Advance Test 3

PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 C J A 1 0 0 12 0 0 1 4
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMICSESSION2020-2021)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I, II & III REVIEW TEST # 04 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

TARGET : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2022 Date : 28 - 09 - 2020
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180

PAPER – 2
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do
so by the invigilator.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the bottom page corner of this sheet.
3. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
5. Write your name and Form number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 28 pages and all the 18 questions in each subject
and corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions printed at the beginning of
each section.
B. Filling the ORS :

9. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help of Black ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
10. Write all information and sign in the box provied on part of the ORS (Page No. 1).
C. Question Paper Formate :

The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).
11. Section-I :
(i) Contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct.
(ii) Contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists
have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
12. Section-II contains 8 questions The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9 (both inclusive)
Please read the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
CDG/2001CJA100120014
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2022/28-09-2020/Paper-2
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

A to m ic No . H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17,
Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
At o m ic m a sse s : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 0
Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
Stefan–Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4 × 10–7 NA–2
1
Permittivity of vacuum = 2
0c
0
Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
2/28 CDG/2001CJA100120014
Nurture Course/Phase-I, II & III/28-09-2020/Paper-2
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
PHYSICS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-I : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i): (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus two (–2) mark
will be awarded.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, Provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will
result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will
result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
1. As shown in the figure, Tarzan travels from one place to another by swinging in the forest. Assume that
the rope is just long enough to swing from point A to point B, what is his initial speed in order for him
to reach point B? Ignore height of Tarzan.
20cm
B
A
(A) 6 m s–1 (B) 4 m s–1 (C) 8 m s–1 (D) 2 m s–1

Space for Rough Work
CDG/2001CJA100120014 3/28
2. Potential energy function along x-axis in a certain force field is given as
PHYSICS
x3 5 2
U(x) x 6x 6
3 2
For the given force field, choose the correct option(s).
(A) the points of equilibrium are x=2 and x=3
(B) the point x=2 is a point of unstable equilibrium
(C) the point x=3 is a point of stable equilibrium
(D) there exists no point of neutral equilibrium
3. Two masses m & 2m lie on a straight line as shown. Which of the following is/are true ?
d
m 2m
2d
(A) center of mass lies at a distance of from heavier mass
3
(B) center of mass lies between the masses, on the line joining them
2d
(C) center of mass lies at a distance of from heavier mass
3
d
(D) center of mass lies at a distance of from heavier mass
3
CDG/2001CJA100120014
4/28
4. A block of mass 5kg is being pulled by a horizontal force F along a rough surface as shown. Which of
PHYSICS
the following is/are true for the motion of the block starting from rest till t = 1s ?
=0.4 F=60N
5kg
(A) Change in kinetic energy of the block is 160 J (B) Work done by friction is –80J
(C) Work done by force is 640 J (D) Work done by gravity is 800 J
5. A single mechanical power source provides energy to a particle initially at rest as P = 4t2
(A) Kinetic energy of particle is proportional to t3 (B) Kinetic energy of particle is proportional to t3/2
(C) Speed of particle is proportional to t3/2 (D)Speed of particle is proportional to t2/3
6. A light rope passes over a light frictionless pulley attached to the ceiling. An object with a large mass is
tied to one end and an object with a smaller mass is tied to the other end. Both masses are released from
rest. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false for the system consisting of the two moving masses
while string remains taut?
(A) the center of mass remains at rest
(B) the net external force is zero
(C) the velocity of the center of mass is a constant
(D) the acceleration of the center of mass is g downward
CDG/2001CJA100120014 5/28
SECTION-I (ii) Matching List Type (Maximum Marks: 12)
PHYSICS
This section contains FOUR questions, each having two matching lists. Choices for the correct
combination of elements form List-I and List-II are given as options (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
7. In all the situations shown in List I, the ideal spring is relaxed initially and all surfaces in contact with the
block are smooth. Match entries in List II for maximum elongation of spring. Blocks in all the cases start
from rest. [g = 10 m/s2]
List - I List - II
(P) K=1000N/m 30N (1) 4 cm

2kg
K=1000N/m
(Q) (2) 5 cm
2kg
(R) 5k
g (3) 6 cm
fixed
37º
2
2m/s
K=1000N/m
5kg
(S) (4) 2 cm
The truck moves with constant acceleration
as shown
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 3 4
(B) 4 3 3 1
(C) 3 1 4 3
(D) 1 4 3 4
CDG/2001CJA100120014
6/28
8. Consider the system of 3 point masses A,B and C as shown. Match entires of List II for location of
PHYSICS
center of mass of system for each configuration of masses in List I.
y
B(3,6)
A C x
(0,0) (6,0)
List - I List - II
(P) mA = m B = m C (1) xCM = 3
18
(Q) mA = mC = 2mB (2) x CM
5
(R) mA = mB = 2mC (3) x CM 4
12
(S) mB = mC = 2mA (4) x CM
5
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 1 2 4
(B) 1 1 4 2
(C) 3 1 5 3
(D) 1 4 5 5
CDG/2001CJA100120014 7/28
9. In the figure shown, when the persons A and B exchange their positions, then match the List I and
PHYSICS
List II. [There is no friction between plank and ground]
A B
M1 M2
M1=50kg, M2 = 70 kg, M = 80 kg
List - I List - II
(P) The distance (in m) moved by the centre of mass of the system is (1) 0.2
(Q) The distance (in m) moved by the plank is (2) 1.8
(R) The distance (in m) moved by A with respect to ground is (3) 0
(S) The distance (in m) moved by B with respect to ground is (4) 2.2
(5) 1.2
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 4 3 3 1
(C) 3 1 5 3
(D) 1 4 5 5
CDG/2001CJA100120014
8/28
10. A particle of mass 1kg has velocity v1 (2t) ˆi and another particle of mass 2 kg has velocity v 2 (t2 ) ˆj .
PHYSICS
List - I List - II
20
(P) Net force on centre of mass at 2 s (1) unit
9
(Q) Velocity of centre of mass at 2s (2) 68 unit
80
(R) Displacement of centre of mass in 2s (3) unit
3
4
(S) x coordinate of centre of mass in 2s (4) unit
3
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 3 5
(B) 4 3 3 1
(C) 3 1 5 3
(D) 2 3 1 4
CDG/2001CJA100120014 9/28
SECTION – II : (Maximum Marks : 24)
PHYSICS
This section contains EIGHT questions.

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. An escalator is used to move 5 people (60 kg each) per minute from the first floor of a department store
to the second floor, 20 m above. Neglecting friction, calculate the average power (in kW) required if the
escalator is moved slowly.
2. A particle of mass 4kg is moving with a constant speed of 5m/s, in a circle of radius 2m, then the work
done by all the forces acting on the particle is
3. Eating an apple gives 20 kJ energy to a boy. How much height he can climb by using this energy. If his
efficiency is 10% (mass of body = 40 kg)
4. A man of mass 100 kg is running with a constant velocity of 5 m/s on a horizontal surface and an air
resistance force equal to one fifth of is weight is acting on him. Then calculate the rate at which the man
needs to do work to maintain his speed. Report the answer in kW.
5. The given figure shows a spring of spring constant k = 900N/m and natural length
L0 = 40 cm. The end A of the spring is fixed where as the other end can slide on the horizontal wire then
find out the elastic potential energy stored in the spring as the free end of the spring slides from point B
Z
to point C (sin37º = 0.6). Report Z as the answer if the potential energy calculated above is .
2
B C
L0=40cm
°
37
=
A
6. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm
to 15 cm (in J) is –
7. A block of mass 2 kg is projected with speed of 20m/s on a horizontal frictionless surface towards an
uncompressed spring of spring constant k = 800N/m, then find out the maximum compression in the
spring (in m).
8. A particle of mass 'm' connected to a string of length 'l' then find out the tension in the string when the
particle is at its bottom most point. The particle is projected horizontally with a speed v 3gl from the
bottom most point. Find Z if the tension is Zmg.
CDG/2001CJA100120014
10/28
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
1. In a H-like sample, electrons make transition from 4th excited state to 2nd state then
(A) 10 different spectral lines are observed
(B) 6 different spectral lines are observed
(C) Number of lines belonging to the Balmer series is 3
(D) Number of lines belonging to Paschen series is 2.
2. 11.2 L of gas at 1atm pressure and 273K temperature weighs 14.0 g. The gas could be :
(A) N2O (B) NO 2 (C) N2 (D) CO
3. What is correct for 10 g of CaCO3 sample ?
(A) It contains 1g-atom of carbon (B) It contains 0.3 g-atoms of oxygen
(C) It contains 12 g of calcium (D) It contains 1 mole of oxygen atom
CDG/2001CJA100120014 11/28
4. Which molecule is/are planar as well as non-polar ?

CHEMISTRY
(A) XeF4 (B) CF4 (C) CO2 (D) SF6

5. Select the correct comparison(s) of boiling point :
(A) H2O > H2S (B) HF < HCl (C) NH3 > PH3 (D) BCl3 < BI3
6. Bond order is greater than 1 in which of the following species ?
(A) O2 (B) CO (C) C2 (D) Li2
CDG/2001CJA100120014
12/28
CHEMISTRY
7. List -I List -II
[4 r2 2(r) Vs ‘r’]
(P) 2s (1)
(Q) 4s (2)
(R) 3d (3)
(S) 4P (4)
Code
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 3 1 2 4
CDG/2001CJA100120014 13/28
8. List -I List -II
CHEMISTRY
(P) 20V H2O2 (1) 1.78 M
(Q) 5 % w/w NaOH (2) 2 m
(R) 2.05M of urea (d = 1.15g/mL) (3) 2.5 M
(S) 10g NaOH in 100 mL solution (4) 1.316 m

Code
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 4
CDG/2001CJA100120014
14/28
9. List -I List -II
CHEMISTRY
(P) NH 3 (1) p - d bond
(Q) POCl3 (2) lone pair on central atom
(R) CO32 (3) Bond angle = 120°
(S) COCl2 (4) 120° > bond angle > 109°281

Code
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 2 4 1
CDG/2001CJA100120014 15/28
10. List -I List -II
CHEMISTRY
(P) O2 (1) Paramagnetic

(Q) N 2 (2) Bond order > 2
(R) F2 (3) No -bond
(S) C2 (4) -bond order = 0
Code
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
CDG/2001CJA100120014
16/28
CHEMISTRY
1. Light of wavelength 310 nm is used in an experiment of photoelectric effect of metal
(Work function = 2.0eV). What is the stopping potential (in Volt)? (hc = 1240eV nm)
2. A hydrocarbon contains 80% C and 20%H. If its empirical formula mass be X then value of X/3 is
equal to
w
3. Percentage weight by volume % of ‘10V’ strength of H2O2 solution is
v
4. What is the degeneracy of second excited state of H– ion.

CDG/2001CJA100120014 17/28
5. Total how many sp3 hybrid orbitals are used in formation of a molecule of Be2H4 ?
CHEMISTRY
6. Total number of electrons in outermost shell of a species having pseudo noble gas configuration is x.
x
The value of is-
3
7. How many moles of O2(g) are obtained from heating of 2 moles of PbO2 (lead dioxide) ?
8. How many of the following form H-bond(s) with water :
NH3, CH4, HF, CH3OH, CH3COOH
CDG/2001CJA100120014
18/28
MATHEMATICS
PART-III : MATHEMATICS
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
1. The center of the circle S, which passing through the intersection points of circles x 2 y2 6x 0 and
x2 y2 4y 0 lies on the line 2x 3y 12 0 then circle S passes through
(A) (0, 0) (B) (0, 6) (C) (–3, 0) (D) (–3, 6)
2. If a line 3x 4y k is touching the circle x 2 y2 2x 4y 4 0 then value of ' k ' can be
(A) 6 (B) 16 (C) 5 (D) –16
3. Consider the circle x 2 y 2 4 and the point (1, 2)
(A) Power of point w.r.t. circle is positive (B) Power of point w.r.t. circle is negative
(C) Point lies inside the circle (D) Point lies outside the circle
CDG/2001CJA100120014 19/28
MATHEMATICS
4. If a circle is drawn which is circumcircle of the triangle formed by the lines y 3x 6, y 3x 6 and
y = 0. Then for this circle
(A) Radius = 4 (B) Radius = 2 (C) Center is (2, 2) (D) Center is (0, 2)
5. Let A0 A1 A2 A3 A4 A5 be a regular hexagon inscribed in a unit circle, then choose the correct
option/s
(A) A0A1 = 1 (B) A0A2 = 1
(C) A0A2 = 3 (D) (A0A1)·(A0A2)·(A0A4) = 3
6. A ball moving around the circle x 2 y 2 2x 4y 20 0 in anti-clockwise direction leaves it tangentially

at the point P( 2, 2) . After getting reflected from the straight line
(a b b)x (a b b)y (39 2 b) 0 ,

it passes through the centre of the circle. If perpendicular distance of straight line from P is 5/2 then
(A) a = 4 (B) b = 3 (C) a = 3 (D) b = 5
CDG/2001CJA100120014
20/28
MATHEMATICS
7. List-I List-II
(P) If the shortest and the longest distance (1) 1
from the point (10, 7) to the circle
x2 y2 4x 2y 2 0 are L and M
respectively, then L + M is
(Q) The radius of the circle inscribed in (2) 2
the triangle formed by the lines x = 0,
y = 0 and 4x + 3y = 24 is
1 1 1 1 17
(R) If a, , b, , c, and d, (3)
a b c d 2
are four distinct points on a circle of

radius 2012 units, the value of abcd is
(S) The lengths of the common chord of (4) 20
the circles x 2 y 2 2x 3y 1 0 and
x2 y 2 3x 2y 1 0 is
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 4 3 1 2
CDG/2001CJA100120014 21/28
MATHEMATICS
8. List-I List-II
3 3
(P) For the circle x2 + y2 + 4x – 6y + 1 = 0. (1) centre is 1, and radius is
2 2
(Q) For the circle x 2 y 2 2x 3y 1 0 (2) centre is (4, 2) and radius is 2
(R) For the circle x 2 y 2 8x 4y 16 0 (3) centre is (–2, 3) and radius is 2 3
(S) For the circle x 2 y2 2x 6y 6 0 (4) centre is (1, 3) and radius is 2
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 4 3 1 2
CDG/2001CJA100120014
22/28
MATHEMATICS
9. List-I List-II
(P) The equation of the normal to the circle (1) 3x + 4y = 0
x2 + y2 + 6x + 8y + 1 = 0 passing through (0, 0) is
(Q) The equation of the tangent to the circle (2) 4x – 3y = 0
x2 + y2 + 6x + 8y = 0 passing through (0, 0) is
(R) The equation of the normal to the circle (3) x – 2y = 0
(x – 1)2 + (y + 2)2 = 10 passing through (0, 0) is
(S) The equation of the tangent to the circle (4) 2x + y = 0
x2 y2 2x 4y 0 passing through (0, 0) is
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 4 1 2
CDG/2001CJA100120014 23/28
MATHEMATICS
10. List-I List-II
(P) For the circle x 2 y 2 4 the locus of point of (1) x2 y 2 12x 16y 100 0
intersection of the perpendicular tangents is
(Q) For the circle x 2 y2 12x 16y 0 , the equation (2) x2 y2 4x 6y 5 0
of director circle is
(R) For the circle x 2 y 2 16 the locus of point of (3) x2 y2 8
intersection of the perpendicular tangents is
(S) For the circle x 2 y 2 4x 6y 4 0 , the equation (4) x2 y2 32
of director circle is
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
CDG/2001CJA100120014
24/28
MATHEMATICS
1. If the area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in the circle, x 2 y2 6x 8y c 0 is 12 3 sq. units then
c is equal to
2. Let the tangents from the (0, 2) to the circle, x 2 y 2 8x 4y 16 0 touch it at the points A and B..
(AB)2
Then is equal to (where AB is length of AB)
2
3. If one of the diameters of the circle x 2 y 2 2x 6y 6 0 is a chord to the circle with centre (2, 1),
then the radius of the circle is
4. The length of the tangents from any point on the circle x 2 y2 4x 6y 2016 0 to the circle
x2 y2 4x 6y 2020 0 is
CDG/2001CJA100120014 25/28
MATHEMATICS
5. If the two circles (x 1)2 (y 3)2 r 2 and x 2 y2 8x 2y 8 0 intersect in two distinct points such
that n r m where m, n N , then the value of (m – n) is
6. If a circle passes through the points of intersection of the co-ordinate axes with the lines x y 1 0
and x 2y 3 0 , then the integral value of is.
7. Two circles x 2 y 2 2x 2ky 6 0 and x 2 y 2 2ky k 0 intersect orthogonally. If sum of possible

le
values of ' k ' is , then [ ] is, (where [] is greatest integer function)
8. If the circle x 2 y 2 4x 6y 0 touches the axis of x, then the value of is

CDG/2001CJA100120014
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CDG/2001CJA100120014 27/28
D. Marking scheme :
13. For each question in Section-I (i), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, Provided NO incorrect option
is darkened.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result in
+4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in –2 marks,
as a wrong option is also darkened.
14. For each question in Section-I (ii), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
15. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to only
the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect
answers in this section.
16. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
Appropriate w ay of darkening the bubble for your answ er to be evaluated

a The one and the only acceptable
a Part darkening
a a Darkening the rim
a Cancelling after darkening
a Erasing after darkening

Figure-1 : Cor rect w ay of bubbling for valid answ er and a few examplex of invalid answ ers
Any other form of partial marking such as ticking or crossing the bubble will be invalid
1 4 2 0 0 0 2 2
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Figure-2 : Correct Way of Bubbling your Form Number on the ORS. (Example Form Numebr : 14200022)
Name of the Candidate Form Number
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate.
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2436001 +91-744-2435003 info@allen.ac.in
28/28 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation CDG/2001CJA100120014
Your Target is to Secure Good Rank in JEE 2021

PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 CJ A1 0 0 12 0 0 1 3
(ACADEMICSESSION2020-2021)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I, II & III REVIEW TEST # 04 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

TARGET : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2022 Date : 28- 09- 2020
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180

PAPER – 1
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do
so by the invigilator.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the bottom page corner of this sheet.
3. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
5. Write your name and Form number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 24 pages and all the 18 questions in each subject
and corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions printed at the beginning of
each section.
B. Filling the ORS :
9. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help of Black ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
10. Write all information and sign in the box provied on part of the ORS (Page No. 1).
C. Question Paper Formate :
The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).
11. Section-I :
(i) Contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct.
(ii) Contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, date etc. Four questions relate to two
paragraphs. Each question of a paragraph has ONLY ONE correct answer among the four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D).
12. Section-II contains 8 questions The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9 (both inclusive)
Please read the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
CDG/2001CJA100120013
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

A to m ic No . H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17,
Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
At o m ic m a sse s : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 0
Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
Stefan–Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4 × 10–7 NA–2
1
Permittivity of vacuum = 2
0c
0
Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
2/24 CDG/2001CJA100120013
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
PHYSICS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-I : PHYSICS
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
1. A body of mass m is slowly pulled up the rough hill (friction coefficient ) by a force F as shown. Work
done by the force
F h
x
(A) dependent upon m (B) depends upon x.
(C) depends upon h. (D) depends upon coefficient of friction ( )
CDG/2001CJA100120013 3/24
2.
PHYSICS In the figure shown, mass of block A is m and mass of block B is 2m. The spring constant is K. All the
surfaces are smooth and the system is released from rest with spring unstretched.
4mg
(A) The maximum extension of the spring is
k
2mg 2m
(B) The speed of block A when extension in spring is , is 2g
k 3k
2
(C) Net acceleration of block B when the extension in the spring is maximum, is g
3
2mg
(D) Tension in the thread for extension of in spring, is mg
k
3. Consider the system of point masses as shown. Which of the following options is/are correct ?
Y
4m 3m
(a,a)
(0,a)
m 2m X
(0,0) (a,0)
7a a
(A) X coordinate of com of system is (B) X coordinate of com of system is
10 2
7a a
(C) Y coordinate of com of system is (D) Y coordinate of com of system is
10 2
CDG/2001CJA100120013
4/24
4. A running man has half the kinetic energy of that of a running boy of half his mass. The man
PHYSICS
speeds up by 1.0 meter/sec and then has the same kinetic energy as the boy. Which of the
following options is/are correct ?
(A) Original speed of man is 2.4 m/s (B) Original speed of man is 4.8 m/s
(C) Original speed of boy is 2.4 m/s (D) Original speed of boy is 4.8 m/s
5. A block of mass 2kg is projected upwards with speed 10 m/s & stops momentarily at height of 4m &
returns with speed of 8 m/s. (consider air resistance is present and take g= 10m/s2)
(A) Work done by air resistance in ascending motion is –20 J
(B) Work done by air resistance in descending motion is –16 J
(C) Total work done by air resistance is 38 J
(D) Total work done by air resistance is –38 J
6. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m & 3m placed on smooth horizontal surface are connected with a
light spring. The two blocks are given velocities as shown when spring is at natural length. Select the
correct alternative (s)
(A) Velocity of centre of mass of the system is v/5.

(B) In centre of mass frame initial velocity of B is positive.
(C) In centre of mass frame initial velocity of A is negative.
(D) Velocity of centre of mass of the system is v.
CDG/2001CJA100120013 5/24
SECTION-I (ii) : Paragraph Type (Maximum Marks: 12)
PHYSICS
This section contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Four questions related
to two paragraphs and two queston each paragraph .
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Paragraph for Question no. 7 and 8
A single conservative force F acts on 1kg particle that moves along x-aixs. The potential energy U is
given by U = 20 + (x – 2)2 where x is in meters. At x = 5 m the particle has a kinetic energy of 20 J.
7. What is the mechanical energy of the system ?
(A) 29 J (B) 20 J (C) 49 J (D) 19 J
8. What is the point of equilibrium?
(A) x = 2 m (B) x = 4 m (C) x = 0 m (D) x = 1 m
CDG/2001CJA100120013
6/24
PHYSICS
2 kg and 3 kg blocks are placed on a smooth horizontal surface and connected by spring which is
unstretched initially. The blocks are imparted velocities as shown in the figure. The spring has stiffness
30N/m.
4m/s K=30N/m 1m/s
9. The maximum extension in the spring in the subsequent motion will be

(A) 5m (B) 2m (C) 1m (D) 4m
10. Speed of the 3 kg block during the instant of maximum extension in the spring will be
(A) 5 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) 4 m/s
CDG/2001CJA100120013 7/24
PHYSICS SECTION – II : (Maximum Marks : 24)
1. A ball tied to a massless thread undergoes vertical circular motion as shown. Its speed at the lowest point
of motion is 10gl . Find ‘X’ if its speed at highest point is Xgl .
l
v = 10gl
m
2. Two springs A and B(kA = 2kB) are stretched by applying forces of equal magnitudes as shown. If the
energy stored in A is E and that in B is XE. find X.
kA F kB F
CDG/2001CJA100120013
8/24
3 Find the magnitude of x coordinate of centre of mass of the system.
PHYSICS
y
(–4, 0) (2, 0)
x
O
8kg 4kg
4. Single force acting along x axis is exerted on a particle (initially at rest) of mass 2kg as shown in the
diagram, its speed at x = 3 is x 10 m/ s , fill x in your OMR.
100N
F
2m 3m
x
5. The potential energy for a conservative force field is given as U = x 3–7x2+15x then find out the
position at which the system is in stable equilibrium.
6. A uniform disc of radius R is put over another uniform disc of radius 2R of the same thickness and
density. The peripheries of the two discs touch each other. Then the distance of a center of mass of the
system from the center of the bigger disc will be R/x, find x.
CDG/2001CJA100120013 9/24
7. A (trolley + child) of total mass 200 kg is moving with a uniform speed of 36 km/h on a frictionless
PHYSICS
track. The child of mass 20 kg starts running on the trolley from one end to the other (10 m away) with
a speed of 10 m s–1 relative to the trolley in the direction of the trolley’s motion and jumps out of the
trolley with the same relative velocity. What is the final speed of the trolley?
8. Two blocks of mass 3 kg and 6 kg respectively are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They are
connected by a light spring of force constant k = 200 N/m. Initially the spring is unstretched. The
indicated velocities are imparted to the blocks. If the maximum extension in the spring is 5Z cm, find Z.
CDG/2001CJA100120013
10/24
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
1. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of a proton and -particles will be 1 : 2 if their :
(A) velocity are in the ratio 1 : 8 (B) velocity are in the ratio 8 : 1
(C) Kinetic energy are in the ratio 1 : 64 (D) Kinetic energy are in the ratio 16 : 1
2. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are possible for a 3d electron in an atom?
(A) 3, 2, 1, – 1/2 (B) 3, -2, -1, + 1/2 (C) 3, 2, -2, + 1/2 (D) 3, 2, 0, –1/2
3. Some water is added to a mixture of 250 ml of 0.6 M HCl and 750 ml of 0.2 M HCl to obtain 0.25 M
solution of HCl as a resulting solution. Then
(A) The volume of water added is 200 ml (B) The volume of water added is 100 ml
(C) Total mass of HCl in the solution is 10.95 g (D) Total mass of HCl in the solution is 18.25 g.
CDG/2001CJA100120013 11/24
4. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in :

CHEMISTRY
OH OH OH OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
F O 2N NO2
5. The correct properties of O2 are :

(A) It is paramagnetic (B) Its bond order is 2
(C) It has 1 unpaired electron (D) It has no sigma bond
6. Select the correct comparison(s) of % covalent character :
(A) LiF < LiI (B) BeO > MgO (C) NaCl > LiCl (D) CaF2 < CaBr2
CDG/2001CJA100120013
12/24
CHEMISTRY
Hydrogen atom present in an excited state having energy (E) = –0.85 eV observed to emit radiations
from all possible transition when it de excites to ground state.
7. Number of lines in visible region during this transition

(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1
8. If the highest energy radiation among all transitions in given paragraph is incident on a metal surface
having work function ( ) = 6.75 eV then de-Broglie wavelength associated with e– emitted is
(A) 4 Å (B) 5 Å (C) 3 Å (D) 25 Å
CDG/2001CJA100120013 13/24
CHEMISTRY
Bond angle is defined as the angle between the orbitals containing bonding electron pairs around the
central atom in a molecule/complex ion. Bond angle is expressed in degree which can be experimentally
determined by spectroscopic methods. It gives some idea regarding the distribution of orbitals around
the central atom in a molecule/complex ion and hence it helps us in determining its shape. For example
H-O-H bond angle in water can be represented as under :
O
104.5°
H H
9. Which of the following has maximum bond angle among given species ?
(A) H2O (B) CH4 (C) NH3 (D) H2S
10. The total number of 90° bond angles in a molecule of PCl5 is-
(A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 6 (D) 9
CDG/2001CJA100120013
14/24
CHEMISTRY
1. Hydrogen atoms are excited to n = 4 state. In the spectrum of emitted radiations, the number of lines in
the ultraviolet and visible regions are in the ratio of x : 2 respectively, then x is :
2 The total number of protons, electrons and neutrons in 12gm of 6C12 is y × 1025. Then value of y is
(Answer should be given without considering decimal places)
3. A gaseous mixture of N2 & O2 containing 60% by mole N2 is allowed to react with each other according
to the following equaion.
N2 + O2 NO2
If 92 gm of NO2 is formed, find the mole of N2 present in the mixture.
4. Calculate the total number of electrons present in an atom of Cr (Z=24), with Azimuthal Quantum number
l = 2.
CDG/2001CJA100120013 15/24
5. The number of three centred-two electron bonds present in a molecule of B2H6 (diborane) is-
CHEMISTRY
6. How many of the following species do not exist ?

He2, OF6, Be2, Ne2, NCl7, O2, N2
7. The total number of unpaired electrons in a B2 species is/are-
8. In a molecule of NO2NH2 : the total number of lone pairs = x

N – H bond order = y
What is the value of (2x – 3y) ?
CDG/2001CJA100120013
16/24
MATHEMATICS
will be awarded.
option is darkened.
1. Let S1 : x 2 y 2 6x 5 0 and S2 : x 2 y 2 2y 3 0 be the two circles then
(A) the equation of common chord is 3x – y – 4 = 0
(B) the equation of common chord is 3x – y + 4 = 0
(C) length of common chord is 6
(D) length of common chord is 7
2. If the line x + y = 3 does not intersect at two distinct points to the family of circles x 2 y 2 by 0 then
(A) The range of b is 6 6 2,6 2 6 (B) The range of b is [0,6 2 6]
b b
(C) Number of integral values of is 3 (D) Number of integral values of is 4
6 6
CDG/2001CJA100120013 17/24
MATHEMATICS
3. Tangents TA and TB are drawn to the circle S x 2 y 2 2y 3 0 from the point T(3, 4). Which of the
following statement(s) is(are) correct ?
(A) The power of point T(3, 4) with respect to circle S = 0 is 14
(B) The angle between tangents from T(3, 4) to the circle S = 0 is

3
(C) The equation of circumcircle of TAB is x 2 y2 3x 5y 4 0
(D) The area of quadrilateral TACB is 3 7 (square units), where C is the centre of circle S = 0
4. Let the two circles S1 : x 2 y 2 2ax 2by 5 0 and S2 : x 2 y 2 2x 4y 4 0 intersects at points A

and B.
50
(A) If the equation of AB is 3x + 4y = 7, then 4a b
7
48
(B) If the equation of AB is 3x + 4y = 7, then 4a b
7
(C) If a = b = 1, then the locus of centre of a circle intersecting S1 and S2 orthogonally is 2y + 1 = 0
(D) If a = b = 1, then the locus of centre of a circle intersecting S1 and S2 orthogonally is 2y – 1 = 0
CDG/2001CJA100120013
18/24
MATHEMATICS
5. If the line y – 1 = m(x – 1) is a chord of the circle x 2 y2 7x 8y 5 0 then the value of m can be
1 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D) 7
2 2 2
6. For the circle x 2 y 2 4

(A) maximum value of (x + y) is equal to maximum value of (y – x)
(B) maximum value of x is equal to maximum value of (y – x)
2 64
(C) minimum value of x is 16
x2
2 64
(D) minimum value of x is 20
x2
CDG/2001CJA100120013 19/24
MATHEMATICS
Given pair of lines 2x 2 5xy 2y 2 4x 5y a 0 and the line L : bx + y + 5 = 0.
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions :

7. If there exist four circle which touch pair of lines and the line L simultaneously, then the value of b can
not be
(A) 5 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
8. If there exist 2 circles which touch pair of lines and line L simultaneously, then sum of possible values of
b is
1 3 5
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D)
2 2 2
CDG/2001CJA100120013
20/24
MATHEMATICS
Consider a family of circles C : x 2 y 2 kx (k 1)y (k 1) 0 always passing through two fixed points
for every k R .
9. The minimum value of the radius of circle C is
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2 4
10. If the circles belonging to the family of circle ' C ' touches y-axis, such that the angle between the circles
is then tan is
3 3 4 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 4 3 3
CDG/2001CJA100120013 21/24
MATHEMATICS
1. If the equation px 2 (2 q)xy 3y2 6qx 30y 6q 0 represents a circle, then the values of p + q is
2. The length of the intercept made by the circle x 2 y 2 1 on the line x y 1 is d then the value of d 2 is
3. If the lines 3x – 4y + 4 = 0 and 6x – 8y – 7 = 0 are tangents to a circle such that the radius of the circle
is r then the value of 4r is
4. Radius of circle cutting the circles
x2 y 2 3x 2y 1 0 , x 2 y2 x 6y 5 0 and x 2 y 2 5x 8y 15 0
R2
orthogonally is R then the value of is
9
5. The radius of smallest circle touching the co-ordinate axes and passing through (8, 9) is
6. The length of the common chord of circle x 2 y 2 6x 16 0 and x 2 y 2 8y 9 0 is then the
value of is
3
7. The chord of contact of the tangents drawn from a point on the circle x 2 y 2 81 to the circle x 2 y 2 b2
touches the circle x 2 y 16 , then the value of b is (b > 0)
8. Let P and Q are two distinct points on circle x 2 y2 2gx 2fy c 0 such that circle has minimum
radius. Consider P and Q are two points from which we can draw perpendicular tangents on both
circles x 2 y 2 32 0 and x 2 y 2 4x 4y 10 0 then the value of g + f + c is
CDG/2001CJA100120013
22/24
CDG/2001CJA100120013 23/24
D. Marking scheme :
13. For each question in Section-I (i), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, Provided NO incorrect option
is darkened.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result in
+4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in –2 marks,
as a wrong option is also darkened.
14. For each question in Section-I (ii), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
15. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to only
the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect
answers in this section.
16. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
Appropriate w ay of darkening the bubble for your answ er to be evaluated

a The one and the only acceptable
a Part darkening
a a Darkening the rim
a Cancelling after darkening
a Erasing after darkening

Figure-1 : Cor rect w ay of bubbling for valid answ er and a few examplex of invalid answ ers
Any other form of partial marking such as ticking or crossing the bubble will be invalid
1 4 2 0 0 0 2 2
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Figure-2 : Correct Way of Bubbling your Form Number on the ORS. (Example Form Numebr : 14200022)
Name of the Candidate Form Number
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate.
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2436001 +91-744-2435003 info@allen.ac.in
24/24 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation CDG/2001CJA100120013

PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 CJ A1 0 0 12 0 01 4
Path to Success (ACADEMIC SESSION 2020-2021)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I ,II & III REVIEW TEST # 04 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)
HINTS & SOLUTION (PAPER-2)
PHYSICS
SECTION-I a1 = 2iˆ a2 = 4ˆj
1. Ans. (D)
2ˆ 4ˆ
acx i ac y j
1 3 3
Sol. –mg(.2) = 0 mv 2 v = 2 ms–1
2
4 64 68
2. Ans. (A,B,C,D) ac a a
cx 2 cy 2 9 9 9
3. Ans. (A,B,D)
4. Ans. (A,B) 68
Force ma = 3 68 unit
9
5. Ans. (A,C)
6. Ans. (A,B,C,D) (B) mv cx 4iˆ
7. Ans. (A) 4 8ˆ
vcx = î v cy j (at t = 2 sec)
3 3
8. Ans. (B)
9. Ans. (A) 16 64 80
vc
Sol. (A) As Fext = 0, the centre of mass of the system 9 9 3
remain fixed. Also initial velocity of centre of mass 8ˆ
is zero. (C) x 4iˆ y j (at t = 2 sec)
3
(B) Let d be displacement of plank (right) in this pro-
4ˆ 16
cess m1(2+d) + Md – m2(2–d) = 0 Rcx i Rcy = ĵ
3 9
d = 0.2m
(C) Displacement of A = 2 + 0.2 = 2.2 m R c = R cx 2 + R cy 2
(D) Displacement of B = 2 – 0.2 = 1.8 m

2 2
10. Ans. (D) 4 16 20
Rc unit
3 9 9
Sol. v1 (2t)iˆ v 2 (t 2 )jˆ .....(i)
SECTION – II
dv1 dv 2 1. Ans. 1
a1 2iˆ a2 2tjˆ ........(ii)
dt dt
mgh 5 60 10 20
Sol. P 1000W
dv dv T 60
v1 2tiˆ v2 t 2ˆj
dt dt
m 5 60 kg; h = 20m and T = 60 sec
|dx |(2t)dtiˆ |dy |t 2dt ˆj
2. Ans. 0 3. Ans. 5
t3 ˆ 4. Ans. 1 5. Ans. 9
x t 2ˆi y
3
j .....(iii)
6. Ans. 8 7. Ans. 1
(A) by (i) at t = 2s 8. Ans. 4
CDG/2001CJA100120014 1
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2022/28-09-2020
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I SECTION – II
1. Ans. (B)(C)(D) 2. Ans. (C)(D) 1. Ans : 2
3. Ans. (B) 4. Ans. (A)(C)
2. Ans. 5
5. Ans. (A)(C)(D)
6. Ans. (A)(B)(C) 3. Ans. 3
Sol. O2 B.O. = 2.5 4. Ans : 3
5. Ans. 0
CO B.O. = 3
6. Ans. 6
C2 B.O. = 2
7. Ans. 1
Li2 B.O. = 1
8. Ans. 4
7. (B) 8. (C) Sol. NH3, HF, CH3OH, CH3COOH
9. (C) 10. (A)
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I 5. Ans. (A,C,D)
1. Ans. (A,B,C,D) Sol. Here A0A1 = 1
Sol. S :S1 S2 0 ( –1) 12 12 A 0 A 22

cos(120 ) A3
2.1.1 A4
6 4
x2 y2 x y 0 O
1 1 1 12 12 A 0 A 22 A2
A5
2 2
3 2 A1
Center : , lies on 2x – 3y + 12 = 0 A0
1 1 A 0 A 22 3 A0 A 2 3
Similarly, A 0 A 4 3
3 2
2 3 12 0
1 1
Hence, the value of A 0 A1A 0 A 2 A 0 A4 1· 3· 3 3
3 6. Ans. (A,B)
So S : x 2 y 2 3x 6y 0 y
Sol. y=mx+C
P
2. Ans. (A,B) (–2,2)
Q
C(1,2)
3. Ans. (A,D) x
4. Ans. (A,D)
A(0,6)
Sol. P(–2,–2) C(1,2)
N
5/2
C(0,2)
Q M
Clearly, radius = 4
2 CDG/2001CJA100120014
5 3 2
PQ and T( 2, 2) 3x 4y 14 0 a 12 3
2 4
let straight line : y = mx + c a 4 3
2m 2 c 5 a/2
...(i) cos30
1 m2 2 r
2. 3 3
5/2
sin(90 ) ...(ii) 9 16 c 2
PM
also c=9
CPM 90 (radius to tangent)
2. Ans. 0006
PC 5 Sol. A
so tan(2 ) ...(iii)
PM PM O
(4,2) (0,2)
on solving (ii) and (iii) : = 30°
B
m 3/ 4
C.O.C solve with circle; is x = 3
tan 60 (slope of straight line = m
3m y1
1 2
4 y – 4y + 1 = 0
y2
and mPM = –3/4)
AB y1 y2 (y1 y2 )2 4y1 y 2 16 4 12
4 3 3
m
4 3 3 3. Ans. 0003
39 2 3 (1,3)
use (i) and c Sol. A 2 B
4 3 3 r
(Clearly c will be negative) O (2,1)
so required equation of line
(4 3 3)x (4 3 3)y (39 2 3) 0

r OA 2 OB2 5 4 3
4. Ans. 0002
7. Ans. (C)
8. Ans. (B) Sol. r1
9. Ans. (A) r2
O
10. Ans. (D)
SECTION – II
1. Ans. 0009 concentric circles O(–2, –3)
Sol. r12 r2 2 2
(–3,–4)
30° r
a/2
CDG/2001CJA100120014 3
5. Ans. 0006 7. Ans. 0000
Sol. We have r1 r2 C1C 2 r1 r2 Sol. 2g1g 2 2f1f 2 c1c 2 2( k)( k) 6 k
r 3 C1C 2 r 3 3
k=– and 2
2
r 3 5 r 3
8. Ans. 0004
5 (r 3) 5, r 3 5
Sol. Given circle is x 2 y 2 4x 6y 0
2 r 8,r 2 2 r 8
(x 2) 2 (y 3) 2 ( 13 )2
Clearly, n = 2, m = 8
Hence, the value of (m – n) is 6 Clearly, 13 3 13 9 4
6. Ans. 0002
Sol. As we know that if the lines a1 x b1 y c1 0 and

a 2 x b2 y c 2 0 cut the x and y axes if four
concyclic points, then
a1a 2 b1b 2 ·1 ( 1)( 2) 2
4 CDG/2001CJA100120014
PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 CJ A1 0 0 12 0 01 3
Path to Success (ACADEMIC SESSION 2020-2021)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I ,II & III REVIEW TEST # 04 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)
HINTS & SOLUTION (PAPER-1)
PHYSICS
SECTION-I At maximum elongation spring force is 4mg and
2mg 2g
1. Ans. (ABCD) the force of gravity is 2 mg. So fnet =
3m 3
Work done by the force = mgh + mgx 3. Ans. (B,C)
2. Ans. (A,C) 4. Ans. (A,D)
5. Ans. (A,B)
m
K 6. Ans. (A,B,C)
Sol. A
3mv 2mv v
vcm = = , Initial velocity of A in COM
5m 5
B v 6
frame = – v – =– v
5 5
2mg
v 4
Initial velocity of B in COM frame = v– = v
5 5
2m 7. Ans. (C)
2mg
8. Ans. (A)
At the maximum elongation KE = 0 using 9. Ans. (C)
conservation of energy
10. Ans. (C)
1 2 4mg
2mgx = kx x
2 k SECTION – II
1. Ans. 6
2mg
at when elongation x = .
k
2. Ans. 2
Fnet =0 a=0 3 Ans. 2
T = 2mg 4. Ans. 5
Then 5. Ans. 3
2 6. Ans. 5
1 2mg 1 1 2mg
k mv 2 2mv 2 2mg
2 k 2 2 k
7. Ans. 9
2 2
2m g 3 m 8. Ans. 6
mv 2 v 2g
k 2 3k
CDG/2001CJA100120013 1
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I 3. Ans. (3)
1. Ans. (B)(D) N2 : O2
2. Ans. (A)(C)(D) 60 40 % by mole
3. Ans. (A)(C) Here O2 is limiting reagent.
Sol. 0.25 × V = 250 × 0.6 + 750 × 0.2 N2 + 2O2 2NO2
V = 1200 mL 92 gm
water added = 200 mL 2 mole
mass of HCl in final solution = 0.25 × 1.2 × 36.5 Number of moles of O2 required = 2 mole
4. Ans. (A)(D) mole % of O2 in the mixture = 40 %
Sol. (B,C) has intermolecular H-bonding. Total moles of mixture
5. Ans. (A)(B) 100

=2× = 5 mole
2p2x *2p1x
40
2 * 2 2 * 2 2 || ||
Sol. O 2 : 1s 1s 2s 2s 2p z 2p2y *2p1y
moles of N2 in the mixture
B.O. = 2 (1 + 1 ) = 5 – 2 = 3 mole.
paramagnetic (2 unpaired e–s) 4. Ans. 5
6. Ans. (A)(B)(D) 5. Ans. 2
Sol. Smaller cation, larger anion supports for more 6. Ans. 5 (He2, OF6, Be2, Ne2, NCl7)
covalent character.
7. Ans. 1
7. Ans. (B)
2 p1x
Sol. B2 : 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *
2s 2 ||
8. Ans. (B) 2 p0y
9. Ans. (B)
8. Ans. 9
Sol. H 2O CH 4 NH 3 H 2S
104.5 109 281 107 90
O + H
N–N x=6
Sol. –
10. Ans. (C) O H y=1
SECTION – II
2x – 3y = 12 – 3 = 9
1. Ans: 3
2 Ans. 1
2 CDG/2001CJA100120013
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I a=b=1
1. Ans. (A,C) Then required locus is radical axis which is
Sol. Common chord is S1 S2 0 –2y – 1 = 0
2y + 1= 0
6x 2y 8 0 3x y 4 0
5. Ans. (A,B,C,D)
2 2
S1 : x y 6x 5 0 Sol. Point (1, 1) is interior point of the circle all given
values of m are possible.
Length of common chord is 2 r 2 p 2
6. Ans. (A,D)
5 3 Sol. x 2cos , y sin
= 2 4 2 6
2 2
(x y) max 2 2
2. Ans. (A,C)
Sol. Solving x + y = 3 with x 2 y 2 by 0 (y x)max 2 2
(3 y) 2 y2 by 0 2y 2 (6 b)y 9 0 64
x2 4cos2 16sec2 20
x2
D 0 (6 b) 2 72 0
7. Ans. (B)
6 6 2 b 6 2 6 Sol. Form a triangle then we have four choices touching
all sides in circle and three excircles
b
0 1 2
6 2 1 2
3. Ans. (A,C) 1 2 1 0
Sol. Clearly, power of point T(3, 4) w.r.t. S = 0 is b 1 5
S1 = 14
2(9) (5 b) 2(1 2b) 0
Also, angle between tangents from T(3, 4) to circle
15 3b b 5
1 2 8. Ans. (D)
S = 0 is = 2sin 3
Sol. Possible when any two lines are parallel means
The equation of circumcircle of TAB is 1
2 or b
x(x 3) (y 1)(y 4) 0 2
x2 y2 3x 5y 4 0 and area of quadrilateral 1

b 2 or b
TACB 2
9. Ans. (B)
1
= 2 (2) 14 2 14 (square units)
2 Sol. C : x 2 y 2 y 1 K(x y 1) 0
4. Ans. (A,C) Thus circle of minimum radius will be circle having
centre on line x + y – 1 = 0
Sol. Equation of AB is S1 S2 0
2(a 1)x 2(b 2)y 1 0 k (k 1)
Centre ,
2 2
Comparing with 3x + 4y = 7
50 3
We get 4a b It must satisfy x y 1 0 k
7 2
CDG/2001CJA100120013 3
10. Ans. (C) 4. Ans. 3
3 y 1 Sol. S1 : x 2 y 2 3x 2y 1 0
2 2
Sol. Hence circle is x y x 0
2 2 2
S2 : x 2 y2 x 6y 5 0
1
Radius = S3 : x 2 y 2 5x 8y 15 0
2 2
Radical axis of S1 and S2 is x – y – 1 = 0 ...(1)
2 2
For circle C : x y kx (k 1) (k 1) 0 to Radical axis of S2 and S3 is –6x + 14y – 10 = 0
touch y-axis, f 2 c 3x – 7y + 5 = 0 ...(2)
Radical centre is (3, 2)
(k 1) 2
(k 1)
2 Radius is 27
k = –1, k = 5 5. Ans. 5
Sol. Equation of circle touching both axes is
Hence two circles S1 x 2 y 2 x 0 and
(x r)2 (y r) 2 r2
S2 x2 y2 5x 4y 4 0
x2 y2 2rx 2ry r 2 0
1 5 64 81 16r 18r r 2 0
r1 ,r2 ,d 8
2 2
r 2 34r 145 0
3 4 (r 29)(r 5) 0
cos tan
5 3 r = 5, 29
6. Ans. 5
SECTION – II
7. Ans. 6
1. Ans. 5
Sol.
2. Ans. 2 4
3. Ans. 3
Sol. lines are 3x – 4y + 4 = 0 b2 9.4 b 6
7 8. Ans. 8
3x 4y 0
2 Sol. C1 : x 2 y2 32
7 C2 : x 2 y2 4x 4y 10 0
4
2
2r required P and Q lie on circle
5
x2 y 2 64 (x y 9) 0
15 3
2r r
10 4
4 CDG/2001CJA100120013
PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 C J A1 0 0 12 0 0 1 3
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2020-2021)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I, II & III TEST # 04 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)
TARGET : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2022 Date : 28 - 09- 2020
ANSWER KEY : PAPER-1
PART-I : PHYSICS
SECTION - I Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(i),(ii) Ans. ABCD AC BC AD AB ABC C A C C
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION - II
Ans. 6 2 2 5 3 5 9 6
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(i),(ii) Ans. BD ACD AC AD AB ABD B B B C
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION - II
Ans. 3 1 3 5 2 5 1 9
SECTION - I Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(i),(ii) Ans. AC AC AC AC ABCD AD B D B C
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION - II
Ans. 5 2 3 3 5 5 6 8
PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 C J A1 0 0 12 00 1 4
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2020-2021)
NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I, II & III TEST # 04 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)
TARGET : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2022 Date : 28 - 09- 2020
ANSWER KEY : PAPER-2
PART-I : PHYSICS
SECTION - I Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(i),(ii) Ans. D ABCD ABD AB AC ABCD A B A D
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION - II
Ans. 1 0 5 1 9 8 1 4
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(i),(ii) Ans. BCD CD B AC ACD ABC B C C A
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION - II
Ans. 2 5 3 3 0 6 1 4
SECTION - I Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(i),(ii) Ans. ABCD AB AD AD ACD AB C B A D
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION - II
Ans. 9 6 3 2 6 2 0 4

Advance Test 3

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PAPER CODE 2 0 0 1 C J A 1 0 0 12 0 0 1 4

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I, II & III REVIEW TEST # 04 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

B. Filling the ORS :

C. Question Paper Formate :

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s

(A) 6 m s–1 (B) 4 m s–1 (C) 8 m s–1 (D) 2 m s–1

(P) K=1000N/m 30N (1) 4 cm

(R) mA = mB = 2mC (3) x CM 4

List II. [There is no friction between plank and ground]

(Q) Velocity of centre of mass at 2s (2) 68 unit

This section contains EIGHT questions.

4. Which molecule is/are planar as well as non-polar ?

(A) XeF4 (B) CF4 (C) CO2 (D) SF6

(P) 20V H2O2 (1) 1.78 M

(Q) 5 % w/w NaOH (2) 2 m

(R) 2.05M of urea (d = 1.15g/mL) (3) 2.5 M

(S) 10g NaOH in 100 mL solution (4) 1.316 m

(R) CO32 (3) Bond angle = 120°

(S) COCl2 (4) 120° > bond angle > 109°281

(P) O2 (1) Paramagnetic

4. What is the degeneracy of second excited state of H– ion.

6. A ball moving around the circle x 2 y 2 2x 4y 20 0 in anti-clockwise direction leaves it tangentially

(a b b)x (a b b)y (39 2 b) 0 ,

are four distinct points on a circle of

the circles x 2 y 2 2x 3y 1 0 and

(Q) For the circle x 2 y 2 2x 3y 1 0 (2) centre is (4, 2) and radius is 2

(R) For the circle x 2 y 2 8x 4y 16 0 (3) centre is (–2, 3) and radius is 2 3

(S) For the circle x 2 y2 2x 6y 6 0 (4) centre is (1, 3) and radius is 2

x2 y2 2x 4y 0 passing through (0, 0) is

intersection of the perpendicular tangents is

(Q) For the circle x 2 y2 12x 16y 0 , the equation (2) x2 y2 4x 6y 5 0

(R) For the circle x 2 y 2 16 the locus of point of (3) x2 y2 8

intersection of the perpendicular tangents is

(S) For the circle x 2 y 2 4x 6y 4 0 , the equation (4) x2 y2 32

7. Two circles x 2 y 2 2x 2ky 6 0 and x 2 y 2 2ky k 0 intersect orthogonally. If sum of possible

8. If the circle x 2 y 2 4x 6y 0 touches the axis of x, then the value of is

16. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

Appropriate w ay of darkening the bubble for your answ er to be evaluated

a a Darkening the rim

a Cancelling after darkening

a Erasing after darkening

Name of the Candidate Form Number

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

28/28 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation CDG/2001CJA100120014

Your Target is to Secure Good Rank in JEE 2021

NURTURE COURSE : PHASE-I, II & III REVIEW TEST # 04 (Pattern : JEE-Advanced)

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

B. Filling the ORS :

C. Question Paper Formate :

The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s