Question Report 70

(0999DJA161115230001) Test Pattern
)0999DJA161115230001)
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)
TEST # 01
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) 15-10-2023
JEE(Main + Advanced) : LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE (PHASE-II)
12th Undergoing/Pass Students
Test Type : Unit Test # 01

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 186
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
GENERAL %
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 24 pages and that all the
18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not, contact the invigilator for
replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on the ORS.
Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken the appropriate bubble
under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or
"un-darken" a darkened bubble.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
QUESTION PAPER FORMAT
16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/15-10-2023
ALLEN®
SYLLABUS :
PHYSICS : Basic Maths Used In Physics, Unit & Dimension, Vectors, Geometrical Optics,
Kinematics - 1D, 2D, Electrostatics, Newton Laws of Motion, Friction, Gravitation
CHEMISTRY : Mole Concept & Eudiometry, Concentration Terms Solid State, Liquid Solution,
Quantum Number & Electronic Configuration, Periodic Table & Periodic Properties,
Chemical Kinetics, Chemical Bonding, Thermodynamics - 01, Thermochemistry,
Thermodynamics - 02
MATHEMATICS : Sets, Numbers & Intervals, Fundamental of Algebra, Quadratic Equations, Function , Inverse
Trigonometric Function, Logarithms, Sequence & Series, Principle of
Mathematical Induction, Limit, Continutity & Differentiability, Trigonometric Ratio &
Identities, Method of Differentiation, Application Of Derivative
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140
· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
1
· Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 pe0
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
m0 c2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
Space for Rough Work
Note : In case of any correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.in within 2 days along with Paper Code
& Your Form No.
LTS-2/24 0999DJA161115230001
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/Phase-II/15-10-2023
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 18)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has Four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. Displacement of an oscillating particle is given by y=A sin (Bx + Ct + D). The dimensional formula for
[ABCD] is
(A) [M0L –1T0] (B) [M0L0T –1] (C) [M0L –1T –1] (D) [M0L0T0]
2. The figure shows the graph of velocity-time for a particle moving in a straight line. If the average speed
for 6 s is ‘b’ and the average acceleration from 0 sec to 4 s is ‘c’ find magnitude of bc (in m2/s3)
(A) 0 (B) 25 (C) 50/6 (D) None

3. Two blocks A & B are connected over a massless pulley as shown in figure. The mass of block A is 12 kg
and the coefficient of kinetic friction between block A and fixed wedge is 0.5. Block A slides up the
incline at constants speed. The mass of block B is :-
(A) 12 kg (B) 16 kg (C) 15 kg (D) 9 kg

0999DJA161115230001 LTS-3/24
Target : JEE(Main + Advanced) 2024/15-10-2023
4. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F.
The space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specifie gravity 3. The gravitational force will
now be-
(A) 3F (B) F (C) F (D) F
3 9
5. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2). The
angle of minimum deviation is :-
(A) 180° – 2A (B) 90° – A (C) 180° + 2A (D) 180° – 3A
6. Four charges are placed at the circumference of dial clock as shown in figure. If the clock has only hour
hand, then the resultant force on a charge q0 placed at the centre, points in the direction which show the
time as : –
(A) 1:30 (B) 7:30 (C) 4:30 (D) 10:30

LTS-4/24 0999DJA161115230001
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 16)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.
7. For a ground to ground projectile. Choose the CORRECT statement(s):

(A) Rate of change of speed is zero at only one instant.
(B) Rate of change of speed is always positive.
(C) Rate of change of speed is always negative.
(D) Rate of change of speed is first negative, then positive.
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-5/24
8. A painter is applying force himself to raise him and the box with an acceleration of 5 m/s2 by a massless rope
and pulley arrangement as shown in figure. Mass of painter is 100 kg and that of box is 50 kg. If g = 10 m/s2,
then:
(A) tension in the rope is 1125 N

(B) tension in the rope is 2250 N
(C) Force of contact between the painter and the floor is 375 N
(D) Force of contact between the painter and the floor is 750 N
9. Two plane mirrors are at an angle such that a ray incident on a mirror undergoes a total deviation
of 240º after two reflections.
(A) the angle between the mirror is 60°
(B) the number of images formed by this system will be 5, if an object is placed symmetrically
between the mirrors
(C) the number of images will be 5 if an object is kept unsymmetrically between the mirrors
(D) a ray will retrace its path after 2 successive reflections, if the angle of incidence on one mirror is 60°
10. R R
A neutral conductor of radius R has a spherical cavity of radius and its centre lies at from centre
4 2
of conductor. A charge Q is kept at the centre of cavity.
Q
(A) Electric field due to charges induced on inner surface of cavity at centre of conductor is
2 π ∈ 0 R2
Q
(B) Net field at a radial distance of 2R from centre of sphere is
8 π ∈ 0 R2
(C) Net force on the surface charges of conductor due to all the charges of cavity is zero.
(D) Net force on the charges induced on the surface of cavity is zero.
LTS-6/24 0999DJA161115230001
SECTION-I (iii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains TWO paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
Paragraph for Questions 11 and 12
A shell is fired from a canon. It acquires a maximum height H above horizontal and falls on the same
horizontal level at a distance R from the point of fire. It was observed at half the maximum height
moving in a direction 45° to the horizontal and 2 seconds after was moving horizontally. ( g = 10 m/s2)
11. The maximum height H attained by the shell is :-
(A) 20 m (B) 20√2 m (C) 40 m (D) 40√2 m
12. The minimum speed of the shell throughout its journey is :-
(A) 10 m/s (B) 10√2 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 20√2 m/s
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-7/24

Below the fixed end of the insulating horizontal thread, there is a fixed charge A of 20µC, which is
same as the charge of the small body B of mass m at the end of the thread as shown in the figure. The
body B is released and when it is at the lowest position the thread is vertical. Assume that thread does
not strike the fixed charge. The body B comes to a stop at the lowest position.
13. Find the mass of the moving body.

(A) 18 gm (B) 36 gm (C) 72 gm (D) None of these
14. Find the tension at the lowest position.
(A) 3.6 N (B) 0.72 N (C) 4.32 N (D) None of these
LTS-8/24 0999DJA161115230001
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 16)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct)
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. If velocity of block A is 5 m/s. Find velocity of block B in m/s.
2. A force of 100 N is applied on a block of mass 3 kg as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction
between the wall and the surface of the block is 1/4. Calculate frictional force (in N) acting on the block.
1
3. If a planet is hypothetically revolving around sun with the force given by F ∝ then its time period
r5/2
will depend upon its radius as T ∝ rn . The value of n is
^ ^ ^
4. If ∣
∣ i − 2j + ak∣∣ = 3, then the magnitude of a is :-
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-9/24
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
1. For a gaseous reaction
Δ
CH3CHO(g) −→ CO(g) + CH4(g)
initial pressure is 80 mm of Hg and total pressure at the end of 20 minutes is 120 mm of Hg. The rate
constant of the reaction assuming first order kinetic is :-
(A) 3.465 × 10 –2 min –1 (B) 34.65 min –1
(C) 3.465 min –1 (D) 0.3465 min –1
2. Select the correct statement about BCC crystal :
(A) Unit cell edge length is 2 √ 2 times the radius of atom
(B) Efficiency of atom packing is 52%

(C) Nearest neighbour and next nearest neighbour are 12 and 6 respectively
(D) The number of nearest neighbours of an atom present in the top most layer is 4.
3. Find weight in gram of glucose (Mw = 180) that should be dissolved in 100 gm water in order to produce
a solution with a difference of 105ºC between its boiling point and freezing point temperatures.
(Take Kf = 2 K-kg/mole, Kb = 0.5 K-kg/mole)
(A) 360 gm (B) 72 gm (C) 36 gm (D) 180 gm
LTS-10/24 0999DJA161115230001
4. All bond angles in AX3 molecule are same, then which of the following conclusion is correct about AX3 :
(A) AX3 must be polar
(B) AX3 must be planar
(C) A must have atleast 5 valence electron
(D) X must connect from central atom with either single bond or double bond
5. Which of the following order is correct for the acidic strength of oxides -
(A) CaO < CO2 < N2O5 (B) N2O5 < CO2 < CaO
(C) CO2 < N2O5 < CaO (D) N2O5 = CO2 < CaO
6. Which of the following is INCORRECT statement ?
(A) In adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, temperature of system always decrease
(B) In isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, temperature of a gas always remains constant
(C) In a reversible adiabatic compression of an ideal gas, change in entropy of system is zero
(D) In an irreversible adiabatic compression of an ideal gas, change in entropy of system is positive
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-11/24
answer(s).
correct option.
7. P-V plot for two gases (assuming ideal) during adiabatic processes are given in the figure. Plot A and
plot B should correspond respectively to :-
(A) He and H2 (B) H2 and He (C) SO3 and CO2 (D) N2 and Ar
LTS-12/24 0999DJA161115230001
8. From the following data at 25°C, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
½H2(g) + ½O2(g) → OH(g); Δ H° = 42 kJ
H2(g) + ½O2(g) → H2O(g); Δ H° = – 242 kJ
H2(g) → 2H(g); Δ H° = 436 kJ
O2(g) → 2O(g); Δ H° = 495 kJ
(A) Δ r H o for the reaction H2O(g) → 2H(g) + O(g) is 925.5 kJ
(B) Δ r H o for the reaction OH(g) → H(g) + O(g) is 502 kJ
(C) Enthalpy of formation of H(g) is – 218 kJ/mol
(D) Enthalphy of formation of OH(g) is 42 kJ/mol
9. For a first order reaction : A(g) → B(g) + C(g),
Total pressure in the vessel at constant volume was measured as follows -
The rate constant of reaction is given by (Initially only A is present)
(A) k = 1 P0 (B) k = 1 P0
ln ln
t Pt t 2P 0 − Pt
1 P0 1 P0
(C) k = ln (D) k = ln
t 2P ∞ − P 0 t P ∞ − Pt
10. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Maximum number of electrons having value of n × ℓ × m = 0 in A ℓ are 9
(B) Maximum number of electrons having same value of screening constant ' σ ' in phosphorus are 10
(C) If given reaction follows charge and mass conservation, 21 A
z X →8 Y +42 He , then 'X' and 'Y'
are isodiaphers of each other.
(D) Cu produces magnetic moment of 1.73 BM in ground state, (Given √ 3 = 1.73)
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-13/24
Hybridisation is a theoretical concept, as state of hybridisation cannot be detected even by
spectroscopically; unlike intermediates or transition state in various reactions, but it corrects the
predictions which are based on simple overlapping of pure atomic orbitals. VSEPR theory predicts
precisely shape and bond angle in a given molecule.
11. In which pair of molecules bond angles are not same:
(A) CCl4 and SiCl4 (B) NH+4 and XeF4
(C) BF3 and SO3 (D) None of these
12. The molecules / ions which are planar as well as polar.
(A) BF3, H2O, HF, NH2 – (B) SnCl2, I3+, NH2 – , IF3
(C) CO32– , I3+ , SF2, XeF2 (D) NO2 – , XeF4 ,ICl4, NH2+
LTS-14/24 0999DJA161115230001

2 moles of a volatile liquid (A) and 3 moles of another volatile liquid (B) are mixed to prepare ideal
solution at 25°C temperature in a closed container. If vapour pressure of pure A and pure B at 25°C are
P0A = 300 torr, P0B = 200 torr respectively.
13. Calculate vapour pressure of distillate of the solution at 25ºC temperature after it is isothermally condensed
and then vaporized again ?
(A) 250 torr (B) 240 torr (C) 280 torr (D) 270 torr
14. Which of the following options is incorrect ?
(A) Mole fraction of A in vapour formed from the solution may be less than that of B
(B) Above solution can be separated into pure components by fractional distillation
(C) Boiling point of solution will increase on adding some amount of pure B to the solution of A
and B liquids
(D) Vapour pressure of the original solution is 240 torr at 25ºC
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-15/24
1. One mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally and irreversibly at 77ºC from 2 bar to 4 bar in a
cylinder piston device. The work required is 20% greater than the work required for reversbile
isothermal compression. The heat transferred from the gas during compression flows to a heat reservoir
at 27ºC. If the Δ STotal is xJK –1.
(Given : R = 8 JK –1 mol –1,ln 2 = 0.7) then the value of 100 x is
2. 5.00 moles of hydrogen gas, 3 moles of white phosphorus {P4(s)} and 12 moles of oxygen gas are taken
in a sealed flask and allowed to react as follows :
H2(g) + P4(s) + O2(g) —→ H3PO4
Determine the moles of ortho-phosphoric acid that can be produced, considering that the reaction occurs
in 90% yield.
3. For the reaction
H2F2(g) → H2(g) + F2(g)
Δ U = – 59.6 kJ mol –1 at 27°C.
The enthalpy change for the above reaction is ( – ) _____ kJ mol –1 [nearest integer]
Given : R = 8.314 JK—1 mol –1.
4. 0.35 molal aqueous solution of NaxA has freezing point of – 3.255°C. If Kf of water is 1.86 K kg mol –1,
the value of x is : (Assume complete ionisation of salt NaxA)
LTS-16/24 0999DJA161115230001
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
1. Set of values of 'a' for which the equation 4sin2 θ + a(1 + cos2 θ ) = a + 5 possess a solution is-
(A) ( – ∞ , – 3] ∪ [3, ∞ ) (B) ( – ∞ ,0]
(C) [0, ∞ ) (D) a ∈ ϕ
2. Let common ratio of a G.P. be cot θ and sum of its infinite number of terms is 10. A new G.P. is formed
1000
by taking cube of each of the terms of given series. If sum of it's infinite term is , then the number
7
of possible values of θ ∈ [0,5 π ] is -
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
2x3 x2
3. At what points on the curve y = + the tangents makes equal angles with the co-ordinate axes
3 2
1 5 1 1 5 7
(A) ( , ) and (−1, − ) (B) ( , ) and (1, )
2 24 6 2 24 6
1 1 10
(C) ( −1, − ) and (0,0) (D) ( −1, − ) and (−2, )
6 6 3
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-17/24
1 1
4. Let f(x) is differentiable function in [2, 5] such that f(2) = and f(5) = then their exists a number
5 2
x0, 2 < x0 < 5 for which f ' (x0) equals
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) 1
15 10 5 2
x3
5. The angle of intersection between the curves y = ∫ (

√
5 − t2 ) dt and x-axis is (where x ≠ 0) -
x2
1 1 1
(A) tan−1 (B) cot−1 2 (C) cot−1 (D) sin−1 ( )
2 2 √ 5
6. Consider ƒ(x) = max.(|x|, 2x – x2), x ∈ R. Identify the correct statement -
(A) ƒ(x) is discontinuous at exactly one point in R
(B) ƒ(x) has local minima at x = 0 and x = 1.
(C) ƒ(x) is non differentiable at exactly two points in R
(D) ƒ(x) has local maxima at exactly one point in R
LTS-18/24 0999DJA161115230001
answer(s).
correct option.
x (1 + a cos x) − b sin x 1 + a cos x b sin x

7. If ℓ = x→0
lim = lim − lim , where ℓ ∈ R, then
x3 x→0 x 2 x→0 x3
(A) (a, b) = (−1, 0) (B) a & b are any real numbers
(C) ℓ = 0 (D) ℓ = 1
2
8. Let f (x) = x2 − a (x + 1) − b = 0, a, b ∈ R − {0} , a + b ≠ 0. If α and β are roots of equation f(x) = 0, then
1 1 2
the value of + − is equal to
α2 − aα β − aβ
2 a + b
(A) 0 (B) f (a) + a + b (C) f (b) + a + b (D) a a2

f( ) + +a+b
2 4
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-19/24
9. If f(x) is a polynomial of degree three with leading coefficient 1 such that f (1) = 1, f (2) = 4, f (3) = 9,
then
(A) f(4) = 22
3
(B) 6 6
f( )=( )
5 5
(C) f (x) = x3 holds for exactly two values of x.
(D) f(x) = 0 has a root in interval (0, 1).
10. Consider the series: 1 + 2.2 + 3.22 + 4.23 +. . . . . +100.299 = a.2b + 1
Now, which of the following statements are correct:
(A) a = 99 (B) b = 100
(C) b = 99 (D) a = 100
LTS-20/24 0999DJA161115230001
Let n = 1 + 2x + 3x2 + 4x3 + 5x4 + .......... ∞
where x is a root of the equation 9x2 – 18x + 8 = 0.
11. Value of 'n' is equal to-
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10
n
211
12. Value of the expression ∑ is equal to-
r=1 4r + 210
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10
Let f (x) = cos x + sin x – 1 and g(x) = sin 2x – 2.
7π
13. Number of solutions of the equation f(x) = g(x) in x ∈ [ −π, ] is equal to :
2
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
14. If the equation f(x) = k has atleast one real solution then the number of possible integral values of k is
equal to :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-21/24
sin( π
1. Let ƒ(3) = 7 and f ′ (x) = x)
.
x
f ( √x ) − 7 1
If lim =
x→9 x−9 a√ b
b
(where b is prime number & a is natural number), then the value of is
a
2. Let ƒ : R → R be a function defined by ƒ(x) = x3 + 2x2 + 3x + 2 and g be the inverse of ƒ.
d p p+q
If (g (g (g (x))))|x = 24 = where p and q are coprime, then the value of is
dx q 100
tan x
3. lim ((cosecx) + xx ) is :-
x→0
4. Let 'p' be an integer for which both roots of the equation x2 + 2(p – 3)x + 9 = 0 lies in ( – 6, 1). If 2, g1, g2 ...
1
g19, g20, p are in geometric progression, then value of is equal to
g3 g18
LTS-22/24 0999DJA161115230001
ALLEN®
0999DJA161115230001 LTS-23/24
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/15-10-2023
ALLEN®
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE .............................................................................
FORM NO. .............................................
I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and Form
and shall abide by them. number of the candidate, and that question
paper and ORS codes are the same.
____________________________ ____________________________
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
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LTS-24/24 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE 2024 0999DJA161115230001

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(0999DJA161115230001) Test Pattern

Test Type : Unit Test # 01

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

QUESTION PAPER FORMAT

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Space for Rough Work

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

(A) 0 (B) 25 (C) 50/6 (D) None

(A) 12 kg (B) 16 kg (C) 15 kg (D) 9 kg

(A) 1:30 (B) 7:30 (C) 4:30 (D) 10:30

7. For a ground to ground projectile. Choose the CORRECT statement(s):

Space for Rough Work

(A) tension in the rope is 1125 N

Space for Rough Work

Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14

13. Find the mass of the moving body.

Space for Rough Work

(B) Efficiency of atom packing is 52%

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The rate constant of reaction is given by (Initially only A is present)

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Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14

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5. The angle of intersection between the curves y = ∫ (

x (1 + a cos x) − b sin x 1 + a cos x b sin x

(A) 0 (B) f (a) + a + b (C) f (b) + a + b (D) a a2

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FORM NO. .............................................

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