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ALLEN

(1103CJA101001230074) 1103CJA101001230074 Test Pattern


Nurture/Phase:1&2/24-12-2023/Paper-2
English

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)


MINOR TEST - 8
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) 24-12-2023
JEE(Main+Advanced) : NURTURE COURSE (PHASE-1 & 2)

PAPER-2
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 186

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

GENERAL :

1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.

2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.

3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.

4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


booklet.

5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains all the 18 questions
in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not, contact the invigilator for
replacement of the booklet.

6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.

8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.

9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.

14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.

15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.


Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
TARGET:JEE ADVANCED /24-12-2023/PAPER-2
ALLEN
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,

· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1


1
· Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 pe0
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
m0 c2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s

Space for Rough Work

1103CJA101001230074
Nurture/Phase:1&2/24-12-2023/Paper-2

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

PHYSICS
SECTION-1(A) : (Maximum Marks: 30)
This section contains TEN (10) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. A metal rod of length ℓ & area of cross-section A is suspended to the ceiling by one of its end. The
density of metal is ρ , young modulus of elasticity is Y. Choose the correct option
(A) The stress at mid point is ℓ ρ g
ρgℓ2
(B) Extension in rod due to it's own weight Δ ℓ =
2Y
ρ 2 AL3
(C) Potential energy stored in rod due to its own weight U =
3Y
(D) The stress at mid point is 2 ℓ ρ g

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2. In the given figure, liquid of density ρ is filled upto the brim in open hemispherical cup. System is in
equilibrium. Force exerted by liquid on surface of cup is (p0 is atmospheric pressure, R is radius of cup) :

2 2
(A) (p0 π R2 + π R3 ρ g) ↓ (B) (p0 π R2 − π R3 ρ g) ↓
3 3
p 0 π R2
(C) (
2
+ 4 π R3 ρ g ) ↓ (D) (p0 π R2 – 2 π R3 ρ g) ↓
3. A solid cone of uniform density and height 2R and the base radius R has a conical portion scooped out
from its base with the same base radius but height R as shown in the figure. The solid cone is floating in
a liquid of density ρ with vertex A touching the fluids surface. If atmospheric pressure is P0, the force
acting on the surface BCD due to liquid is

π R3 ρ g 2P0 π R3 ρ g 3P0
(A) ( 2+ ) (B) ( 5+ )
3 Rρg 3 Rρg
π R3 ρ g 3P0 π R3 ρ g 3P0
(C) ( 1+ ) (D) ( 4+ )
3 Rρg 3 Rρg

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4. An ideal liquid of density ρ is filled in a horizontally fixed syringe fitted with piston. There is no friction
between the piston and the inner surface of the syringe. Cross-section area of the syringe is A. At one
end of the syringe, an orifice of negligible cross-section area is made. When the piston is pushed into the
syringe, the liquid comes out of the orifice following parabolic path and falls on the ground. With what
speed the liquid strikes the ground? Neglect the air drag :

F + ρ ghA F + 2 ρ ghA
(A) √ (B) √

ρA ρA
2F + ρ ghA 2 (F + ρ ghA)
(C) √ (D) √

ρA ρA

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5. There is water in container with center of mass at C. Now a small wooden piece is place towards right as
shown in the figure. After putting the wooden piece.

(A) Pressure at base remains same and centre of mass of water and wooden piece will be right of
line OC.
(B) Pressure at base remains same and centre of mass of water and wooden piece will be on line
OC.
(C) Pressure at base changes and centre of mass of water and wooden piece will be right of line
OC.
(D) Pressure at base changes and centre of mass of water and wooden piece will be on line OC.
6. The moment of inertia about x-axis of uniform thin plate of density ρ kg/m2 as shown in the figure is
N ρ a7
, then find the value of N.
21

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5


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7. The moment of inertia of a cube of mass m and side a about the diagonal of one of it's face is :-

(A) ma2 (B) ma2 (C) 5ma2 (D) 2ma2


12 6 12 3
8. A rod of mass m and length 2R can rotate about an axis passing through O in vertical plane. A disc of
mass m and radius R is hinged to the other end P of the rod and can freely rotate about P. When disc is at
lowest point both rod and disc has angular velocity ω . If rod rotates by maximum angle θ = 60° with
downward vertical, the ω in terms of R and g will be (all hinges are smooth) :-

(A) √
9g (B) √
3g (C) 1√ g (D) None of these
16R 23R 3 R

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9. The angular momentum of a particle about origin is varying as L = 4t + 8 (SI units) when it moves along
a straight line y = x – 4 (x,y in meters). The magnitude of force acting on the particle would be :
(A) 1 N (B) 2 N
(C) √ 2N (D) √ 3N

10. Figure shows a uniform and thin rod of mass 5m, kept on a frictionless horizontal surface. A particle of
mass m collides inelastically with the rod with velocity v0 = 76 m/s. Coefficient of restitution is 3/4. If
velocity of end B just after collision is zero, then the speed of ball just after the collision is :

(A) 29 m/s (B) 42 m/s


(C) 38 m/s (D) None
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SECTION-1(B) : (Maximum Marks: 32)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
11. A tube of small uniform cross section is used to siphon the water from the vessel. Then choose correct
alternative(s) : (density of water, ρ water = 103kg/m3, g = 10 m/s2, Patm = 105Pa)

(A) Water will come out from section B with a velocity of √ 80 m/s

(B) Water will come out from section B with a velocity of 10 √ 2 m/s

(C) The greatest value of h1 for which the siphon will work is 10 m
(D) The greatest value of h1 for which the siphon will work is 6 m
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12. An iron block and a wooden block are positioned in a vessel containing water as shown in the figure.
The iron block (1) hangs from a massless string with a rigid support from the top while the wooden
block (2) floats being tied to the bottom through a massless string. If now the vessel starts acceleration
towards right.

(A) Iron block gets deflected towards right.


(B) Wooden block gets deflected towards right.
(C) Iron block gets deflected towards left.
(D) Wooden block gets deflected towards left.
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13. A cylindrical tube, with its base as shown in the figure, is filled with water. It is moving down with a
constant acceleration a along a fixed inclined plane with angle θ = 45°. P1 and P2 are pressures at points
1 and 2, respectively, located at the base of the tube. Let β = (P1 – P2)/( ρ gd), where ρ is density of
water, d is the inner diameter of the tube and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Which of the following
statement(s) is(are) correct ?

(A) β = 0 when a = g/ √ 2 (B) β > 0 when a = g/ √ 2


√ 2−1 1
(C) β = when a = g/2 (D) β = when a = g/2
√ 2 √ 2

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14. A tank is filled upto a height h with a liquid and is placed on a platform of height h from the ground. To
get maximum range xm a small hole is punched at a distance of y from the free surface of the liquid.
Then

(A) xm= 2h (B) xm = 1.5 h (C) y = h (D) y = 0.75 h


15. The vessel shown in the figure has two sections of areas of cross – section A1 and A2. A liquid of density
r fills both the sections, up to a height h in each. Neglect atmospheric pressure:-

(A) The pressure at the base of the vessel is 2hrg.


(B) The force exerted by the liquid on the base of the vessel is 2hrgA2.
(C) The weight of the liquid is < 2hrgA2
(D) The walls of the vessel at the level X exert a downward force hrg (A2 – A1) on the liquid.
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16. A solid sphere of mass 10 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction µ = 0.1.
If a force of 28 N is applied at the top of the sphere then,

(A) friction force will be 10 N in forward direction.


(B) friction force will be less than 10N in backward direction.
29
(C) Acceleration of centre of mass will be m/s2 .
7
(D) Acceleration of centre of mass will be 3.8m/s2.
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17. A massless spool of inner radius r, outer radius R is placed against a vertical wall and a tilted split floor
as shown. A light inextensible thread is tightly wound around the spool through which a mass m is
hanging. There exists no friction at point A, while the coefficient of friction between the spool and point
B is μ . The angle between the two surfaces is θ .

(A) The magnitude of the force on the spool at B in order to maintain equilibrium is
mg√(r/R)2 + (1 − r/R)2 1/tan2 θ

(B) The magnitude of the force on the spool at B in order to maintain equilibrium is
mg (1 − r/R) 1/ tan θ

cot θ
(C) The minimum value of μ for the system to remain in equilibrium is
(R/r) − 1
tan θ
(D) The minimum value of μ for the system to remain in equilibrium is
(R/r) − 1

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18. In the figure shown a uniform rod of mass m and length ℓ is hinged. The rod is released when the rod
makes angle θ = 60° with the vertical :-

3√3g
(A) The angular acceleration of the rod just after release is .
4ℓ
√ 19mg
(B) The normal reaction due to the hinge just after release is .
8
3g
(C) The angular velocity of the rod at the instant it becomes vertical is √
.
2ℓ
7
(D) The normal reaction due to the hinge at the instant the rod becomes vertical is mg .
4

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-1(A) : (Maximum Marks: 30)
This section contains TEN (10) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. 2.5 mL of 2 M weak monoacidic base (Kb = 1 × 10 –12 at 25oC) is titrated with 2
M HCl in water at
5 15
25oC. The concentration of H+ at equivalence point is
(A) 2.7 × 10 –2 M (B) 3.2 × 10-7 M
(C) 3.2 × 10-2 M (D) 2.7 × 10-3 M

2. The IUPAC name for the formula is

(A) 3-methyl but-2-enoic acid (B) 3-methyl-3-butenoic acid


(C) 2-methyl but-2-enoic acid (D) 2-methyl-3-butenoic acid
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3. For equilibriuim at 300K,
LiCl.3NH3 (s) ⇌ LiClNH3 (s) + 2NH3 (g), kP = 9 atm2
In 8.21 L vessel 1.4 mol of LiClNH3(s) and 2.8 moles of NH3 are placed. Moles of LiCl.3NH3(s) formed
at equilibriuim will be
(A) 1.4 (B) 0.7
(C) 1 (D) 0.9
4. Calculate the pH of the solution formed by mixing 0.1M, 100ml NaOH and 0.2 M, 50 ml H2CO3.
(Given that ka1 = 1 × 10−7 and ka2 = 1 × 10−11 )
(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 7 (D) None of these
5. An aqueous solution of a weak acid HA is dilluted. It results ( α denotes degree of ionisation of HA)
(A) Decrease in α as well as [H+] (B) Increase in α as well as [H+]
(C) Decrease in α but increase in [H+] (D) Increase in α but decrease in [H+]
6. A buffer solution was prepared by dissolving 0.02 mole acetic acid & 0.01 mole sodium acetate in
enough water to make 1 L solution, if 5 × 10-4 mole NaOH were added to 100 ml of the buffer. The
resultant pH of the solution would be (given log 5 = 0.70, ka(CH3COOH) = 2 × 10 –5),
(A) 4.7 (B) 5
(C) 5.3 (D) None
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7. The IUPAC name of the Compound is

(A) 1,2,3-Tricyanopropane (B) Propan tricarbylamide


(C) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile (D) 3-Cyano pentane-1, 5-dinitrile
8. pH of a solution by mixing 50 mL of 0.1 M Na3PO4 and 50 mL of 0.05 M NaH2PO4 is
[For H3PO4: pKa1 = 2.1, pKa2 = 7.2, pKa3 = 11.3 and log 2 = 0.30 and log 3 = 0.48]
(A) 9.6 (B) 11.00 (C) 7.5 (D) None of these
9. For the reaction A(g) + 2B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g); Kc = 1012
The initial moles of A, B, C & D are 0.5, 1, 0.5 and 3.5 moles respectively in a 1 L vessel.
What is the equilibrium concentration of B?
(A) 2 × 10-4 (B) 10-4 (C) 4 × 10-4 (D) 8 × 10-4
10. Which is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound:

(A) 5 – Cyano – 3 ethenylpentanoic acid (B) 3-Ethenyl-4-nitrile-4methylbutanoic acid


(C) 3-ethenyl-4-cyano-pentanoic acid (D) None of the above
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SECTION-1(B) : (Maximum Marks: 32)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
11. Which of the following relations is (are) true for alkaline aqueous solution?
pkw
(A) pH > (B) pH > pOH
2
pkw pH + pOH = pkw
(C) pOH > (D)
2
12. Select the correct statement(s) among the followings: (Consider Kw(H2O) = 1 x 10-14 at 25oC)
(A) If pOH of a solution at 70ºC is 7, then solution will be acidic
(B) If [H+] concentration is decreases 100 times, pH of solution increases by 2 units
(C) If solution of CH3COONa(aq) is diluted then pH increases.
(D) An aqueous solution having pH > 7.2 must be basic, at all temperature range.
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13. Choose the correct statement(s) among the followings:
(A) Ksp of Fe(OH)3 in aqueous solution is 2.7 × 10-39 at 298 K. The concentration of Fe3+ will
increases with decrease in H+ ion concentration.
(B) In a mixture of NH4Cl and NH4OH in water, a further amount of NH4Cl is added. The pH of
mixture will decrease.
(C) An aqueous solution of each of the following salts NH4Cl, Cr(NO3)3, KCN will be basic,
acidic and neutral respectively.
(D) Degree of hydrolysis of 0.1M CH3COONH4, 0.2M CH3COONH4, 0.5M CH3COONH4 are
equal.
14. At 90°C pure water has [H+] = 10-6 M. Based on this information, choose correct statement(s) is (are) -
(A) With the increase in the temperature, degree of ionization of water increases.
(B) At 60oC, pH of pure water will be less than 6
(C) At 90oC, pH of a 10-6 M HCl solution will be less than 6
(D) Ionic product of water at 90oC is 10 –12
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15. What volume of 2M HCl and what amount of CH3COONa should be mixed and finally diluted to 100 ml
M
to get a solution of pH = 4.7 with [CH3COO – ] ion equal to ?
2
[Ka(CH3COOH) = 2 × 10 –5, log2 = 0.30]
(A) 25 ml HCl, 0.1 mole CH3COONa
(B) 50 ml HCl, 40 mole CH3COONa
(C) 2.5 ml HCl, 8.2 g CH3COONa
(D) 0.025 L HCl, 8.2 g CH3COONa
16. The following equilibrium exists in saturated solution at 298 K.
NH4 Cl(s) + aq ⇌ NH4+ (aq) + Cl− (aq); Δ H = 3.5kcal mol−1
A change that will not shift the equilibrium to the right is
(A) decrease in temperature
(B) increase in temperature
(C) addition of NH4Cl crystals to the reaction mixture
(D) addition of NH4OH solution to the reaction mixture
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17. 100 ml of 0.5 M hydrazoic acid (HN3, Ka = 3.6 × 10-4) and 400 ml of 0.1 M cyanic acid (HOCN,
Ka = 8 × 10-4) are mixed, which of the following statements is (are) true for the final solution?
(A) [H+] = 1.4 × 10-2
(B) [OCN – ] = 6.4 × 10 –3
(C) [N3 – ] = 3.6 × 10-3
(D) [H+] = 10 –2
18. Buffer solution A of a weak monoprotic acid and its sodium salt in the concentration ratio x : y has
pH = (pH)1. Buffer solution B of the same acid and its sodium salt in the concentration ratio y : x has
pH = (pH)2.
If (pH)2 – p(H)1 = 1 unit and (pH)1 + (pH)2 = 9.5 units, then
x
(A) pK = 4.75 (B) = √ 10
y
x
(C) = 2.36 (D) pKa = 5.25
y

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION-1(A) : (Maximum Marks: 30)
This section contains TEN (10) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
m 10 20 ⎛
p⎞
1. The sum ∑ ( ) ( ) (where = 0 if p < q) is maximum when m is -
i=0 i m−i ⎝
q⎠
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20
2. C0 C C C
+ 1 + 2 +. . . . . + 10 is equal to (here Cr = 10
Cr )
1 2 3 11

(A) 211 (B) 211 − 1 (C) 311 (D) 311 − 1


11 11 11 11
3. The sum of the series (12 + 1).1! + (22 + 1).2! + (32 + 1).3! + ..... + (n2 + 1).n! is -
(A) (n + 1) . (n + 2)! (B) n . (n + 1)!
(C) (n + 1) . (n + 1)! (D) None of these
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4. If (1 + x + x2)25 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ..... + a50 . x50 then a0 + a2 + a4 + ..... + a50 is -
(A) even (B) odd & of the form 3n
(C) odd & of the form (3n – 1) (D) odd & of the form (3n + 1)
5. If ar is the coefficient of xr in the expansion of (1 + x + x2)n (n ∈ N). Then the value of (a1 + 4a4 + 7a7 +
10a10 + .....) is equal to :
(A) 3n−1 (B) 2n
1 (D) n ⋅ 3n−1
(C) ⋅ 2n
3
6. In the expansion of (1 + x)2 (1 + y)3 (1 + z)4 (1 + w)5, the sum of the coefficient of the terms of degree
12 is :
(A) 61 (B) 71
(C) 81 (D) 91
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7. In a unique hockey series between India & Pakistan, they decide to play on till a team wins 5 matches.
The number of ways in which the series can be won by India, if no match ends in a draw is -
(A) 126 (B) 252
(C) 225 (D) None of these
8. The number of solutions of x1 + x2 + x3 = 51 (x1, x2, x3 being odd natural numbers) is :-
(A) 300 (B) 325
(C) 330 (D) 350
9. Let N be the number of 4-digit numbers which contain not more than 2 different digits. The sum of the
digits of N is :
(A) 18 (B) 19
(C) 20 (D) 21
10. A batsman can score 0, 2, 3, or 4 runs for each ball he receives. If N is the number of ways of scoring a
total of 20 runs in one over of six balls, then N is divisible by :
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 14 (D) 16
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SECTION-1(B) : (Maximum Marks: 32)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
11. Let (1 + x2)2 (1 + x)n = A0 + A1x + A2x2 + ..... If A0, A1, A2 are in A.P. then the value of n is -
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
12. The number N = 20C7 – 20C8 + 20C9 – 20C10 + ..... – 20C20 is divisible by :
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 7 (D) 19
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13. If (1 + x + x2 + x3)100 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ..... + a300x300 then which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct ?
(A) a1 = 100
(B) a0 + a1 + a2 + ...... + a300 is divisible by 1024
(C) coefficients equidistant from beginning and end are equal
(D) a0 + a2 + a4 + ..... + a300 = a1 + a3 + a5 + ..... + a299
14. Let f(x) = 1 + x111 + x222 + x333 + .......... + x999 then f(x) is divisible by
(A) x + 1 (B) x
(C) x – 1 (D) 1 + x222 + x444 + x666 + x888
5
1 2 4
15. If in the expansion of ( + x tan x) ratio of 4th term to the 2nd term is π , then value of x can be
x 27
−π −π
(A) (B)
6 3
(C) π (D) π
3 12

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1103CJA101001230074 25/27
Target:IIT-JEE/24-12-2023/Paper-2
20
17
16. 11th term in the expansion of ( 3− √ + 3 √2 ) is
4
(A) an irrational number (B) a rational number
(C) a positive integer (D) a negative integer
17. If 100! = 2 α 3 β 5 γ 7 δ ....., then
(A) α = 97 1
( α − 1)(B) β =
2
(C) γ = 1 β (D) δ = 1 β
2 3
18. The number of non-negative integral solutions of x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 ⩽ n (where n is a positive integer) is
(A) n + 3C (B) n + 4C
3 4

(C) n + 5C (D) n+4 C


5 n

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Nurture/Phase-1&2/24-12-2023/Paper-2
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ALLEN
QUESTION PAPER FORMAT AND MARKING SCHEME :
16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
17. Each part has two sections as detailed in the following table.

Category-wise Marks for Each Question Maximum


No.
Marks of
Section Que. Type of Negative
Full Marks Partial Marks Zero Marks the
Que. Marks
section
+3 0 -1
Single correct If only the bubble If none of In all other
I(A) 10 ------ 30
option corresponding to the correct the bubbles cases
option is darkened is darkened
+4 0
One or more If only the bubble In all other
I(B) 8 ------ ------ 32
correct option(s) corresponding to the correct cases
answer darkened

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE ................................................................................................

FORM NO. .............................................

I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and Form
number of the candidate, and that question
and shall abide by them.
paper and ORS codes are the same.

____________________________ ____________________________
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

ALLEN Mumbai City Office :


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Mumbai : 400077 | +022-62423699
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+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
MUMBAI Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE 2024 1103CJA101001230074

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