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Test Pattern

(1001CJA106216230156) )1001CJA106216230156)
English

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)


FULL SYLLABUS
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) 26-03-2024
JEE(Main+Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE (ALL STAR BATCH) [SCORE-II]

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180


IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No.
in OMR. For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY


GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 28 pages and
that all the 17 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not,
contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
QUESTION PAPER FORMAT :
16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.

Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
ALLEN ®
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140

· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1


1
· Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 pe0
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
m0 c2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
Space for Rough Work

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BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. Three charges q, q and –2q are fixed on the vertices of an equilateral triangular insulated plate of edge
length a. This plate is in equilibrium between two very large plates having surface charge density
σ1 and σ2 respectively. Find the period of small angular oscillation about an axis passing through its
centroid and perpendicular to plane. Moment of inertia of the system about this axis I. (Neglect gravity)

(A) ε0 I (B) ε0 I
2π√ 2π√
qa|σ1 − σ2 | 2qa|σ1 − σ2 |
2ε0 I 2ε0 I
(C) 2π√ (D) 2π√
√ 3qa|σ1 − σ2 | qa|σ1 − σ2 |
2. Six resistor, each of resistance R, are connected at their ends so as form tetrahedral frame. Now two cells
of negligible internal resistance, and emf E is connected to the combination. One cell between any two
corners and other cell between rest two corners. Thermal power developed will be :-
(A) E2 (B) 2E 2 (C) 4E 2 (D) 8E 2
R R R R
3. In a young’s double slit interference experiment, the fringe pattern is observed on a screen placed at a
distance D. The slits are separated by d (<< D) and are illuminated by coherent sources. The central maxima
is formed at the geometrical centre on the screen with respect to the slits. If at a distance h from the central
maximum on the screen the intensity is half of the maximum intensity then the value of λ may be
(A) 2hd (B) 8hd (C) 4hd (D) 6hd
3D 19D 13D 11D
4. Ideal gas is in the container with a piston as one of the walls. There is a little hole in the wall opposite
to piston, through which gas leaks out of the container at a rate R (number of molecules escaping the
container per second). Now the gas is heated as well as compressed such that its temperature becomes
4 times its previous value, and pressure becomes 8 times its previous value. Now the rate of the gas out
flow will be:
(A) 2R (B) 4R
(C) 8R (D) 16R

1001CJA106216230156 E-3/28
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

5. A parallel plate capacitor is made of square conducting plates of side a and the separation between plates
is d. The capacitor is connected with battery of emf V volt as shown in the figure.

There is a dielectric slab of dimension a × a × d with dielectric constant k. At t = 0, dielectric slab is


given velocity v0 towards capacitor as shown in the figure. (Neglect the effect of gravity and
electrostatic force acting on the dielectric when dielectric is out side of capacitor. Also ignore any type
frictional force acting on the dielectric during its motion) let the x be the length dielectric inside the
capacitor at t = t sec. [ℓ0 >> a]
(A) Motion of dielectric slab is periodic but not simple harmonic motion.
(B) Motion of dielectric slab is simple harmonic motion.
(C) At any time, the slope of graph of total energy verses x is twice the slope of graph of potential energy
verses x.
1 ε 0 a2 V 2
(D) The value of maximum energy stored in the system is mV02 + (2k − 1)
2 2d
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6. A wooden cubical block ABCDEFGO of mass m and side ‘a’ is wrapped by a square wire loop of
perimeter 4a at a/2 as shown. The current in the wire I. The whole system is placed on
frictionless horizontal surface in a uniform magnetic field B→ = B0 ^j . In this situation, normal force
between horizontal surface and block passes through a point at a distance x from centre. Select the
correct statement(s).

mg
(A) The block must not topple if I <
aB0
mg
(B) The block must not topple if I <
2aB0
a mg
(C) x= if I =
4 2aB0
a mg
(D) x= if I =
4 4aB0
7. In space, there are 2 converging lens, whose optical axes coincide. Their focal length and initial distance
are indicated.

(A) If left lens only is moved to right, the final image moves to right.
(B) If left lens only is moved to left, the final image moves to left.
(C) If right lens only is moved to right, the final image moves to right.
(D) If right lens only is moved to left, the final image moves to left.

1001CJA106216230156 E-5/28
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
SECTION-I (iii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE
of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
8. There are some situation in list – I and in list – II time period of situation is given for small displacement.
Match the list – I with list – II.
List-I List-II
A light rod attached to a particle of mass m

(P) (1) 3m
4π√
5k

Heavy rod and a particle of mass m each shown in figure. The particle
is attached at other end of the rod
(Q) (2) m
6π√
5k

A uniform rectangular plate having mass m


(R) (3) 2 √ a2 + b 2
2π√
3g

A uniform rectangular plate oscillate about an axis passing through O


(mid point). a2 + 4b2
(S) (4) 2π√
6gb

(5) 4a2 + b2
2π√
6ga

(A) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 5 (B) P → 1;Q → 4;R → 5;S → 2


(C) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 4 (D) P → 5;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 4
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9. A steel rope (density d, length L, area of cross section A. Young's modulus Y) is subjected to operations
as described in List-I. Discover the correct value of x in the expressions and match.

List-I List-II

The rope is hanging from a ceilling in equilibrium. The elastic potential


(P) 2 (1) 3
x (dLg)
energy per unit volume at a point L/3 from the ceilling is
18 Y

The rope is vertical and moves under the application of vertical force
dALg
(Q) F= acting at its upper end upwards. The strain at a point at a (2) 4
2
dLg
distance L from the lower end is
3 xY

The rope is rotating at angular speed ω0 in gravity free space about its one
(R) (3) 5
L x 2 2
fixed end. The stress at a point from the fixed end is (dL ω )
0
3 18

A circular ring is formed from the rope. This ring is made to rotate with

(S) angular speed ω0 in its own plane in gravity free space. Tension in the (4) 6
dAL2 ω20
rope is x ( )
20π 2

(5) None of these

(A) P → 4;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 5


(B) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 5;S → 3
(C) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 4
(D) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 5

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10. List-I indicated certain situations and list-II indicates the values of electric field (induced or electrostatic). Match
the correct options :
List-I List-II
A uniformly charged solid infinite cylinder of radius R. x is
(P) (1) E = 0
distance from axis of cylinder
Current flowing through uniform cylindrical resistor. x is
distance from left end. x is less than the length of resistor
→∣
∣Eincreases with increase in x,
∣ ∣
(Q) (2) reaches a maximum and then
decreases.

An ideal solenoid of radius R. Current through solenoid is


increasing with time. x is distance from axis of solenoid →∣
∣E decreases with increase in x,
∣ ∣
(R) (3) reaches a minimum and then
increases.

A conducting rod of length ℓ is moving in a direction


perpendicular to the magnetic field with uniform velocity. x
is distance from upper end. (x < ℓ)

(S) (4) →∣
∣E
∣ ∣ is constant

→∣
∣E continuously decreases with
(5) ∣ ∣
increase in x
(A) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 5
(B) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4
(C) P → 4;Q → 5;R → 1;S → 2
(D) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 2;S → 4

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11. A uniform rod of mass m length ℓ is in a gravity free space and is free to move. An impulse J acts on the
rod momentarily as shown in figure. Just after that moment.

List-I List-II
√97 J
(P) Speed of upper end P of rod (1) ( )
8 m
5 J
(Q) Speed of lower end Q of rod (2) ( )
4 m

(R) Speed of point R on rod (3)


√13 J
( )
4 m
Speed of upper end P after rod √37 J
(S) (4) ( )
turns through 30° 4 m
(5) None of these
(A) P → 1;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 2
(B) P → 3;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 2
(C) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 1;S → 2
(D) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 3

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Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. In a certain hypothetical radioactive decay process, species A decays into species B and species B decays
into species C according to the reactions
A → 2B + particles + energy
B → 3C + particles + energy
The decay constant for species A is λ 1 = 1 sec –1 and that for species B is λ 2 = 100 sec –1. Initially
104 moles of species of A were present while there was none of B and C. It was found that species B
reaches its maximum number at a time t0 = 2 ℓ n(10)sec. Calculate the value of maximum number of
moles of B.
2. A square plate ABCD of mass m and side ℓ is suspended by the help of two ideal strings P and Q as
shown. Determine the acceleration (in m/s2) of the corner A of the square just at the moment the string Q
is cut. (g = 10 m/s2)

3. In a hydrogen like atom an electron is orbiting in an orbit having quantum number n. Its frequency of
revolution is found to be 13.2 × 1015 Hz. Energy required to remove this electron from this orbit is 54.4 eV.
In a time of 7 nano second the electron jumps back to orbit having quantum number n . τ (in Nm.) be the
2
average torque acted on the electron during the above process, then find τ × 1027
h
(given : = 2.1 × 10−34 J-s, frequency of revolution of electron in the ground state of H-atom
π
ν0 = 6.6 × 1015 Hz and ionization energy of H-atom, E0 = 13.6 eV.

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4. A small ball is projected from point P on floor towards a wall as shown. It hits the wall when its velocity
is horizontal. Ball reaches point P after one bounce on the floor. If coefficient of restitution (e) is same
for two collision find its value. Find 1 . Round off to nearest integer if necessary.
e

5. A small block is projected an a smooth horizontal surface terminating in a smooth quarter cylinder as
4
shown. If the block losses contact at θ = cos−1 ( ). What is initial velocity (in m/s)? (R = 1m)
5

6. A uniform rod of mass m, length ′ ℓ′ and density ′ ρ′ is placed vertically with the lower end just touching
the horizontal surface of a non-viscous and homogenous liquid of density σ(σ < ρ) as shown. The rod is
now released from rest. If the speed of the rod when half of its length is immersed in the liquid is
σ
√ gℓ (1 − ), then find n.

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Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. The value of (n2 + n1) and n22 − n21 for He+ ion in atomic spectrum are 4 and 8 respectively. The
( )

wavelength of emitted photon when electron jump from n2 to n1 is


(A) 32 (B) 9
RH RH
9 32
9 32
(C) (D)
32RH 9RH
2. A3B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass M (g mole –1) and solubility x g lit –1. The ratio of the
molar concentration of B3– to the solubility product of the salt is
(A) x5 (B) 1 M4
108
M5 108 x4

(C) 1 M4 (D) None


54 x4
3. Which one of the following statement is CORRECT ?
(A) Ammonia gas can not be prepared by hydrolysis of calcium cyanamide
(B) On heating ammonium nitrite, NH3 gas is formed
(C) On heating ammonium dichromate, laughing gas is formed
(D) On heating ammonium carbonate, ammonia is formed

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4.

Product (C) is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

5. Two volatile liquids A and B are mixed to form an ideal solution. If PAo = 100mm of Hg & PBo = 150mm
of Hg then identify the correct option(s) if 10 moles of A are mixed with 40 moles of B such that moles
vaporised are very small.
(A) Total pressure when equilibrium gets established will be 140 mm of Hg.
(B) Mole fraction of A in vapour state will be less than 0.5.
(C) Mole fraction of B in vapour state is equal to 6
7
(D) Moles of B in vapour state should be greater than 80%

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6. For the reaction,
A → Products (order = n)
the time of completion of reaction is
(A) Infinite for all value of 'n'
(B) Infinite for n = 1
1−n
[A0 ]
(C) for n ≠ 1
K(1 − n)
1−n
[A0 ]
(D) for n < 1
K(1 − n)
7. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) The melting point of hydrides of Group 15 : NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(B) Δ Heg kJ mol –1 : S > Se > O > Te > Po
(C) Melting point : B > A ℓ > T ℓ > ln > Ga
(D) Bond enthalpy : C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn

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Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
SECTION-I (iii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE
of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
8. Match the list :
List-I List-II
(P) Isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas (1) Δ Ssys = 0
(Q) Vapourisation of a liquid at its boiling point at 1 atm. (2) Δ U = 0
(R) Adiabatic reversible compression involving an ideal gas (3) Δ G = 0
(S) Combustion of CH4 in sealed rigid adiabatic container. (4) w = 0
(5) q = 0
(A) P → 1;Q → 4,2;R → 5;S → 3,4,5
(B) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 1,5;S → 2,4,5
(C) P → 2,3;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 1,2
(D) P → 5;Q → 4,5;R → 1;S → 2
9. Match List - I with List - II :
List - I List - II
(P) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (1) Colourless
(Q) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) Green
(R) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (3) Violet
(S) [Sc(H2O)6]3+ (4) Pink
(5) Yellow
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) P → 3;Q → 5;R → 1;S → 3 (B) P → 4;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 5
(C) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 1;S → 2 (D) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 1

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10. Match the particulars given in List (I) with the appropriate chemical reagents given in List (II).
List-I List-II
(P) Fe3+, Zn2+ & Cu2+ can be distinguished by (1) CsCl solution
(Q) PbS, CuS and CdS dissolve in (2) Alkaline Na2SnO2 solution
(R) Pb2+ gives yellow precipitate with (3) 50% HNO3
(S) Bi3+ gives a black precipitate with (4) K2CrO4 solution
(5) Aqueous NH3
(A) P → 5;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 2
(B) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 1
(C) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 3
(D) P → 4;Q → 5;R → 2;S → 1
11. List-I List-II

PCC (Pyridiumchloro
(P) (1)
chromate)

(Q) (2) Cu/573K

(R) (3) K2Cr2O7 + Dil H2SO4/293K

(S) (4) KMnO4, H+/239K

(5) H3PO4/358K
(A) P → 3,4;Q → 1,2;R → 1,2,3,4;S → 2,5
(B) P → 1,3;Q → 2,3,4;R → 4,5;S → 2,3
(C) P → 2,3,4;Q → 4,5;R → 2,3;S → 1,2,3
(D) P → 4,5;Q → 2,5;R → 1,2,3;S → 2,3,4

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Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. A metal 'M' having atomic mass 31.25 crystallizes in cubic close packing and it show "Schottky defects".
If the edge length of the cubic lattice is 500 pm and density of the metal 1.6075 gm/ml then calculate
number of moles of metal atom 'M' missing per litre of the crystal.
(Given : 1 amu = 1.67 × 10 –24 gm)
limited air excess air
2. Na −−−−−−→ X −−−−−−→ Y
Choose the correct statement(s) :-
(A) Oxidation state of oxygen is higher in 'X' as compared to 'Y'
(B) Both 'X' and 'Y' are diamagnetic
(C) 'Y' on reaction with water produces H2O2
(D) Moist 'X' on reaction with CO2 produces Na2CO3
(E) Both X and Y are basic in nature
(F) X is soluble while Y is insoluble in nature.

3.

How many sp2 carbon present in major product (A) ?

E-18/28 1001CJA106216230156
Enthusiast Course/All Star Batch/Score-II/26-03-2024
4. For the given compound [x]. The total number of optical active stereoisomers are -

Where –
This type of bond indicate that the configuration at the specific carbon and the geometry of the double
bond is fixed.
But This type of bond indicate that the configuration at the specific carbon and the geometry of the
double bond in not fixed.
5. In the following reaction sequence. The compound [J] in an intermediate product

What is the degree of unsaturation of M ?


6. The sum of geometrical isomers in [Pt(H2N – CH(CH3)COO – )2] complex and stereoisomers of
[Pt(gly)3]+ complex is ________.

1001CJA106216230156 E-19/28
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. Given three points on the x-y plane of O(0,0), A(1,0) and B( – 1,0). Point P is moving on the plane
−−
→ −−
→ −−
→ −−

satisfying the condition ( P A. P B ) + 3 (OA. OB ) = 0. If the maximum and minimum values of
−−
→ −−

|P A||P B | are M and m, respectively then find the value of M 2 + m2

(A) 24 (B) 34
(C) 44 (D) None of these
2. If lim sin−1 x + cos−1 x + tan−1 x does not exist, then sumof the all possible values of k is.
[ ]
x→k
[Note : [y] denotes greatest integer function less than or equal to y.]
− sin 3 − sin 2
(A) (B)
sin 1 ⋅ sin 2 sin 1 ⋅ sin 3
− sin 1 − sin 1 ⋅ sin 2
(C) (D)
sin 2 ⋅ sin 3 sin 3
3. The mean of five observations is 4 and their variance is 5.2. It three of these observation are 1,2 and 6
then the other two are
(A) 2 and 9 (B) 3 and 8
(C) 4 and 7 (D) 5 and 6
4. π
Let f '(sin x) < 0 and f "(sin x) > 0, ∀x ∈ ( 0, ) and g(x) = f (sin x) + f (cos x), then g(x) is decreasing in
2
π π
(A) ( , ) (B) (0, π )
4 2 4
π
(C) (0, ) (D) ( π , π )
2 6 2

E-20/28 1001CJA106216230156
Enthusiast Course/All Star Batch/Score-II/26-03-2024
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

n (−1)r
5. Let X = ∑ ( ) , then |X – ln 2|, will be -
r=0
r+1
1 1
(A) greater than (B) greater than
2 (n + 1) 2 (n + 2)
1 1
(C) less than (D) less than
2 (n + 1) 2 (n + 2)
0 i 1 0
6. Let M denote the matrix ( ) , where i2 = −1, and let I denote the identity matrix ( )

i 0 0 1
Then the matrix I +M + M2 +M3 +M4 + ..... +M2010 is equal to
0 0 0 i 1 i −1 0
(A) ( ) (B) ( ) (C) ( ) (D) ( )

0 0 i 0 i 1 0 −1
7. Let z1 , z2 , z3 ∈ C such that |z1 | = 1, ∣∣z2 − (1 + √3i)∣∣ = 3, and ∣
∣ z3 − 3 − 3√3i∣∣ = 7. If |3z1 − 2z2 − 4z3 | is
maximum then
(A) maximum value of |z1 – z2| = 5 (B) maximum value of |z3 – z1| = 14
(C) |z1| + |z2| + |z3| = 17 (D) z3 + 3z1 = 2z2

1001CJA106216230156 E-21/28
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
SECTION-I (iii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE
of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1
tan(tan−1 x)
8. Let f (x) = 2sin 2
β + 4 cos(x + β) sin x sin β + cos 2 (x + β) and g (x) = ( lim (1 + α) α ) then
α →0

List-I List-II
1
1
(P) If x→0
lim (f (x)) x2 = ℓ then 2ℓn ℓ−1 is equal to (1)
2

g (x) − f (x)
(Q) lim is equal to (2) 1
x→0 2x

(R) If x ∈ (−∞, 0] then number of integer(s) in the range of h(x) = 1+ g(x) is(are) (3) 2

(S) The number of solution(s) of the equation f (x) = 1 in [0,3] is/are (4) 4
2

(5) 5

(A) P → 1;Q → 4;R → 5;S → 2


(B) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3
(C) P → 2;Q → 5;R → 4;S → 1
(D) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 5

E-22/28 1001CJA106216230156
Enthusiast Course/All Star Batch/Score-II/26-03-2024
9. List-I List-II
An equilateral triangle has one vertex at (0,0) and another at ( 3, √3) the
(P) (1) 5
x-coordinate of third vertex is
(Q) (1, – 2), (3,6), (5,10), (3,y) in order are the vertices of a parallelogram, then y is (2) 1
(R) x-coordinate of circumcentre of triangle with vertices ( – 2, – 3), ( – 1,0), (7, – 6) is (3) 2
y-coordinate of a point which divides the line segment joining (5, – 2) and (9,6)
(S) (4) 3
internally in the ratio 3 : 1, is
(5) 4
(A) P → 5;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 2
(B) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 3
(C) P → 3;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 2
(D) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 5

1001CJA106216230156 E-23/28
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
10. In the adjoining figure

BD : DC = 3 : 4,
BP : PE = sin2 θ : cos θ & E is the mid point of AC.
List-I List-II
AP
Value of [ ] is
(P) PD (1) 3
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
(Q) Number of values of θ ∈ [0, 4π] is (2) 2
(R) If λ −−
→ −− →
BA + BC
( )
−−

= 10BP , then λ is (3) 1
BP
Value of [ ] is
(S) PE (4) 4
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
(5) 6
(A) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 5;S → 2
(B) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 5
(C) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 3
(D) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 5;S → 4

E-24/28 1001CJA106216230156
Enthusiast Course/All Star Batch/Score-II/26-03-2024
a2
11. Let f (x) = ( ℓn (a2 − 3a − 3)) |sin x| + [ ] cos πx ∀x ∈ R, a ∈ [−4, 4]
9
(where [ ] denotes greatest integer function)
List-I List-II
If f (x) is periodic then the number of integral values
(P) (1) 1
of a is
If f (x) is periodic with period to be a rational number
(Q) (2) 2
then number of integral values of a is
If f (x) is periodic with period to be an irrational then
(R) (3) 3
number of integral values of a is
If f(x) is non periodic function then number of
(S) (4) 4
integral values of a is
(5) 5
(A) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 4
(B) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 1;S → 2
(C) P → 5;Q → 3;R → 1;S → 4
(D) P → 5;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 4

1001CJA106216230156 E-25/28
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/26-03-2024
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
2t

1.

sin x ⎞

If the two lines AB : ⎜∫ ( + 1) dx⎟ x + y = 3t and AC : 2tx + y = 0 intersect at a point A, then


⎝ x ⎠
0
p
x-coordinate of point A as t → 0, is equal to (p and q are in their lowest form). Then (p + q) is
q
2. Let A1, A2, A3, A4 be the areas of the triangular faces of a tetrahedron, and h1, h2, h3, h4 be the
corresponding altitudes of the tetrahedron. If volume of tetrahedron is 5 cubic units, then the minimum
(A1 + A2 + A3 + A4 ) (h1 + h2 + h3 + h4 )
value of ⋅ (in cubic units) is
60
3. Let z1 , z2 , z3 be complex numbers such that z12 + z22 + z32 = z1 z2 + z2 z3 + z3 z1 and |z1 + z2 + z3 | = 21.
2 2
Given that |z1 − z2 | = 2 √ 3, |z1 | = 3√3. Compute |z2 | + |z3 | .
1
p
4. If the value of n→∞
lim ( n3 + n2 ) 3 − [√ (n+1) P2 ] = , where n ∈ N then find the value of (p + q).
q
[Note: [y] denotes greatest integer function less than or equal of y.]
5. Let f(x) be a polynomial satisfies the relation f (f (f (x))) + (1 − p) f (x) = 3, ∀x ∈ R, where p is any real
p

number. If leading coefficient of f(x) is 2 then find the value of ( d f (f (x)) at x = p) + ∫ (2f −1 (x) + 1) dx.
dx
−p

sin−1 x + tan−1 x − cos−1 x − cot−1 x


6. Let f (x) = ⋅ If the maximum and minimum value of f(x) is
sin−1 x + tan−1 x + cos−1 x + cot−1 x

M and m respectively, then find the value of 9M − m + ∑ M k.
k=0

E-26/28 1001CJA106216230156
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