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GENERAL :
1. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
2. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 32 pages and
that all the 18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not,
contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.
Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
400
V
400
D
I1 100
10
A B
I 16 V
(A) Power developed across 100 resistor connected between C and D is zero
(B) Power developed across 100 resistor connected between C and D is 10 W
1
(C) The value of current I1 is A
20
(D) The reading of the voltmeter is 10 V
3. Two resistors R1 & R2 have measured values as
R1 = 3.0 ± 0.1 ; R2 = 6.0 ± 0.2
Then
(A) Least count of device used to measure R2 is 0.2
(B) When connected in series the error will be 3.34 %
(C) When connected in parallel the error will be 0.1 (approx.)
(D) When connected in parallel the error will be 0.2 (approx.)
4. Consider a parallel plate capacitor whose negative plate is at x = 0 and positive plate is at
x = 4d. Now a dielectric slab of thickness 2d is inserted in the capacitor such that the slab is
equidistant from both the plates. As x increases from 0 to 4d, we observe that the
(A) magnitude of electric field does not change
(B) direction of electric field does not change
(C) electrostatic potential increases continuously
(D) electrostatic potential first increases, then decreases and then again increases.
5. When liquid medicine of density is to be put in the eye, it is done with the help of a dropper.
As the bulb on the top of the dropper is pressed, a drop forms at the opening of the dropper.
We wish to estimate the size of the drop.
We first assume that the drop formed at the opening is spherical because that requires a
minimum increase in its surface energy. To determine the size we calculate the net vertical
force due to the surface tension T when the radius of the drop is R. When the force becomes
smaller then the weight of the drop, the drop gets detached from the dropper.
(A) If the radius of the opening of the dropper is r, the vertical force due to the surface
2 r 2T
tension on the drop of radius R (assuming r << R) is
R
(B) If r = 5 × 10–4 m, = 103 kg m–3, g = 10 ms–2, T = 0.11 Nm–1, the radius of the drop when it
detaches from the dropper is approximately 1.4 × 10–3 m
(C) After the drop detaches, its surface energy is 2.7 × 10–6 J
(D) After the drop detaches, its surface energy is 1.7 × 10–6 J
6. Water flows out from a beaker through a capillary of length 200 mm and diameter 2 mm.
Density of water is 1000 kgm–3 and its viscosity is 0.8 centipoise. If a level of 5 cm is continuously
maintained in the beaker, then flow rate through capillary is nearly : (Flow rate using
r 4 (pi p0 )
Poiseuille’s law is j )
8 L
L=200 mm
5 cm
B A
4 4V
5 6
5V 6V
D
C
3V 3 2V 2
List-I List-II
(P) Potential of point A is (1) –5V
(Q) Potential of point B is (2) 1V
(R) Potential of point C is (3) –3V
(S) Potential of point D is (4) 2.5V
(A) P 1 ; Q 2 ; R 3 ; S 4 (B) P 4 ; Q 1 ; R 2 ; S 3
(C) P 2 ; Q 3;R4;S1 (D) P 3 ; Q 1 ; R 4 ; S 2
9. Consider a R–C circuit to be connected with closing the switch at t = 0. Initially the capacitor
is uncharged then,
C R
at
t=0
List-I List-II
(P) Rate of charging is maximum (1) t = RC ln2
(Q) Rate of energy storage in capacitor is (2) t=0
maximum
(R) Capacitor is more than 40% charged (3) t = RC
5
(S) Capacitor has more than 50% energy (4) t= RC
4
(A) P 1 ; Q 2 ; R 3 ; S 4 (B) P 2 ; Q 1 ; R 1,3,4 ; S 4
(C) P 3 ; Q 1,3 ; R 2 ; S 4 (D) P 4 ; Q 1 ; R 2 ; S 3
10. In the potentiometer arrangement shown in figure, null point is obtained at length . Match
the following
E1 R
J
A B
r
E2
List-I List-II
(P) If E1 is increased (1) should increase
(Q) If R is increased (2) should decrease
(R) If E2 is increased (3) should remain the same to again get null
point
(S) If r is shunted (4) becomes zero
(A) P 1 ; Q 2 ; R 3 ; S 4 (B) P 2 ; Q 1 ; R 3 ; S 4
(C) P 2 ; Q 1 ; R 1 ; S 3 (D) P 4 ; Q 1 ; R 2 ; S 3
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT questions.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-
off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is
11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct) by darken the corresponding bubbles
in the ORS.
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill the bubbles as follows.
+ – + –
0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6
7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8
9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. Diameter of a steel ball is measured using a vernier callipers which has divisions of 0.1 cm on
its main scale (MS) and 10 divisions of its vernier scale (VS) match 9 divisions on the main
scale. Three such measurements for a ball are given as :
1 0.5 8
2 0.5 4
3 0.5 6
If the zero error is –0.03 cm, then mean corrected diameter is (in cm) :
2. A screw gauge with a pitch of 0.5 mm and a circular scale with 50 divisions is used to measure
the thickness of a thin sheet of Aluminium. Before starting the measurement, it is found that
when the two jaws of the screw gauge are brought in contact, the 45th division coincides with
the main scale line and that the zero of the main scale is just hidden. What is the thickness
(in mm upto two decimal value) of the sheet if the main scale reading is 0.5 mm and the 25th
division coincides with the main scale line ?
3. A parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance 100 F is connected to a power supply of 200 V. A
dielectric slab of dielectric constant 5 is now inserted into the gap between the plates. Find
the change in the electrostatic energy (in J) of the electric field in the capacitor.
4. Five capacitors are connected as shown. Potential difference between points A and B is 22 V.
Then the value of E (in volt) is
10µF 2.9µF
B
C
3µF
12µF
7µF
A E
5. A hole is made at the bottom of a tank filled with water. If the total pressure at the bottom of
tank is 3 atm and density of water is 1000 kg m–3, then the velocity of efflux (in m/s) is
(Take : 1 atm = 105 Pascal)
6. Figure shows the cross-sectional view of an arrangement in which a light cylinder of radius r
and length [perpendicular to the plane of paper] is placed in a container containing liquid
of density . Assume liquid is incompressible and non-viscous. The net force to be applied on
gr 2 2
cylinder to keep it in equilibrium is 1 . Determine the value of .
2
r
7. AB and CD are two uniform resistance wire of lengths 100 cm and 80 cm respectively. The
connections are shown in the figure. The cell of emf 5V is ideal while the other cell of emf E
has internal resistance 2. A length of 20 cm of wire CD is balanced by 40 cm of wire AB. Find
emf in volt, if the reading of the ideal ammeter is 2A. The other connecting wires have
negligible resistance.
5V
40 cm
A B
C D
20 cm
Ammeter
E 2
8. A cylindrical container having radius r has perforated wall. There are large number of
uniformly spread small holes on the vertical wall occupying a fraction = 0.02 of the entire
area of the wall. To maintain the water level at height H in the container, water is being fed
to it a constant rate Q (litre/sec). Find Q. (Take : H = 1.8 m, r = 10 cm)
H
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen
and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with
second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result
in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks.
Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without
selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct
option(s) will result in –2 marks.
1
1. Li H2 (P)
2
(Q) 2H2 O
Ca(OH)2 2H2
log S
1/T
(A) CuSO4.5H2O (B) NaCl (C) Sucrose (D) CaO
8. Match the molecule in List–I with the type of isomerism shown by them in List–II.
List–I List–II
(P) CH3CH2CHO (1) Functional isomer
(Q) CH3CHCl2 (2) Positional isomer
(R) CH3CH2CH=CH2 (3) Ring-chain isomer
(S) CH3OCH2CH2CH3 (4) Tautomerism
Codes :
(A) P1,3,4 ; Q2 ; R2,3 ; S1,2
(B) P1,2,3 ; Q1,3 ; R1,2 ; S2,3
(C) P2,3,4 ; Q1,3,4 ; R3 ; S2
(D) P4 ; Q1,3 ; R1,3 ; S2,4
9. Match the List.
List I (pH value) List II (Solution)
(P) 5.0 (1) pH at which Mg(OH)2 just start precipitating
from 2.0 × 10–3 M–Mg2+ solution
(Ksp of Mg(OH)2 = 2 × 10–6 M3).
(Q) 9.0 (2) Maximum pH at which 0.1 mole of Al(OH) 3 dissolves
completely as Al3+ in 1 litre solution
(Ksp of Al(OH)3 = 1 × 10–28 M4).
(R) 12.5 (3) pH at which 0.1 M–CH3COOH dissociates 1000/11%
(Ka for CH3COOH = 1.0 × 10–5 M).
(S) 6.0 (4) pH of 0.001 M–HA (weak acid) solution
(pKa of HA = pKb of A–).
(5) pH of 3 × 10–5 M–CaA2 solution
(CaA2 dissociates completely in water; Ka of HA = 5 × 10–9)
Codes :
(A) P1,2 Q1,3 R4 S3,4
(B) P2,4 Q5 R1 S3
(C) P1,2,3 Q1,3 R4 S1,2,3
(D) P4 Q2 R3,4 S4,5
10. Match the following column
List-I List-II
(Order) (Property)
2 3
(P) Na(g ) Mg(g ) Al (g ) (1) Size of ion/atom
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. Mixture of butanes are chlorinated in sunlight so as the organic product of molecular mass
increased by 119% are obtained then no of isomeric (excluding stereo) organic products
obtained are….
2. If Ksp of solution of AgCl is 1×10–12. Number of solution which gives ppt. is.
(i) 0.1 M AgNO3 (1 litre) + 0.1 M NaCl (10 litre)
(ii) 0.1 M AgNO3 (10 litre) + 0.1 M NaCl (10 litre)
(iii) 10–4 M AgNO3 (100 litre) + 10–4 M NaCl (100 litre)
(iv) 10–5 M AgNO3 (10 litre) + 10–5 M NaCl (10 litre)
(v) 10–6 M AgNO3 (1 litre) + 10–6 M NaCl (1 litre)
(vi) 10–5 M AgNO3 (2 litre) + 10–8 M NaCl (2 litre)
(vii) 10–5 M AgNO3 (1 litre) + 10–7 M NaCl (4 litre)
(viii) 10–8 M AgNO3 (2 litre) + 10–5 M NaCl (2 litre)
(ix) 10–4 M AgNO3 (10 litre) + 10–4 M NaCl (10 litre)
CH3 O
(a) CH2=CH–OH (b) (c) CH3 (d)
H3C NO2 O O
NH
(e) C (f) (g) (h)
O NH
OH
O
O
(i) (j)
O
O
5. OsO4(g) OsO2(g) + O2(g) KC = 2
12 moles of OsO4(g) were taken in closed vessel of 1L capacity and allowed to reach equilibrium.
At equilibrium 4 moles of ozonide oxygen (Average Molecular mass = 40) were added in the
vessel, where O3 oxidize OsO2 back to OsO4 as shown.
O3(g) O2(g) + O(g) (irreversible)
OsO2(g) + 2O(g) OsO4(g) (irreversible)
Calculate concentration of OsO2 in the vessel at new equilibrium.
6. Consider the following Born–Haber’s cycle for formation of MX3(s).
M(g) 3X(g)
–1000
q kJ/mol
+350
kJ/mol
3+
M (g) 3X–(g)
q1
Then calculate value , here q1 is electron affinity of X(g) in kJ/mol.
50
7. The number of optically active compounds in the isomers of C4H9Br is–
8. The progress of reaction.
A(g)
xB(g)
º
yC(g) with time is presented in figure. What is the value of K C at 300 K.
3.0
2.5 [A]
2.0
conc.(M)
1.5 [B]
1.0
[C]
0.5
t (in sec.)
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen
and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with
second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result
in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks.
Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without
selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct
option(s) will result in –2 marks.
1
1. If cos2 x (1 tan2 2y)(3 sin 3z) 4 (wherever defined), then :
cos2 x
(A) x can be a multiple of (B) x cannot be an even multiple of
(C) f '(0) lim f(x) (D) lim f(x) does not exist
x 0 x 0
3. Let a R and ƒ : R R be given by ƒ(x) 3x 5 – 50x 3 135x – a . The equation ƒ(x) = 0 will have :
(A) one real root for |a| > 216
(B) three real roots for 88 < |a| < 216
(C) five real roots for |a| < 88
(D) five real roots for a R
A 5 B 20
4. In a ABC, if tan ,tan , then which of the following is/are correct ?
2 6 2 37
(A) B > C (B) B < C (C) a > b > c (D) a < b < c
5. Let f(x) be a continuous function in x [0, 5] and twice differentiable function in x (0, 5)
such that f(4) = f(5) = 0 then which of the following is/are correct ?
(A) some '' (0,5) such that nf() + f '() = 0, n N
(B) some '' (0,5) such that f ''() = 0
(C) distinct 1, 2 (0,5) such that 4f '(1) + f '(2) + f(0) = 0
(D) some '' (0,4) such that nf() + f '() = 0; n N
6. Given f and g are twice differentiable functions and f ' 0, g' 0. If f(x) g(x) = 1, then
f "(x) g "(x)
is equal to :
f '(x) g '(x)
2g '(x) g '(x) 2f '(x) –f '(x)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g(x) g(x) f (x) f (x)
1
when x [0, 3] is m and when x ,3 is n, then (3) m + n = 10
2
(R) If number of solutions of [sin x] = cos x, (where
[.] denotes the greatest integer function) when (4) n–m = 0
8. If p1, p2, p3 are the length of altitudes of a triangle ABC from the vertices A, B, C respectively
and is the area of the triangle and s is semi perimeter of the triangle, then match the columns
List-I List-II
(S) The value of + + is (4)
(A) P 2; Q 1; R 3; S 4 (B) P 4; Q 3; R 1; S 2
(C) P 1; Q 3; R 4; S 2 (D) P 3; Q 2; R 4; S 1
9. Match the following statement in List-I with given value in List-II
List-I List-II
all real values of x, then 'a' can lie in the interval (5) 2,
(A) P 3; Q 1; R 1,2,5; S 4,5 (B) P 3; Q 1; R 1,5; S 2,3,4
(C) P 4; Q 2,5; R 1,4; S 2 (D) P 4; Q 1,5; R 1,2,4,5; S 3,4,5
10. Match the following statement in List-I with given value in List-II
List-I List-II
4 3 2
(P) Consider ƒ(x) = 3x – 8x – 6x + 24x + 1 in x [–1, 3]. (1) 0
If M and m are largest and least values of ƒ(x) in this
M 2m
interval respectively then is less than
2
x 3
(Q) Set of points where ƒ(x) = x(x – 1)|e – 1||(x – 3) | (2) 1
is non-derivable will have ________ elements.
(R) In ABC, with standard notations, if B = 90°, (3) 3
a + b = 4, then area of ABC is maximum possible,
when A , where k is more than
k
sin x x...
sin x x dy
(S) If y x , then is more than (4) 5
dx x
2
(5) 6
(A) P 5; Q 1; R 1,2,3,4; S 1 (B) P 5; Q 2; R 1,2,3; S 1,2
(C) P 5; Q 1; R 1,2,3; S 1 (D) P 5; Q 2; R 1,2,3,4; S 1,2
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
3 2 2
1. Given the cubic equation x – 2kx – 4kx + k = 0. If one root of the equation is less than 1,
other root lies in the interval (1, 4) and the third root is greater than 4, then the value of k
3 2
lies in the interval (a b, b(a b)) where a,b N . Find the value of (a + b) + (ab + 2) .
log(x 2 ex ) 2
2. If f (x) and lim f(x) and lim f(x) m then the value of is
log(x 4 e2x ) x x m
(Where [.] denote the greatest integer function and take base of log as e)
2 8
3. Find the number of solutions of the equation (3 + cos x) = 4 – 2 sin x in x [0,5]
4. In a triangle ABC, medians AD and CE are drawn. If AD=5, DAC and ACE then
8 4
p2
the area of the triangle ABC is equal to , where p, q are co prime, then p + q is equal to
q
3x 2 ax b
5. Consider f : R R, f (x) where a,b R. If the range of this function is [–4, 3)
x2 1
5 5
then find the value of (a + b ).
6. Let ƒ be a derivable function in R. If f(x – y), f(x).f(y) and f(x + y) are in AP, for all x, y R and
f(0) 0, then f '(2) + f '(–2) is equal to
7. The hands of an accurate clock have lengths 3 and 4. If the distance L between the tips of the
hands is increasing most rapidly when L = L0, then (L0)2 is equal to