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Paper Code : 5001CT102118037

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME


(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

JEE (Main + Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST & LEADER COURSE (SRG)

PAPER-2
(ENGLISH MEDIUM)
Test Type : ONLINE Test Pattern : JEE-Advanced
TEST DATE : 06- 05 - 2019
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 186
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Instructions
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do so by the
invigilator.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


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provided for rough work.
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5. W rite your name and Form number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.

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7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THIS BOOKLET.


8. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 17 pages and all the 18 questions in each subject and
corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions printed at the beginning of each section.
B. Filling the ORS :
9. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Black

ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

10. Write all information and sign in the box provied on part of the ORS (Page No. 1).
C. Question Paper Formate :
The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of two sections.

11. SECTION–I
(i) Contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
(ii) Contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE or MORE are correct.
(iii) Contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each
of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
12. There is no questions in SECTION- II , III & IV

Please read the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/06-05-2019

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS


At omic No. H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17,
Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
At omic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,

 Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

 Coulomb's law constant 1 9


= 9 ×10
4 0
 Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2
 Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
 Stefan–Boltzmann constant  = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
 Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
 Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4 × 10–7 NA–2
1
 Permittivity of vacuum 0 =
0 c2
 Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s

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HAVE CONTROL  HAVE PATIENCE  HAVE CONFIDENCE  100% SUCCESS


BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1: PHYSICS
SECTION–I
Q.1 to Q.6 -(i) Single Correct Answer Type (Total marks 18)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A cube of green jelly rests on a table. You push the jelly laterally with a force F  100N at its top surface and
3
find that instead of sliding across the table it takes the shape of a parallelogram (as shown in the diagram)
where the lateral displacement is 0.116 m. The modulus of rigidity of the jelly is :-
F
30°

(A) 2500 N/m2 (B) 1170 N/m2 (C) 1250 N/m2 (D) 2340 N/m2
2. You have a microwave generator that can produce microwaves at any frequency between 1GHz and 10
GHz. The microwave radiation enters a 10-cm-long cylinder with reflective end caps, as shown in the Figure.
What frequency of the microwave generator, in GHz, will produce the lowest-order standing wave with an
antinode (maximum) in the center of the cavity? Note that with reflectors at both ends, the electromagnetic
standing wave acts just like the standing wave on a string that is tied at both ends. Take velocity of waves as
3 × 108 m/s.

(A) 4.5 (B) 3.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 7.5


3. A point source of power 50 watts is producing sound waves. The velocity of sound is
330 m/s, density of air is 1.0 kgm–3. Then at r = 330 m from the point source

(using  = 22/7)
(A) pressure amplitude is 10 Nm–2 (B) pressure amplitude is 5 Nm–2
(C) pressure amplitude is 6 Nm–2 (D) pressure amplitude is 12 Nm–2
4. A solid uniform cylinder of mass m = 6 kg and radius r = 0.1 m is kept in balance on a slope of inclination
= 37° with the help of a thread fastened to its jacket. The cylinder does not slip on the slope. The minimum
required coefficient of friction to keep the cylinder in balance when the thread is held verticallyis given by.

1 1
(A) (B)
2 3

3
(C) (D) None of these
4
INDORE/5001CT102118037 3/17
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/06-05-2019

5. Choose the CORRECT statement :-


(A) Electrons in a conductor are at rest in the absence of a potential difference across it.
(B) Two identical metallic spheres of exactly equal masses are taken. One is given a positive charge Q
coulombs and the other an equal negative charge. Their masses after charging are different.
(C) A line of force in an electric field is the path traced by a unit positive charge, free to move in that
field.
(D) The energy of a charged solid conductor is stored partly inside the conductor and partly outside the
conductor.
6. A block of mass M is placed on a rough surface. Angle of friction is . A pendulum bob hangs from wedge.
Wedge was projected with an initial velocity v0 and a pendulum bob is seen to be making a constant angle 
with the vertical till block is in motion. What is angle .


M m
v0

m m 
(A)  (B) 90° –  (C)  (D) tan–1  tan  
M M 
Q.7 to Q.14 -(ii) Multiple Correct Answer Type (Total marks 32)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
7. A block string system is shown in the figure. Mass of block A, B and C is 5 Kg, 2 Kg, and 2 Kg respectively.
Mass of rod is given as 1 kg and its length is 1 m. A wave transverse is transmitted in the rod in between the
block B and C once in forward and once backward direction. Choose the CORRECT statements.

B C
A

2
(A) Time for string wave to reach one end to other end in forward direction is ( 3  2 ) sec
5

(B) Time for waves to reach one end to other end is same for both in forward and backward direction
(C) Time for wave to reach one end to other end is different for forward and backward direction

1
(D) Time for string wave to reach one to other end in backward direction is (15)1 / 2 sec.
10

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8. A string of mass 0.2 kg and length 2m is tied at two ends to fixed supports under a tension of 10 N. A point P
on the string is found to travel from one extreme to other in 0.1s. Taking one end as x = 0 and the other end
x = 2m and t = 0 as the time when P is at rest. (Position of P is x)
The CORRECT statements will be
(A) For 0 < t < 0.1 s, energy flows across P in positive x-direction for 0 < x < 1 m
(B) For 0 < t < 0.05 s, energy flows across P in negative x-drection for 0 < x < 1 m
(C) At t = 0.05 s, rate of energy flow through P is zero for x = 0.5 m
(D) At t = 0.1s, rate of energy flow through P for all values of x is zero
9. If ring of radius 'R' is placed on smooth floor connected by a string at the top. Other end of string is connected
to upper plate of capacitor of same mass "M" and charge density  and area A. Lower plate of capacitor is
rigidly fixed. Then which of the following statements are correct if upper plate of capacitor is falling freely with
acceleration 'g'.

Ring
Mass = M

Mass = M

Rigidly
fixed plates

(A) Charge density of plates of capacitor must be   2Mg 0

(B) The gain in kinetic energy of the ring and the plate of capacitor is equal to the loss in gravitational potential
energy

(C) Charge of plates of capacitor must be q  Mg 0 A

(D) The gain in kinetic energy of the ring and the plate of capacitor is 1.5 times the loss in gravitational
potential energy
10. Consider the figure below, initially distance between plates is ‘d’ and ‘A’ is area of plates. In this state spring
is at its natural length. Now, charges +Q & –Q are given to plates and system is allowed to reach mechanical
equillibrium. Find potential difference between plates in this state of equillibrium.

Qd  Q2  K,d
(A) V  Qd
 Q2  (B) V  1  
 1   2A0  20 AKd 
A0  20 AKd 
A
A
2 2
Qd  Q  Qd  Q 
(C) V  A 1  4  AKd  (D) V  A 1   AKd 
0  0  0  0  d

INDORE/5001CT102118037 5/17
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/06-05-2019

11. A student studying the properties of ions in the upper atmosphere wishes to construct an apparatus with
the following characteristics : Using an electric field, a beam of ions, each having charge q, mass m and
initial velocity viˆ , is turned through an angle of 90° as each ion under goes displacement Riˆ  Rjˆ . The
ions enter a chamber as shown in figure and leave through the exit port with the same speed they had
when they entered the chamber. The electric field acting on the ions is to have constant magnitude.

y v

R
x
v R

(A) Suppose the electric field is produced by two concentric cylindrical electrodes not shown in the diagram,
mv 2
magnitude of the field should be
qR
(B) Suppose the electric field is produced by two concentric spherical electrodes not shown in the diagram,

mv 2
magnitude of the field should be
qR

(C) If the field is produced by two flat plates and is uniform in direction, value the field should have in

mv 2
this case is
2qR

(D) If the field produced by two flat plates is uniform in direction, the radius of curvature of trajectory
remains constant.
12. S is a solid neutral conducting sphere. A point charge q of 1 × 10–6C is placed at point A. C is the centre of
sphere and AB is a tangent. BC = 3m and AB =4m.

A B

(A) The electric potential of the conductor is 1.8 kV.


(B) The electric potential of the conductor is 2.25 kV.
(C) The electric potential at B due to induced charges on the sphere is –0.45 kV.
(D) The electric potential at B due to induced charges on the sphere is 0.45 kV.

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13. Particle ‘m’ is released with speed v  gR at point a over a frictional path AB. If speed of particle is constant
from A to B then

m R O
(A)  is variable A
v 
cos  R
(B)  
1  sin 

(C) Work done by friction from A to B is ( mgR )


B
1/ 2 3/ 2
(D) maximum rate of heat generation due to friction is mR g .
14. Two spherical bodies of masses M and 2M and radii R and 2R, respectively, start approaching each other
at time t = 0 from rest, due to mutual gravitational attraction. They were initially very far away from each
other. They collide at time t = T.
(A) Distance travelled by their COM till time t = T is zero (COM–centre of mass)

1 2GM
(B) There relative velocity at time t = T is
3 R
(C) PE of the system decreases as the bodies approach each other
(D) In COM frame, speeds of the bodies are always equal
Q.15 to Q.18 - (iii) Paragraph Type (Total marks 12)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions Nos.15 to 16
Two semicircular rings of radius R are placed in x-y and y-z planes respectively and form an arrangement as
shown in figure. A bead of mass m is released from the top most point of the given arrangement. The angular
 
momentum of the bead when reach point A & B about point O (origin) are L1 & L 2 respectively. (Neglect
any change in speed when bead changes ring)

x
O

z B

 
15. The direction of L 2 – L1 is along :-

(A) 3iˆ  kˆ (B) 3kˆ  ˆi (C) 2iˆ  ˆj (D) 2 ˆj  ˆi

INDORE/5001CT102118037 7/17
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/06-05-2019

 
16. Magnitude of change in angular momentum | L 2 – L1 | is :-

(A) mR 2gR  3 1  (B) mR 3gR  2 1 


(C) mR 2gR  2 1  (D) 2mR 2gR

Paragraph for Questions Nos.17 to 18


Two non-conducting plates A & B of radii 2R and 4R respectively are kept at distances x and 2x from the
point charge q. A surface cutout of a non conducting shell A is kept such that its centre coincides with the
point charge. Each plate and spherical surface carries surface charge density .

A
B 4R
C
q R 2R

R

x x

17. If FA, FB and FC be the forces on plate (A) plate (B) and spherical surface (C) due to charge q respectively
then
(A) FA = FB = FC (B) FC < FB < FA
(C) FC > FB > FA (D) FA = FB > FC
18. If 1 is flux through surface of (B) due to electric field of (A) and 2 be the flux through (A) due to electric
field of (B) then
(A) 1 = 2 (B) 1 > 2
(C) 1 < 2 (D) It depend & on x and R

No question will be asked in section – II & III & IV

8/17 INDORE/5001CT102118037
Enthusiast & Leader Course/SRG/06-05-2019/Paper-2

PART-2: CHEMISTRY
SECTION–I
Q.1 to Q.6 -(i) Single Correct Answer Type (Total marks 18)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Pt H 2 (g) BOH (aq.) HA (aq.) H 2 (g) Pt


2bar 0.1M 0.01M 1bar

Given K a (HA)  4  106 ,K (BOH)  105 ,2.303 RT  0.06,log 2  0.3 correct statements are –
b F

(A) It is concentration cell

(B) Ecell = 0.447V, E 0cell  0

(C) Emf of the cell will increase if we dilute the cathodic solution
(D) 86.271 KJ work can be obtained from the cell for each mole of H2 oxidised while maintaining the
concentration and pressure.

200
2. A mixture of two gases H2 and O2 has an average molecular mass 12 and is kept at a temperature of K
3
and pressure 0.821 atm. Select the INCORRECT options -

100
(A) Mixture contains % by mass of H2 gas
9

(B) Density of mixture is 1.8 gm/ml

100
(C) Mixture contains % by mole of O2 gas
3

(D) The ratio of initial rate of diffusion of H2 to O2 gas is 8 : 1


3. Which statement about the following equilibrium is/are true?
Ph3C–H + MeOK  Ph3CK + MeOH
(A) The reaction favours the product formation.
(B) Ph3CK is the dominant anionic species in this reaction.
(C) Methanol is the weaker acid in this reaction.
(D) The reaction favours the reactant formation.

INDORE/5001CT102118037 9/17
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/06-05-2019

4. Which of the following compounds exhibit optical isomerism.

CH3
H3C CH3
(I) (II)

CH3

H H OH
H
(III) C C C (IV) C C C C
Me Me Me NH2

(A) (I), (II), (III) (B) (I), (III) (C) (I), (II) (D) All
5. Which one of the following bonds is least covalent ?
(A) S-F in SF2 (B) S-F in SF4 (C) S-F in SF6 (D) S-S in S8
6. Which of the following is the correct order of ionisation enthalpy ?
(I) Be+ > Be (II) Be > Be+ (III) C > Be (IV) B > Be
(A) (II), (III) (B) (III), (IV) (C) (I), (III) (D) (I), (IV)
Q.7 to Q.14 -(ii) Multiple Correct Answer Type (Total marks 32)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
7. Select the correct statements :
(A) Distance between two nearest cations will be same as distance between two nearest anions in rock salt
structure.
(B) The packing efficiency of the hexagonal unit cell (two dimensional) is about 90%.
(C) Solids having F-centres may have metal excess defect due to missing anions.
(D) Silicon and germanium are intrinsic semiconductors.
8. In the following gas phase first order reaction :

A(g) 
 2B(g)  C(g)

initial pressure was found to be 400 mm of Hg and it changed to 1000 mm Hg after 20 min. Then :
(A) Half life of A is 10 min.
(B) Rate constant is 0.0693 min–1
(C) Partial pressure of C at 30 min is 350 mm Hg
(D) Total pressure after 30 min is 1150 mm Hg

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9. Which of the following can be formed during this reaction?


H
3O

OH

OH

(A) (B)
OH OH

(C) (D)
O O
10. In which of the following reaction the resolvable products is / are obtained

2 (1) H /Pd-BaSO 4
(A) CH3—C C—CH3
(2) Br2 /CCl4

(1) Li / N H3
(B) C2H5—C C—C2H5 (2) Br /CCl
2 4

(1) H 2/Pd-BaSO 4
(C) CH3—C C—CH3
(2) dil. KMnO 4

O
(D) CH3—CH HCN

11. Consider the following complexies [V(CO) 6 ] , [Cr(CO) 6 ] and [Mn(CO) 6 ] . Then incorrect statement(s)
about metal carbonyls is/are :
(A) 'C – O' bond is strongest in the cation and weakest in the anion.
(B) 'C–O' bond order is less in the cation than in anion.
(C) 'C–O' bond longer in the cation than in anion or neutral carbonyl.
(D) 'M–C' bond order is higher in the cation than in anionic or neutral carbonyl.
12. The hydration energy of Mg2+ ion is higher than that of :
(A) Al3+ (B) Ca2+ (C) Na+ (D) None of these
13. The colour of the transition metal ions is/are due to :
(A) d-d transition of electrons in presence of ligands
(B) charge transfer from ligand to metal ion.
(C) change in the geometry
(D) polarisation of anion by cation
14. Which of the following is/are soluble is excess of NaOH
(A) Al(OH)3 (B) Cr (OH)3 (C) Fe(OH)3 (D) Zn(OH)2

INDORE/5001CT102118037 11/17
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/06-05-2019

Q.15 to Q.18 - (iii) Paragraph Type (Total marks 12)


This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 15 and 16
In quantitative estimation of any element using an oxidizing agent it is essential to predict which substance(s)
gets oxidized by the oxidizing agent. In case more than one substance are getting oxidized then the oxidizing
agents gets distributed in all the reaction taking place. From this information and the data given below answer
the questions that follow.

Fe2  Fe3  e º


EO.P.  0.77 V

MnO4  8H  5e  Mn2   4H2O


º
ER.P.  1.51 V

º
2Cl   Cl 2  2e EO.P.  1.36V

2SO24  S2O82   2e


º
EO.P  2.0V

C2O42   2CO2  2e


º
EO.P  0.77V

Cr2O72   14H  6e  2Cr 3  7H2O


º
ER.P.  1.33 V
15. Which of the following cannot be used for quantitative estimation of FeC2O4 ?
(A) K2Cr2O7 in presence of dil H2SO4 (B) K2Cr2O7 in presence of dil. HCl
(C) KMnO4 in presence of dil. HCl (D) KMnO4 in presence of dil. H2SO4
16. Millimoles of FeC2O4 in the solution if 50 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 is used for its oxidation in presence of dil. HCl
if 3.5 millimoles of Cl2 is obtained along with other products.
(A) 25/3 millimoles
(B) 6 millimoles
(C) 12.5 millimoles
(D) quantitative estimation can’t be made from given data.

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Paragraph for Questions 17 and 18


Favorski rearrangement is an excellent process to produce carboxylic acid with ring contraction.  -chloro
or bromoketone upon treatment with base like OH– and consequent treatment with acid yields carboxylic
acid with ring contraction. Carbanion forms due to stability by –I, –R effect of ketone group.
Answer the followings on the basis of the above passage.
17 Which carbanion will form from PhCH2COCH2Cl
 
(A) Ph – C HCOCH2Cl (B) Ph C H2COCHCl

  
(C) Ph  C H  CO C HCl (D) Ph  CH2 CO C H

18. Which can be the substrate to yield

O O
Cl
O O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Cl
O
Cl Cl Cl

No question will be asked in section – II & III & IV

INDORE/5001CT102118037 13/17
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/06-05-2019

PART-3: MATHEMATICS
SECTION–I
Q.1 to Q.6 -(i) Single Correct Answer Type (Total marks 18)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1
dx
1. If I =  , then
0 1  x4

(A) I < /4 (B) I>/4 (C) I >1 (D) I<1


2. Which of the following function has the graph symmetrical about the origin

(A) f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)  x , y  R (B) f(x) = x I n ( x+ x2  1 )

(C) f(x) = xex (D) f(x) = sinx + cos x


3. If abc = 8 and a, b, c > 0, then the minimum value of (2 + a) (2 + b) (2 + c) is
(A) 32 (B) 64 (C) 8 (D) 10
4. If the equations ax2 +bx +1 =0 and ax2 +x +b =0 have exactly one common root then
(A) a – b =2 (B) a – b = 1 (C) a + b = 2 (D) a + b = -1
5. It is required to construct a triangle ABC with a = 2, b = 3 and sinA = 3/4, then we can draw
(A) only one triangle (B) two triangles
(C) infinitely many triangles (D) no triangle
6. The co-ordinates of middle points of the sides of a triangle are (4, 2) (3, 3) and (2, 2). Then the co-
ordinates of its centroid are

 7
(A)  3,  (B) (3, 3) (C) (4, 9/2) (D) none of these
 3 

Q.7 to Q.14 -(ii) Multiple Correct Answer Type (Total marks 32)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
   
7. Let a , b and c be three non zero and non coplanar vectors and p, q and r be three vectors given by
           
p  a  b  2c ; q  3a  2b  c and r  a  4b  2c . If the volume of the parallelopiped determined
     
a , b and c by is v1 and that of the parallelopiped determined by p, q and r is v2 then v2 : v1 is

(A) 1 : 5 (B) 5 : 1 (C) 15: 1 (D) 1: 15


8. The value of  for which the system of linear equation in x, y, z given as

 sin3  x  y  z  0 ,  cos 2  x  4y  3z  0 , 2x  7y  7z  0 has a non trivial solution

m n 
(A) (B) m (C) n   1 (D) none of these
2 6

14/17 INDORE/5001CT102118037
Enthusiast & Leader Course/SRG/06-05-2019/Paper-2

1  sin2  cos2  4 sin 4


 
9. The value of   0,  and satisfying 2
sin  1  cos  2
4 sin 4  0 are
 2 2 2
sin  cos  1  4 sin 4

7 5 11 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
24 24 24 24


111 1 is a
10. The number 91 times

(A) Prime number (B) Composite number

107  1
(C) Divisible by (D) None of these
9

11. Consider the equation x2 +x – a = 0, a  N. If equation has integral roots then

(A) a = 2 (B) a = 6 (C) a = 12 (D) a = 20

y2
12. The tangents are drawn from the points of a straight line 3x + 4y = 24 to the curve x2 +  1 . Then all
4
the chords of contact passes through a fixed point which lies on

(A) 16 x – 3y = 0 (B) 9y2 = 32 x (C) 24 x + 24 y = 19 (D) none of these .

13. If, a square matrix A = [aij], aij = i2 – j2 is of even order then:

(A) A is a skew – symmetric

(B) |A| is a perfect square

(C) A is symmetric and |A| = 0

(D) A is neither symmetric nor skew symmetric

x
14. The function f(x) = ||tanx + cotx| – |tanx – cotx||, o < x < is :
2

(A) continuous every where

(B) differentiable everywhere

(C) not continuous at some points

(D) not differentiable at exactly one point

INDORE/5001CT102118037 15/17
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/06-05-2019

Q.15 to Q.18 - (iii) Paragraph Type (Total marks 12)


This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 15 and 16
Analyse the following graph of derivative of a function f(x), i.e. y = g(x), where g(x) = f’(x) and answer the
following questions : (a  x  b). Given f(c) = 0

y
y=g(x)=f(x)
a c b x

15. The graph of y = f(x) will intersect x-axis:


(A) never (B) once (C) twice (D) cannot be determined
16. The function y = f(x), a < x < b has :
(A) exactly one local minima (B) exactly one local maxima
(C) one local minima and one maxima (D) none of these

Paragraph for Questions 17 and 18


The function sin x, cos x, tan—1x, cot—1x, cosec—1x and sec—1x are called inverse circular functions.
—1 —1

Each of the inverse circular function is multi-valued. To make each inverse circular function single valued
1  3  5 
1
let us define the principal values as follow. sin x   ,  , cos x  [2, 3]
 2 2 

3 5 
(in both cases x  [ 1, 1] ) and tan1 x   ,  , x (– , )
 2 2 

1 1 11
17. Number of possible solutions for the equation sin x  cos y  is/are :
2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite

 5 
18. sin1  cos  is equal to :
 4 

 3 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4 4

No question will be asked in section – II & III & IV

16/17 INDORE/5001CT102118037
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/06-05-2019
D. Marking scheme :

13. For each question in Section-I (i), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to
only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will
be awarded

14. For each question in Section-I (ii), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to
only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will
be awarded

15. For each question in Section-I (iii), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers
in this section.

16. Take g = 10 m/s 2 unless otherwise stated.

Appropriate way of darkening the bubble for your answer to be evaluated


a The one and the only acceptable

a Part darkening

a a Darkening the rim Answer will not be evaluated -


no marks, no negative marks
a Cancelling after darkening

a Erasing after darkening

Figure-1 : Correct way of bubbling for valid answer and a few examplex of invalid answers
Any other form of partial marking such as ticking or crossing the bubble will be invalid

1 4 2 0 0 0 2 2
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Figure-2 : Correct Way of Bubbling your Form Number on the ORS. (Example Form Numebr : 14200022)

Name of the Candidate Form Number

I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate.

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

Indore Office :  CAREER INSTITUTE, Agrawal Palace, Plot. 02, Opp. Bhoraskar Hospital, Nath Mandir Road,
South Tukoganj, Indore (MP) - 452001 +91-731-4728500 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
17/17 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE 2019 5001CT102118037

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