SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 5. Oxidation number of C in HCN is :
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 6. For the reaction C(s) + CO2(g) 2CO(g) the
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted partial pressure of CO and CO2 are 2.0 and 4.0 atm.
questions will be evaluated. respectively at equilibrium. The KP for the reaction
The answer to each question is an Integer Value Type is
questions.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case 7. For the reaction : P Q + R. Initially 2 moles of P
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to was taken. Up to equilibrium 0.5 moles of P was
the nearest Integer). dissociated. What would be the percentage degree
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to of dissociation is x then value of x/5 is :-
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. 8. How many of the following are – I-effect showing
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. groups.
(a) – Cl (b) – CH3 (c) – O – (d) – COO –
1. An aqueous solution of HCl is 10 – 5 M HCl. The (e) – CMe3 (f) – F (g) – NH2 (h) – OH

pH of the solution is (i) – NO2 (j) – N=O (k) − N H3

2. An acid HA ionises as 9. Consider given hydrocarbon


HA H+ + A –
The pH of 1.0 M solution is x. Its dissociation
constant is 1 × 10 – 10 then value of x is:- Find number of bond(s) which is/are formed by
sp2 – sp2 overlapping
3. What is the percentage degree of dissociation of weak
acid in it's 0.01 M solution. Ka(weak acid) = 10 – 6 10. Number of carbon atoms in the principal carbon
chain of the given compound in its IUPAC name
4. In the ionic reaction, will be.
xBrO3 – + yCr3+ + zH2O → pBr2 + qHCrO4 – + rH+
{x, y, z, p, q, r ∈ N}
Find the value of x + y + z :
Fill your answer as sum of digits till you get the
single digit answer.
All Nurture Course (Phase - I, II & III) 3010CJM202003230013

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Topic : Ellipse & Hyperbola
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. The length of the latus rectum of the ellipse
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 9x 2 + 4y 2 = 1. is
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions (A) 3 (B) 8
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, 2 3
marks will be awarded as follows: (C) 4 (D) 8
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. 9 9
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 5. The equation of the ellipse with its centre at (1, 2),
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. focus at (6, 2) and passing through the point (4, 6) is
1. The equation of the ellipse whose focus is (1, – 1), (x − 1)2 (y − 2)2
(A) + =1
directrix is the line x – y – 3 = 0 and the 45 20
2 2
(x − 1) (y − 2)
eccentricity is 1 , is (B) + =1
2 20 45
(A) 7x + 2xy + 7y2 –
2 10x + 10y + 7 = 0 (x − 1)2 (y − 2)2
(C) + =1
(B) 7x2 + 2xy + 7y2 + 7 = 0 25 16
(x − 1)2 (y − 2)2
2 2
(C) 7x + 2xy + 7y + 10x – 10y – 7 = 0 (D) + =1
16 25
(D) 7x2 + 4xy + 7y2 – 10x + 10y + 7 = 0 6. The position of the point (1, 3) with respect to the
2. The eccentricity of the ellipse 4x2 + 9y2 + 8x + 36y + 4 = 0 ellipse 4x2 + 9y2 – 16x – 54y + 61 = 0
is (A) outside the ellipse
5 3 (B) on the ellipse
(A) (B)
6 5
(C) on the major axis
√ 2 √5
(C) (D)
3 3 (D) on the minor axis
3. x2 y2
The equation + +1=0 represents an 7. With respect to the hyperbola
2−r r−5
ellipse, if (3x – 3y)2 – (2x + 2y)2 = 36
(A) r > 2 (A) (3,2) lies on conjugate axis
(B) 2 < r < 5 (B) (3,2) lies on tranverse axis
(C) r > 5 (C) (3,2) lies inside hyperbola
(D) r ∈ (2, 5) – {3.5} (D) (3,2) lies outside hyperbola
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8. Equation of auxilliary circle of the ellipse 12. For hyperbola represented by
2x2 + 6xy + 5y2 = 1 is 16x2 – 3y2 – 32x + 12y – 44 = 0, which of the
(x − 1)2 + y 2 = 7 − 3√5
following statement is INCORRECT
(A)

(B) x2 + y 2 =
7 + 3 √5 (A) the length of whose transverse axis is 4 √ 3
2

x2 + y 2 =
2 (B) the length of whose conjugate axis is 8
(C)
7 + 3 √5
4 (C) whose centre is (1, 2)
(D) (x − 1)2 + y 2 =
7 + 3 √5 19
(D) whose eccentricity is √

3
9. The curve represented by
x = 3 (cos t + sin t), y = 4 (cos t – sin t), is 13. The eccentricity of the hyperbola whose conjugate
(A) ellipse axis is equal to half the distance between the foci,
is
(B) parabola
(C) hyperbola 4 4
(A) (B)
3 √ 3
(D) circle
2 5
(C) (D)
√ 3 √ 3
10. The eccentricity of the conic represented by
x2 – y2 – 4x + 4y + 16 = 0 is 14. Identify the following statements for true/false
(A) 1 (B) √ 2
(T/F) in order
S1 : A latus rectum of an ellipse is a line passing
(C) 2 (D) 1/2
through a focus
S2 : A latus rectum of an ellipse is a line through
11. Which of the following pair, may represent the the centre
eccentricities of two conjugate hyperbolas, for all
S3 : A latus rectum of an ellipse is a line
a 2 ∈ (0, π /2)?
perpendicular to the major axis
(A) sin α , cos α S4 : A latus rectum of an ellipse is a line parallel to
(B) tan α , cot α the minor axis
(C) sec α , cosec α (A) TFTF (B) TTFF
(D) 1 + sin α , 1 + cos α (C) TFTT (D) FFFF
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15. If P ( 2 sec θ , 2 tan θ ) is a point on the
√ √ SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40)
hyperbola whose distance from the origin is 6 √
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
where P is in the first quadrant then θ = attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
(A) π (B) π questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
4 3
π
questions will be evaluated.
(C) (D) π The answer to each question is an Integer Value Type
6 15
16. The co – ordinates of a focus of the hyperbola questions.
9x2 – 16y2 + 18 x + 32y – 151 = 0 is For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
(A) ( – 1, 1) of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
(B) (6, 1)
the nearest Integer).
(C) (4, 1) (D) ( – 6, – 1) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
17. The set of values of 'a' for which the following marking scheme:
(13x – 1)2 + (13y – 2)2 = a(5x + 12y – 1)2 Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
represents an ellipse is Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
(A) 1 < a < 2 (B) 0 < a < 1 Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
(C) 2 < a < 3 (D) 3 < a < 4 1. Integral value of ' α ' for which the point
18. The equation of latus rectum of rectangular 5 x2 y2
hyperbola xy = c2 ( 7− α , α ) lies inside the ellipse + = 1.
4 25 16
(A) x – y ± 2 2 c = 0 (B) x – y ± 2 c = 0
√ √

(C) x + y ± 2 √ 2c = 0 (D) x + y ± √ 2c = 0 2. The equation of the ellipse having its centre at the
19. The eccentricity of an ellipse of which distance point (2, – 3), one focus at (3, – 3) and one vertex
between the focii is 10 and that of focus and at (4, – 3) is λ x2 + μ y2 – 12x + 24y + 36 = 0 then
corresponding directrix is 15. λ + μ equal
1 3
(A) (B)
2 4
5 1 3. The foci of a hyperbola coincide with the foci of the
(C) (D)
7 4 x2 y2
ellipse + = 1. The equation of the hyperbola
20. x2 y2 25 9
If the foci of the ellipse +
25 b2
=1 & the if its eccentricity 2 is 3x2 – y2 = ∝ then value of ∝
3
x2 y2 1
hyperbole − = coincide then the value
144 81 25
of b2. 4. The foci of the hyperbola
(A) 25 (B) 81 9x2 – 16y2 + 18x + 32y – 151 = 0 are (p, q) & (r, s)
(C) 9 (D) 16 then p + q + r + s is equal
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5. The eccentricity of the ellipse which meets the
straight line 2x – 3y = 6 on the x – axis and the
straight line 4x + 5y = 20 on the y – axis and whose
axes lie along the coordinates axes is λ then value
20 λ
of
√ 7

6. If 'e' is eccentricity and ℓ is the length of latus


rectum of the ellipse 9x2 + 5y2 – 30y = 0, then
4 (e + ℓ ) is

7. Sum of distances of a point on the ellipse


x2 y2
+ = 1 from the focii
9 16

8. An ellipse with major axis 4 and minor axis 2


touches both the coordinate axis, then Locus of its
centre is x2 + y2 = r2 then the value of r2

9. A circle has the same centre as an ellipse & passes


through the focii F1 & F2 of the ellipse, such that
the two curves intersect at 4 points. Let 'P' be any
one of their points of intersection. If the major axis
of the ellipse is 17 & the area of the triangle
PF1F2 is 30, then value of 34e (e = eccentricity)

10. In an ellipse, with centre at the origin, if the


difference of the lengths of major axis and minor
axis is 10 and one of the foci is at 0, 5 3 , then
( √ )

the length of its latus rectum is :

All Nurture Course (Phase - I, II & III) 3010CJM202003230013

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Space for Rough Work
Space for Rough Work

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