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PART TEST – I
Paper 1
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into Two sections: Section-A & Section-D
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 - 46) contains 12 questions. Based on this section contains TWO
(02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.
Enrolment No.
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website: www.fiitjee.com
AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(SECTION – D)
Correct Method :
0 0 3 4 8 . 4 0
0 0 2 5 1 . 3 7
0 0 2 1 3 . 0 0
Wrong Method :
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 .
2 1 3 . 0
2 1 3 . 0
3 4 8 . 4 0
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 . 0 0
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
distance between the peg and the ground is 2. The value of x can be : x
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
5. Two tennis balls of mass 60 g are attached with a massless rubber thread, and held
in the vertical position as shown in the figure. In this position the unstretched length
of the rubber thread is 40 cm. The upper ball is slowly raised vertically upward, until
the lower ball just becomes unsupported by the ground. At this time the length of the
thread is 1 m. The rubber thread exerts a force which is proportional to its
extension.
(A) Work done by external agent while the upper ball was raised is 0.53J.
(B) Work done by external agent while the upper ball was raised is 0.23J.
(C) Releasing the upper ball, the speed which it hits the lower one is 5.1m/s.
(D) The time that elapses between the release of the upper ball and the collision is 0.34 sec.
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
A tall tower is built from alike tubes, which have thin walls, and from rectangular 20 cm
sheets, which have negligible mass with respect to that of the tubes, as shown in
the figure. rectangular sheets are numbered from bottom as S1 , S2 , S3 …..(Static
friction is big enough, such that the tubes does not slip.) The radius of each tube is
1 cm.
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A particle is suspended by three equal strings, of length a, from three points forming an equilateral
triangle of side 2b, in the horizontal plane.
10. If one string be cut, the tension of each of the other two strings will be changed in the ratio (i.e.
the ratio of final tension after cutting the string to tension before cutting the string):
3a2 4b2 4a2 3b2
(A) (B)
2(a2 b2 ) 2(a2 b2 )
3a 2 4b2 4a2 3b2
(C) (D)
(a2 b2 ) (a2 b2 )
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. A cone with height h= 1 m and a base circle of radius r = 1 m is formed from a
sector- shaped sheet of paper. The sheet is of such a size and shape that its w
two straight edges almost touch on the sloping surface of the cone. In this
state the cone is stress-free. The cone is placed on a horizontal, slippery
table-top, and loaded at its apex with a vertical force of magnitude w = 2,
h
without collapsing. The splaying of the cone is opposed by a pair of forces of
magnitude F acting tangentially at the join in the base circle (see figure).
Ignoring any frictional or bending effects in the paper, find the value of F. r
F
F
12. The two ends of a 40 cm long chain are fixed at the same height, as
shown in the figure. Find the radius of curvature of the chain at its 45 45
lowest point in cm.
13. A student of height h jumps vertically up from the “squat” position. At the top point of the jump, the
student’s center of mass is at a height 3h/4 from the ground. Find the average force F acting on
the floor prior to the moment when the student loses contact with the floor. It is known that when
the student stands on the floor, the center of mass is at a height h/2 from the floor; in the “squat”
position, the center of mass is at a height h/4 from the floor. The mass of the student is m=
0.1kg.(take g=10m/s2)
14. Two points, A and B, are located on the ground a certain distance d = 10 2m apart. Two rocks
are launched simultaneously from points A and B with equal speeds but at different angles. Each
rock lands at the launch point of the other. Knowing that one of the rocks is launched at an angle
θ = 37 with the horizontal, what is the minimum distance between the rocks during the flight?
(given cos 37 = 3/5)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
15. A semi-cylinder is cut out of a block and the block is kept on the m
horizontal surface. A small body of mass m is released at the top of
the cylinder shaped hole. (Friction is negligible.)
If the block is able to move on the horizontal surface without friction, M
then the force exerted on the block by the small body at the lowest
point is 7mg/2 . Find the ratio of M/m?
16. A projectile launched from the ground explodes into three fragments of equal mass at the top
point of the trajectory. One of the fragments lands t seconds after the explosion two other
fragments land simultaneously 2t seconds after the explosion. How high above the ground does
the projectile explode? (take t= 2/5 seconds and g= 10m/s2)
17. A vertical rod of mass 4 kg is hanging on a rope and a 3-kg cat is grasping the bottom end of the
rod. The rope is cut off and the frightened cat begins to run up on the rod. While the rod is falling
vertically, the cat remains at the same height, with respect to the ground. The acceleration of the
rod is kg/4 m/s2 where g is the acceleration due to gravity. Find k.
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A mixture of 2 moles of Argon and 4 moles of PCl5 (g) were introduced in a 80 litre evacuated
vessel at 527oC. The following equilibrium was established
PCl5 g
PCl3 g Cl2 g
The total pressure of the gaseous mixture in the vessel at equilibrium was found to be 6.568 atm.
Which of the following statement(s) regarding the above equilibrium is/are correct?
(A) Kc for the equilibrium is 0.025
(B) KP for the equilibrium is 1.642 atm
(C) Total number of moles of gaseous species at equilibrium is 6
(D) Number of moles of PCl5 at equilibrium is 2
23. KMnO4 reacts with K2C2O4 and H2SO4 to form MnSO4, CO2, K2SO4 and H2O. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct for the reaction?
(A) One mole of KMnO4 reacts completely to produce 112 litre of CO2(g) at STP.
(B) One mole of KMnO4 requires 5 mole of K2C2O4 in presence of H2SO4 to react completely.
(C) One mole of K2C2O4 reacts completely to produce 2 moles of CO2.
(D) The ratio of stoichiometric coefficient of KMnO4 and K2C2O4 in this reaction is 1 : 2.
24. Which of the following hydroxide(s) is/are soluble in excess of NaOH solution?
(A) Zn(OH)2 (B) Al(OH)3
(C) Fe(OH)3 (D) Ni(OH)2
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(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
The process of selectively precipitating an ion from a solution of more than one ion is called selective
precipitation. The selective precipitation of ions from a solution in the form of salt can be done by adding
precipitating agent slowly. AgNO3 solid is slowly added to one litre of a solution (without changing the
10
volume) containing 0.1 mole of Cl and 0.1 mole of PO34 . K sp AgCl 1.2 10 and
K sp Ag3PO 4 2.7 10 18. .
Answer the following questions based on the above paragraph.
26. The concentration of Cl in the solution when Ag3PO4 starts precipitating is
(A) 1.2 × 10 – 9 M (B) 4 × 10 – 11 M
–6
(C) 4 × 10 M (D) 4 × 10 – 5 M
Solid NH4HS was heated at 100oC in a closed container. The following equilibrium was established
NH4HS s
NH3 g H2 S g
KP for the equilibrium was found to be 0.36 atm 2. Answer the following question based on the above
equilibrium.
28. Which of the following statement is correct for the above equilibrium
(A) Addition of NH4HS (s) at equilibrium increases the concentration of NH3(g)
(B) Addition of inert gas at constant volume increases the number of moles of H2S
(C) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure increases the number of moles of NH3(g)
(D) Addition of NH3 at equilibrium increases Kp for the reaction
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. At a certain temperature, the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 0.36 for the reaction
SO 2 g NO2 g
SO3 g NO g
If 1.8 mole each of all the four gases are added in 1 litre container, the number of moles of SO3(g)
at equilibrium is
M M
30. 20 ml of H3PO4 solution is treated with 40 ml of NaOH solution pK a1 ,pK a2 and pK a3 of
10 10
H3PO4 are 2.15, 7.2 and 12.3 respectively. The pH of the resulting solution is
31. Total energy of electron in the 1st orbit of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV/atom. Kinetic energy of
electron in the 1st excited state of Li2+ ion in eV is
32. The half-life of first order decomposition of NH2NO2 is 6.93 hrs. at 12oC. If 6.2 g of NH2NO2 is
allowed to decompose, then the time taken in hrs for 99% decomposition of NH2NO2 is
33. A catalyst decreases activation energy of a reaction from 42 kJ mol -1 to x kJ mole-1. The rate of
reaction in the absence of the catalyst at 500 K is equal to the rate of the reaction in the presence
of catalyst at 450 K. The value of x is:
34. The half-life period of a 1st order reaction is 60 min. What percent of the reactant will be left after
180 min?
35. The weight in gram of K2Cr2O7 required to produce 5.6 L of CO2 at STP from excess of oxalic
acid in H2SO4 is : (MW of K2Cr2O7 = 294)
o
36. The wavelength of radiation in A required to excite an electron in the ground state of He2+ to the
1 o
2nd energy level is: 911.7 A
R
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – A
n2 1! 2! ..... n!
37. If lim , where is a non-zero real number, then
n n
3 1
(A) (B)
4 2
(C) e 3/4 (D) e1/2
38. Ordered triple(s) (a, b, c) of positive reals that satisfy [a]bc = 3, a[b]c = 4, ab[c] = 5 (where [.]
denotes the greatest integer function) is/are
30 30 2 30 30 30 30
(A) , , (B) , ,
3 4 5 3 2 5
20 20 2 20 20 20 20
(C) , , (D) , ,
3 3 5 3 3 5
39. The function f: R R satisfies f(x2)f(x) = f(x)f(x2) x R, given that f(1) = 1 and f(1) = 8, then
(A) f(1) = 2 (B) f(1) = 4
(C) f(1) = 4 (D) f(1) = 2
sinnx
40. For n 0, we have In 1 2x sin x dx , then
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15 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
sin2 x 1
41. Suppose a and b are real numbers such that lim ax
, then
x 0 e bx 1 2
(A) a = 2, b = 2 (B) a = –2, b = –2
(C) a = 2, b = –2 (D) a = –2, b = 2
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
dy
An equation is called variable separable if it is of the form f x g y . In this case we formally
dx
dy
separate the variable and write g y f x dx , which after the integration gives the solution in implicit
form.
x f t
43.
Differentiable function f: R R satisfying the equation f x 1 x 2 1 2
dt is
0 1 t
(A) f(x) = cex(1 – x2) (B) f(x) = cex(1 + x3)
(C) f(x) = cex(1 + x2) (D) f(x) = cex(1 – x3)
44. Suppose f(x) and g(x) are differentiable functions such that xg(f(x))f(g(x))g(x) = f(g(x))g(f(x))f(x)
x
e 2x
x R. Moreover, f(x) is non-negative, g(x) is positive and f g t dt 1 x R.
0
2
If g(f(0)) = 1, then g(f(4)) is
(A) e 16 (B) e8
(C) e4 (D) e2
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
b
If g(x) = f(x), then f(x)dx = g(b) – g(a).
a
2018
ln x
45. Evaluate x dx
1
2016! 2017!
(A) 2019
(B)
2017 2018 2019
2017! 2018!
(C) 2018
(D)
2019 2017 2019
1
2x332 x 998 4x1664 sin x 691
46. The value of integral dx
1 1 x 666
2 2
(A) 1 (B) 1
333 3 333 5
2 2
(C) 1 (D) 1
333 4
333 4
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
1 1
2
47. Let f: R R be a continuous function with f x f x 0 and f x f x dx 18 , then the
0 0
1
4
value of f x f x dx is _____
0
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17 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
48. Let f: R R be a differentiable function such that f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1 and |f(x)| < 2 x R, if a and
1
b are real numbers such that the set of possible values of f x dx is the open interval (a, b),
0
then (b – a) is _____
49. Let f: R R be a continuous function which satisfies the identity f(2x) = 3f(x) x R.
1 2
1
If f x dx 1 , then f x dx is _____
0
21
1
3 2 1
50. Let f 1(x) = f(x) and for n 1 f n1 x f n f x . If f(x) = x 3 x x , then f
2004
x dx is
2 4 0
_____
p2
52. If L = lim xp
x
3
x 1 3 x 1 2 3 x , where L is some non-zero real number, then
L
is _____
tx 1
1 1
53. If e f x dx sin t , then
2 x f x dx is _____
2 2
54. Let f: R+ R be a differentiable function such that the tangent to curve y = f(x) always meets the
y-axis at point whose ordinate is one less than the ordinate of the point of contact. If f(1) = 0, then
1 f 2
e is _____
5
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2019
PART TEST – I
Paper 2
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-D.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐ I and LIST‐ II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐ I and LIST‐ II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Enrolment No.
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C
Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2
Density of water water = 103 kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(SECTION – D)
Correct Method :
0 0 3 4 8 . 4 0
0 0 2 5 1 . 3 7
0 0 2 1 3 . 0 0
Wrong Method :
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 .
2 1 3 . 0
2 1 3 . 0
3 4 8 . 4 0
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 . 0 0
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. A long thin uniform rod lies flat on the table as shown. One end of the
rod is slowly pulled up by a force that remains perpendicular to the rod
at all times. The rod is to be brought to the vertical position without any
slipping of the bottom end? The coefficient of static friction between rod
and ground can be:
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.3
(C) 0.4 (D) 0.5
2. Board A is placed on board B as shown. Both boards slide, without moving with respect to each
other, along a frictionless horizontal surface at a speed v . Board B hits a resting board C “head-
on.”
A A
B C B C
V=0
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
4. A dumbbell consists of a light rod of length r and two small masses m attached to it.
The dumbbell stands vertically in the corner formed by two frictionless planes. After the
bottom end is slightly moved to the right, the dumbbell begins to slide. At the moment
the top end loses contact with the vertical plane:
(A) The acceleration of top mass is g.
(B) Horizontal component of acceleration of bottom mass is zero.
(C) The height of the top mass will be 2r/3.
2
(D) Speed of the bottom mass will be gR .
3
5. Two small spheres of mass m each are attached to the ends of a light rigid rod pivot
bent at a right angle and pivoted in the vertical plane at the vertex of the right
angle. The vertical part of the rod is three times as long as the horizontal part.
Initially, the rod is held at rest in the position shown in the diagram. The pivot is
frictionless. Assume that mass of rods are negligible. Immediately after the
system is released.
3
(A) Horizontal component of acceleration of center of mass of the system is m/s2 towards
10
right.
1
(B) Vertical component of acceleration of center of mass of the system is m/s2 downwards.
20
3mg
(C) Horizontal component of hinge reaction is towards right.
10
19mg
(D) Vertical component of hinge reaction is upwards.
20
6. Two identical uniform cylinders of radius R each are placed on top of each
other next to a wall as shown. After a disturbance, the bottom cylinder slightly
moves to the right and the system comes into motion. Neglect friction
between all surfaces.
(A) The top cylinder will have maximum acceleration g.
(B) The speed of the bottom cylinder will first increase then decrease.
(C) Minimum acceleration of the bottom cylinder is zero.
2
(D) Maximum speed of the bottom cylinder is gR
3
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
R. Velocity of blocks
time
4.
S. Position of block B
time
5.
time
(A) P → 4; Q → 4; R → 1; S→4
(B) P → 3; Q → 3; R → 1; S→3
(C) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S→2
(D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
A (Hinge)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
9. Three identical cylinders are arranged in a triangle as shown in Figure, with (3)
the bottom two lying on the ground. The ground and the cylinders are F (1) (2)
frictionless. You apply a constant horizontal force (directed to the right) on the
left cylinder. Let a be the acceleration you give to the system.
N12 is normal reaction between (1) and (2)
N13 is normal reaction between (1) and (3)
N23 is normal reaction between (2) and (3)
List –II shows various values of a.
Match the functions in List-I with the related charge distributions in List-II.
LIST–I LIST–II (values of a)
P. N12 = 0, N13 0 1. g
2. g
Q. N12 0, N13 0
2 3
3. g
R. N12 0, N13 = 0
4 3
4. g
S. N23 = 0, N13 0
6 3
5. Never possible
(A) P → 3, 4; Q → 2; R → 5; S→1
(B) P → 3, 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S→3
(C) P → 3, 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S→4
(D) P → 3, 3; Q → 1; R → 3; S→4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. The wedge shown in the figure can slide without friction on a m
horizontal tabletop. The mass of the wedge is M and its angle of
o
elevation is α =30 . A body of mass m slides down without friction
along the wedge, the path of the body makes an angle of φ = 60o with
M
the ground. Find the ratio of the masses, m/M.
13. A block is placed on a long and wide inclined plane that makes angle = 45 with the horizontal.
The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the plane is µk = 2. After a quick push, the
block acquires velocity v 0 = 62 m/s that makes angle = 60 with the line of fastest descent.
Find the time interval t during which the block is in motion. (take g = 10 m/s2)
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
15. A ball is thrown at speed v from zero height on level ground. The angle at which the particle is
thrown is such that the area under the trajectory is maximum? If the angle of projection in /k .
Find k .
16. A mass, which is free to move on a horizontal frictionless surface, is (top view)
attached to one end of a massless string that wraps partially around a
frictionless vertical pole of radius r (see the top view in Figure). You
hold on to the other end of the string. At t = 0, the mass has speed v 0 =
1m/s in the tangential direction along the dotted circle of radius R
shown. Your task is to pull on the string so that the mass keeps moving
along the dotted circle. You are required to do this in such a way that
the string remains in contact with the pole at all times. (You will have to
move your hand around the pole, of course.) What is the speed of the hand
R
mass at time t ?
2v 0 tan
17. A mass M collides elastically with a stationary mass m. If M = 2m, then there is a maximal angle
of deflection of M. This maximal angle equals /k radians. Find k .
18. A uniform flexible rope passes over two small frictionless pulleys
h
mounted at the same height (see figure). The length of rope
between the pulleys is = 23 m, and its ‘sag’ is h = 1 m. In
S=?
equilibrium, what is the length s of the rope segments that hang
down on either side?
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19.
For the equilibrium SO 2 g Cl2 g
SO 2Cl2 g , the correct statement(s) is/are
(A) Addition of SO2(g) at constant volume at equilibrium increases the concentration of SO2Cl2(g)
(B) Addition of SO2(g) at constant volume at equilibrium increases the concentration of SO2(g)
(C) Addition of SO2Cl2(g) at constant volume at equilibrium increases the concentration of
SO2Cl2(g)
(D) Addition of inert gas at constant volume at equilibrium increases the concentration of
SO2Cl2 (g)
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
25. Match each set of hybrid orbital from List – I with the molecule or ion given in List - II
LIST–I LIST–II
P. sp2 1. XeF5
Q. sp3 2. NO3
R. sp3d 3. NF4
S. sp3d2 4. SF2Cl2
5. IOF4
6. F2SeO
(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4, 6; S → 1, 5
(B) P → 2; Q → 3, 6; R → 4; S → 1, 5
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3, 5; S→6
(D) P → 6; Q → 3, 6; R → 4, 2; S→1
26. Match the resulting solution in List-I with one or more properties in List – II and choose the correct
option. log2 = 0.3, log5 = 0.7. pKa CH3COOH = 4.74, pKb NH4OH = 4.74,
LIST–I LIST–II
P. 10 ml 0.1 M H2SO4 + 40 ml 0.1 M NH4OH 1. Acidic buffer solution
Q. 20 ml 0.1 M CH3COOH + 16 ml 0.1 M NaOH 2. Basic buffer solution
R. 50 ml 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 ml 0.1 M NaOH 3. pH of the solution is 8.72
S. 10 ml 0.1 M NH4OH + 20 ml 0.1 M NH4Cl 4. pH of the solution is 8.96
5. pH of the solution 9.26
(A) P → 2, 4; Q → 1, 5; R → 3; S→2
(B) P → 2, 3; Q → 1, 4; R → 3, 1; S → 2, 4
(C) P → 5; Q → 1; R → 3, 4; S → 2
(D) P → 2, 5; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2, 4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
27. Match the half-life of the reaction in List-I with the integrated rate equation in List-II(a = initial
concentration of reactant and a – x = concentration of reactant at time ‘t’.)
LIST–I LIST–II
0.586 1. x
P. t1/2 a k
k t
0.693 2. 1 1 1
Q. t1/2 k
k t a x a
a 3. 2
R. t1/2 k a a x
2k t
1 4. 2.303 a
S. t1/2 k log
ka t ax
5. 2 1 1
k
t ax a
(A) P → 5; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(B) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(C) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S→2
(D) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S→5
28. List-I contains carbides and List-II contains the type of carbide and their hydrolysis product.
LIST–I LIST–II
P. Al4C3 1. Covalent carbide
Q. Mg2C3 2. Ionic carbide
R. CaC2 3. CH4
S. SiC 4. C3H4
5. C2H2
(A) P → 2, 3; Q → 2, 4; R → 2, 5; S → 1
(B) P → 1, 3; Q → 1, 4; R → 2, 5; S → 2
(C) P → 2, 4; Q → 1, 3; R → 1, 5; S → 5
(D) P → 2, 5; Q → 2, 4; R → 2, 3; S → 1
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15 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. A first order reaction has a rate constant 5 10 2 s1 . The time required (in sec) for the reaction to
reduce 20 gram of the reactant to 2 g is
30. 20 g of CaCO3 is placed in a vessel of volume 12.315 litre at 1000 K. The following equilibrium
was established.
CaCO3 s
CaO s CO2 g
KP for the reaction at 1000 K is 0.3 atm. The mass of CaCO3 in gram at equilibrium is
31. 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH, 50 ml 0.1 M HCl and 50 ml 0.1 M Ba(OH)2 are mixed together. pKa of
CH3COOH is 4.74. The pH of the resulting solution is
32. The mass of a dust particle is 10-12 g and its velocity is 10-4 cm/sec. The error in the
measurement of velocity is 0.01%. The uncertainty in the measurement of position in A o unit is
h
0.527 10 27 erg sec
4
33. Vapour density of a metal chloride is 85.02. The equivalent weight of the metal is 7.01. The
atomic weight of the metal is
34. In He2+ an electron undergoes transition from 3rd excited state of to 2nd energy level. The
1
wavelength of the light emitted in Ao is 911.7A o
R
35. In the thermal decomposition of NH4NO2, 50% of the compound decomposed in 34.65 min. The
time required in minutes for the 90% decomposition of the compound is
36. The equilibrium constant (KP) for a reaction at 27oC for a homogeneous gaseous reaction is 10-2.
The standard free energy change Go for the reaction in calorie is (R = 2 cal)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
SECTION – A
m
cos x n cos x
37. For two positive integers m and n lim , then which is true?
x 0 x2
1 3
(A) m = 3, n = 2 it is (B) m = 5, n = 2 it is
6 13
1 3
(C) m = 3, n = 2 it is (D) m = 5, n = 2 it is
12 20
ex
38. Let f x and g(x) = f(x), then
1 x2
(A) g(x) has two local maxima and two local minima points
(B) g(x) has exactly one local maxima and one local minima point
(C) x = 1 is a point of local maxima of g(x)
(D) there is a point of local maxima for g(x) in the interval (–1, 0)
minf t , 2 t x, 2 x 0
2
39. Let f(x) = x – 2|x| and g x max f t , 0 t x, 0 x 2 , then g(x) is not differentiable at
f x x2
(A) x = 0 (B) x = –1
(C) x = 2 (D) x = 1
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17 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x
41. The equations of the normals to the curve f x at the points where the tangents make
1 x2
angle of with the positive direction of x-axis are
4
3
(A) x + y = 0 (B) x y
2
3
(C) x y 2 2 (D) x y
2
42. Let f be a function defined for all real x and let it satisfy the relation f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + xy(x + y)
if f(0) = –1, then
(A) f is differentiable for all real x
(B) f is differentiable for all real x
(C) f(3) = 8
1 1
(D) f satisfies the relation f x f f x f x 0
x
x
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
5. 2
6. 0
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19 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
/2
x cos x sin x 3
R. dx 3. tan1
0 x2 sin x 4
1 3
x 3
S. 3 1 x 3 1 x dx 4.
18
1
3
5.
3
2 3
6.
18
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 20
f: R R; f x e x (where [.] denotes the
P. 1. one-one
greatest integer function, and {.} denotes fractional
part function)
2
sgn x
Let f: R R defined as f x e ex (where
Q. 2. many one
sgn x denotes signum function of x, then f(x))
1 1
f: R R; f x x x 2 x (where [.]
R. 2 2 3. into and periodic
denotes the greatest integer function)
x2 x
S. f: [–1, ) (0, ) defined as f x e , then f(x) 4. onto
is
5. periodic
6. constant
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21 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
1 1 1
1
47. If limit lim n
n
2 n
11 22 33 ..... nn n2 = L, then –ln L is _____
48. The positive value of ‘a’ such that the parabola y = x2 + 1, bisects the area of the rectangle with
a
vertices (0, 0), (a, 0), (0, a2 + 1), (a, a2 + 1), then is _____
2 3
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 22
49. Let A – rational number between (0, 1), and a function f: A R has the property that for all x A
1 2001 f 2007
f x f 1 ln x , then the value and e is _____
x 2014
4
k
50. The value of which minimizes F k x 4 x k dx _____
2 0
51. For x a real number, let f(x) = 0 if x < 1 and f(x) = 2x – 2 if x 1. If number of solutions to the
n
equation f f f f x x is n, then
5
is equal to _____
52. For any real 1 denote by f() the real solution to the equation x(1 + ln x) = , then
1 f
lim is _____
2
ln
1 4
x x
6
53. x3 3
2 3 dx = x 6 2x3 3 c , then 2 is equal to _____
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1 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
FIITJEE JEE(Advanced)-2019
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART TEST – I
PAPER-1
1. A, B, C, D 19. A, B, D 37. B, C
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
2. A, C 20. B, C, D 38. A, B
3. A, C, D 21. B, C, D 39. A, B
4. D 22. A, B, C, D 40. A, B
5. A, C, D 23. A, C 41. A, B
6. B, C, D 24. A, B 42. B, C
7. D 25. B 43. C
8. D 26. D 44. A
9. B 27. B 45. D
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
mv 2
3. T mg sin sin = …(i)
g sin
dv
mg sin cos mg cos = m …(ii) P
dt
work energy theorem T f = mg cos
v2/
1
(mg sin ) sin (mg cos ) = mv 2 …(iii)
2 mg sin sin
From (i) and (iii) mg sin cos
T mg sin sin = mg sin sin 2(mg cos )
T = mg (3 sin sin 2 cos )
dT
0 3 sin cos 2 cos
d
4. Mv 0cos + 0 = Mv + mv
v v
e=1=
v 0 cos
v0 m
2Mv 0 cos
v 5g M
Mm
x
Also, x = R/2 and = H
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
3 10
Solving x
4
x 2.37 m
6. Underestimate the work done against friction, and compare it with the initial gravitational potential
energy of the eraser.
First of all, we investigate whether the rubber eraser will start moving at all. It will do so provided
that mg sin α>μmg cos α, i.e. μ< tan α = tan 45◦ = 1. This is clearly the case, since μ = 0.6. So,
the eraser will start moving. The trouble is that the determination of how the normal force acting
on the eraser varies with position is difficult. A calculation of the work done against friction can be
carried out, to any given degree of accuracy, only by using a computer. The trouble is that the
determination of how the normal force acting on the eraser varies with position is difficult.
However, it is certain that the frictional force is always larger than its initial value of μmg cos α =
μmg cos 45◦ This is because, after the initial release, the angle with the horizontal made by the
slope on which the eraser moves decreases, and, in addition, the track has to provide a
centripetal force for the moving eraser. The path to reach the lowest point of the track would be
one-eighth of a circle, with a length of Rπ/4. The work done against friction can now be
underestimated by taking the normal force as if it always had its initial value:
mg R
W f Wund 0.333mgR
2 4
The gravitational potential energy difference between the initial position and the bottom of the
track is ΔEp = mgR(1 − cos α) = mgR(1 − cos 45◦) ≈ 0.293mgR.
It can be seen that |W f| >ΔEp, i.e. the work to be done against friction is clearly larger than what
can be provided by the gravitational potential energy. So, the rubber eraser cannot reach the very
lowest part of the track.
7-8. The pipes just below and just above the sheet which is moving will move the other pipes and the
other pipes will remain in the original place. If the sheet is moved by distance greater then 5 cm
the centre of gravity of the system would fall outside the base and the system will collapse.
P
b 3 2b A
9-10. cos 30 BO =
(BO) 2 3
a
Let P be particle clearly, O
O
3Ti cos = mg
30 2b/3
mg mga B
Ti sec B 2b C
3 3(3a2 4b 2 )
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
SECTION – D
11. Imagine the apex of the cone being depressed by Δh, and the radius of its base consequently
increasing by Δr, i.e. the perimeter of the base circle increases by 2πΔr. Then the total work done
by external forces would be:
wh F(2r) = 0
w h
F
2 r
However, the changes in height and base circle radius are not independent, the connection
between them being determined by the fixed length of one of the straight edges of the sheet.
Using Pythagoras’s theorem:
2 2
r r h h 2 r 2 h2
from which we have
h 2r r r
r 2h h h
So the force in question has magnitude
w r
F =1
2 h
12. The weight of the chain is balanced by the vertical components of the reaction forces at the two
suspension points. The magnitude of each of these components must be F0 = ρLg/2, where is
the mass of the chain per unit length, and L = 40 cm. If the chain made an angle of θ with the
vertical at a suspension point, the horizontal component of the chain’s tension would be F0tan θ.
Because, in practice, θ = 45◦, the horizontal component is the same as the vertical one; it is also
constant along the chain, since there are horizontal forces acting on the chain only at its ends.
At the chain’s lowest point, the tension is purely horizontal, and, as just shown, its magnitude is
F0. So, around the lowest point, consider a small piece of the chain that subtends an angle 2 at
the centre of the osculating circle, whose radius is the value r1 we seek. The length of the piece is
2r1 and it is pulled down by a gravitational force 2r1ρg. This force is balanced by the upward net
force of 2F0sin due to the tension in the chain. In the limit of small angles, when sin ≈ , the
equilibrium equation
2r1ρg = 2F0 sin
leads to
F0 = ρgr1.
Since F0 = ρLg/2, we have the simple result that r1 = L/2 = 20 cm.
13. Method 1: Even though the normal force with the floor does no physical work on the person
(energy transfers occur internally from the muscles), one can write a mathematically correct
expression as though the contact force with the floor does change the person’s energy. Hence,
we can treat the center of mass motion as Wnet = ΔKcm. Here, we are treating it as though only
gravity and the floor act onthe person, and since the person is in contact with the floor until the
h h
center of mass is a position h/2 from the ground, then Ffloor mg 0
4 2
as the student starts and ends this motion at rest. Therefore, Ffloor = 2mg.
Method 2: Since the feet come off the floor at a position h/2 from the ground, then the person
accelerates upward from h/4 to h/2 with the same magnitude as the acceleration from h/2 to 3h/4
by symmetry. Therefore, the net force on the student going upward is the same in magnitude as
the student in free fall from h/2 to 3h/4. Hence, while in contact with the floor, using Newton’s
second law, Ffloor – mg = mg ➯ Ffloor = 2mg.
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
d
14. xmin = d sin (5345) = 2
5 2 v BA
xmin
5345
A B
d
16. Let us call h the height above the ground at which the projectile explodes and v jy (j=1, 2, 3) the y-
component of the velocity at the moment of the explosion for the three fragments. I will label with
1 the fragment which lands after t seconds.
Since the landing time depends only on the y-component of the velocity at the moment of the
explosion, we have: v3y = v2y . We then need only the equations for fragments 1 and 2, stating
that at landing time the y-coordinate will be equal to 0:
gt 2
h v 1y t 0
2
g(2t)2
h v 2y t 0
2
Since the masses of the three fragments are equal, and the y-component of the projectile
momentum at the moment of the explosion is equal to 0 (it explodes at the top of the trajectory),
the momentum conservation law reads:
v1y + v2y + v3y = 0.
The solution of the above equations is then:
3
v1y gt
4
3
v 2 y v 3 y gt
8
The height above the ground at which the projectile explodes is then: h = 5gt2/4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
18. Let Ml be the mass of the left stick, and let Mr be the mass of the right Ff
stick. Then Ml/Mr = tan θ. Let N and Ff be the normal and friction N
forces between the sticks. Ff has a maximum value of µN. Balancing
the torques on the left stick (around the contact point with the ground)
gives N = (Mlg/2) sin θ. Balancing the torques on the right stick
(around the contact point with the ground) gives Ff = (Mrg/2) cos θ.
The condition Ff ≤ µN is therefore
1
Mr cos M1 sin tan2
where we have used Ml/Mr = tan θ.
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19.
PCl5 g
PCl3 g Cl2 g
4 x x x
Total moles at equilibrium = 4 + x + 2 = 6 + x
PV
n
RT
6.568 80
6x
0.0821 800
6 x 8, x 2
2 2 2
PCl5 ,PCl3 .Cl2
80 80 80
2 2
Kc 80 80 0.025
2
80
n
K P K c RT
= 0.025 × 0.0821 × 800
= 1.642 atm
21. B2O3 P2 O5
2BPO4
22. H
O
Cl
Cl C C H
Cl O
H
Chloral hydrate
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
K sp
25. Ag 3
PO34
2.7 10 18
3
0.1
= 3 × 10 – 6 M
K AgCl
26. Cl sp
Ag
1.2 1010
3 10 6
4 10 5
1.8 1.8
29. K c 0.36, Qc 1
1.8 1.8
SO 2 g NO2 g SO3 g NO g
1.8 x 1.8 x 1.8 x 1.8 x
2
1.8 x
Kc 2
1.8 x
2
1.8 x 1.8 x
0.36 2
, 0.6
1.8 x 1.8 x
x 0.45
Number of mole of SO3 = 1.8 – 0.45 = 1.35
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
pK a2 pK a3
pH of Na2HPO4 =
2
7.2 12.3
= = 9.75
2
Z2
31. KE = 13.6 ×
n2
32
13.6 30.6 eV
22
2.303 A o
32. k log
t A
2.303 6.93 0.1
t log
0.693 0.001
t = 46.06
Ea1 Ea 2
33.
T1 T2
42 Ea
2
500 450
Ea2 37.8 kJ
x 37.80
A o
34. A 0.125 A o
23
0.125 A o
% of A left 100 12.50
A o
35. K 2Cr2 O7 4H2SO 4 3H2 C2O 4 6CO 2 7H2O Cr2 SO4 3 K 2 SO 4
134.4 L of CO2 produced by K2Cr2O7 = 294 g
294
5.6 L of CO2 produced by K2Cr2O7 5.6
134.4
= 12.25 g
1 2 1 1
36. R Z 2 2
1 2
1 3
R 4
4
1 1 1o
911.7 A
R 3 3
o
303.90 A
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
1
37. ln = lim [ln 1 + (ln 1 + ln 2) + (ln 1 + ln 2 + ln 3) + .....] – ln n
n n2
1 2 n n n 1
nln n 1 ln ..... ln lnn
n n n 2 n 1 2n 1 n n 1 r r
= lim 2
lnn = lim lnn + ln
n n n 2n n r 1 n n
1
1 3
2
and ln = 1 x ln x dx 4
0
60
38. Let p = abc and q = [a] [b] [c]. So, q is an integer and p
q
q min{[a]bc, a[b]c, ab[c]} = 3 q {1, 2, 3}
If q = 1 ab[c] < 4 but ab[c] = 5 no solution
60
If q = 3, as p max{[a]bc, a[b]c, ab[c]} = 5 and p no solution
q
q = 2 and p = 30 . Since q is a product of 3 positive integer, we have 3 cases
2 120
If [a] = 2, then a 30 3 no solution
5 9
30 30 30
If [b] = 2, then solution is , ,
3 2 5
30 30 2 30
If [c] = 2, then solution is , ,
3 4 5
39. Let f(1) = a and f(1) = b, putting x = 1 in the given equation we get b = a2
Differentiating the equation and putting x = 1 gives 2ab + 8 = ab + 2ab ab = 8
So, a = 2, b = 4
0
sinnx sinnx
40. In 1 2x sin x dx dx
0 1 2 sin x
x
sinnx sinnx sinnx
In dx dx = dx [Putting –x for x in 1st integral]
0 1 2 sin x
x
0 1 2 sin x
x
0
sin x
sin n 2 n sinnx
In 2 In dn 2 cos n 1 x dx = 0 if n N
0
sin x 0
If n is even In = I0 = 0, and if n is odd In = I1 =
42. lim
ln 2 x 1 1+ a+ b= 0
x 1 x 2 ax b
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
2ln 2 x
Using LH-Rule, we have lim 1 a + 2 = 0 a = –2, b = 1
x 1 x 2 2x a
43.
f x
1
x
f t
dt
f x 1 x 2 f x 2x
f x
f x
2x f x
f x
2 2
1 x 2 2 2
1 x2
0 1 t
1 x 1 x
f x 2x
= 1 ln f(x) = x + ln(1 + x 2) + ln c f(x) = cex(1 + x2)
f x 1 x2
xf g x g x g f x f x
44. Given equation implies
f g x g f x
d d
dx
lng f x x
dx
–2x
ln f g x 2x (as f(g(x)) = e ),
2
g(f(x)) = Ae x and g(f(0)) = 1 A = 1
dx 2017x 2018 dx dx
1 x 2018 2017x 2017 1
2017 1 x 2018
1
2018! dx = 2018!
= ..... = 2018
2017 2018 x
1
2017 2019
1
2x332 x 998 4x1664 sin x 691
46. I 2 dx , (as is an odd function and rest of the integrand is even)
0 1 x666 1 x666
1 332
1 333
Put x t 333 dx t dt
333
332 998
1 332 1
2 2t 333 t 333 333 2 2 t2 2
I 2
t dt = 2
dt = 1
333 0 1 t 333 0 1 t 333 4
SECTION – D
1
1 f x 2
47. f x f x dx = 2 0 f(0) = f(1)
0
0
1
1 f x 3
2
f x f x dx =
3
18 f(1) = 3 and f(0) = –3
0
0
48. Lines with slope 2 and passing through (0, 0) and (1, 1) are y = 2x and y – 1 = 2(x – 1)
respectively.
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
1 1
2n 1 2n 1
1 Sn 1 S0
49. Let Sn 1 f x dx, then Sn 3 1 f 2x dx 6 ..... 6n
2n 2n
n11 1
1 2 2n 2 1 S0
f x dx nlim
f x dx f x dx ..... f x
1 1 1 5
1 S0 = 5
0
2n 2n 1 2
f
2004
x dx 1 f 2004 1 x dx = 1 f 2004 1 x dx 1 f 2004 x dx (Put 1 – x for x)
0 0 0 0
p 7 1
51. If x1, x2, x3 and x4 are the root of p then 0 (as 7 is not a root of p(x))
p 7 7 xi
1 1 1 1 89
0 x4
7 1 7 3 7 5 7 x4 11
d tx d 1 1
53. e f x dx x etx f x dx sin1 t =
dt
dt 2 1
2
1 t
2
Putting t = 0, x f x dx 2
54. The tangent at (x, f(x)) meets the y-axis at (0, f(x) –1)
1
f(x) = f(x) = ln x + c and f(1) = 0 c = 0
x
*****
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1 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
FIITJEE JEE(Advanced)-2019
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART TEST – I
PAPER-2
1. C, D 19. A, B, C 37. C, D
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
2. A, B 20. A, C 38. B, D
3. C, D 21. C, D 39. A, B, C
4. A, B, C 22. A, B, C 40. A, B, C, D
5. A, B, C, D 23. A, C 41. A, B, D
6. A, C 24. C, D 42. A, B, C, D
7. C 25. B 43. D
8. A 26. D 44. C
9. A 27. B 45. B
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
2. First consider the situation immediately after the perfectly inelastic collision between B and C but
before A has begun to slip onto C; label this as the initial configuration “i.” Clearly v Ai = v and vBi =
vCi = v/2 by momentum conservation. On the other hand, in the end (labeled “f”) all three masses
have the same final speed, so that v Af = v Bf = vCf = 2v/3 by again applying momentum
conservation. The sum of the kinetic energies of the boards thus changes by
ΔK = (KAf + KBf + KCf) – (KAi + KBi + KCi) = (mv2/12) …(1)
where m is the mass of each board. This net loss in mechanical energy is the result of the non
L
conservative “internal work” done by friction, WNC fdx A fdx C 0 fd x A x C …(2)
where the equal and opposite internal force of friction between blocks A and C is given by
f = µkN = µk mg(xA-xC)/L …(3)
with L the length of each board. Here, xA and xC are the rightward displacements of blocks A and
C from their initial positions; the ratio (x A – xC)/L thus gives the fraction of block A, which is on top
of block C, and hence the ratio of the normal force N of A on C to the weight mg of A. Substitute
Eq. (3) into Eq. (2) to find
mg L2 …(4)
WNC K
L 2
It is worth pausing to note that it would have been extremely difficult to attempt to separately
calculate the two frictional work terms in the middle expression in Eq. (2)! Finally equate the right-
hand sides of Eqs. (1) and (4) to obtain the answer,
v2
L
6 k g
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
v1 v 2
3. e=1= …(i)
2 2g
Momentum conservative m
M
M 2g m 2g mv1 Mv 2 …(ii) v2 v1
2g 2g
Solving (i) and (ii) Before After
3M m collision collision
v1 2gL 5gl
Mm
M 5 2
1.82 =1.82
m 3 2 5
4. Since the normal force on the top mass is zero and the horizontal
acceleration of the top mass is zero at the instant it loses con-tact with N
y r
the wall, the tension in the rod at that moment must be zero. Thus, mg
free-body diagrams for the two masses are as sketched below
Therefore, the top mass has downward velocity v = – dy/dt and x
mg
acceleration g = – d 2y/dt2,
While the bottom mass has rightward velocity u = dx/dt and zero acceleration. But y = (r2-x2)1/2.
dy x dx xu
v
dt r x dt
2 2 y
d2 y u dx xu dy u2 xuv
g 2
dt 2 y dt y 2 dt y y
1
mg r y m u2 v 2
2
x2 u 2r 2
2g r y u2 1 2 gy
y y2
2 8gr
y r u
3 27
5. According to Newton’s third law, the force Fsp that the system (s) exerts on the pivot (p) is
opposite to the force Fps that the pivot exerts on the system, Fsp = –Fps. Then, we can use
Newton’s second law to first deduce Fps and so to obtain the required force Fsp. The physical
situation is represented in the figure below.
y Fps
F
Fnet
x
mg D
2mg
CM 3
acm
mg
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
6. Consider a moment when the center of top the cylinder has moved
down a distance xT and the center of the bottom cylinder has moved 2R
to the right a distance xB. At this moment, the cylinders are moving 2R xT
with speeds v T and v B, respectively. From Fig. , v T and v B,
respectively. From Fig., xB
xT = 2R(1-cosθ)
Also, energy conservation gives:
v 2 v T2
m B mgxT 2mgR 1 cos
2
2 2
x B 2 2R x T 2R
Differentiating w.r.t. time
vT = vBxB/(2R – xT) = vB tan θ.
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Eliminating v T from the energy conservation equation gives v B2 = 4gR(1 – cos θ)/(1 + tan2θ).
Setting the derivative with respect to θ equal to zero gives
cos θm = 2/3
for the angle θm at which vB is maximum. At this point, the speed of the bottom cylinder is
16gR
vB .
27
Mathematically, it appears that the speed decreases after θm. However, for this to happen, the
acceleration and, therefore, the horizontal force must be directed to the left (negative) for angles
greater than θm. But the contact force on the bottom cylinder by the top cylinder cannot be
directed to the left. Therefore, the bottom cylinder loses contact with the top one and moves off at
16gR
the maximum speed of vB
27
2 fs N N
2 2 1 h F2
h
2
1 A F1
1
h 1 hmax 2m
1 2 mg
fs = 3 N
N 4N
FH = 5 N.
g
9. (P) a 3, 4
3 3
g g
(Q) a 2
3 3 3
(R) 5
g
(S) a 1
3
M 2 A
10. Mg mg m 2
2 3 B
M
2 m g 40 mg
rad / s2 mg
M
m 3
3
40
mg F1 m 1
3
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
40 10
i.e. F1 10
3 3
20 40
Mg mg FH M m
3 3
40
40
3
160
70 FH
3
160 50
FH 70
3 3
SECTION – D
m tan 60 tan30
2
M tan30
5v o
12. (Apply conservation of energy)
2
13. Because the block does not accelerate off the plane surface, the y
normal force N that the surface exerts on the block (of mass m) f
must balance the component of the block’s weight perpendicular to i
the plane, so that N =mg cos θ, and thus the kinetic frictional force x
O
is f k = µk mg cos θ. On the other hand, the following sketch shows
the path of the block (between its initial position “i” and final position
“f ”) and the components of the forces acting on it in the plane of the
incline. I have chosen coordinates with x down the incline and y O
perpendicular to it. A tangent to the block’s path makes angle f with
mg sin
respect to the x-direction, with φi = α . (It is interesting to note that φ
must be zero because the block’s final speed and hence its final
centripetal acceleration must approach zero, which can only
happen if the frictional force points up the plane, opposite the
weight component down the plane.)
Newton’s second law in the x-direction, after dividing both sides by the block’s mass, becomes
dv x
gsin k gcos cos (1)
dt
where u is the block’s speed, with initial value u0. Writing down the y-component of Newton’s
second law introduces sin , which leads to a mess. A better choice is to instead write down the
tangential component of Newton’s second law (noting that any direction other than x would give
an independent equation),
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
dv
gsin sin k gcos (2)
dt
Solve Eq. (1) for cos φ (which is the only time-dependent quantity on the right-hand side of these
two equations) and substitute it into Eq. (2) to get
dv dv
k gcos tan2 k 2 tan x
dt dt
after simplifying. Now integrate both sides over the time t from the initial to the final point to obtain
k 0 v 0 gcos tan2 k 2 t tan 0 v o cos
v o k tan cos
t
gcos k 2 tan2
14. The rolled part of the carpet is a cylinder, and its mass is
proportional to x. Applying conservation of mechanical
2
1 1 dx x sin
1 x x g
energy, 2 2 dt 2
2
dx 2 2gx sin
v
dt
3
g
acarpet
i.e. 3.
For the cylinder,
3
mv 2 mgx sin
4
2g
acyl
i.e. 3
t1 acyl
2
t2 acarpet
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
v
dv tan t
dt
v0 v2 R 0
1
1 1 (tan )t 1 (tan )t
v(t) …(ii)
v0 v R v0 R
The speed v becomes infinite when
R
tT …(iii)
v 0 tan
This means that you can keep the mass moving the desired circle only up to time T. After that, it
is impossible. (Of course, it will become impossible, for all practical purposes, long before v
becomes infinite.) The total distance d = vdt, is infinite, because this integral diverges (barely,
like a log) as t approaches T.
17. Let’s figure out what the collision looks like in the CM frame. If M has initial speed V in the lab
frame, then the CM moves with speed VCM = MV /(M +m). The speeds of M and m in the CM
frame therefore equal, respectively,
mV MV U
U = V VCM = , and u = VCM
Mm Mm u
In the CM frame, the collision is simple. The particles keep the U
same speeds, but simply change their directions (while still moving u
in opposite directions), as shown in Figure.
The angle θ is free to have any value. This scenario clearly satisfies Vlab
conservation of energy and momentum, so it must be what happens.
The important point to note is that since θ can have any value, the tip
VCM U
of the U velocity vector can be located anywhere on a circle of radius
U. If we then shift back to the lab frame, we see that the final velocity
of M with respect to the lab frame, Vlab, is obtained by adding VCM to
the vector U, which can point anywhere on the dotted circle in Figure.
A few possibilities for Vlab are shown. The largest angle of deflection mV
is obtained when Vlab is tangent to the dotted circle, in which case we Mm
max
have the situation shown in Figure.
MV
Mm
T cos T0 …(1)
s T
T sin s g …(2) P(x, y) X
T0 O
dy dy g
tan s …(3)
dx dx T0
dy ds sin
Further: …(4)
dx ds cos
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
T T0 gy …(5)
2
sg
And, T 2 T02 …(6)
2
Using these and T = gs, we get,
2 4h2
S s , y h
8h
Alternative Solution:
It can be shown that the difference between the tensions in the rope at two arbitrary points on it
(denoted by A and B), e.g. the centre and the right-hand pulley, depends only on the height
difference between the points and the linear mass density of the rope. In an obvious notation:
FB − FA = g(hB − hA).
To prove this, consider the energy changes that would be involved if a small length of rope were
(notionally) cut out from the neighbourhood of point A and inserted close to point B.
Any arbitrary piece of the rope is in equilibrium, and so the horizontal component of the tension in
the rope between the pulleys is constant (equal to F1, say). The vertical component changes from
point to point; it is zero in the middle, and at the pulleys is equal to half the weight of the ‘sagging’
section, namely (/2)g, where λ is the linear mass density of the rope.
As illustrated in figure, we imagine a small F2
(g)/2
piece of the rope, of length , cut out from
the middle of the system, and re-inserted
F1
into the rope near one of the pulleys! What
energy changes are involved?
Closing the gap in the middle of the rope h F2
requires work F1Δl to be done, while the /2
work required to lift the small piece against
F1 (g)/2
gravity is λ Δl gh. Inserting it at the pulley
actually allows some energy to be
recovered, but formally the work required
to do this is −F2 Δl.
As a result of these changes, we have done no more than return the rope to its initial state! It
follows that the total work done must be zero, and so
F1 Δl + λ Δl gh − F2 Δl = 0,
showing that
F2 − F1 = λgh.
The same thought experiment could have been carried out for any arbitrary pair of points on the
rope, and so it is generally true that ‘the difference in tension forces at two arbitrary points of the
rope is directly proportional to the height difference between those points’.
As can be seen in Fig. 1, the connection between the rope tension F2 (at the pulley) and its
components is
2
lg
F2 2 F12
2
A third equation, one that involves s, can be established by recognising that the hanging rope
segments are each held in place by a force of strength F2:
F2 = λgs.
From equations (1) and (3), we have that F1 = λg(s − h). Substituting this into (2) gives the final
result for the length of the hanging segments as
l 2 4h 2
s
8h
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. Increase in concentration of the reactant shifts the equilibrium in the forward direction and vice
versa.
2n
23. General formula of cyclic silicate is SiO3 n
1
27. P → Order of the reaction
2
Q → 1st order reaction.
R → zero order reaction
nd
S → 2 order reaction.
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
2.303 a
29. t log
k ax
2.303 20
log
5 10 2 2
= 46.06
30. Kp = PCO2
0.3 12.315
n 0.045 (n = number of moles of CO2 at equilibrium)
0.0821 1000
Mole of CaCO3 = 0.2 – 0.045 = 0.155
Wt. of CaCO3 = 0.155 × 100 = 15.50
CH3 COO
pH = pKa + log
CH3COOH
5
pH = 4.74 + log = 4.74
5
h
32. x
4m V
6.625 10 27
4 3.14 10 12 108
0.527 10 7 5.27 10 8 cm
o
= 5.27 A
1 1 1
34. R Z2 2 2
n1 n2
1 1 1
R 4 2 2
2 4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
1 3
R 4
16
1 4 4
911.7 A o
R 3 3
o
1215.60A
SECTION – A
mn
cosn x mn cosm x
37. We may assume m > n lim
x 0 x2
lim
cosn x cosm x
lim
cosn x 1 cosm n x
2
x 0 mn 1 mn 1 x 0 mn x
x 2 mn cosn x
..... mn cosm x
lim
1 cosm n x 1 cos x 1 cos x ..... cos
m n 1
mn
lim
1 cos x m n
x 0 mn x 2 mn x 2 mn x x2 2mn
x 1 x3 3x2 5x 1 e x
38. g x 3
x 2
1
Now, x3 – 3x2 + 5x + 1 is strictly increasing and has a root in (–1, 0)
f x ; 2 x 1
f 1 ; 1 x 0
39. g x
f 0 ; 0 x 1
f x ; x2
f 2, 1 f 1, 2
40. We see that f(1, 1) = 1 and f(1, 2) = 1 and f 2, 1 1
2 2
So, f(1, 2) = f(2, 1) = 2, then f(3, 1) = f(1, 3) = 3
f(x, y) = x·y; xy 0
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
3 3
Now, x = 0, y = 0; x = 3,y= ;x= 3 ,y=
2 2
x f(x) + lim x f x
x
x f x x f x
lim x f x lim
lim lim f x
x x x x x x
e 1
f x g x
e e
f x g x
g x
(Q) lim ; lim e use L.H. Rule
x a f x g x x f x g x
f x g1
ga e f x g x
e ; ega eln 2 = 2
f x g x
(R) Replacing f by f if necessary, we may assume f(b) > f(c) hence f(a) > f(c)
So be an absolute minimum of f on [a, b] which exists became the function is continuous
then (a, b) and therefore f() = 0
x b
b
ea e x ab ab ab
(S) I dx put t x we have dx 2 dt
a
x x t t
ab bt b t b t
a a b
e at e ab ab e t ea e t ea
I
ab
2 dt ; I dt = t dt I I = 0
b t b
t a
t
x2
44. (P) Let dx (replace x by –x)
1 sin x 1 sin2 x
x2 2
1 1
I 1 sin x dx ; 2I x dx
2 2
1 sin2 x 1 sin x 1 sin x 1 sin x 1 sin x
3
2 2
= x dx ; 2I 2 x dx ; I
3
0
1 1 dx dy 1
(Q) Let y , dy 2 dx then 2 2 ; tan1 x tan1 y ; tan1 ; cot–1 x
x x x x 1 y y 1 2 x
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
2 2 tan1 y 2
1 tan1 x dx 2 3
2 dx 2 2 = =
x2 x 1 18
2 1/2 x x 1 1/2 y y 1 4 1/2
cos x sin x
/2 2
(R) x x dx ; Put sin x t
2
0 sin x x
1
x
2/
x cos x sin x dt
tan1 x ; tan1 2
2/
dx dt ; 1 t2 ; 1
x2 1
4
(S) As function is odd
45. (P) |ex| = (0, ) x R ; {|ex|} [0, 1) ; [{|ex|}] f(x) is constant i.e. many one
sgn x 2
(Q) f x e ex ;
x=0 f(0) = 2
2
x>0 f(x) = e + e x
1 2
x<0 f(x) = ex
e
f(x) is many one
A sin1 x x x 2 dx sin1 x x x 2 dx
1 0
= 1
(Q) Area will be minimum if (0, 2) is mid-point of chord
(R) 1 |X| + |Y| 2 Y
1
A 4 2 6
2
X
(2, 0)
(1, 0)
k
k 2 1
2 x2 k2 1
(S) A x kx
dx 2
k 1
0 2
6 k 1
6 k2 2 2
k
By A.M. G.M. equality holds k = 1
SECTION – D
1
1 1 1 n 1
47. Taking log 1 lnn 2 k lnk xln x 4
2 n n k 1 0
1
L= e 4
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15 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
2006 1
g x , g g x
2007 2006
2007
So, that f(2007) = log
2006
f –1(k) = 1 k = 3
51. Clearly 0, 2 are fixed points of f and therefore solution.
On the other hand, then is no solution for x < 0, since f is non-negative valued
For 0 < x < 2, we have 0 f(x) < x < 2 and f(0) = 0
For x > 2, f(x) > x so there is no other solution
52. Let h(x) = x(1 + ln(x)); h: [1, ) [1, )
h(x) is strictly increasing and h(1) = 1, lim h x
x
Hence, h(x) is Bijective
So inverse of h(x) clearly f: [1, ) [1, ); f()
1
Now, f x
2 ln f
1
f f
By using L. Hospital rule lim lim
1 1
ln 2 ln
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
f 2 ln f
= lim 2 lnf x = lim 1
1 ln f
1
53. x5 x2 x6 2x3 3 dx ; x6 + 2x3 = t; (6x5 + 6x2) dx = dt
1 4 4
dt 1 3 3 1 6
t3 t c =
6 6 4 8
x 2x3 3 c
*****
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2018-19
PAPER –1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01– 07, 19 – 25, 37 - 43) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 - 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns and
4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows
designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S).
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
Section-C (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 - 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
Z
1.
The electric field in the space is given by E E0 xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ .
Consider a right circular cylindrical surface whose radius is ‘a’
and height ‘h’, as shown in the figure.
Now choose the correct option(s).
Y
X O
Ans. A, B, C
Sol. Let, S1, S2 and S3 be the surface areas of the lower circular base, upper circular top and lateral
surface of the cylinder respectively.
1 E.dS 0 …(1)
S1
2 E.dS a2hE0 …(2)
S2
3 E.dS E0 r .dS …(3)
S3 S3
xiˆ yjˆ x2 y 2
r .dS xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ .
a dS
a
dS
Putting this value in equation (3), we have
3 aE0 dS aE0 2ah 2a 2hE0
S3
Second Method
E 3E 0 30E0
0 0
Qen Total charge enclosed within the cylinder = a2h
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3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
3 a2h0E0
Q
Total flux = en 3a2hE0
0
2. Consider two current carrying loops in x-y plane, carrying current I1 and I2 respectively as shown
in the figure.
y
D
A C x
B I2
I1
Loop-2
Loop-1
Now consider two arbitrary elementary current elements AB & CD of lengths d 1 and d 2 on the
loop-1 and loop-2 respectively. Let dF12 be the force which the current carrying element I2 d 2
exerts on the current carrying element I1d 1 & F12 represent the net force on 1st loop by the 2nd
loop, developed due to interaction between current carrying loops. Similarly dF21 be the force
which the current carrying element I1 d 1 exerts on the current carrying element I2 d 2 & F21
represent the net force on 2nd loop by the 1st loop, developed due to interaction between current
carrying loops. Choose the correct option(s)
(A) dF12 dF21 0
(B) dF12 dF21 0
(C) F12 F21 0
(D) F12 F21 0
Ans. B, C
Sol. dB12 Magnetic field at any point on the elementary element AB due to current carrying element
I2d 2 .
0 I2 d r12
dB12
4 r12 3
dF12 I1d 1 dB12
0 I1d 1 I2 d 2 r12
3
4 r12
The force dF12 will be in the plane of loop and perpendicular to the current carrying element I1d i
(say along p̂12 ).
Similarly dF21
0 I2 d 2 I1d 1 r21 [Say along p̂21 ]
3
4 r21
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
3. Consider an isolated sphere of radius ‘b’, made of a material with permittivity 0 and electrical
conductivity , whose volume charge density varies with time t and is given as
e t / if 0 r a
0
0 if a r
Where 0 and 0 < a < b. The spherical layer between radii ‘a’ and ‘b’ is neutral. Then choose
the correct option(s).
a3 0
(A) The surface charge density at outer surface of sphere is at t n2.
8b2
(B) The total current in the region 0 < r < a increases with the radius.
(C) The electric field in the region b < r < is independent of time.
(D) The total current in the region a < r < b is independent of radius.
Ans. B, C, D
4 3 t /
a 0 e Q0 e t / if 0ra
Sol. Q t 3
0 if a r b
4 3
Here Q0 a 0
3
According Gauss’ Law, we can write
Q0 r e t /
3
if 0 r a
40 a
t /
Q e
E 0 2 if a r b
40 r
Q
0
2
if b r
40 r
Using conservation of charge we can write surface charge density at the outer surface of sphere
as,
Q Q t Q0
0
4 b 2
4b2
1 e t /
1
If t n2 1 e n2 ,
2
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5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
3
4 3 1 1 a 0
So, a 0
3 4b2 2 6b2
J = current density = E
I = current = Jr2
Hence in the region 0 r a, the volume is source of conduction current while the region a < r <
b has no source of conduction current.
4. The variation of potential along x-axis is shown in the figure. The potential does not vary along
the y-axis or z-axis. Ignore the behaviour at the end points of interval. Now choose the correct
option(s) for given interval –3m < x < 3m.
Vx(in volt)
b
15
e
10
5 c d
X(metre)
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3
–5
a –10
(B) An electron is released at point (– 1m, 0), it will move along positive x-axis.
(C) A proton is released at point (1.5 m, 0), it will move along positive x-axis.
(D) An electron is released at point (– 2.5 m, 0), it will move along positive x-axis.
Ans. A, D
Sol. Ex
10/3
x
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3
–25
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
–5Q
X
O P(3a, 0)
(0, –4a)B
+3Q
(A) Work was done on the external agent who assembled these charges in moving them
from infinity to the point.
(B) The electric field at point P is Ep E X ˆi E y ˆj, then Ex is negative and Ey is positive.
(C) The electric field at point P is Ep E x ˆi E y ˆj, then both Ex and Ey are negative.
975Q
(D) A positive charge has to be put at point P to make the potential energy of system
8
of all four point charges to be zero.
Ans. A, C
L R
V
(A) I
R
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7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
V
(B) I
2R
L
(C) R
2C
L
(D) R
C
Ans. B, D
V
Rt
V RCt
Sol. I1 1 e
, and
L
I2 e
R R
According to question at t = RCn2, we have
Rt Rt t
V V RCt
I1 I2 1 e
L
e 1 e L
e RC
…………..( 1)
R R
t
1
Given t = RCn2 e RC e n2 , Putting this value in equation (1), we have
2
L
R
C
Rt Rt
1 1 Rt R
1 e L e L n2 RCn2 n2
2 2 L L
(A) The rod will perform periodic motion, but not SHM
4
(D) The amplitude of oscillation of rod is metre.
Ans. B, C, D
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 8, 9 and 10 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns
of the following table.
V0
A
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9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Column –1 shows the processes. Column –2 shows the work done in that process and Column
–3 shows the energy supplied in that process.
Column – 1 Column – 2 Column – 3
Ans. A
Ans. C
Ans. C
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
R
C CV
1 x
3R R
R
2 2
The work done by the gas during the process BC is
nRT 2R 900
WBC 900R
1 x 1 3
5R
Q AB nCpT 2 1200 300 4500R
2
QBC nCT 2 R 300 1200 1800R
V
QCA WCA nRT0 ln 0 2R300 3n2 1800R 0.7 1260R
8V0
Wcycle Qcycle Q AB QBC QCA 4500R 1800R 1260R = 1440 R
Wcycle 1440R
Efficiency, 100 100 32%
Qsup plied 4500R
Answer 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
R2 i2
Vb R1
C qi
ib i1 K
11. In which of the following cases, will the current i1 = 5/3 A, initially?
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11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. B
12. In which of the following cases will the net charge flowing through the capacitor be equal to 300
C?
Ans. C
13. In which case will the current through R decay exponentially to zero with a time constant of 0.2
ms?
Ans. B
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
Ans. 4
Sol. Since rate of heat flow remains same in both the cases, so
2R R
dx dx
R k2 x R nk 4k n = 4
4
nk 2 x 2
Ans. 3
8 2 2 6 8V 6V
Sol. I = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 = 8V 10 V 4V
10 8 4 2 O
32 10 20 120 78
Amp
40 40 10 I1 8 I2 4 I3 2 I4 A
I
O O O
O
16. To disperse all the mass of the Earth to infinity against its own gravitational field would require
2.4 1032J of energy. Mass of the earth is 6 1024 kg and radius of earth is 6400 km. Since earth
is mostly iron, therefore, its specific heat capacity is about 500J kg1 K1. Assuming that the earth
was formed by very cold objects falling from a great distance away, if its maximum possible
temperature soon after its formation is 104 K. Find the value of
Ans. 8
Ans. 4
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13 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Sol. C1 120 a C1
4 0 b a
C2 8 0 a
ba
A B
C eq C1 C2 200 a
C2
18. A current I = 20 ampere flows through a wire shaped in the form of an infinite parabola of latus
rectum 4a (a = 1 mm). If the magnetic field at the focus of the parabola is 10 tesla, where
and are the positive integer, less than 9. Find the value of .
Ans. 6
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
(A) Major part of energy needed for the heterolysis of C – X bond in SN1 reaction mechanism
-
is obtained by the solvation of X by polar protic solvent.
(B) Greater solvation of attacking nucleophile and poor solvation of transition state promotes
the reaction by SN2 mechanism.
(C) Increase in the number of phenyl ring at C of C – X causes a shift in mechanism from SN1
to SN2.
(D) Allyl and benzyl halides shows both SN1 and SN2 reaction.
Ans. B, C
(A) NH2 – NH2 does not give Lassaigne’s test for detection of nitrogen.
O O
|| ||
(D) NH2 C NH C NH2 gives Biuret test.
Ans. A, B, D
Sol. HgCl2 HCOOH Hg CO2 2HCl
Grey deposit
21. CH3
Na O
Liq.NH A
Zn Product
3
3
Which of the following product can be obtained as major product(s) in above reaction?
(A) O O
H C CH2 C H
(B) O O
H3C C CH2 C H
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15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(C) CHO
H3C HC
CHO
(D) O O
H3C C CH2 C CH3
Ans. A, B
22. The major product A and B in the following reaction sequence are:
O
i NaBH
Dimer ii TsOH
4
A B
(A) O
(B) O
(C) O
(D)
C
Ans. B, D
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
Sol. O
O
4 2 cycloaddition
O O
NaBH4
OH
H OH
C H
TsOH
CH3
O O
+
O
O
23. Which of the followings will give cyclic product upon heating?
(A) COOH
H3C CH2 CH2 CH2 HC
OH
(B) OH
H3C CH CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH
(C) OH
H3C CH2 CH CH2 CH2 COOH
(D) OH
Ans. A, B, C
O
B, C form lactone
H3C O O H 5C 2 O O
(A) In carboxylate, nucleophile prefer to attack on acyl carbon while in sulfonates nucleophile
prefer to attack on alkyl carbon.
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17 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. A, B, C
Sol. O O
Nu
R C OR R C Nu R O
O O
Nu
R S OR
R S O R Nu
O O
Sulfonoic acid is stronger acid than carboxylic acid.
(A) Sucrose has a pyranose and a furanose ring hold together by glycosidic linkage.
(B) Maltose has one glycosidic linkage and free hemiaccetal form
(D)
Go for reaction, D Glucose
D Glucose, is positive .
Ans. A, B
D Glucose
D Glucose
Sol.
36% 64%
64% 16
K eq 1.77
36% 9
Go 2.303RT logk eq ve
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer Q. 26, Q. 27 and Q. 28 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
Ans. B
Ans. A
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19 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. B
Answer Q. 29, Q. 30 and Q. 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
HCHO
COOH
Formaldehyde
Ans. A
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 20
Ans. B
Ans. C
SECTION – C
Single Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
32.
KOH
EtOH
Br
A B C
1.99 gram of A on above reaction produces 1.062 gram mixture of B and C ratio of 2 : 1. if
percentage of B formed will be x % then find the value of x/10.
Ans. 6
118 1.99
Sol. The theoretical yield will be 1.18 gram
199
1.062
Hence percentage yield will be 100% 90%
1.18
2
Hence, B formed will be 90% 60%
3
x = 6.
33.
NH2
NaNO2
HCl, A
B
COOH
What is the double bond equivalent of B.
Ans. 6
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21 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Sol.
NH2
COOH
34. How many of given below compounds will form red colour with HNO2 and followed by addition of
NaOH?
(CH3)2CHNO2, CH3CH2-NO2, (CH3)3NO2,
H
C NO 2
NO 2 ,
,
H3C HC NO 2
Ans. 1
Sol. HNO2
CH3 CH2 NO 2 NaOH
CH3 C NO 2 CH3 C NO2
+
N OH N ONa
Nitrolic acid Red colour
35. Find the number of nucleophile whose nucleophilicity is greater than pyridine in SN2 reaction
RS , ArS ,I ,CN ,OH ,F ,NO3
Ans. 5
i TsOH
ii A B
O
How many oxygen atoms are there in B.
Ans. 2
Sol. O
Ph P CHCOOEt C
Ph CHO
3
Ph LiAlH4
OEt Ph OH
A
O
i TsOH
ii A Ph O
O
B
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 22
SECTION – A
tanb
37. If obtuse angle bisectors of the lines tan2 bx + 4y + 7 = 0 and x y2 0; b , is
4 2 2
tanb
x y 2
tan2 bx 4y 7 4
, then b can lie in the interval
tan4 b 16 2
tan b
1
16
(A) 4 , 12
(B) 4, 0
(C) 12 , 18
(D) 12 , 4
Ans. A, B, C
(A) 31
(B) [ + ] = 18
(C) 2
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23 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
2
(D) 11
Ans. A, B, C, D
4x
39. If f x sin1 , then
4 x2
(A) f
8 2 2 tan1 2 1
2
(B) f 12 3 3
3 1 3
(C) f 2 tan
8 2 8 2
(D) f 2 tan1
2
Ans. A, B, C, D
1 x
2 tan ; x 2
2
4x x
Sol. sin1 2
2 tan1 ; 2 x 2
4 x 2
x
2 tan1 ; x2
2
Ans. A, B, C
Sol. 12 2 2 2 2 2 2 5 2
Line is y = x + 2 and P(, + 2) is any point on this line and A (2, 5) and B(–1, 2)
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41. Let ABC be a triangle and D be the mid-point of side BC. Suppose DAB = BCA and DAC =
15º, then
Ans. A, C
AD BD CD AD
Sol. ,
sinB sin sin 15º sin
Finally, we get ADC is obtuse
42. A hexagon inscribed in a circle has three consecutive sides of length 3 and three consecutive
sides of length 5, and then the radius of the circle is
7
(A)
3
5
(B)
2
(C) 2 3
(D) 4
Ans. A
20 20
43. If S tan1 , then S is equal to
1 1
(A) 100
(B) 300
(C) 400
(D) 225
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25 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. A
20 20
Sol. S tan1 = 20 190 100
1 1 4 2
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer Q. 44, Q. 45 and Q. 46 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Column-1: contains the curve; Column-2: number of irrational points on the curve; Column-3: number of
integral points on the curve (irrational points means both coordinates are irrational and integral points
means both coordinates are integer)
Ans. A
Ans. C
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Ans. D
x2
Sol. (II) For
35
y2 1 , 35 cos , sin
35 k 35
Let tan k 35 , 2
1 35k 1 35k
2
1 35k 2 1
Let k , k 2 k 2
35 35
1
k k k k infinite possible ways
35
(III) For x2 – y2 = (200)2, (x – y)(x + y) = 24 54
Let (x > 0, y > 0) assign one 2 to each (x + y) and (x – y)
35 1
Now, number of ways = 7
2
So, total integral points = 30
(IV) Number of integral points on x4 – y4 = 2401 is 2
Answer Q.47, Q.48 and Q.49 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns
of the following table.
Column-1: contains conics; Column-2: number of common tangents; Column-3: number of common
normals
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27 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. A
Ans. C
Ans. B
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 28
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
3x 2
50. If a chord AB of the curve y is a normal to the curve at a point A, subtending an angle
x2
sin PAB
at the point P(2, 3). Then the value of is equal to _____
sin PAB
Ans. 3
51. Assuming that no three circles passing through same points and every two circles intersects in
two distinct points. If the number of regions that points are created by 7 mutually non over-lapping
circles in a plane is 11k, then k is _____
Ans. 4
Ans. 6
Sol. c (1, 1); The axes are the bisectors of the angle between the asymptotes
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29 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x 12 y 12 2 7
So,
x 1 y 1 6
2 2
2x – 3xy – 2y – x + 7y – 3 = 0
x2 y2
53. From the point (1, 1) normals are drawn to the ellipse 1 , then locus of conormal points
9 4
2 2
is 1xy + 2x + 3y + 4x + 5y + 6 = 0, then 1 + 2 + 3 – 4 – 5 – 6 is equal to _____
Ans. 0
54. Three circles C1, C2 and C3 with radii 2, r, 8 respectively are given. They are placed such that C2
lies to the right of C1 and touches it externally, C3 lies to the right of C2 and touches it externally.
Further, there exist two straight lines each of which is a direct common tangent simultaneously to
all three circles, then r is _____
Ans. 4
Sol. r 28
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2018-19
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-C & Section-D.
Section-A (01 – 03, 24 – 26, 47 – 49) contains 9 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (04 – 08, 27 – 31, 50 – 54) contains 15 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer.
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (09 – 10, 32 – 33, 55 – 56) contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 2 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3
marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Section-C (11 – 20, 34 – 43, 57 – 66) contains 30 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-D (21 – 23, 44 – 46, 67 – 69) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A conducting disc of conductivity has radius a and thickness . A uniform magnetic field B is
applied in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the disc. If the magnetic field changes with
time at the rate of dB/dt, then the power dissipated in the disc due to the induced current.
2
a4 dB
(A)
8 dt
2
a4 dB
(B)
12 dt
2
a4 dB
(C)
4 dt
2
a4 dB
(D)
6 dt
Ans. A
Sol. Consider two circles of radii r and r + dr concentric with the disc
(0 < r < a) (figure). The induced e.m.f. in the circular path of
radius r is a
d dB O r
dt
r 2B r 2
dt
. dr B
The resistance of the circular path between radii r and r + dr is
1 2r
R ,
dr B
The length of the path being 2r and the cross sectional area of
current flow being dr. The power dissipated inside this path is
2
2 dB 3
dP r dr.
R 2 dt
The total dissipated power P is
2 a 2
dB 3 a 4 dB
P r dr .
2 dt 0
8 dt
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3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
Ans. B
E
Sol. Initial current in R3, ii
R1 R3
E R2 R2E
Final current if =
R 2R 3 R2 R3 R1(R2 R3 ) R2R3
R1
R 2 R3
E
If =
R1R 3
R1 R3
R2
As if < ii, so current in the resistor R3 will decrease.
3. A straight segment OP of length L of a circuit carrying current I ampere is placed along x-axis.
Two infinitely long straight wires A and B each extending from z = to + are fixed at y =
meter to y = + meter respectively. Wires A and B, each carry current I ampere along positive z-
axis. Given that O is origin of the coordinate system. The magnitude of force on segment OP is
0 2 L2
(A) I n 1 2
0 2 L2
(B) I n 1 2
2
0 2 2
(C) I n 1 2
L
0 2 2
(D) I n 1 2
2 L
Ans. B
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
5.10
Ans. B, C
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5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
V
~
(A) Voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor are 50 V, 86.6 V and 186.6 V respectively.
(B) Voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor are 50 V, 86.6, 206.6V respectively.
5
(C) Circuit is capacitive and power factor is .
13
5
(D) Circuit is inducting and power factor is .
13
Ans. B, C
Sol. Let voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor be VR , VL and VC . Also since V2 V1 so
VC VL .
2
VR2 VL2 V12 1002 and VC VL 120 and VR2 VC VL 130 2
Solving VR 50V, VL 86.6 V, VC 206.6 V
VR 50 5
Power factor = cos
VZ 130 13
V
(A) Maximum charge on the sphere A is 80 aL .
R
V
(B) Maximum charge on the sphere B is 40 aL .
R
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Ans. A, C, D
V 3C I L 6C
Sol. I0 , 3C 4 0 a 3 C 40 a
R
dI –q q –q q
0
dt
q q dI
L 0
3C 6C dt
d2 q q d2 q q
L 2
0 2
0
dt 2C dt 2LC
1
q q0 sin t, I q0 cos t,
2LC
I0
At t 0, I I0 q0 I0 2LC
V
q0 80 aL
R
2
T 2 80 aL
T
23 0 aL
4
(A) The minimum distance during subsequent motion between the balls of mass m is
6q2
3q 16m 0 v 2
2
(B) The minimum distance during subsequent motion between the balls of mass m is
3q2
3q2 16m 0 v 2
(C) The maximum difference in electrostatic potential energy of the system during
2mv 2
subsequent motion is
3
(D) The maximum difference in electrostatic potential energy of the system during
4mv 2
subsequent motion is
3
Ans. A, C
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7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
4mv 2v
Sol. v CM
6m 3
In centre of mass frame
Gain in P.E. = Loss in KE
q2 1 1 2 4mv 2
2mv
40 D 2 3
6q2
D
3q2 16m0 v 2
8. The figure shows the variation of electrostatic potential V in volt with the distance of position of
point along x-axis from origin due to continuous volume charge distribution. In the region x = – 1m
to x = + 1m, the graph is parabolic (V = 15 – 5x2) and rest portion of graph is straight line. Choose
–12 –1 –2 2
the correct option(s) (0 permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10 N m C ). The direction of E
along positive x-axis is considered as positive.
V (in volt)
2
15 V = 15 – 5x
B
A 10
5
(in metre)
–3 –2 –1 0 +1 +2 +3 X
(A) This graph of potential may be due to a thick sheet of infinite dimension (– 1m x 1, –
< y < and – < z < ) with constant volume charge density 1.77 × 10–10 C/m3.
(B) This graph of potential may be due to a thick sheet of infinite dimension (– 1m x 1, –
< y < and – < z < ) with constant volume charge density 0.885 × 10–10 C/m3.
X
O
X
O
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Ans. A, C
Sol. dV Edx xdx
20
V x
2
dv 20 xdx V V0
40
x , so
V0 0
V0 15 volt
5 200 20 8.85 10 12 1.77 10 10 C / m3
40
E y xS
E 2S
0
10 x
E
20
x X
O x = 1m
x
–10
Just melted
Wax-Box
Figure-I
2.5V
Figure-II
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9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
One arm of the bridge containing the coil of resistance 50 is now
50 Wax-Box
immersed in a wax-box. The wax is just melted as shown in the figure-
III. It is now observed that the current through the galvanometer is 0.1
A.
G
–3 50
Given, temperature coefficient of resistance is 10 per °C.
Resistances other than inside wax-box are assumed to be constant Ig 0
50
and are exactly 50 while the resistance of wax box is very close to 50
50.
2.5V
Figure-III
9. The variation in the resistance inside the wax-box from its initial value of 50 is
(A) 1 104
(B) 2 104
(C) 4 10 4
(D) 8 104
Ans. D
(A) 0.004C
(B) 0.008C
(C) 0.016C
(D) 0.036C
Ans. C
Sol. 9-10.
When the four arms have equal resistances, the off-
balance galvanometer current for a small change R in the 50 Wax-Box
resistance of the third arm is
V R
IG B 2 .
8R G
50
Here IG 107 A, R 50, and VB 2.5V. Hence
8 107 25 102 50
R 8 10 4 . 50
2.5
2.5V
If the corresponding change in temperature is T, we have
RT R3 ,
–3
Where = temperature coefficient of resistance = 10 /°C.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
8 104
Therefore, T 1.6 10 2 0.016C .
50 103
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
Ans. 5
12. A long thin copper wire of the radius 2mm, carries a time-varying current I = t ampere (uniformly
distributed), then the induced electric field on its surface is equal to k X10–7 Vm–1. Find the value
of k. Take the induced field along the axis of the wire to be zero.
Ans. 1
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11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
0
Es 107 Vm1 .
4
Clearly, Es is independent of the radius of the wire.
0 0
13. A conducting ring of radius R & mass 300 g, carrying current I 30 30
ampere as shown in the figure. A bar magnet with its north
pole up is placed along the symmetric axis below the
conducting ring at a distance of 2m from the centre of ring. At
0
the location of ring, the magnetic field makes an angle 30 2m
1
with vertical and its magnitude is Tesla. If ring remains at
3π N
rest in its position, find the product of current I in the ring and
radius R of ring in ampere-meter. g 10 m / s 2
Ans. 9
Sol.
Fmag mg B sin 30 I 2 R mg
mg 0.3 10 3 2
IR 9 A-m
2 B sin 30 2
14. A neutral metal sphere is placed at a large distance from a point charge. The magnitude of
Coulomb electrostatic interaction force between the charge and sphere is F0 . If the distance
between them is doubled, the new magnitude of Coulomb electrostatic interaction force between
n
the charge and sphere is 2 F0 . Find the value of n. (Assuming that the radius of sphere is very
small as compared to the distance between them)
Ans. 5
Sol. Due to induction, the sphere behaves as dipole whose dipole moment is directly proportional to
inducing field generated by point charge. So
a
p 2 , a is a constant and r is the distance between them.
r
bqp baq baq baq 5
p q
F0 3 5 F 5
5 5
2 F0
r r 2r 2 r r
15. On a sunny day, the temperature and pressure of atmosphere varying with height z from sea
level as
z z
T T0 1 , and P P0 1
z0 z0
Where T0 and z0, are 25°C and 25 km. The temperature A
pressure and density of air at sea level is T0 = 25°C, P0 =
1 atm and 1.2 kg/m3 respectively. Assume that air follows
T z
ideal gas law in the given condition, i.e., cons tan t.
P
Find the value of . Sea level
5 2 2
1 atm = 10 N/m and g = 10 m/s (g is uniform)
Ans. 3
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
Sol. dp gdz A
dp gT P
0 0
dz P0 T dz
PA
P z
dP g dz
0
P0
P P0 0 z
1
z0
z
P 0 gz0 z (P+dp)A
n n 1
P0 P 0 z 0
(Adz)g Sea level
Z
P P0 1 , where
Z0
gz 1.2 10 25 10 3
0 0 3
p0 105
C2 C4
C5
Ans. 3
Q Q 0 Q 8Q
Sol. 0 3Q 5Q0 5Q 0 Q0
C 3C 5
5
Q0 – Q
+Q0 3C +Q 3C
–Q0 5 –Q 5
–Q0 + Q
Just before closing the switch Just after closing the switch
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13 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
17. A point charge Q = 500 mC and mass B N
–6 I
m = 10 kg is moving in a uniform magnetic T
field B 1 tesla kˆ with speed v = 106 m/s and M
Ans. 4
mv T mvI
Sol. R1 R 2 T
qB BI Q
10 6 106 2
T 4 newton
500 103
V A
3V 6 mA
Ans. 5
Sol. x y 6 x 3.5 mA X R B 3R Y
x 1 y y 2.5mA A C
KVL:
V I=x–y
3.5R 500 2.5 3R 0
3R
4R = 500R = 125 A C
0.5 Y D X
R v 3 500 R
10
V A C
A
E C
3V
19. Particle A with charge 2q and mass mA, and particle B with charge 4q and mass m B are
accelerated with potential difference of V & 4 V respectively. Both particles are deflected by a
uniform magnetic field into semicircular paths. The radius of trajectories of particle A and B are R
and 2R respectively. The direction of magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity. Find value of
mB
.
mA
Ans. 2
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
1
Sol. qV mv 2 mv 2qm V
2
mv 2qmV m V
R R
Bq Bq q
m A V mB 4V 1
R , & 2R
2q 4q 2
m A 1 1 m A 1 1 mA 1
. .
mB 2 2 mB 2 4 mB 2
Ans. 5
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
21. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. E1, E2 are sources of emf R1 = 3 E1 = 10 V
and R1, R2 are fixed resistances. E1 = 10V, E2 = 20V while R1 =
3, R2 = 2. The inductance L = 5 mH.
Take n 2 0.7, n3 1.1, n10 2.3.
The switch S is closed for a long time. The energy stored (in joule)
in the inductor is R2=2 L = 5 mH
S
E2=20V
Ans. 00000.25
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15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Sol. After the switch S, has been closed for a long time, the current R1 E1
through the inductor L can be found using Kirchoff’s Law:
2
1 E
E2/R2 = I2. The stored energy is: L 2 . R2 L
2 R2
After the switch S is opened, the current through the inductor
L is given by:
i I1 1 eR t /L I2 e R t /L
where R R1 R 2 , E2 S
I1 E1 / R1 R2 ,
I2 E2 / R2 .
Ans. 00066.88
Sol. Let the two solenoids be S1 and S2, as shown in figure. The magnetic field at the centre-point p of
the gap due to the solenoid S1 is
NI NI
B1 0 [cos 1 cos 2 ] 0 cos 1 cos 2 ,
2L 2L
Where the angles 1 and 2 are as shown in figure. The field B1 is along the z-axis. By symmetry,
the field at p due to the solenoid S2 has the same magnitude and direction as B1. Thus the net
magnetic field at P is
NI
B 2B1 0 cos 1 cos 2 .
L
N/L = 40 cm1 4 103 m1, 0 4 107 Henry / m, and I 2A.
Therefore, B 4 107 4 103 2 0.907 .242 = 66.88 Gauss.
Ans. 00004.80
B 2 B22 B 2
Sol. e1
2
, e2
2
VN VM e2 e1
2
2 12 2BR 2 cos 4.8 volt
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O
1 2R sin 2 2Rcos
2 2
M N M 1 O 2 N
1 2
M O
N
Second Method v N 2
1
v VN VM Rcos 2R
2
M
e Bv B 2R Rcos
2BR 2 cos
v M 1
3
2 0.1 10 4 4.8 Volt
5
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17 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which Only One is correct.
24. In the following reaction sequence the correct structure for the major products X & Y are
NO2
K 2CO 3 Sn HCl
X
Y
O
(A) O
X Y
NO2
Me N Et
H
(B) O
X Y OH
NO2 Me N Et
H
(C) HO Et HO Et
X Y
NO2 NH2
(D) HO Et HO Et
Y Y
NO2 NO2
Ans. B
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Sol. O
NO2
OH C 2H 5
O
NO2
Sn HCl
O
C
OH OH C2 H5
Me Et Me Et NH2
N N
H H
O
||
25. Compound A, C5H10O5 gives a tetraacetate with CH3 C O and oxidation of A with Br2 – H2O
2
gives an acid, C5H10O6. Reduction of A with red P and HI gives iso-pentane, there are two
possible structures for compound A which can be distinguished by using
(A) HIO4
(B) Red P + HI
Ans. C
Sol. H OH
CH2OH CHO
O OH
HO HO
OH
OH HO
(i) (ii)
(i) will form osazone derivatives whereas (ii) will not.
MeMgCl, CuCl
Cl
(A) O
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19 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(B)
O Me
(C)
O
CH3
(D) O
CH3
Ans. D
Sol. O O O
Cl
MeMgCl, CuCl
CH3 CH3
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
OH OH
OH
i CHCl
3 ,NaOH
ii H O
A
2 2
27.
CH3 CH3
(C) A is a aldehyde
(D) A on reaction with conc. H2SO4 produces a neutral gas which is a very good reducing
agent.
Ans. A, B, D
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Sol. OH O OH O
OH O
C CH O
H O CH
O H
OOH
CH3 CH3
CH3
CHCl3 / OH
OH
OH
OH
OH
HCOOH
CH3
CH3
Hence A will be HCOOH.
HCOOH + conc. H2SO4 CO
CO is a neutral gas as well as very good reducing agent.
28. An organic compound contains C, H, S, N and Cl, for detection of chlorine, the sodium extract of
compound is first heated with a few drop of conc. HNO3, and than AgNO3 is added to get a white
ppt. of AgCl, why was HNO3 added before the addition of AgNO3.
(C) To convert CN – and S-2 to volatile HCN and H2S, else they will interfere with the test
forming AgCN and Ag2S.
Ans. C
29. Br
MgEther NaNH
A
NH B
2
3
Cl
CH3
Ans. A, B, C, D
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21 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Sol. Br MgBr
Mg
Cl Cl
CH3 CH3 CH3
NaNH2
CH3 NH3
CH3
NH2 CH3 CH3
NH2
Dimer
Sn HCl
30. CH3 CH2 NO 2 X K Organic compound , then which of the following is/are
true for K?
Ans. A, C, D
SnHCl
Sol. CH3 CH2 NO2 CH3 CH2 NH2 K
1o amine form solid oxamide
2o amine form liquid oxamide
Liberman Nitroso test is given by 2o amine
2
Cu2 4C2H5NH2 Cu C 2H5NH2 4
Blue
31. In which case charge in transition state is more dispersed than starting material?
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(A)
I NO 2
(B) Me
I
NO2
(C)
Me
I
NO2
(D)
NO 2
I
Ans. C
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23 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(A) Cl
N
Me
O 2N
NO 2 Cl
I
NO2
(C)
N
H3C CH3
NO2
(D) NO 2
N Cl
H3C CH2
Ans. B
Hg2 , H /H O
2
NOBF
4
2
A B
NO 2
C
NO 2
ICl
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H3C CH3
N Cl
Cl2 / AlCl3
CH3 2 NH
I I I
F
NO2 NO2 NO2
E D
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
34. 2.79 gm of nitrogenous compound on reaction with CS2 and HgCl2 forms a black ppt. of 0.09 mol.
If same amount of nitrogenous compound is reacted with HNO2. How many litres of gas at STP
would be formed.
Ans. 2
Ans. 3
Sol. O O O O
O
3
CH3 2 S
H3C C C H
Tollen's reagent
H3C C C OH C
B NaBH4
trans lactide cis lactide H3C CH C OH
d
OH O
D
36. Cl
H3C CH 2 CH 2 Cl2 , h
CH3
Monochlorination
Sol. x=6
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25 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
y=4
x y = 5
2
37. CH3
NaOEt i Sn HCl
COOEt 2 X
ii
Y
NO2
Find the number of -bond in the Y?
Ans. 5
Sol. O
C OEt
CH3 CH2
EtO
C OEt
NO2 NO2 O
O
O CH2 C
OH
Sn HCl
COOEt
NH COOEt COOEt
NH2 NO2
H2O
COOEt
N
Y H
Ans. 3
39. O
Br
NaOMe
A
i aq. NaOH
ii NaOHCaO
B
Ans. 1
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Sol. O O COOMe
Br
NaOMe
NaOMe
NaOH
COOH
NaOH/CaO
40. 1.2 gram of acetophenone on reaction with 76.2 gram of I2 in presence of NaOH give solid
iodoform with 75% yield. Find the weight of iodoform formed in gram.
Ans. 3
O O
|| ||
Sol. Ph C CH3 3I2 4NaOH
CHI3 Ph C ONa
O
||
1 mole of Ph C CH3 will give 1 mole of CHI3
120 gram will give 394 g CHI3
1.2 gram will give 3.94 g CHI3
75
Hence, with 75% yield 3.94 2.955 gram
100
3 gram.
41. In the following sequence of reaction the degree of unsaturation in the (B) is
CO2 Et
CO2 Et Tautomerise
HCl,
A
B An aromatic compound
H3C O
Ans. 4
Sol. CH3
CH3
CO2Et CH3
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42. How many will liberates CO2 gas on reaction with NaHCO3?
O O C
, CN – CH2 – CN
Ans. 1
Sol. SO 3H
43. NH2
Ans. 6
Sol. CH3
H3C CH3
+
NH2 N O
COOH
Ag O Hot KMnO4 Ba OH
CH Br
3
2
(H2C) 4
Excess 2
COOH
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
44. 2.25 g of a nitrogenous compound having molecular formula (C2H7N) is reacted with 11.95 g of
CHCl3 in presence of alc. KOH to form a bad smelling gas. One of the remaining reactant after
some times becomes poisonous due to aerial oxidation. This poisonous gas is now removed by
C2H5OH to form a precipitate. Find the weight of precipitate (in gram).
Ans. 00005.90
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alc KOH
Sol. C2H5NH2 CHCl3 C2H5NC
1 1 0
20 10 1
0 1 20
20
O , h
CHCl3
2
COCl2
COCl2 2C2H5 OH C2H5 2 CO3
1
Hence precipitate = 118 5.9 gram
20
45. O O
CH3
i H3O
ii B C
O O
O CH3
O
A
1.1 mole of (A) was reacted according to above reaction. ‘C’ is the gas produced which turns lime
water milky. The amount of C formed in gram will be? (Given At. Wt. of C, O, H are 12, 16, 1 gm
respectively).
Ans. 00096.80
Sol. O
CH3
O i H
46. A C4H6 3
CH S
B
ii C
3 2 Aromatic compound
6.75 gram
A is a cyclic isomer having molecular formula C4H6. How many gram of C would be formed if 6.75
g of A was taken?
Ans. 00008.50
Sol. O O
O3 H
H C CH2 CH2 C H
CH3 2 S
A O
B C
6.75 1
Moles of A mole
54 8
1
Hence, mole of C would be formed
8
1
Wt. of C = 68 8.5 gm
8
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29 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which only one is correct
47. The length of medians of a triangle are 3, 4 and 5 cm. The area (in square cm) of the triangle is
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 32
Ans. A
4 1
Sol. A 34 8
3 2
48. The number of right-angled ABC (A = 90º) with integers side length whose inradius is 3 are
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 8
Ans. A
A
Sol. s a tan r (A = 90º)
2
(s – a) = r, 2s – 2a = 2r, b + c – a = 2r, a = (b + c – 2r)
2
(b – 6)(c – 6) = 2 3
49. P is a point inside an equilateral triangle ABC such that PA = 9, PB = 12 and PC = 15, then side
length of the ABC is
(B) 225 33
(C) 49 5 2
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Ans. A
152 92 AC
2 A(B)
Sol. cos 60º ..... (1)
2.15.9 12 B
9 90º P
9 3
Also, cos
15 5 15 60º
P 60º 15
So, a 225 108 5
60º
15
B C
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
(A) (sin x)sin x > (cos x)cos x x 0,
4
(B) (cos x)sin x < (sin x)cos x x 0,
12
3
(C) x cot x < x 0,
3
(D) sin x cos2x sin x cos2x x 0,
4
Ans. A, B, C
Sol. (A) Use Jensen’s inequality for sin x < cos x < sin x + cos x with weights
1 = tan x and 2 = 1 – tan x ( 0 < x < /4), 1 and 2 are positive)
So, log(cos x) = log(tan x sin x + (1 – tan x)(sin x + cos x))
> tan x log(sin x) + (1 – tan x)log(sin x + cos x)
sin x + cos x > 1 and tan x < 1. So, log(cos x) > tan x log(sin x)
cos x sin x
(B) For x 0, ; cos x > sin x. So, ln ln
12 cos x sin x
(C) Shown in the figure
m(OP) > m(OQ)
P
Q
x
3 2
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1 7
(A) sin20º
3 20
x2 x4
(B) cos x 1 x 0,
2 16 2
x3 2x 5
(C) tan x x x 0,
3 15 2
Ans. A, C
52. Let x – 2y – 5 = 0 be the directrix of a parabola and x – y – 7 = 0 be the tangent drawn to the
parabola at the point P(4, –3), then which of the following are INCORRECT?
16
(A) length of latus rectum =
5
8
(B) harmonic mean of length of segments of the focal chord =
5
(C) intersection point of the directrix and the given tangent is (9, 2)
(D) circle drawn on assuming P(4, –3) and Q as diameter, always passes through focus of
the parabola (where Q is the intersection point of tangent and directrix)
Ans. A, B
53. Let ABCD be a quadrilateral inscribed in a circle. Suppose AB 2 2 and AB subtends 135º
at the centre of the circle, the maximum possible area of ABCD is
53 3
(A)
4 2
8 7
(B)
3
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19 3
(C)
2
Ans. A
54. If the vertices of an equilateral lies on the curve 8x3 + y3 + 6xy = 1, then
6
(A) side length of the triangle is
15
3
(B) side length of the triangle is
2
3 3
(C) area of the triangle is
5
3 3
(D) area of the triangle is
16
Ans. A, C
6
Sol. (2x + y – 1)(4x2 + y2 + 1 – 2xy + y + 2x) = 0 and side length of the =
15
3 3
So, area =
5
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Diameter of ellipse is a line passing through the centre of the ellipse. Consider the set of parabola(s)
having common chord of minimum length with the diameter of the ellipse x 2 + y2 + xy = 8 and the line
mx – y + 4 = 0 as directrix
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33 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
55. The set of value(s) of m for which only one parabola is possible is
(A) 2, 2
(B) 5, 3
(C) {–2, 2}
Ans. A
56. The range of value(s) of m for which two parabola(s) are possible is
(A) , 2 2,
(B) (–, –2) (2, )
(C) , 3 3,
(D) none of these
Ans. A
Sol. (55.-56.)
For the ellipse x2 + y2 + xy = 8, c (0, 0)
8 8 r2
For one parabola : ( C1C2 = r1 + r2)
2 3
m 1
For two parabola(s) : C1C2 < r1 + r2 4 4
c2 ,
r1 6 6
4 4
c1 ,
6 6
SECTION – C
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
57. Consider the ellipse 4x2 + y2 – 8x + 4y + 4 = 0. Pair of tangents PT1 and PT2 are drawn to the
ellipse from P(–8, –2). Let S1' be the image of S1 about PT1 and S'2 be the image of S2 about
PT2, then if PS1S 2' and PS1' S 2 , then is equal to _____
Ans. 1
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 34
58. If tangents drawn to the parabola at A(1, 2) and B(5, 8) intersect at (–1, 8), then slope of directrix
a
is where gcd(a, b) = 1, then a + b is _____
b
Ans. 7
3
Sol. Q = mid-point of AB = (3, 5), let P (–1, 8), m(PQ) =
4
4
Slope of directrix =
3
59. Given a point (3, 2), then the minimum perimeter of a triangle with one vertex at (3, 2) one on the
x-axis and one on the line y = x (you may assume that a triangle with minimum perimeter exists)
is , then sum of digits of is _____
Ans. 8
Sol. For minimum perimeters (2, 3), (d, d) (c, 0), (3, –2) are collinear
Hence, mini perimeter = 26
60. If focus of the parabola which touches x = 0, y = 0, x – y + 1 = 0 and –2x – y – 8 = 0 is (, ), then
is _____
Ans. 3
Sol. Focus is intersection point of circles x(x + 1) + y(y – 1) = 0 and (x)(x + 4) + (y)(y + 8) = 0
6 2
,
5 5
12
61. If 3 2 , 4 2 and 2 be the altitudes of a triangle, then r 2 (r is inradius of the triangle) is
5
equal to _____
Ans. 2
62. Let ABC be a triangle (with A = /3) and a circle C1 be drawn lying in side the triangle, touching
its in-circle externally and also touching the two sides AB and AC, then ratio of the radii of the
circles C1 and C is k, then 3k is equal to _____
Ans. 1
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35 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
2 II1 r r1 A r r1 r r1
1 sin r N
2
K
A r1 r1 1 I
tan2 2
. So, tan 30º
4 r r 3 B C
63. Let BD be the internal angle bisectors of angle B in triangle ABC with D on side AC. The
circumcircle of triangle BDC meets AB at E, while the circumcircle of triangle ABD meets BC at F.
if AE = 3, then CF is equal to
Ans. 3
64. In an isosceles right angled triangle ABC, CA = CB = 1, and P is an arbitrary point on the
perimeter of ABC, then if maximum value of PA·PB·PC is , then 6 2 is _____
Ans. 3
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 36
(II): P AB C
AP x 0, 2
So, let f(x) = (PA)2(PB)2)PC)2
2
2 x 1 x
= x2 2
x 2
1
Let t x 2 x : t 0,
2 A P B
2
So, f(x) = g(t) = t (1 – t)
1 1
f x gt g
2 8
1
PA PB PC . Clearly P is the mid-point of AB
2 2
3
1 4x 2 4
65. Number of solution of the equation cos1 2
x x sin x cos x is
2
1 4x
Ans. 2
(0, –1)
1 2
66. Two circles C1, C2 of radii and touch each other externally and they both touch a unit circle
3 7
C internally. A circle C3 of radius R is inscribed to touch the circles C1, C2 externally and the circle
C internally, then 19R is equal to _____
Ans. 2
1 2
2
Sol. R 3 7
1 2 19
1
3 7
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
67. If the exhaustive set of x (0, 2) for which n the inequality sin x + sin 2x + sin 3x + ..... +
3 3 1 2
sin(nx) is valid 1 x 2 , k I, then is _____
2 2
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37 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. 00002.00
2 2
Sol. Clearly, 0 < x < not valid, for x 2
3 3
x 2x 1 x x
cos cos x cos 1 cot
sin x 2 2
2
4 3
x x 2 2
2 sin 2 sin
2 2
68. The least numbers A such that for any two squares of combined area 1 and a rectangle, of area A
exists such that the two squares can be packed in the rectangle (without interior overlap). You
may assume that the sides of the squares are parallel to the sides of the rectangle, is _____
Ans. 00001.20
2 2
Sol. If x and y are the sides of two squares then x + y = 1
Let without loss of generality x y
So, shorter side of the rectangle should be at least x
Longer side at least and (x + y)
So, A x(x + y)
Put x = cos , y = sin , 0,
4
1 2 1 2
A cos 2 equality holds if
2 2 4 2 8
69. The least possible area of a convex set in plane that intersects both branches of the hyperbola
xy = 1 and both branches of the hyperbola xy = –1 is _____
Ans. 00004.00
1
1 w,
z, w
z
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C.
Section–A (01 – 10, 21 – 30, 41 – 50) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks
for wrong answer.
Section–B (11 – 12, 31 – 32, 51 – 52) contains 6 Match the following Type questions. Each
question having 4 statements in Column I & 5 statements in Column II with any given statement
in Column I having correct matching with 1 or more statement (s) given in Column II. Each
statement carries +2 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section–C (13 – 20, 33 – 40, 53 – 60) contains 24 Numerical based questions with answers as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
1. Two spherical planets P and Q have the same uniform density , masses MP and MQ and
surface areas A and 4A respectively. A spherical planet R also has uniform density and its
mass is (MP + MQ). The escape velocities from the planets P, Q and R are v P, vQ and vR
respectively. Then
(A) vQ > vR > v P
(B) vR > vQ > v P
vR
(C) 3
vP
vP 1
(D)
vQ 2
2. Two identical blocks are floating once in water (case-I) and once in mercury container (case –II).
They are floating very near to each other. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) In case –I, both blocks get attracted to each other.
(B) In case –I, both blocks get repelled from each other.
(C) In case –II, both blocks get attracted to each other.
(D) In case –II, both blocks get repelled from each other.
3. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there are 100 divisions on it’s circular scale. The
instrument reads 2 circular divisions when nothing is put in between its jaws. In measuring the
diameter of a wire, there are 8 divisions on the main scale and 83rd division coincides with the
reference line. Then choose the correct option(s).
(A) Screw gauge is having zero error of 0.01 mm.
(B) Screw gauge is having zero error of 0.49 mm.
(C) Diameter of the wire is 4.405 mm.
(D) Diameter of the wire is 4.425 mm.
4. Heavy stable nucleus have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that
(A) neutrons are heavier than protons.
(B) electrostatic force between protons are repulsive.
(C) neutrons decay into protons through beta decay.
(D) nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons.
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6. Sound of wavelength passes through a Quincke’s tube, which is adjusted to give a maximum
I
intensity I0. Through what distance should the sliding tube be moved to give an intensity 0 .
2
7
(A)
8
3
(B)
4
(C) /4
(D) /8
8. Three identical biconvex lenses of focal length f are aligned with two neighbouring lenses
separated by a distance f as shown in the figure. A small object is located at a distance f/2 in front
of the leftmost lens. Choose the correct option(s).
f/2 f f
(A) The final image formed is real and inverted.
(B) The final image formed is virtual and erect.
(C) The final image is of same size as that of object.
(D) The final image formed is virtual and inverted.
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10. Four classes of students measures the height of a building. Each class uses a different method
and each measures the height many different times. The data for each class are plotted below.
Which class made the most PRECISE measurement?
No. of trials
Known height
30
20
(A) 10
0 10 20 30 40 50
Height (m)
No. of trials
Known height
30
20
(B) 10
0 10 20 30 40 50
Height (m)
No. of trials
Known height
30
20
(C) 10
0 10 20 30 40 50
Height (m)
No. of trials
Known height
30
20
(D) 10
0 10 20 30 40 50
Height (m)
SECTION - B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II
are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II.
11. Column –I contains four different YDSE systems and Column –II contains intensity measured at
some points on the screen. Do the correct match(es) in Column-I and Column –II. (CP1 = 0.3 mm
and CP2 = 1.2 mm)
Column I Column II
y
P2
P1
C
d = 1 mm
(A) d D=1m (p) IC = 4I0
Intensity at each slit = I0
D
= 4000 Å in air
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
y
P2
d = 1 mm
P1
C
D=1m
(B) d Intensity at each slit = I0 and (q) IP1 2I0
w = 4/3 no absorption of light by
D
water (w = 4/3)
= 4000 Å in air
y
Glass
P2 d = 1 mm
film D=1m
P1
C Film thickness t = 0.8 m
(C) d refractive index of film = 3/2 (r) IP1 4I0
Intensity at each slit = I0 and
D
no absorption of light by
glass
= 4000 Å in air
y
P2
P1
C
d = 1 mm
104 rad = d IP1 0
(D) D=1m (s)
Intensity at each slit = I0
D
= 4000 Å in air
12. Column-I contains some systems having a solid body and fluid. Column-II contains some physical
quantities for the systems in column-I. Match column- II with column-I.
Column I Column II
A solid sphere of radius
Atmospheric pressure = P0 R is tied inside a non-
viscous liquid and the
R
x system is in equilibrium Fx (force on surface x
y (sphere just touching applied by liquid)
(A) (p) 1
the top surface of the
= P0 R2 R3 g
liquid). x-upper half 3
Density of liquid = spherical surface y-
Density of solid = () lower half spherical
surface.
Atmospheric pressure = P0
A solid disc of radius R,
2R/3 thickness R/3 is tied Fy (Force on surface y
inside a non-viscous applied by liquid)
(B) R liquid and the system is (q)
x y 5
R/3 in equilibrium x-rim of = P0 R2 R3 g
the disc y-one of the 3
Density of liquid =
Density of solid = () flat faces of disc.
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
R
13. At a depth h1 from the surface of a planet (radius R = 3000 km), acceleration due to gravity is
2
g1. It’s value changes by g1, when one moves down further by 1 km. At a height h2 above the
surface of the earth acceleration due to gravity is g2. It’s value changes by g2 when moves up
further by 1 km. If g1 = g2 and h2 = d 102 km. Find d. (Assume the planet to be a uniform
sphere of radius R) (Take 21/ 3 1.3 )
14. A massless metal plate is placed on a horizontal tabletop lubricated with oil. The sheet is a
square of side length = 1.0 m and the oil layer has thickness h = 1.0 mm. Initially one edge of
the sheet coincides with one edge of the table. The sheet is pulled outwards without rotation with
2
a constant force F = 15 N. If coefficient of viscosity of the oil is = 0.2 N-s/m , how long (in
second) will it take to pull half of the sheet out of the table?
15. Figure shows a cubical block of side 10 cm and relative density 1.5
suspended by a wire of cross sectional area 106 m2. The breaking stress
of the wire is 7 106 N/m2. The block is placed in a beaker of base area
200 cm2 and initially at t = 0, the top surface of water and block coincide. 2 cm3/s
There is a pump at the bottom corner which ejects 2 cm 3 of water per
second. If the wire breaks at t = 10k seconds, find k. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
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16. If is found that the spectral line of a certain star periodically becomes a doublet indicating that the
radiation comes actually from two stars revolving about their centre of mass. Assuming the
masses of the stars to be equal, find the distance between them if the maximum splitting of the
spectral lines is equal to 1.2 104 and it occurs every = 30 days. Give your answer in
terms of d 107 km (approximately) and write d.
17. Find the second longest resonance wavelength (in m) in a string of length = 6 m for which a
9
point at x = m is an anti-node, where x is distance measured along the length of the string from
4
a fixed end. (string is fixed at both ends)
18. An ideal fluid flows through a pipe of circular cross section of radius r at speed v 0 = 4m/s. Now a
viscous liquid is made to flow through the same pipe at the same volume flow rate (measured in
m3/s). Find the maximum speed of the viscous liquid particle in the pipe in m/s.
20. A particle of mass m = 9 gm is trapped between two perfectly rigid parallel walls. The particle
bounces back and forth between the walls without losing any energy. From a wave point of view,
the particle trapped between the walls is like a standing wave in stretched string between the
walls. Distance between the two walls is L = 1 m. Calculate the energy difference between third
energy state and the ground state (lowest energy state) of the particle. Answer the energy
difference in C 1065 Joule. (Take Planck’s constant h = 6 1034 J-sec)
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
21. Which of the following gives precipitate with (NH4)2S in aqueous medium?
3+
(A) Fe
3+
(B) Al
(C) Cr3+
(D) Co2+
22. Which of the following statement is correct? (Neglect vibrational degree of freedom)
5
(A) Molar internal energy due to motion is RT of diatomic gas molecules.
2
(B) Molar internal energy due to motion is 3RT of bent triatomic gas molecule.
5
(C) Molar internal energy due to motion is RT of triatomic linear gas molecules.
2
3
(D) Molar internal energy due to motion is RT of monoatomic gas molecules.
2
24. 1.350 gm sample of Co NH3 5 SO24Br (molar mass = 320) is dissolved to prepare 200 ml
solution. Osmotic pressure of this solution is found to be 1.039 atm at 27oC. Which statement/s
is/are correct for this solution? [The above complex does not form yellow ppt. with AgNO3]
(A) Each molecule gives two ions in solution.
(B) The complex Co(NH3)5SO4Br is completely soluble under given condition.
(C) Molarity of complex ion [Co(NH3)5Br]2+ is 0.021 M in the solution.
(D) The van’t Hoff factor of the complex is = 2.
25. Which of the following is/are correct for spontaneous isothermal chemical reaction?
(A) H 0, because T 0
(B) S 0
(C) U 0 , because T 0
(D) G 0
26. The order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species:
2
PtCl4 , AuCl4 , Ni CO 4 , Au CN2
Along with increasing order of oxidation state are
3 3 2
(A) sp , sp, sp , dsp
3 3 3
(B) sp , sp, sp , sp
(C) sp3, sp, dsp2, dsp2
(D) sp3, sp, dsp2, sp3
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27. There are three bottles having halides in a lab. One of them containing a yellow compound
another has red compound and the last one has touch sensitive explosive. Which of the following
combination is possible?
(A) AgI, HgI2, SnCl4
(B) PbBr2, HgI2, NI3
(C) AgBr, SbCl3, SnCl2
(D) FeCl3, CrCl3, NF3
SECTION - B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II
are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
33. m of 10-3 M of a weak acid is 0.0142 10 x ohm1cm2 / mol . om 450 ohm1cm2 / mol at
25oC, Ka of acid is 10-6. The value of ‘x’ is
34. The rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is 5 5 times of that of a hydrocarbon at identical
temperature and pressure if the molecular formula of hydrocarbon is CnH2n – 2 . The value of (n/2)
is
35. In Fluorite type structure of X 2 & Y compound if we remove anions from one body diagonal
and cations from all the corners then unit cell formula becomes Xn Ym : n m z, z is:
36. EMF of the following half-cell Pt | H2(g) | H+ (aq) is 0.177 if the pH2 1 atm then calculate the pH
of solution?
38. Calculate the volume (in ml) of 0.1 M AgNO3 required for complete precipitation of chloride ions
present in 20 ml of 0.03 M solution of [Cr(H2O)5Cl2]Cl, as AgCl is:
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
41. A matrix of order 3 3 is given as A = [aij], where aij {–1, 1} i, j then possible values of |A| is
(where |A| is determinant of matrix A)
(A) 2
(B) –2
(C) 0
(D) –4
30
42. If value of 3P = C5 – 30C6 + 30C7 – ..... – 30C28 + 29, and value of
Q
CR = 100C6 + 4 100C7 + 6 100C8 + 4 100C9 + 100C10, then
(A) number of positive divisors of P are 16
(B) Q + R can be divisible either by 9 or 19
(C) if abcd = P, a, b, c, d I+, then possible number of order pairs of (a, b, c, d) are 44
(D) P is an even integer
43. The number of integral solution of the equation + + + = 18, with the condition that 1 5,
–2 4, 0 5, 3 9, is k, then
(A) Total number of prime factors of k are 7
(B) Exponent of 5 in k! is 13
k
(C) Number of non negative integer solutions of the equation x + y + z = is 15
12
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
(D) Number of ordered pair of (a, b, c) such that abc = k4 is 225 (a, b, c I)
44. If A(1, 2, 3), B(1, 1, 1), C(1, 1, 2) and D(3, –1, 2) are vertices of a tetrahedron, then
x y z
(A) if 1 is a variable plane which is equidistant from all the four vertices A, B, C,
a b c
D, then maximum number of possible triplet of (a, b, c) are 7
(B) the volume of tetrahedron is 2 unit3
(C) length of altitude from point D to the plane ABC is 2 unit
1
(D) if the acute angle between edges AB and CD is , then cos =
10
45. Let A(0, 6, 8) and B(6, 12, 0) be two given points and P(, 0, 0) be a point on x-axis such that
PA + PB is minimum, then
90
(A) if point Q is on the y-axis such that QA + QB is minimum then area of POQ is unit2,
7
where O is origin
240 3
(B) the volume of tetrahedron OPAB (where O is origin) is unit
11
(C) perpendicular distance from the point A to the plane containing the points P, Q, B is 8 unit
480
(D) the volume of tetrahedron OPAB (where O is origin) is unit3
11
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46. If z1 = 4 + 3i, z2 = 1 – i and z3 = 7 + ki, k R such that z1, z2, z3 are vertices of an isosceles
triangle for different values of k, then
(A) if k1, k2, ..... kn are distinct possible values of k, then value of [|k1|] + [|k2|] + ..... + [|kn|] is
11 (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
(B) one of the possible values of area of ABC is 12 unit2
(C) if k1, k2, ....., kn are distinct possible values of k, then value of [|k1|] + [|k2|] + ..... + [|kn|] is 3
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
(D) if k1, k2, ..... kn are distinct possible value of k, then value [|k1 + k2 + k3 + ..... + kn|] is 3
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
47. If P is a non null matrix of order 3 3 with real number as entries, such P3 = O, where O is null
matrix of order 3 3, then (where I is the identity matrix of order 3 3)
(A) det of (4P2 – 2P + I) is a non-zero number
(B) I – 2P is an invertible matrix
2
(C) if matrix P has all integer entries, then det(I – 4P ) = 0
2
(D) if matrix P has all integer entries, then absolute value of det (I – 4P ) = 1
2 2 2
48. Let a , b and c are three unit vectors such that a b b c c a 3 , then
3 5
(A) abc
2 2
(B) ab bc
(C) a 2b 3c 20
(D) a , b , c form a system of orthogonal vectors
49. Let z1, z2, z3 be complex numbers representing vertices A, B, C of a triangle. It is known that
|z1| = |z2| = |z3| = 1, and there exists 0, such that z1 + z2 cos + z3 sin = 0, then
2
(A) ABC can be an isosceles triangle, with greatest side length of 2 unit
1
(B) the maximum value of area of ABC is unit2
2 2 1
(C) triangle ABC can be a right angled triangle
(D) triangle ABC can not be an equilateral triangle
50. On the side AB and AD of a scalene triangle ABD draw externally squares ABEF and ADGH with
centres O and Q respectively if M is mid-point of side BD, then
(A) OM : QM is equal to 1 : 2
(B) OM : QM is equal to 1 : 1
(C) (OM)2 + (QM)2 > (OQ)2
(D) (OM)2 + (QM)2 = (OQ)2
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SECTION - B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II
are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II.
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
53. Let ab be (where ‘a’ is a prime number) the number of function f: A B, where A = {1, 2, 3, .....,
2019} and B = {2019, 2020, 2021, 2022}, such that f(1) + f(2) + ..... + f(2019) is odd number, then
last digit of number b is _____
54. Let A and B be points (2, 0, 0) and (0, 4, 0) respectively. If E is mid-point of AB and F is mirror
x 1 y 2 z
image of origin with respect to edge AB and let D the point on the line at 6 unit
0 0 1
distance from the edge AB, then volume of tetrahedron DFAB is _____
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55. If A(z1), B(z2), C(z3) and D(z4) are four points in the Argand plane such that z1, z2, z3, z4 are roots
of equation z4 – 5z3 + 18z2 – 17z + 13 = 0, and |z1| |z3|. Let P is a point of intersection of line
z i 3 z 3 i 2 3 0 with the real axis, then value of [(PA)(PC)] is equal to _____
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
1 p q
2017
56. Let be a complex cube root of unity and A 1 r where p, q, r are either or
2018 2020 2019
2
, then number of such distinct non singular matrix/matrices A is _____
57. Let p ˆi ˆj kˆ , q a ˆi bjˆ ckˆ , where a, b, c {–3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2} if the number of possible
R
vectors q such that p q 0 is R, then is _____
5
58. If a, b, c are mutually perpendicular unit vectors and d is a unit vector which makes equal angle
with a, b and c , then the sum of squares of the possible values of a b c d is _____
59. Number of isosceles triangles formed by joining the vertices of a 2019 sided regular polygon is M,
then the digit at tens place of M is _____
3
x y z
60. Let x, y, z be positive real numbers such that xyz and 3x + 4y + 5z = 12, then the
3 3 3
3 4 5
value of x + y + z is equal to _____
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –1
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. B, D
2GM 8
Sol. v esc GR2
R 3
Given that, 4(4RP2 ) (4 R2Q ) RQ = 2RP
Mass of R is MR = MP + MQ
RR3 RP3 R3Q
So, RR = 91/ 3 RP
So, RR > RQ > RP vR > vQ > v P
v v 1
Also, R 91/3 and P
vP vQ 2
2. A, C
Sol.
P0 1
P0
2
P1 < P0 P2 > P0
Case-I Case-II
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
3. C
0.5
Sol. Least count = 0.005 mm
100
Zero error = 0 + 0.005 2 = 0.01 mm
So, true diameter = 0.5 8 + 0.005 83 0.01 = 4.405 mm
4. B
Sol. Repulsive force between protons forbids heavy nucleus.
5. A, B, D
Sol. x at O = d(path difference is maximum at O)
5 7
So, for d and , O will be a minimum and for d = , O will be a maximum.
2 2
There would be total 5 minima for d = 4.8 .
6. A, D
I0 I
Sol. 4 0 cos 2
2 4 2
2
and (2x)
7. B, D
Sol. If two nuclei in the range 51 < A < 100 will fuse then they will produce an element with mass
number above 100 and less than 200 which has more Ebn thus energy is released hence option
(B) is correct.
Similarly a nucleus in the range 200 < A < 260 when broken into two equal fragments then the Ebn
of these fragments will be more than that of the nucleus hence option (D) is correct.
8. A, C
Sol.
Image
Object
f/2 f f f/2
9. B
Sol. The second law is consequence of conservation of angular momentum, which is still true.
10. A
Sol. Accuracy describes how close to the correct or true value a measurement is, while precision in a
measurement of how closely grouped or how well a result can be reproduced of the plots given (A)
demonstrates the closest grouping at data points.
SECTION – B
11. (A) (p, q); (B) (p, r); (C) (p, q); (D) (s, t)
2 (103 )(3 10 4 ) 3
Sol. (A) P1
4 10 7 1 2
3
P2 (4) 6
2
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
12. (A) (p, q, r, s); (B) (q, t); (C) (r, s); (D) (q)
1 3
Sol. (A) From free body diagram of the liquid above the sphere, Fx P0 R2 R g
3
4
Force of buoyancy on the sphere = R3 g
3
5 3
So, Fy P0 R2 R g
3
1 3
(B) Force of buoyancy on the disc Fx R g
3
5 3
Fy P0 R2 R g
3
(C) From the free body diagram of the liquid in the container Fx and Fy are different with option (p)
and (q)
R 4
(D) Fx P0 g 4 R2 4P0R2 gR 3
3 3
5R 2 5
Fy P0 g R P0 R 2 gR3
3 3
2
Force on the part open to atmosphere = P03R
1 4R
So, FB gR3 4R2 g N (N = normal reaction)
3 3
16
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
SECTION – C
13. 9
h g
Sol. g1 g 1 1 g1 h1
R R
R2 2gR 2
and g2 g g2 h2
(R h2 )2 (R h2 )3
given that, g1 = g2
So, h2 = R 21/3 1 900 km
14. 5
Sol. In this case,
v
F ( x)
h
Fh dx
v
( x) dt x F
3 3
So, t 5 sec
8Fh
15. 2
Sol. Tension in the wire at t = 0 is, T0 = (0.1)3(103)(1.5 1) (10) = 5N
Wire breaks at tension, T = 7 106 106 = 7N
So volume of ejected water = 200 cm 3
So time taken = 100 sec.
16. 3
Sol. One star is approaching, while the other is receding.
cv cv 2v
So,
c c c
2R
So, =
c
c c
2R 3 107 km
17. 1
Sol. Possible frequencies which will satisfy condition of both ends rigid
m T
f1 , where is length of the string
2
3
and all possible frequencies which will satisfy condition of string of length with one end rigid
8
and one end free
2n 1 T
f2
3
4
8
So, f 1 = f 2 3m 8n = 4
So, = /6 = 1 m
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
18. 8
Sol. Volume flow rate of ideal fluid = v 0R2
R
r2
Volume flow rate of the viscous fluid = v 1
0 0 R2 2rdr
R 2 R2 v 0 R2
v 0 2 v 0 R2
2 4 2
v 0 2v 0 8 m/s
19. 2
T
Sol. Speed of wave in the lighter string = (50)(1) = 50 cm/s =
T
Speed of wave in the heavier string 25 cm/s
4
So wavelength in heavier string = 0.5 cm
2
(9.5 cm) (9.5)(2)
(1 cm)
A point that will oscillate in phase with S must be ahead in phase by (0.5)(2) with respect to Q. If
x is the distance of this point from Q then,
2
x (0.5)(2)
0.5 cm
x = 0.25 cm
9.5 0.25
So time required is 0.2 sec
50 25
20. 4
2L
Sol. The permitted wavelength are =
n
h h
So, de-Broglie wavelength d
p 2mk n
2L h
n 2mk n
n2 h2
kn (n = 1, 2, 3, ……….)
8mL2
h2 h2
E3 E1 = (32 12) 2
2
4 10 65 J
8mL mL
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
21. A, B, C, D
Sol. Fe3 NH4 2 S
FeS S
Al3 NH4 2 S H2O
Al OH3 H2S
Cr 3 NH4 2 S H2O
Cr OH3 H2S
Co 2 NH4 2 S
CoS
22. A, B, C, D
Sol. In linear molecule 3 translation + 2 Rotation = 5 motion
1 5
Energy contribution 5 KT KT by one molecule
2 2
5 5
NavKT RT by one mole.
2 2
In bent triatomic 3 translation + 3 Rotation = 6 motion
1
Energy contribution 6 KT = 3 KT by one molecule
2
By one mole = 3 KT × Nav = 3RT
In monoatomic 3 translation motion
3
Energy contribution RT by one molecule.
2
23. B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
24. A, B, C, D
Sol. W = 1.350 gm
Molar mass = 320
1.35
Moles =
320
1.350 1000
calc. CRT 0.0821 300
320 200
= 0.5195 atm
obs. 1.039
obs. 1.039
i 2
calc. 0.5195
i 1
1
n1
n=2
2
Co NH3 5 Br SO 4 Co NH3 5 Br
SO42
Initial 0.021
at equ. 0.021 0.021
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
25. D
26. C
Sol. Oxidation number Hybridization
3
[Ni(CO)4] 0 sp
Au CN2 +1 sp
2
PtCl4 +2 dsp2
AuCl4 +3 dsp
2
27. B
Sol. PbBr2, AgI, AgBr and FeCl3 solution is yellow.
HgI2 Red
NI3 Touch sensitive explosive
28. A, B, C, D
Sol. All are preparation methods of Cl2.
29. A, B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
30. A, B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
SECTION – B
31. A → t; B → r; C → p; D → q
2
Sol. Ka
C 2 C m / m
o
1 1 m / mo
2 o2 2
C / m C m m
o o
o
m
o
m m m m
m
32. A → t; B → s; C → p; D → r
Sol. Co 2 KNO 2 CH3COOH K 3 Co NO 2 6
Yellow ppt.
2
Ni DMG
Re d ppt.
Cu2 K 4 Fe CN6
Cu2 Fe CN6
Brown ppt.
3 H2 O
Al NH4 2 S
Al OH3
White ppt.
SECTION – C
33. 3
Sol.
HA
H A
c 2
Ka
1
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
1 1
106
K a c 2 , 0.0316
103
m
om
m 0.0316 450 14.22
34. 9
rH2 MCnH2n 2
Sol. 5 5
rCnH2n 2 2
MCnH2n 2 250
12n 2n 2 250
n 18 and n / 2 9
35. 9
Sol. X3 Y6 n m 9
36. 3
Sol. H2 2H 2e
2
o 0.059 H
EE log
2 PH2
2
0.059 H
0.177 0 log
2 1
0.177
log H 3
0.059
37. 5
Sol. G nFE
1930000
E 5.0 V
4 96500
V=5
38. 6
Sol. Cr H2O 4 Cl2 Cl AgNO3 AgCl
20 0.03 0.1 V
20 0.03
V 6 ml
0.1
39. 6
Sol. All are correct.
40. 3
Sol. Only HgS, PbS and Cu2S gives self reduction.
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
41. C, D
1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. Fix first row as [1, 1, 1], and possibility are 1 1 1 , 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
42. A, B, C
Sol. 29
C4 29
C5 29
C5 29
C6 ..... 29
C27 29
C28 29
C4 29
29
3P = C4 P = 3 7 13 29
Q
CR 104 C94 Q = 104, R = 94 or 10
43. B, C
Sol. The equation can be written as t1 + t2 + t3 + t4 = 16, 0 t1 4, 0 t2 6, 0 t3 5 and 0 t4 6
Let P1 is property that t1 5, t2 is property is t2 7, p3 is property t3 6 and p4 is property that
t4 7 and Ai is denote the subset of S satisfying condition pi when S is total number of solutions
= 19C16 = 969
So, A 1 A 2 A 3 A 4 S A i A i A j A i A j A k ..... k = 55
So, number of ordered pair satisfying condition abc = k4, a, b, c I 4 225 = 900
44. A, C, D
Sol. There are maximum 7 distinct planes which are at equidistance from all the vertices
The volume of tetrahedron is 1/3 unit3
45. A, C, D
30 66 B(6, 12, 0)
Sol. , Q 0, , 0
11 7
PA + PB is minimum, then 12
MP AM 5 M(0, 0, 0)
So, x-axis
PN BN 6 P N(6, 0, 0)
30
So, P , 0, 0 10
11
66
Similarly Q is 0, , 0 A(0, 6, 8)
7
46. B, C, D
19
Sol. The possible value of k are –1, and k = 7 is not possible, because all points will be collinear
8
47. A, B, D
Sol. (2P + I)(4P2 – 2P + I) = 8P3 + I3 = I
Similarly, (I – 2P)(I + 2P + 4P2) = I, if P has integer entries, then |I – 2P| and |I + 2P| will be equal
to either 1 or –1
48. A, C
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
2 2 2 2 1
Sol. a b b c c a 3 a c b 0 , a c b ac
2
So, a b c 2 b 2 , a 2b 3c 3a 5c 19
49. B, D
Sol. 1 = |z1|2 = |z2 cos + z3 sin |2
z 2 z 23
1 1 2 cos sin z22 z23 0 z3 = iz2
z 2 z3
Now take cases for z1 as z1 = –z2(cos i sin ) z1 z2 ei
can not equal to zero or so option A and C are not possible
2
50. B, D
Sol. Let z1, z2, z3 be complex number represents A, B, and D point
z1 z0 z3 z Q
i (z0)O A Q(zQ)
z 2 z 0 z1 z Q
z1 z2 z1 z2 i z1 z3 z3 z1 i
z0 ; zQ
2 2
B M D
z2 z3
zM
2
z0 zm z1 z3 z1 z2 i
i QM OM and OM = QM
zQ zm z1 z2 z3 z1 i
SECTION – B
51. (A) (p, q), (B) (q, s), (C) (q), (D) (r, s)
1
Sol. (A) 15 C2r 15 C2r 1
2
16
r r 5 (r N)
3
(B) Let side of triangle is (x, x, y), y < 2x
For x = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 number of possible value of y is 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 respectively
For x > 5, y has 9 possibilities so total number of the ordered pair of (x, x, y) is
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 5 9 = 61
So, total possibility are 52 3 + 9 = 165
1 5
(C) |az2| = |–bz – c| |b| |z| + |c| |z|2 – |z| – 1 0, z
2
2 2 5 1
and |c| |a| |z| + |b| |z| |z| + |z| – 1 0, z
2
(D) z > x > y, z > y > x and z > y = x
So total number of cases = 8 C3 8 C3 8 C2 140
52. (A) (p, r), (B) (p, s), (C) (p, r, s), (D) (p, q, r, s, t)
a b
Sol. (A) Let the form of divisor is 2 5
So, 88 a, b 99, 12 cases for each a and b
12 12 9
So, p E
100 100 625
(B) On each face there are 4 such triangles are possible, so total triangles are 4 6 = 24
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
8!
1 1 1..... 1 3 8
7!
7 times
6!
1 1 1 1 3 3 15
4! 2!
4!
1 3 3 3 4
3!
So total number of cases will be = 28
(D) No such equilateral triangle is possible, so N = 0
SECTION – C
53. 7
Sol. Choices for f(1), f(2), ....., f(2018), are 4, but f(2019) have two possibility
So, ab = 2 42018
54. 8
1 1
Sol. Volume of DFAB = height base area = 6 4 8
3 3
Given line is perpendicular to edge AB and passing through point E
55. 3
Sol. z4 – 5z3 + 18z2 – 17z + 13 = (z – z1)(z – z2)(z – z3)(z – z4)
10 = (1 – z1)(1 – z2)(1 – z3)(1 – z4)
10 = (PA)2(PC)2 (PA)(PC) = 10
56. 2
Sol. det(A) = (r – 1)(p – 1), total number of matrices are 8,
the number of matrices has |A| = 0, are 6
57. 5
6 5 4 3
Sol. Coefficient of x in (x + x + ..... + 1)
6 6 3 –3
Coefficient x in (x – 1) (x – 1)
28 – 3 = 25, R = 25
58. 8
1
Sol.
d abc 3
a b c d 1 a b c 3 1
59. 2
2019
Sol. M 2019
C1 1008C1
3
2035825
60. 3
Sol. Only equality holds in A.M. G.M. so x = y = z = 1
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section–A (01 – 08, 21 – 28, 41 – 48) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong
answer.
Section–A (09 – 12, 29 – 32, 49 – 52) contains 12 paragraphs with each having 2 questions with
one or more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2
marks for wrong answer.
Section–C (13 – 20, 33 – 40, 53 – 60) contains 24 Numerical based questions with answers as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
2. In the Bohr’s hydrogen atom model, R, V and E represent the radius of the orbit, speed of the
electron and total energy of the electron respectively. Which of the following quantities are
proportional to the quantum number n?
(A) VR
(B) RE
(C) VE1
(D) RE1
3. A ray of light is incident normally on one face 30 60 90 prism
60 P
of refractive index p = 5/3 immersed in water of refractive index
m = 4/3 as shown in the figure.
5 p 1
(A) The exit angle 2 of the ray is sin1 30
8 Q
m 2
5
(B) The exit angle 2 of the ray is sin1
4 3
(C) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index of water is increased to
5
n by dissolving some substance.
2 3
(D) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index of water is increased to
5
n by dissolving some substance.
6
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
30
litre/minute
Leak rate
20
(A) 10
0 2 4 6 8 10
t(hours)
30
litre/minute
Leak rate
20
(B) 10
0 2 4 6 8 10
t(hours)
30
litre/minute
Leak rate
20
(C) 10
0 2 4 6 8 10
t(hours)
30
litre/minute
Leak rate
20
(D) 10
0 2 4 6 8 10
t(hours)
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
6. A very large number of small particles forms a spherical cloud. Initially they are at rest, have
uniform mass density per unit volume 0 and occupy a region of radius r0. The cloud collapses
due to gravitation, the particles do not interact with each other in any other way. How much time
passes until the cloud collapse fully?
3
(A)
8G0
(B)
32G0
3
(C)
32G0
(D)
8G0
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Each question has
four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). One or more than one of these four option(s) is(are) correct
Height of chimney
of cross section A and height h as shown in the figure.
The solid matter is burnt in the furnace which is at Chimney of cross-sectional
temperature TS. due to burning smoke (gas) generation area A
h
rate (volume per unit time) is Q. a density of air
It can be assume that Ta temperature of air
the velocity of the smoke (gas) in the furnace is
negligibly small.
S density of smoke Air vent
the density of the smoke (gas) does not differ TS temperature of smoke
from that air at the same temperature and
pressure.
the gases can be treated as ideal while in
furnace.
A furnace with chimney
the pressure of the air changes with height
according to the hydrostatic law. The change of
the density of the air with height is negligible.
the flow of gases in the chimney follows
Bernoulli’s equation.
the change of the density of the gas (smoke) is
negligible throughout the chimney.
9. What is the minimum height of the chimney needed in order that chimney functions efficiently, so
that it can release all of the produced smoke(gas) into the atmosphere? Express your answer in
terms of Q, A, g, Ta, a , s and T, where T = TS Ta
s Ta Q2
(A)
gA 2 T(a s )
Ta Q2
(B)
2gA 2 T
Q2 s
(C)
2(a s )A 2 g
Q2 (Ta T)
(D)
2gA 2 T
10. Assume that two chimneys are built to serve exactly the same purpose. Their cross sections are
identical, but are designed to work in different parts of the world, one in cold regions designed to
work at an average atmospheric temperature of 23C and the other in warm regions, designed
to work at an average atmospheric temperature of 27C. The temperature of the furnace is 327C.
It was calculated that the height of the chimney designed to work in cold regions is 100 m. How
high is the other chimney?
(A) 71.4m
(B) 280 m
(C) 140 m
(D) 100 m
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
11. Find the laser power P required to balance the weight of the glass hemisphere.
2mgR2 c
(A)
(n 1)2 2
4mgR2 c
(B)
(n 1)2 2
2mgR2 c
(C)
(n2 1) 2
mgR 2c
(D)
(n2 1) 2
12. If the frequency of the laser beam is f, then the number of photons striking the hemisphere per
unit time is
2mgR2 c
(A)
(n 1)2 2hf
4mgR2 c
(B)
(n 1)2 2hf
2mgR2 c
(C)
(n2 1) 2hf
mgR2 c
(D)
(n2 1) 2hf
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
14. A compound microscope is used to enlarge an object kept at a distance of 3 cm from its
objective. The objective consists of several convex lenses is contact and has a focal length of 2
cm. If a lens of focal length 10 cm is removed from the objective, the eyepiece has to be moved
by x cm to refocus the image. The value of x is
15. Consider a nuclear reaction A + B C. A nucleus A moving with kinetic energy of 5 MeV collides
with a nucleus B moving with kinetic energy of 3 MeV and forms a nucleus C in excited state.
Find the kinetic energy of nucleus C (in MeV) just after its formation if it is formed in a state with
excitation energy 10.65 MeV. Take masses of nuclei of A, B and C as 25.0, 10.0 and 34.995 amu,
1 amu 930 MeV/c2
16. A small sphere of radius R = 10 cm is arranged to pulsate so that its radius varies in simple
harmonic motion between a range 10.0cm 0.1cm with frequency f = 100 Hz. This produces
3 5
sound waves in the surrounding air of density =1.6 kg/m and bulk modulus B = 10 Pascal.
225
Find the total acoustic power radiated by the sphere (in watt). (take 3 )
8
2
17. Fresh water flows horizontally from pipe section 1 of cross sectional Ps(P2 P1) (KN/m )
area A1 into pipe section 2 of cross-sectional area A2. Figure gives
a plot of the pressure difference (P2 P1) versus the inverse area
squared A12 that would be expected for a volume flow rate of a
certain value if the waver flow were laminar under all
circumstances. The scale on the vertical axis is set by PS = 100 16 32 A 2 (m4 )
1
KN/m2. For the condition of the figure, what is the volume flow rate
in m3/s? (take 6 2.4 )
18. A plano-convex lens is placed on a plane glass surface. A thin film of air is formed between the
curved surface of the lens and the plane glass plate. The thickness of the air film is zero at the
point of contact and increases as one moves away from the point of contact. In the arrangement
light containing two wavelengths 4000 Å and 4002 Å is allowed to fall normally on the flat face of
the lens. Calculate the minimum distance (in cm) from the point of contact at which the rings will
disappear. Assume that the radius of curvature of the curved surface is 400 cm. (assume
identical intensities for both wavelengths)
19. An optical fiber consists of a cylindrical core of radius R, made of transparent material with
refraction index varying gradually from the value n = n1 on the axis to n = n2 (with 1 < n2 < n1) at a
distance R from the axis, according to the formula
n n x n1 1 2 x2
x x
n0 = 1
n2 n0 = 1 n2
R n1 R n1
O z i O z
Where x is the distance from the core axis and is a constant. The core is surrounded by a
cladding made of a material with constant refraction index n2. Outside the fibre is air of refractive
index n0. Let Oz be the axis of the fiber, with O – the centre of the fiber end. Given n0 = 1, n1 = 1.5
and n2 = 1.46, R = 25 m. A monochromatic light ray enters the fiber at point O under an incident
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
angle i = 30, the incident plane being the plane xOz. At each point on the trajectory of the light
in the fiber, the refractive index n and the angle between the light ray and the Oz axis satisfy the
relationship ncos C . Find C.
20. Two thin lenses with lens powers D1 and D2 diopter are located at distance L = 25 cm from each
other and their optical axes coincide. This system creates an erect real image of the object,
located at the optical axis closer to lens D1 with the net magnification M1 = 1. If the position of the
two tenses are exchanged, the system again produces an erect real image with the net
magnification M2 = 4. What is the difference between lens powers D = D1 – D2 (in diopter)?
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
23. Molarity of solution, prepared by mixing CaO in 200 ml water. The CaO is obtained by heating
100 gm of limestone which was 80% pure?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
H
(A) Fe MnO 4 Fe2 Mn2 H2 O
H
(B) Fe2 MnO 4 Fe3 Mn2 H2 O
H
(C) Fe MnO 4 Fe3 Mn2 H2 O
(D) Fe2 Sn4 Fe3 Sn2
27. When one mole of triatomic (bent) ideal gas at 300 K undergoes reversible adiabatic change
under a constant external pressure of 1 atm from 1 lit volume to 27 litre. What would be the final
2
temperature (in Kelvin)? [ = 1 + : where f is degree of freedom].
f
(A) 100
(B) 80.27
(C) 11.11
(D) 33.33
28. 1 mole of an ideal gas at 300 K expands isothermally and reversibly ten times of its initial volume.
Energy used in non useful work is
(A) 5.744 kJ/mol
(B) 0.0191 kJ/mol
(C) 2.303 nRT log V2/V1
(D) 2.303 nR log V2/V1
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Each question has
four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). One or more than one of these four option(s) is(are) correct
Mn NO3 2 A s B g
Brown
Conc. H2 SO4 A D aq. E g H2O
E
D NaOH F Brown
White ppt.
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Resonance energy of A molecule is equal to the difference between potential energy of most stable
resonating structure and the hybrid (actual) structure. More the magnitude of resonance energy, more will
be the stability of the molecule.
(A) 35
(B) 36
(C) 70
(D) 72
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
34. Coordination number of cation present in a void when r / r lies in between 0.155 to 0.225.
35. A 6 ampere current is passed through a solution of CuSO4 for 59 minutes. The amount of
Cu (in grams) deposited at cathode is:
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
39. At 90oC vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 500 mm Hg and that of pure liquid B is 900 mm Hg. If
o
a mixture of solution of A and B boils at 90 C and 1 atm pressure mole fraction of A is XA:
XA × 20 = n, value of n is
40. Mixture of Fe2O3 and Al is used in solid fuel rocket. What is the fuel value (magnitude only) per ml
of mix (in Kcal/ml).
Given: HAl2 O3 399.0 Kcal / mol, HFe2 O3 199.0 Kcal / mol
Density of Fe2O3 and Al are 5 gm/ml and 3 gm/ml respectively.
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13 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
1
41. Let Un be the set of the nth roots of unity. If A , then which of following is/are
Un
correct?
(A) A = 0, if n = 4k, k N
(B) A = –4, if n = 4k + 2, k N
(C) A = 2 if n = 4k + 1, k N
(D) A = 2, if n = 4k + 3, k N
1 , i j 1
42. Let Rn bij be a determinant such that bij 3 , i j 0 , then n N
nn
0 , otherwise
(A) R2019 + R2017 = 3R2018
(B) R2019 + R2017 = 9R2018
(C) The value of R4 is 54
(D) R5 is multiple of 9
43. If P and Q are two 3 3 non-identity matrices with real entries such that PPT = I, QQT = I (PT, QT
are transpose of matrices P and Q respectively) and det(PQ) < 0, then which of the following
is/are always correct (where det stands for determinant of a matrix)
(A) det(P + Q) < 0
(B) det(P + Q) = 0
(C) atleast one of the det(P – I) or det(Q – I) will be zero
(D) det(P–1 + Q–1) = det(P + Q)
z 1 z 1 2
44. Given in the Argand plane two curves C1 : arg and C2 : arg where
z 1 3 z 1 3
z = x + iy, x, y R, then
4 2
(A) sum of areas enclosed by the real axis and C1, and the real axis and C2 is equal to
3
(B) the number of complex numbers satisfying curve C1 and C2 simultaneously, is zero
1
(C) if moves on curve C2, then ||< 1, where || is modulus of
3
(D) if moves on curve C1, then || can be 1 unit, where || is modulus of
45. There are 6 red balls and 8 green balls in a bag, five balls are drawn out at random and placed in
a red box and the remaining 9 balls are put in a green box. If the number of red balls in the green
box is Rg and the number of green balls in the red box is Gr, then which of the following is/are
INCORRECT?
788
(A) probability that Rg + Gr is a prime number is
1001
213
(B) probability that Rg + Gr is a prime number is
1001
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
708
(C) probability that Rg + Gr is an even number is
1001
213
(D) probability that Rg + Gr is an odd number is
1001
47. An urn contains white balls ( 3) and r red balls. If 3 balls were to the drawn without
replacement, the probability that they would all be white is P. Introducing an extra white ball in the
4P
urn changed this probability to , then
3
(A) the maximum value of r can be 108
(B) the maximum value of r can be 88
(C) can be 6
(D) can be 9
48. Object A and B start moving simultaneously in the coordinate plane via a sequence of steps.
each of length one with the same speed, object A starts at (0, 0) and each of its step is either
right or up, both equally likely object B starts at (3, 5) and each of its steps is either left or down
both equally likely, then which of the following is/are true
5
(A) the probability that object A and B meets is
32
25
(B) the probability that object A and B will not meet is
32
7
(C) the probability that A and B meet at point (a, b), such that a < b is
64
3
(D) the probability that A and meet at point (a, b) where a = b is
32
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Each question has
four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). One or more than one of these four option(s) is(are) correct
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
x 0 0
Let A 0 y 0 ; x, y, z I with the condition that det(adj(adj A)) = 212 38 54, S1 is set of all the
0 0 z
matrices A, S2 is set of all such matrices A where trace of A is divisible by 2, and x, y, z N and S3 is set
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15 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
of all such matrices A, where (trace A3) – 3 det A = 0, and x, y, z N. Let the number of elements in set
S1, S2 and S3 be 2, and respectively.
49. Then is divisible by
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Consider a tetrahedron Die that has four integers 1, 2, 3 and 4 written on its faces. Roll the Die 2000
times and for each i, 1 i 4 let f(i) represent the number of times i is written on the bottom face.
Let A denote total sum of the numbers on the bottom face for these 2000 rolls, it A4 = 6144 f(1) f(2) f(3)
f(4), then
f 1 f 2
51. The value of is equal to
f 4
f 2
(A)
f 4
f 2
(B)
f 3
f 1
(C)
f 2
(D) none of these
52. Let g(x) is a polynomial equation such that, g(x) = 0, has all real roots, where
4 3 2
let g(x) = x + (f(1) – d)x + (f(2) – c)x + (f(3) – b)x + (f(4) – a), a, b, c, d R |g(–i)| = 1, where
i 1 , then which of the following is/are INCORRECT?
(A) g(5) > 4
(B) g(5) = 2000
(C) c+d<a+b
(D) g(4) > f(4)
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
4 1 a a3
53. Let A and A100 1 , then value of a1 + a4 is equal to _____
9 2 a 2 a4
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
7 2 x 2 12
54. Let f x 6 x 2 12 3 , then the number of real roots of f(x) = 0 is equal to _____
2
x 12 2 7
2 2 2 3 3 3 1 a 1 b 1 c
55. For real a, b, c; a + b + c = 2, a + b + c = 6 and a + b + c = 8, then is
5
equal to _____
2 2 20
1 1 1
56. If Rn 1 1 1 1 , where n 1, then
n n
R is equal to _____
n 1 n
57. The radius of circumscribing sphere of a regular tetrahedron the coordinates of whose vertices
are A(0, 0, 0), B(3, 0, 0), C(0, 3, 0), D(0, 0, 3) is R, then [R], is equal to _____ (where [.] denotes
the greatest integer function)
x 1 y 2 z 2
58. A variable line passing through the point of intersection of the lines
7 1 5
and x + 3 = y – 4 = –z. If S(x, y, z) = 0 is the locus of mirror image of the point (8, 3, –7) in the
variable line and S(x, y, z) = 0 is locus of foot of the perpendicular from (8, 3, –7) to the variable
line, then the ratio of volumes of S to S is equal to _____
a1 a2 a3
59. Let P a4 a5 a6 , where ai {0, 1, 2} i {1, 2, 3, ....., 9}. If possible values of det(P) are
a7 a8 a9
P1, P2, P3, ....., Pn, then P1 + P2 + P3 + ..... + Pn is equal to _____
60. Let R be the number of non-empty subsets of the set {1, 2, 3, ....., 9) satisfying the property that
no two consecutive numbers are elements of a set, then number of prime divisors of R
is/are_____
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. B, C
Sol. ma 200x 100(L x)
300 1
a x
3 3
So, = 10 rad/s
10 1
For amplitude, 10 A 2
3 9
2
A m
3
T T T 2
So, t AB , where T sec
12 4 3 10
1 4 200
and Eosc (3)(100) J
2 9 3
2. A, C
n2 Z Z2
Sol. From Bohr’s theory, R , V and E 2
z n n
3. A, C
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
4. A, C
Sol. Cut off wavelength depends upon the accelerating potential difference so it will remain same and
characteristic lines are dependent upon the energy gap between the energy levels of the
elements. So these may change.
5. A
Sol. Difference in the outer and inner water levels always remains the same. Then the pressure
difference across the hole remains same.
6. C
3
42 r0
Sol. From Kepler’s law, T 2
4 2
G r03
3
7. B
Sol. consider the case for M 0 and M
8. B
Sol. (1) sin = n() sin
dn() d
So, 0 = sin n( )cos
d d
sin 1 dn( )
d d
cos n( ) d
tan dn( )
n( ) d
9. B, C
10. C
Sol. (for Q. 9-10)
Applying Bernoulli’s theorem between top and bottom of chimney
1
P s gh s v 2 P0 , where v = Q/A
2
1 Q2
So, P P0 s gh s 2 P0 a gh
2 A
2
sQ
So, h
2(a s )A 2 g
a Ts Ta Q2
For ideal gas, , So h =
s Ta 2gA 2 T
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
11. B
12. B
Sol. (for Q. 11 to 12)
B
For small , n =
So, = (n 1)
Initial photon momentum per unit time = P/c
Final photon momentum per unit time A
P 2rdr 2P 2
2 cos 2 1 rdr
c c 2
2P (n 1)r 2 r C
= 1 rdr , Because
c 2 0 2R2 R n 1
P (n 1)2
1
c 4R2
mg4R2 c
So, P
(n 1)2 2
P
No. of photons/time =
hf
SECTION – C
13. 1
Sol. sin 45 = sin r r = 30 A
From BQR and CSR
BQ BR
45 45
SC RC Q S
P i T
RC h 45 i i i 45
h 3 C
BR B M R
i = 45+ r = 75
QM
So, tan15 , so MR = 12 cm
MR
So, BR = 15 cm and RC = 5 cm
So, h = 1cm
14. 9
1 1 1
Sol. In Ist case: v 1 = 6 cm
v1 3 2
When one lens is removed, the new focal length of the objective is
1 1 1 1 1
f = 2.5 cm
f f f1 2 10
The new position of image is
1 1 1
v 2 3 2.5
v2 = 15 cm
So, shifting = 15 6 = 9 cm
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
15. 2
Sol. m A c 2 K A mB c 2 K B mCc 2 K C excitation energy
So, K C 2 MeV
16. 9
B
2 2 2
Sol. Intensity at the surface of sphere = 2 f (R)
B
So, total power = 2 2 f 2 ( R)2 4 R 2
= 8 3 Bf 2R2 ( R)2 9 Watt.
17. 6
1 1 A2 V2
Sol. P2 P 1 =
2
V12 V22 2 2 2 V22
2 A1
1 2 1
V22 A 22 A1 V22
2 2
From the graph,
1 2 2 300 103 1
V2 A 2 N/m2 and V22 300 103 N/m2
2 16 2
1
So, A 2 m2 and V2 600 m/s
4
So, volume rate Q = A2V2 = 6 m3/s
18. 4
rm2
Sol. For newton’s ring, t
2R R
For fringe system to disappear completely
1
2t m 1 m 2
2 t
2t 2t 1 rm
So,
1 2 2
2 1 1
So, 2t
12 2
rm2 2 107 1
So, 2 14
2R 16 10 2
rm = 4 102 m
19. 2
Sol. Refraction at the air and core (at x = 0) interface gives
(1) sin i = n1 sin r
Now for refraction at various parallel interfaces at different x.
n1 cos r = n1 sin = n cos
2
sin2
So, n cos = n1 1
n12
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
9 1
n12 sin2 i = 2
4 4
20. 3
Sol. Both the lenses must be converging
If x is the distance of object from the first lens
f
So, m1 1 where f 1 is focal length of first lens
f1 x
f2
and m2 where f 2 is focal length of the second lens and L is separation between
xf1
f2 L
f1 x
the lenses.
xf1
f2 L
1 f x x f1 L x f1 f2 L
So, 1 = 1
M1 m1m2 f1 f2 f2 f1f2
When the lenses are interchanged, in the above expression only the second term changes
1 L x f1 f2 L
So, 1
M2 f1 f1f2
1 1 1 1
L L D1 D2
M1 M2 f1 f2
1 1
So, 1 – = (D1 – D2)
4 4
D1 – D2 = 3 diopter
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
21. A, B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
22. A, B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
23. B
Sol. CaCO3 CaO CO2
100 gm sample contains 80 gm CaCO3
80
Moles of CaCO3 0.8
100
Moles of CaO formed = 0.8 mole
0.8
Molarity 1000 4.0
200
24. A, B, D
25. A, B, C, D
26. A, B, C
Sol. For feasibility of reaction Eo ve & Go ve
[Fe Fe2 2e ]5
[MnO 4 5e 8H Mn2 4H2O] 2
5Fe 2MnO4 8H 2Mn2 5Fe2 8H2 O
G1o 2 F 0.44
Go2 5 F 1.51
Go3 10 FEo 5G1o 2Go2
Eo 0.44 1.51 1.95
Fe 2 Fe3 e
MnO 4 5e 8H Mn2 8H2O
5Fe2 MnO4 8H Mn2 8H2O Fe3
Eo 0.771 1.51 = 0.739
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
27. A
Sol. T1V11 T2 V2 1
8/6
2/6
T1 1 T1 300
T2 2/ 6
100
27 3 3
28. A, C
Sol. G H TS
V2
TS 2.303nRT log
V1
10
2.303 1 8.314 300log
1
= 5744.14 J mol-1 K-1
29. B
30. A, B, C, D
Sol. (for Q. 29 to 30)
Mn NO3 2 MnO2 2NO2
MnO2 Conc. H2 SO4
MnSO 4 O2 H2 O
O
MnSO 4 NaOH Mn OH2
2
MnO OH 2
White Brown
H
PbO2 MnSO 4 HMnO 4 Pb2
Purple
H
Mn2 NaBiO3 HMnO 4 Bi3
H
Mn2 IO 4 HMnO 4 IO3
Starch
NO2 KI
Paper Blue spot
31. B
Non resonating
Benzene
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
32. A, B
Sol.
5H2 H 5 28.6 143 kcal / mole
SECTION – C
33. 5
Sol. O O O
Cr O
O
O
O O
34. 3
r
Sol. 0.155 0.225, trigonal planar.
r
35. 7
63.5
Sol. W zit 6 59 60
2 96500
= 7 gm
36. 5
28
Sol. N 5
5.6
37. 8
101.8 100
Sol. %SO3 80 8
18
38. 5
5
Sol. x
3
5
y 5 5
3
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
39. 7
Sol. 760 poA X A pBo XB
760 500X A 900 1 X A
XA = 0. 35
n 0.35 20 7
40. 4
3
Sol. 2Al O2 Al2 O3 H 399.0 kcal
2
3
2Fe O2 Fe2O3 H 199.0 kcal
2
By using these. We get
2Al Fe2 O3 Al2O3 2Fe H 200 kcal
54 160
Vol. of fusion mixture = vol. of Al + vol. of Fe2O3 50 ml
3 5
200
Fuel value 4 kcal / ml
50
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – A
41. A, B, C, D
Sol. Let f x xn 1 x
Un
1 2 1
i i i 1 i 1
n n
Un
A =
Un Un 1n1
Un
42. A, D
3 1 0 0 ... 1 1 00...
3 1 0...
1 3 10 0... 0 3
1
Sol. Rn 0 1 Rn 3 0 1
0
. 0 . 0
. n 1n1
. . nn
. . n1n 1
Rn = 3Rn – 1 – Rn – 2
Rn + Rn – 2 = 3Rn – 1
43. B, C, D
T T
Sol. P T P Q Q T P Q |P + Q| = 0, P T P I P I
Either |P| |P – I| = –|P – I| or |Q||Q – I| = –|Q – I|, because |P| |Q| < 0
P P1 Q1 Q P Q P1 Q 1 P Q 0
44. B, C
Sol. Shown in the figure
Im
C2 R e, C 1 , || 1
–1 1 –1 1
45. B, C, D
5 balls 9 balls
Rg green 8 Rg green
Sol.
5 Rg red Rg 1 red
Re d box Green box
So, Gr = Rg + 1
Rg + Gr = 2Rg + 1 (cannot be even number)
1 2Rg + 1 11
6
C5 8 C4 6 C1 213
For Rg + Gr non-prime Rg = 0 or 4 so the probability = 14
C5 1001
46. A, B, C, D
Sol. The each number a1a2 ..... a5 will correspond to a term in expansion
a 1
1
a12 ..... a17 a12 a22 ..... a72 a13 ..... a73 ..... a15 a52 ..... a75
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
5
So find sum of coefficient of x , x , x
3k 2k 4k
in expansion of x1 ..... x 7 , for the A, B, C
5
respectively (where k N), if k = 33 then number possible case will be 5 + C2 = 15
47. B, D
1
C3 4 C3
Sol. P r
, P r 1
C3 3 C3
2 2
Equality value of P, r
11
108
r 10
11
rmax = 88, can not 6 as r will not be integer
48. B, C, D
Sol. There are 8 steps between (0, 0) and (3, 5) so A and B can be meet at (0, 4), (1, 3), (2, 2) and
(3, 1) point
Let ai and bi denote the number of paths to Pi from (0, 0) to (3, 5) respectively, because A has to
take r steps to right and B has to take r + 1 steps down the number of ways A and B can meet at
Pi is
ai · bi = 4Ci · 4Ci + 1, because A and B can each take 24 path in 4 ways, so probability they will meet
1 3
is 8 aibi
2 i0
49. A, C
50. C, D
Sol. xyz = (23 32 5), number of possible triplet of (x, y, z) are = 5C2 4C2 3C2 = 180
so 2 = 8 180 = 1440, if x + y + z = even so possible cases are odd + odd + even,
even + even + even
For odd + odd + even, total number of cases = 54
For even + even + even, total number of cases = 18, so = 72
Trace of A3 = x3 + y3 + z3, x3 + y3 + z3 = 3xyz Either x = y = z or x + y + z = 0 , so = 0
51. A, C
Sol. f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + f(4) = 2000, By A.M. G.M., A4 6144 f(1) f(2) f(3) f(4)
Only equality holds true so f(1) = 2f(2) = 3f(3) = 4f(4)
so f(1) = 960, f(2) = 480, f(3) = 320, f(4) = 240
52. B, C, D
Sol. Let g(x) = (x – )(x – )(x – )(x – ), , , , are the roots of polynomial g(x) = 0
1 1 2 1 2 1 y 2 1 2 = = = = 0
4
So, g(x) = x and f(1) = d, f(2) = c, f(3) = b, f(4) = a
SECTION – C
53. 2
3 1 0 0
Sol. A = B + I, B , B2
9 3 0 0
54. 4
Sol. f(x) = 0, has five distinct and real roots
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
55. 0
Sol. a 2 , ab 1 , abc = –2
So, a, b, c are roots and equation x3 – 2x2 – x + 2
(a, b, c) = (1, –1, 2)
56. 7
1 1
n2 n 1 n2 n 1 , find R1, R2, ....., R20 it will be a telescopic sum
2 2
Sol.
Rn 4
57. 2
58. 8
x 1 y 2 z 2
Sol. Point Q(8, 3, –7) lies on the line , let P is point of intersection of the given
7 1 5
lines P(–6, 1, 3)
S is sphere with radius PQ and S is sphere with diameter PQ
59. 0
Sol. If possible value the value of det P is k, then –k al also possible for each positive k
60. 2
Sol. Let an is total of such subset for a n number of element set . So in that subset let either 1, is
appeared or not, if 1 appeared then total number of subset will be an – 2, if 1 is not appeared total
number of subset is an – 1,
so an = an – 1 + an – 2 provide a1 = 1, a2 = 2 find a9 = 55
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2019
OPEN TEST
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
Paper 1
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into Two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 - 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns
and 4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows
designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S).
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
2. Section-C (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 - 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Enrolment No.
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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3 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 7 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
V V
(C) B C (D) B
P P
A A C
V V
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5 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
5. A block of mass 1 kg moves under the influence of external forces on a rough horizontal
surface. At some instant, it has a speed of 1 m/s due east and an acceleration of 1 m/s2
due north. The force of friction acting on it is F
(A) F acts due west
(B) F acts due south
(C) F acts in the south west direction
(D) the magnitude of F cannot be found from the given data
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Answer questions 8, 9 and 10 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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7 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Answer questions 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.
A thin uniform rod of mass ‘m’ and length ‘’ is free to rotate about its upper end. When it is at
rest, it receives an impulse J at its lowest point, normal to its length. Immediately, after impact.
Column – 1 Column – 2 Column – 3
(I) Angular velocity of rod 3J2 (P) Linear momentum is conserved
(i)
2m
(II) Angular momentum of rod 3J (Q) Moment of inertia of Rod about COM
(ii)
2m m 2
is
3
(III) Kinetic energy of rod 3J (R) Angular momentum about COM is
(iii) conserved
m
(IV) Linear velocity of the mid (iv) J (S) Angular momentum about hinge is
point of rod conserved
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
14. A piece of ice (heat capacity = 2100 J kg–1 0C–1 and latent heat = 3.36 x 105 J kg–1) of
mass m grams is at -50C at atmospheric pressure. It is given 420 J of heat so that the ice
starts melting. Finally when the ice-water mixture is in equilibrium, it is found that 1 gm of
ice has melted. Assuming there is no other heat exchange in the process, the value of m
is
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9 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 7 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
20. Which of the following reaction(s) is/are correctly representing enthalpy of formation?
1 1 1 1
(A) H2 g I2 s
HI g (B) H2 g CI2 g HCI
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 3
(C) H2 g Br2 HBr g (D) P4 s H2 g PH3 g
2 2 2 2
21 Which of the following is/are expected to form inner orbital octahedral complex.
(A) d8(strong field ligand) (B) d8(weak field ligand)
3
(C) d (weak field ligand) (D) d3(strong field ligand)
22. Two flasks A and B have equal volumes. A is maintained at 300 K and B at 600 K, while
A contains H2 gas, B has an equal mass of CH4 gas. Assuming ideal behaviour for both
the gases. Select the correct option.
(The collision diameter of CH4 is twice as that of H2)
Where uav – average speed
– Mean free path
KE – Kinetic energy
(A) (uav)A = 2(uav)B (B) A = 2B
(C) K.EA = 2K.EB (D) Total K.EA = 4 total K.EB
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
23. Which of the following statements are correct for SNAr reaction?
(A) Follows second order kinetics (B) KH/KD > 1
(C) Involves carbanion-type intermediate (D) Involves two transition states
25. A system undergoes two cyclic processes 1 and 2. Process 1 is reversible and process
2 is irreversible. The correct statement/s relating to the two process is
(A) S(for process 1) = 0, while S(for process) 0.
(B) qcyclic = 0 for process 1 and qcyclic 0 for process 2.
(C) More heat can be converted to work in process 1 than in process 2.
(D) More heat can be converted to heat in process 1 than in process 2.
Answer questions 26, 27 and 28 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.
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11 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Answer questions 29, 30 and 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.
29. The correct combination in which reaction proceeds with hydride transfer is
(A) (I) (iv) (R) (B) (II) (ii) (S)
(C) (IV) (i) (P) (D) (I) (iv) (Q)
31. The correct combination in which a produce is formed which can be identified by
reacting with CHCl3/KOH
(A) (I) (iv) (Q) (B) (II) (ii) (S)
(C) (IV) (iii) (R) (D) (III) (i) (P)
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
HO O HO O O
HO
OMe
OH OH
HO OH HO OMe HO OH
CH2OH
O OMe O OH O
HO HO
H OH
H OH
HO OH HO OH
H OH
HO HO
O CH2OH
H O
H
H H O OH O
HO HO
OH OH OH
36. The maximum number of dipeptides that could be obtained by reaction of phenylalanine
with leucine is
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13 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 7 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
37. If the equation x 4 ax 3 bx 2 32x 16 0 has all positive roots, then which of the
following is/are true?
(A) a 8 (B) sum of roots is 8
(C) b 8 (D) b = 24
38. Let a1,a2 ,a3 ......an are different numbers in A.P. and a3 ,a5 ,a8 .b1,b2 ,b3 ...... are in G.P.
and a9 40, then
9
1 1
(A) a2i 6144
i 1
(B) b
i 1
18
i
9
2 1 1
(C) a
i 1
i 6278 (D) b
i 1
28
i
39. Ten persons numbered 1, 2, ….,10 play a chess tournament, each player playing
against every other player exactly one game. It is known that no game ends in a draw. If
w 1, w 2 ,.....w10 are the number of games won by players 1, 2, 3,…..,10, respectively, and
1, 2 ,......10 are the number of games lost by the players 1, 2,……..10, respectively,
then
(A) w i i 45 (B) w i i 9
(C) w i
2
81 i2 (D) w i
2
i2
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
2! 2! 1! 8a
40. Let a, b, c be the sides of triangle ABC such that 2b a c . If ,
1!9! 3!7! 5!5! 2c !
then
(A) area of ABC is 6 (B) circumradius of ABC is 5
(C) inradius of ABC is 1 (D) ABC is right angled triangle
41. If all the roots of the equation z4 az3 bz 2 cz d 0 a,b,c,d R are of unit
modulus, then
(A) a 4 (B) b 4
(C) c 4 (D) b 6
42. If x X cos Y sin , y X sin Y cos and x 2 4xy y 2 AX 2 BY 2 ; 0 ,
2
then which of the following option(s) is/are correct?
(A) (B)
6 4
(C) A B 2 (D) A B 4
43. In a triangle ABC, let BC = 1, AC = 2 and measure of angle C is 30o . Which of the
following statement(s) is (are) correct?
(A) 2 sin A sinB
(B) Length of side AB equals 5 2 3
(C) Measure of angle A is less than 30o
(D) Circumradius of triangle ABC is equal to length of side AB
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15 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Answer questions 44, 45 and 46 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.
Then
3 a
4 4
p
, (p, q are
4
a q
coprime)
(II) If px 2 5x 2 0 and p 16 (Q) q = 1
(ii)
2
3x 10x q 0 have both roots 15 15
common then
(III) If 2p q x 2 p 1 x 5 0 has both (iii) 4 = p q 1
(R)
roots . Then 8 2
(IV) 15 (iv) p = 1 (S) Final answer is divisible by 2
If Tn n.n!, then t
n 1
n p! q
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
Answer questions 47, 48 and 49 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.
Columns 1contains curves and columns 2 and 3 has some information related to them.
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
(I) xy 2x 4y 4 0 (i) Focus is (P) Conjugate hyperbola is
4 4 2, 4 4 2
x 3 y 4 12
(II) xy 4x 4y 32 (ii) Asymptote is x = 3 (Q) x 4 y 4 16
(III) xy 4x 3y (iii) Eccentricity = 2 (R) 3x 2 y 2 1
(IV) Conic is given by (iv) x 4 y 2 4 is the (S) Rectangular hyperbola
ea e a conjugate hyperbola
x
2 3
e e a
a
y
2
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17 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
x y .
1
0
1
0
51. The circle x 2 y 2 4x 4y 4 0 is inscribed in a triangle which has two of its sides
along the coordinate axes. The locus of the circumcenter of the triangle is
1/2
x y xy k x 2 y 2 0 . Find k k 0 .
52. Let PQ be a variable normal chord of the parabola y 2 4x whose focus is S. If the locus
of the centroid of the triangle SPQ is the curve gy 2 3x 5 ky 4 w where g, k, w, N ,
53. If the area of the quadrilateral formed by the common tangents of the circle x 2 y 2 25
2 2
4 tan 2 1 tan 2 4 tan 2 1 tan 2
54. Consider, P , and Q , where ,
1 tan2 1 tan2 1 tan2 1 tan2
2 2 2 2
varies, If the locus of mid point of PQ, which subtends right angle at the origin is
2
p x 2 16y 2 q x 2 4y 2 where p,q N , then find the least value of p q .
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1 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
FIITJEE JEE(Advanced)-2019
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
PAPER-1
8. A 26. B 44. C
9. C 27. B 45. C
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. ABC
Sol. T = 0
U = 0
Q = W
2. ABCD
mv 2
Sol. T mgcos 600 … (i) 600
l u
2
1 5 l 1 l
m gl mg mv 2 … (ii)
2 2 2 2
3 5
v gl and T 2mg gl
2 2
Net force is in horizontal direction when = 600
3. A
2 sin 45 g1 10
Sol. = , 1 = 5 2 50 m / s
3 g 2 sin 45 2
4. A
Sol. Apply PV = nRT
Also,
Process AB Isothermal
Process BC Isochoric
Process CA Isobaric
5. AD
Sol. Property of friction.
6. ACD
Sol. Draw F.B.D. and apply Newton’s law of motion.
7. AC
Sol. R2 is the reaction when block B is stationary
R2 = mg cos
mg 3
mgcos 30º
2
R1 4
Given,
R2 3
4 mg 3 2mg
R1
3 2 3
If block B moves with acceleration ‘a’ towards left,
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3 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
2mg
R1 = mgcos 30º ma cos 60º
3
ma mg
Or
2 2 3
ag/ 3
For A to remain stationary relative to B, mg sing 30º = ma cos 30º
mg g 3 mg
m
2 3 2 2
Hence, A remains stationary relative to block B, if R1/R2 = 4/3 and for which block B
moves with acceleration of (g / 3 ) .
8. A
Sol. For bounded system the total energy should be negative.
9. C
Sol. For unbounded system the total energy should be positive.
10. B
Sol. Moon is bounded system.
11. A
12. B
13. A
SECTION – C
14. 8
Sol. m 2100 0 5 10 3 3.36 105 420
420 336
m 8 10 3 kg 8gm
2100 5
15. 0
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Sol. As force due to water is perpendicular to area its torque will be zero about hinge.
16. 3
4
G R3
GM 3 4 G
Sol. g 2 2
R
R R 3
6 g1 1R1 2 R1
11 g R 3 R
R1 3 6
R 22
2
V1 M1 R 1 R13 R 23 6 3 2
6
V M R1 R 3 R1 3 22 22 3
3
v1 11 2 3 kms1
22
17. 2
Sol. For m not to slide over M, acceleration of the triangular block should be gtan if the
required mass in m0, then
m0 g T m0 g tan
& T M m g tan &
T = 2g tan
& cot = 2
m0 = 2 kg
18. 2
2
Sol. Xcm , I 2m
2 2 3
I 2 2
T 2 2
2mgcm 3g
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5 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. CD
Sol. Process is Pirrerversible adiabatic for an irrerversible adiabatic process Ssurr = 0, Ssys > 0,
hence STotal will also be greater than zero.
20. ACD
Sol. For HCl standard state is gas.
21. CD
Sol. d8 arrangement d2sp3 hybridization is not possible.
22. ABD
3
Sol. K.E RT
2
T
P
T
2 2P
23. ACD
Sol. In SNAr formation of carbanion in RDS it is a two stop process.
24. ABCD
Sol. Experimental observations.
25. AC
Sol. S is a state function dS = 0
Work done is more in reversible process which require greater amount of heat.
26. B
Sol. Cl2 NaOH
NaOCl NaCl H2O disproportionation reaction
27. B
Sol. FeCl3 KI FeI2 I 2 KCl
28. C
Sol. FeCl3 KCN excess K 3 Fe CN6 aq KCl
29. D
Sol. HCOONa CH3OH Cannizaro involves H transfer
HCHO NaOH
30. C
Sol. OH OH OH
CHO
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
31. C
KOBr
Sol. CH3CONH2 CH3 NH2
CHCl3 /NaOH
CH3NH2 CH3NC
Foul smelling
compound
SECTION – C
32. 4
Sol. X
H
B B
HN NH X2 N N X
HB BH B B
N N
H
X
X
B B
B N N N N X
N N
B B B B
B B N N
N X
X B
33. 3
Sol. O O
O-S-S-S-S-O
O O
34. 0
Sol.
eg
t g
2
35. 3
Sol. OH OR
C Reducing sugar; C Non reducing sugar
O-R OR
36. 3
Sol. H2N COOH
H2N COOH
NH2
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7 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
37. BD
Sol. x 4 ax 3 bx 2 32x 16 0
Its roots are , , ,
16
1/ 4
2
1 1 1 1
2
4
2 GM HM 2
1
x 4 ax 2 bx 2 32x 16 x 4 8x 3 24x 2 32x 16
38. AB
Sol. We get a1 8, a 2 12, a3 16,a5 24, a8 36
b1 54
1
1 1
54
i 1 bi 2 18
1
3
39. ABD
10
Sol. Clearly, each player will play 9 games, And total number of games is C2 45 . Clearly,
w i i 9 and w
i i 45
w i 9 i w i2 81 2i 18 i
w i2 81 10 2i 18 i
810 2i 18 45 2i
40. ACD
1
Sol.
10!
210 C1 210 C3 10C5
10
C1 10C3 10C5 10 C7 10 C9
10!
29 83 8a
a 3, b 4, c 5
10! 2.5 ! 2.c !
41. ACD
Sol. z4 az3 bz2 cz d 0 a,b,c,d R
Let roots are z1,z 2 ,z3 ,z 4
z1 z 2 z 3 z 4 1
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
z1 z2 z3 z 4 a
z1z2 z1z3 z1z 4 z 2 z3 z 2 z 4 z3 z 4 b
z1z2 z3 z1z2 z 4 z1z3 z 4 z2 z3 z 4 c
z1z2 z3 z 4 d
z1 z 2 z 3 z 4 z 1 z 2 z 3 z 4
a 4; b 6; c 4; d 1
42. BCD
Sol. x 2 4xy y 2 AX 2 BY
2
X cos Y sin 4 X cos Y sin
2
X sin Y cos X sin Y cos
AX2 BY 2 comparing coefficient
sin 2 4 cos 2 sin 2 0 coefficient of XY
A 1 2sin 2
B 1 2 sin
n
cos 2 0
2 4 4
XY XY
and x ,y
2 2
x 4xy y 3x Y 2 A 3, B 1
2 2 2
43. ACD
a b 1 2
Sol. (i) From Sine law,
sin A sinB sin A sinB
2sin A sinB (True)
(ii) From cosine law in
12 22 c 2
ABC, cos 30o A
2 1 2
3 5 c2
2 3 5 c2
2 4 b=2
c=?
c 52 3
(iii) As c a C A
Angle B must be obtuse
Measure of less than 30o o
B 30
1 1 1 C
(iv) ab sinC 1 2 sin30o a=1
2 2 2
abc 1 . 2 . c
So, R c
4 1
4
2
Circumradius of ABC is equal to length of side AB.
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9 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
44. C
45. C
46. D
Sol. (for Q. No. 44 – 46)
1. 0 and O
4 a4
P 5 2
2.
3 10 q
3
P ,q4
2
3. Coefficient x 2 0 Coefficient x = 0
4. Write tn n 1 ! n!
47. B
48. D
49. B
Sol. (for Q. No. 47-49)
(I) Hyperbola is x 4 y 2 4
(II) Hyperbola is x 4 y 4 16
(III) Hyperbola is x 3 y 4 12
(IV) 2 3x ea e a
2y e a e a
2
2 3x 2
2y 4
SECTION – C
50. 0
Sol. We have a d 2 ad c b 2 bc
a d c b (As ad = bc)
a2 d2 2ad c 2 b2 2bc a 2 d2 c 2 b2
a2 d2 x b 2 y c 2 0
b2 c 2 x b 2 y c 2 0
b y x c 2 x 1 0
2
c2
y x x 1 0
b2
Which is of the form L1 L 2 0
So, fixed point is (–1, 1) x0 , y 0 (Given)
Hence, x01 y 01 1 1 0
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
51. 1
2 2
Sol. The equation of the given circle is x 2 y 2 4x 4y 4 0 or x 2 y 2 4
y
B (0, 2k)
D (h, k)
C (2, 2)
O (2h, 0) A
52. 5
Sol.
We have 3h t12 t 22 1 …………(1)
3k 2 t1 t 2 …………(2)
2
and t 2 t1 …………(3)
t1
2
t1 t 2
t1
Eliminate t1 and t 2 to get
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11 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
y
P (t1)
O S (1, 0)
x
Q (t2)
3k 2 4
t1
2 t1 3k
3k 4
t2
2 3k
Substitute the values of t1 and t 2 in (1) we get
2
16 3k 4
3h 1
9k 2 2 3k
32 9k 2
3h 2 5
9k 4
3x 5 36y 2 128 81y 4
Hence g 36; k 81 and w 128
g k w 245
53. 3
Sol. y mx 36m2 16
0 0 36m2 16
5
1 m2
y
500
0,
11
x 2 y 2 25
500 500
, 0 , 0
3
O
3 x
x 2 / 36 y 2 / 16 1
500
0,
11
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
9 3 500
m2 y x
11 11 11
1 500 500 1000
Required Area 4
2 11 3 3 11
54. 1
Sol. P 2 tan ,sec ; Q 2 tan , sec
x2
Locus of P and Q is y 2 1 - - - - (1)
4
consider mid point of PQ is M (h, k)
equation of PQ by T = S1
4yk xh 4k 2 h2 0
Homogenising equation (1)
4yk xh
1
4k 2 h2
2
4yk xh
4y 2 x 2 4 2 2
0
4k h
(Represents combined equation of OP and OQ)
OP OQ
Coefficient of x 2 + coefficient of y 2 0
16k 2 h2
4 1 4 0
4k 2 h2 2
2
3 4k 2 h2
4 16k 2 h2
locus of M (h, k)
2
3 4y 2 x 2
4 16y 2 x 2
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2019
OPEN TEST
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
Paper 2
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-C & Section-D.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
3. Section-D (21 – 23, 44 – 46, 67 – 69) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Enrolment No.
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C
Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2
Density of water water = 103 kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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3 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(SECTION – D)
Correct Method :
0 0 3 4 8 . 4 0
0 0 2 5 1 . 3 7
0 0 2 1 3 . 0 0
Wrong Method :
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 .
2 1 3 . 0
2 1 3 . 0
3 4 8 . 4 0
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 . 0 0
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. Force acting on a particle moving in a straight line varies with the velocity of the particle
k
as F , where k is a constant. The work done by this force in time t is:
v
k
(A) 2 t (B) 2kt
v
2kt
(C) kt (D) 2
v
2. A uniform rod of length ‘l’ is pivoted at point ‘A’. It is struck by a A
horizontal force which delivers an impulse ‘J’ at a distance ‘x’
from point ‘A’ as shown in figure, impulse delivered by pivot is O
zero if ‘x’ is equal to
l l
(A) (B) x
2 3
2l 3l
(C) (D)
3 4
J
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5 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x x
(A) (B)
t t
x x
(C) (D)
t t
5. An ideal gas has a molar heat capacity Cv at constant volume. The molar heat capacity
of this gas as a function of its volume , V
R V
(A) is Cv if the gas undergoes the process T T0 e
V
2R V
(B) is Cv if the gas undergoes the process T T0 e
V
R V
(C) is Cv if the gas undergoes the process P P0 e
(1 V)
R V
(D) is Cv if the gas undergoes process P P0 e
V
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
7. A particle is projected at an angle = 30º with the horizontal, with a velocity of 10 m/s
then
(A) After 2 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(B) At 1 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(C) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 10 m/s
(D) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 5 m/s
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7 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains ONE paragraph. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
(4Vo, Po)
B
V
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
11. A stone is projected with initial velocity u 2 2 m / s at an angle = 450 with the
horizontal, find the angular velocity in rad/sec of the stone with respect to the point of
projection, when it is at its maximum height. (take g = 10 m/s2)
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
12. A particle of mass m is fired from the point A (as shown in the figure) A 30°
situated at a distance of 2R from the center of the planet with a
1 R
velocity times the escape velocity from point A. The radius of the
2
planet is R. The maximum distance of the particle from the centre in
R
the subsequent motion is nR. Find the value of n.
3t 2
13. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2kg varies with time as P watt, where t is in
2
seconds. If velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, the velocity of particle at t = 2sec will be
(in m/s).
14. In the figure, find the minimum value of mass ‘m’ (in kg) of the rod
rod so that the block of mass M =12 kg remains stationary on
m
the inclined plane (take g = 10 m/s2) assume there is no = 0.5
friction between rod and block
M
370
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9 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
16. If the intensity of sound is doubled, by how many decibels does the sound level
increase?
(in dB) (approx)
17. Two rods are of same material and have same length and area. Heat Q flow through
them in 12 minutes, when they joined side by side. If now both the rods are joined in
parallel, then in what time ( in minutes ) the same amount of heat Q will flow.
18. If y is adiabatic exponent of a perfect gas. The no. of degree of freedom of a molecule of
n
the gas is then n = ?
y 1
20. A bus is moving towards a huge wall with a velocity of 5 m/s. The driver sounds a horn
of frequency 200Hz. The frequency of the beats heard by a passenger of the bus will be
(In Hz) nearly (velocity of sound in air = 338 m / s )
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – D
(Numerical Based XXXXX.XX answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer xxxxx.xx.
21. A monkey of mass m is sitting on a platform of mass M. Monkey can jump with a velocity
of 5 m/s making an angle 370 with the horizontal with respect to platform.
To jump the monkey 1 meter with respect to the ground. Find out the value of m/M.
22. A light wooden rod fixed at one end is kept horizontal and a spring is attached
perpendicular to the rod at its other end such that it is at its natural length. A load of 0.4
kg tied to the free end of the rod causes that end to be depressed by 2.8 cm. If this load
is set into up and down vibrations, with what frequency will it oscillate?
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11 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
25. Which is the correct relationship between three bond angles given below
O O O
P P P
1 2 3
Cl Cl Br Br F F
Cl Br F
(A) 1 2 3 (B) 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 2 (D) 1 2 3
26. In each of the following total pressure set-up at equilibrium is assumed to be equal and
is 1 atm. With equilibrium constants Kp given as K1, K2 & K3 for I, II & III equilibria
respectively, which of the following is correct ?
I. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g), K1
II. NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g), K2
III. NH2CO2NH4(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g), K3
(A) K1 = K2 = K3 (B) K1 < K2 < K3
(C) K3 < K2 < K1 (D) None of these
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
29. In which of the following the position of equilibrium will shift towards forward reaction by
adding inert gas at constant pressure?
(A) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) Cl2 (g) (B) N2 (g) 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
(C) COCl2 (g) CO(g) Cl2 (g) (D) CO(g) 2H2 (g) CH3OH(g)
(C) O (D)
O
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13 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains ONE paragraph. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
32. Select the intermediate formed in above reaction. Taking place at 770 K?
(A) H3C CH CH3 (B) CH2 CH CH2
(C) Cl CH2 CH CH3 (D) CH2 CH CH2
33. What reaction is followed when halogenation of propene is carried out at room
temperature?
(A) Substitution (B) Addition
(C) Elimination (D) No reaction
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
34. How many of the following are stronger acids than phenol?
OH OH OH OH
CH3 COOH NO 2 OH
CH3OH , , , ,
OH OH
Cl
,
Cl
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
35. How many of the following would give E1 reactions easily (considering alkyl halides can
undergo E1 on addition of suitable reagent)?
CH2Br , CHCH2Br
36. How many of the following species has bond order equal to 2.
N2 , O22+ , NO+ , CN
O 2 , N22 , NO , NO2+
NO, NΘ2 , O+2 , NO 2+
37. What is the azimuthal quantum number of the highest energetic electron of aluminium?
38. A sample of air consisting of N2 and O2 was heated to 2500 K until the equilibrium
N2(g) + O2(g)
2NO(g)
was established with an equilibrium constant Kc = 2.1 × 10–3. At equilibrium, the moles %
NO were 1.8. Then the initial composition of N2 in air is 20x. Then x is:
39. At same temperature and under a pressure of 4 atm, PCl5 is 10% dissociated. the
pressure at which PCl5 will be 20% dissociated, temperature remaining same is :
40.
The Kp for the reaction N2O 4 (g)
2NO2 (g) is 640 mm at 773 K. Then the pressure at
which the dissociation will be 50% is 120x. The value of x is:
41. How many lone pairs of electrons are present in the structure of ClF3.
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15 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
42. In the bromination of following compound , Br+ goes to which position as major
product?
2 1 O 10 9
3 O C 8
4 5 6 7
43. At 540 K 0.10 mole of PCl5 are heated in a 8 litre. The pressure of the equilibrium
mixture is found to be 1.0 atm. Then the Kc for the reactions x × 10–2 mol/lit. The value
of x is:
SECTION – D
(Numerical Based XXXXX.XX answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer xxxxx.xx.
44.
PCl5 g
PCl3 g Cl2 g . At 2 atm pressure PCl5 is 50% dissociated. Find its KP.
45.
27oC
O2 Vaccum 27oC
2 mole
1 litre 2 litre
Find the pressure of the gas after opening the stopper.
46. How many mole of Bromo form will be produced from 4.59 mole of Br2.
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
47. There are 18 ways in which n identical balls can be grouped such that each group
contains equal number of balls. Then the minimum value of n is
(A) 120 (B) 180
(C) 160 (D) 90
48. Two variable chords AB and BC of a circle x 2 y 2 a 2 are such that AB = BC = a, then
locus of point of intersection of tangents at A and C is a circle of radius
(A) a 2 (B) 2a
(C) 4a (D) none of these
49. If 4 sin x.cos y 2 sin x 2 cos y 1 0 where x, y 0, 2 ; then the largest possible
value of the sum x y
23 19
(A) (B)
6 6
15 27
(C) (D)
6 6
4 4 4
50. The equation 4 x 1 x 5 2x has
(A) All real roots (B) 2 Real roots
(C) 2 complex roots (D) All complex roots
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17 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
52. Two lines from the family of lines 1 2 x 1 y 1 0 and the line x y 5 form
an equilateral triangle. The equation of the two lines can be
(A) y 2 2 3 x 1 0
(B) y 2 2 3 x 1 0
(C) y 2 3 2 x 1 (D) y 1 3 2 x 2
54. Let p and q be roots of the equation x 2 2x a 0 & let r & s be the roots of the
equation x 2 18x b 0 if p < q < r < s are in A.P., then
(A) p + q + r + s = 20 (B) q = 3, r = 7
(C) a = 83, b = 3 (D) a = 3, b = 77
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains ONE paragraph. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
3n n
3n 3n n n!
57. Let n , Sn and Tn then Sn 3Tn , is (Where )____
r 0 r r 0 3r r r !. n r !
x2 y2
58. A circle ‘C’ intersecting the ellipse 1 such that common chord is of maximum
16 9
length, and intersecting the circle x2 + y2 6x 10y + 9 = 0 orthogonally, then number of
common tangents of circle ‘C’ and circle x2 + y2 10x 11 = 0 is
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19 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
1 sin4 x
59. The number of solutions of the equation sin 2x cos 2x = 2 in [ , ] is ………
60. Two positive real numbers a and b satisfy 2 log2 a 3 log3 b log6 a b . Such that
1 1
the value of is 21.32 , then 1 2 is ____________
a b
61. Let , be conjugate complex number such that 2 is real numbers and 2 3
then is _________.
62. A point ‘A’ is taken on the line x–y+2=0 at a distance of 2 2 unit from the point(3,5) in
the decreasing direction of ordinate, if A is the vertex of ABC and equation of angle
bisector of ABC is x + y=2, and side BC always pass through the point (h, k), then
h2+k2 is equal to
65. The number of permutations a,b,c, x, y,z of (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6) which satisfy the five
inequalities a b c, x y z, a x, b y, and c z is _______________
5 4
66.
If x, y 1, 1 , cos sin1 x sin cos1 y 2
and 1 x 2 1 y 2 , then let
9
a2
x2 y2 for positive integers a and b. Find a b .
b2 3
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 20
SECTION – D
(Numerical Based XXXXX.XX answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer xxxxx.xx.
67. Let f(x) be a function such that f(x) = x3 and the line x + y = 0 is tangent to the graph of
f(x). Then the value of f 6
68. An equilateral triangle with one vertex 4,3 has two other vertices on the lines
3x 4y 20 0 and 3x 4y 10 0 . If the length of the side of the triangle is x , then
x2 is.
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1 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
FIITJEE JEE(Advanced)-2019
OPEN TEST
PAPER-2
1. C 24. A 47. B
2. C 25. C 48. B
3. B 26. C 49. B
4. AD 27. D 50. BC
5. AC 28. B 51. ACD
9. C 32. B 55. A
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. C
k
Sol. F
v
dv k k
m ; vdv dt
dt v m
2
mv
= kt
2
Work done by force = change in kinetic energy.
2. C
L L J
Sol. J x I w Vcm =
2 2 m
LL
J x
L J 2 2 J
Vcm ; L
2 M I m x 2
ML2 J
I=
12
3. B
Sol. vA x
dx dx
a x ; adt ; x t2
dt x
4. AD
Sol. fmax = 0.4 110 = 44 N 40N
40 + f = 60 N
f
f = 20 N
a=0
30N
60N 80N
5. AC
P(dV)
Sol. C Cv …(i)
n(dT)
dT
To ev …(ii)
dV
From (i) and (ii)
R
C Cv
V
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3 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
6. ABCD
dy
Sol. Particle velocity vp = –v
dx
v is the wave velocity.
dy
is the slope.
dx
At point S, slope is zero, there force Vp at S is zero.
At point T, slope is (+)ve, there fore Vp will be along –ve x direction
dy
Excess pressure dP = –B.
dx
At point S, slope is zero
dP = 0.
At point R, slope is –ve
dP is (+) ve i.e., particles located near C are under compression.
7. BC
1
2 10 30º
2usin 2 1s .
Sol. T 30º
g 10
30º 30º
8. BD
4
25t 50
Sol. V dt
2 10
9. C
Po V
Sol. P 5Po
Vo
1 Po V 2
T 5P
o V
nR Vo
dT 1 2Po V
5Po =0
dV nR Vo
5V
V o at maximum temperature.
2
25
Tmax To
16
10. D
dQ P dV
Sol. Cv 0
ndT n dT
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Po V
5Po
Vo nR
CV 0
n 2Po V
5Po
Vo
V
5
Vo 3
2V 2
5
Vo
25
V= Vo
8
SECTION – C
11. 2
V v
Sol. =
r
V
r
12. 3
Sol. Let v0 be the velocity required to send a particle to infinity from point A. A 30°
1 GMm
mv 20 =0
2 2R R
GM
v0 =
R R
velocity of projection at A
1 GM
vp = v0 =
2 2R
vp
30°
A
B
R r v
Let v be the velocity at the highest point and r be its distance from
the center of the plant A.
1 GMm GM
mv 20 =0 v0
2 2R R
velocity of projection at A
1 GM
vp = v0 =
2 2R
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5 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Let v be the velocity at the highest point and r be its distance from the
center of the planet. Using Conservation of angular momentum.
m vp 2 Rcos30° = m vr
3R GM 3GMR
v= …(1)
r R 2r 2
From conservation on the mechanical energy at A and B
GMm 1 GM GMm 1
– m. =– mv2
2R 2 2R r 2
replacing the value of v from (1) in the above eqn.
GM GM 1 3 GMR
– =– r2 – 4Rr + 3R2= 0
4R r 2 2 r2
(r – 3R)(r – R)= 0 r = R, r = 3R
13. 2
1
Sol. m V 2 Pdt
2
t3
V2 = 4
2
V=2
14. 6
Sol. For equilibrium of block rod
Mg sin = (N) m = 0.5
= (Mg cos + mg cos )
M
370
15. 2
Sol. Velocity of efflux = 16 × 0.25 = 4 m/s2
2h
Time of fall of the liquid = = 0.25 sec.
g
Thus, range on horizontal surface = velocity of efflux × time of fall = 2 m.
16. 3
I
Sol. We know that Loudness = 10 log10
I0
I
According to the problems A 10log10
I0
2I
B 10log10 3dB
I0
17. 3
q
Sol. T (R)
t
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
18. 2
fR R
Sol. Cv =
2 1
2
f=
( 1)
19. 4
m A 2
Sol. 3
mB 2
mA mB
3 ; x CM .
mB m A mB 4
20. 6
338 5
Sol. f f 1 6
338 5
SECTION – D
21. 00001.40
Sol. VmM 4iˆ 3 ˆj
m
V u ˆi 3 ˆj
m M
VM Viˆ
Here, along horizontal direction mVm MVM 0
um 4
V u and u V 4 u
M 1
To move one meter w.r.t. ground
4
2 3
1 24 14
1 1 or 1.40
g g 10
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7 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
22. 00005.18 Hz
m 2
Sol. Tsp = –K2 =
3
3K
m
m 1
T 2 f .
3K T
23. 00002.72 J
Sol. Loss in KE = Kf – Ki
1 2 1
K f mv cm Icm 2
2 2
1 1
Ki (0.08) (10)2 (0.08) (6)2
2 2
Apply conservation of momentum and angular momentum to get Vcm and .
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
24. A
NA no of electron will be removed by
6.023 1023
16 gm of metal M
2.25 1023
= 42.83 gm of metal M
equiv. wt. of metal is 42.83
25. C
Sol. Higher electronegativity, higher bond length
26. C
Sol. Pequm = 1 atm
K1 pCO2 1atm
K 2 pNH3 pH2S = 0.5 0.5 = 2.5 10–2 atm2 = 0.25 atm2
2
2 2 1
K 3 pNH3 pCO2
3 3
4 1 4
0.148 atm3
9 3 27
The order is K1 > K2 > K3
27. D
Sol. It is dumbbell along Z axis
28. B
Sol. Fact Based.
29. AC
Sol. Addition of inert gas at constant pressure shift the reaction towards greater number of
moles.
30. ABCD
moles Mass of one litre H2O 1000
Sol. (A) H2O = 55.55 mol L–1 = 55.55 mol dm–3
Vol. in L Molar mass 18
1L
(B) Kw = [H+] [OH–] = 10–7 10–7 = 1 10–14
(C) Degree of dissociation =
[H+] = C
H 107
or, 1.8 109
C 55.55
H OH
(D) Ionization constant(Kionization) =
H2O
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9 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
C C 2C
= 2C ( is very small)
C 1 1
= (1.8 10–9)2 55.5 = 1.8 10–16 mol dm–3
31. A
Sol. O O O(-)
(-) (-)
32. B
Sol. At 770 k, Cl2 2C l
(i)CH3 CH CH2 2C l CH2 CH CH2 HCl
(ii)CH2 CH CH2 C l Cl CH2 CH CH2
33. B
Sol. Addition takes place.
SECTION – C
34. 4
Sol. OH OH OH OH
COOH NO 2 Cl
, ,
,
Cl
35. 3
Sol.
Br, (CH3)3CBr, CH2Br
36. 4
Sol. Fact calculated from MOT
37. 1
Sol. Highest energetic orbital is p-orbital
38. 4
Sol. N2 O2
2NO
Initial a (100–a) 0
Final (a – x) (100 – a – x) 2x
2x 1.8
Given x = 0.9
100 100
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
[NO]2
Also K P = Kc =
[N2 ][O 2 ]
(2x)2
=
(a – x)(100 – a – x)
= 2.1 × 10–3
a= 79% ; 100 – a = 21%
39. 1
Sol.
PCl5
PCl3 Cl2
Mole before
dissociation 1 0 0
mole after 1-x x x
n
nPCl3 nCl2
P
Kp = ......(i)
nPCl5 n
At P = 0.1x = 4 atm,
By equation (i)
1
0.1 0.1 4
Kp =
0.9 1.1
= 0.0404 atm
At = 0.2
1
0.2 0.2 P
0.0404 = :
0.8 1.2
P = 0.969 atm
40. 4
Sol.
N2O4
2NO2
Mole before equillibrium 1 0
Mole at equilibrium (1 – x 2x
n
4x 2 P
Kp =
(1 – x) n
4x 2 160
640 =
(1– x) (1 x)
4x 2
4=
1 – x2
or 1 – x2 = x2
2x2 = 1
1
x2 =
2
or x = 0.707 = 70.7%
When x = 0.5, let pressure be P.
4 (0.5)2 P
Then Kp = 640 =
0.5 1.5
P = 480 mm
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11 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
41. 2
Sol.
ClF3 :
This is the electronic structure of chlorine atom in the excited state.
In ClF3 sp2d hybridisation occurs, 3 unpaired electrons form bounds with fluorine atoms,
and 2 lone pairs occupying 2 corners of a distorted trigonal bipyramidal structure.
42. 3
Sol. Fact based
43. 4
Sol.
PCl5
PCl3 Cl2
Mole before
dissociation 0.1 0 0
mole after (0.1 – x) x x
dissociation
Given volume of container = 8 litre
x x
.
[PCl3 ][Cl2 ] x2
Now Kc = = 8 8 = ....... (i)
[PCl5 ] (0.1– x) 8(0.1– x)
8
Also, PV = nRT for the equilibrium mixture at 540 K.
1 × 8 = (0.1 + x) × 0.082 0 × 540
x = 0.08 ...... (ii)
0.08 0.08
Kc =
8(0.1 – 0.08)
= 4 × 10–2 mole litre–1
SECTION – D
44. 00000.66
Sol.
PCl5
PCl3 Cl2
P
P(1 - 0.5) 0.5P 0.5P
= 0.5 P
4
0.5 P + 0.5 P + 0.5 P = 2 P =
3
4
KP = 0.5 P = 0.5 = 0.66 atm
3
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
45. 00016.40
nRT 2 0.082 300
Sol. P 16.40 atm
V 3
46. 00001.53
Sol. O O
CHBr3 R COONa
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13 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
47. B
Sol. The total numbers of required ways = the total number of factors of n.
180 22 32 5 . Therefore the total number of factors of 180 is 3 3 2 18 .
48. B
Sol. AB AO BO a AOB 60 P(x, y)
A
PA
3
r a
B
x 2 y 2 a2 3a2 a
x 2 y 2 4a2 O a
a
49. B
Sol. 2 sin x 1 2 cos y 1 0
1
either sin x
2
11 7
x ,
6 6
Or
1
cos y ,
2
2 4
y ,
3 3
4 11 19
maximum value of x y .
3 6 6
50. BC
4
Sol. x 4 y4 x y
2xy 2x 2 3xy 2y 2 0
two real and two complex roots
51. ACD
1
Sol. Given, sin x sin y cos z .............(1)
2 2
sin2 x sin3 y 1
................(2)
cos z 4 2
sin x sin4 y 1
..................(3)
cos2 z 8
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
cos2 z
½ 2..............(4)
sin xxin2 y
1
(3) x(4) sin y .............. (5)
2
1
(1) x (2) sin3 x sin4 y
16
sin3 x 1
sin x 1 (6)
1
cos z (7)
2
1 3
Now sin x sin y 1
2 2
tan x y z tan165 tan15 3 2
3 1
cos y z
2 2
sec y z 6 2
optionsA,C,D
52. AB
x y 1 2x y 0
Sol.
All the lines pass through 1,2
PA 2
PB and PC make angle with the line
6 P 1,2 C
PA : x y 1 0
Slope of PB and PC are given by
1 A
1 B
3 2 3,2 3 xy5
1
1
3
The equation are y 2 2 3 x 1
and y 2 2 3 x 1
53. ACD
Sol.
2t 2 ,t lies out-side of x y 2 2y 3 .
54. ABD
Sol. Let p ,q d, r 2d, s 3d (where d > 0)
then d 2 (i),
d a (ii)
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15 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
56. B
SECTION – C
57. 2
Sol. 1 x
3n
3nC0 3nC1x 3nC2 x 2 ....... 3nC3n x 3n …………(i)
Put x 1, , 2
23n 3nC0 3nC1 3nC2 ....... 3nC3n ………..(ii)
1
3n
3nC0 3nC1 3nC2 2 ....... 3nC3n3n …………….(iii)
2 3n …………..(iv)
1 3nC0 3nC12 3nC24 ....... 3nC3n 6n
Equation (ii) gives Sn 23n 8n
(ii) + (ii) + (iv) we get
3n 3n
8n 1
1 2 3 3n
C0 3nC3 ........... 3nC3n
2 3n 3n
Sn 3 Tn
n
Sn 1 2 3Tn
n
Sn 3Tn 2 1
58. 2
Sol. circle ‘C’ is x2 + y2 + y 16 = 0, it intersects the circle x2 + y2 6x 10y + 9 = 0,
7
orthogonally then .
5
Now |r1r2|< C1C2 < r1 + r2.
59. 2
Sol. LHS 2
7
and RHS 2, x and .
8 8
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
60. 5
Sol. Suppose k 2 log2 a 3 log3 b log6 a b , then we have
1 1 ab 6k
a 2k 2 , b 3k 3 , a b 6k , and therefore, k 2 k 3 22 33 .
a b ab 2 3
61. 2
Sol. Let a ib and a ib
from 2 3 we here b 3
3
Since is real
2 2
3
We conclude that 3 is real, since a ib a a2 3b 2 ib 3a2 b 2
We have 3a 2 b2 0 a 1
Hence a 2 b 2 2
62. 2
Sol. Coordinates of A are (1,3), (using parametric equation of straight line)
Image of A(1,3) about x + y = 2 always lies on side BC (–1,1) h2 + k2 = 2
63. 1
Sol. Let A be , 0 and B be , 0 where and are roots of x 2 bx c 0
Slope (PA). slope (PB) = –1
f x0 f x0
1
x0 x0
f 2 x 0 x0 x0
f 2 x 0 f x 0 f x0 x0 x0
f x 0 0 or 1
f x0 1 f x 0
0
64. 8
6 3 2
Sol. Given n6 n2
Ck n3
C2 3n2 n2
Ck n3
C2
Since a3 b3 c 3 3abc and a, b, c are positive a b c
2
n2 n2
Ck n 3C2
2
Solving n2 n3C2 we get n 6 and solving n2 n 2
Ck we get k 2
n k 8
65. 5
Sol. Notice that we must have a 1, z 6 . Now, we can just list trying values for b, c
(1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6), (1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6), (1, 2, 5, 3, 4, 6), (1, 3, 4, 2, 5, 6), (1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6).
Thus, our answer is 5
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17 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
66. 8
Sol.
Since cos sin1 x 1 x 2 and sin cos1 y 1 y 2 , we can use the expressions for
the first equation.
5
1 x2 1 y2
2
1 x 1 y 49
2 2
5
1 x 1 y 2
2 2
1 x2 1 y2 4
2 5
2 x2 y2 5
3 4
If we use the positive square root, we get:
2 5
2 x2 y2 2
3 4
4 5
x2 y2 2
3 4
25
x2 y2
12
If we use the negative square root, we get:
2 5
2 x2 y2 2
3 4
4 5
x2 y2 2
3 4
7
x2 y2
12
25
Since the second value for x 2 y 2 is negative, x 2 y 2
12
a2 25
2
, so a,b 5, 3
b 3 12
SECTION – D
67. 00324.75
Sol. f(x0) = x03 = 1
x0 = 1
x+y=0
Also, x0 + y0 = 0 y0 = 1
x4 (x0, y0)
Now, y f(x) c
4
x4
Also, y 0 0 c
4
1 3
1 c c
4 4
x4 3
f(x)
4
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
68. 00037.33
Sol. The two lines are parallel and 6 units apart.
The point is 4 units from the first line. B
Instead of the given lines consider the lines y 0, y 6 and the
point 0,2 q
A
x0 y2 0, 2
Equation of AB: r
cos sin
x0 y2 C
Equation of AC: r
cos 60 sin 60
r cos ,2 r sin lies on y 6
r sin 4
r cos 60 ,2 r sin 60 lies on the line y 0
r sin 60 2
sin 60 1
sin 2
3 1 1 2
cot cot
2 2 2 3
3 2
sin ,cos
7 7
4 4 7 112
r r2 37.33
sin 3 3
69. 00400.00
Sol. sin t and cos t are roots of 50x 2 5mx 4m 41 0
Since sin2 t cos2 t 1
2
5m 4m 41
2 1
50 50
m2 16m 64 0
m8
25m2
400
4
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