FST-57 - (25-April-24) - ZOO (200) Paper

FST : 57
Test ID : 257
ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24
DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 25-04-2024 MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
BIOLOGY : ZOOLOGY [FULL SYLLABUS]
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Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
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candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
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All India Full Syllabus Test–57 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024/ZOOLOGY/ 25-04-2024
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NLI / 3
TOPIC : ZOOLOGY [FULL SYLLABUS]
-A PART-1 (SECTION-A)
35 Attempt All 35 Questions

1. In the body of cyclostomata which structure is
1. found:
(1) Scales
(1)
(2) Paired fins
(2)
(3) 1 2 (3) Both 1 and 2
(4) (4) Cranium
2. 2. In the given below example, How many animals
in which three chambered heart occurs :
, Dog fish, Saw fish, Flying fish,
Hyla, Bufo, Salamander, Clarias
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5 (3) 2 (4) 5
3. 3. Which is a correct matching set with respect to
body organisation :
Column I Column II
(a) (i)
(a) Cellular level (i) Mollusca
(b) (ii)
(b) Tissue level (ii) Platyhelminthes
(c) (iii)
(c) Organ level, with (iii) Ctenophora
(d) (iv) hook
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (d) Organ system level (iv) Porifera
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
4. 4. How many matching are correct :
a. a. Sycon - Choanocytes
b. b. Spongilla - Marine
c. c. Euspongia - Bath sponge
d. d. Spongilla - Canal system
e. e. Spongilla - Asmmetry symmetry
(1) 3 (2) 2
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 1 (3) 4 (4) 1
5. (A) 5. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(A) : (R)
Assertion (A) :
Air sacs are connected to lungs in class Aves.
(R) :
Reason (R) :
These help in the supplement of respiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A) (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) (R) (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) (R) (R), (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
NLI / 4
6. 6. The given below diagram of animal belongs to
(1) (2) (1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda

(3) Echinodermata (4) Mollusca
(3) (4)
7. Blood sucking Annelida is known as
7.
(1) Pheretima (2) Ascaris
(1) (2)
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Nereis
(3) (4)
8. How many matching are correct :
8. a. Electric organs – Torpedo
a. – b. Sepia – Cuttle fish
b. – c. Scoliodon – Dog fish
c. – d. Hagfish – Myxine
d. – (1) 3
(1) 3 (2) 4
(2) 4
(3) 1
(3) 1
(4) 2
(4) 2
9. How many statements are Incorrect about
9. Amphibia:
a. a. Body is divisible into Head, Neck, Trunk
b. b. All member containes tail
c. c. Tympanum represents ear
d. d. In skin scales are occurs.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1
10. 10. The given below diagram is
(1) (2) (1) Tape worm (2) Round worm

(3) Nereis (4) Liver fluke
(3) (4)
NLI / 5
11. 11. Diploblastic animals contain two embryonic layers
these embryonic layers are :
(1)
(1) Ectoderm, Endoderm
(2)
(2) Mesoderm, Ectoderm
(3)
(3) Endoderm, Mesoderm
(4) (4) Periderm, Mesoderm
12. 12. The members of phylum Coelenterate are :
(1) (1) Mostly marine
(2) (2) Mostly fresh water
(3) (3) Sessile or free swimming
(4) 1 3 (4) Both 1 and 3
13. 13. The circulatory system in arthropoda and mollusca
are respectively :
(1) (1) closed, open
(2) (2) open, closed
(3) (3) open, open
(4) (4) closed, closed
14. 14. Canal system helpful in :
(1) (1) Food gathering
(2) (2) Respiratory exchange
(3) (3) Removal of waste
(4) (4) All of these
15. 15. Which one of the following matching are correct :
(1) (1) Polyp - Jelly fish
(2) (2) Gorgonia - Devil fish
(3) (3) Pennatula - Sea fan
(4) (4) Meandrina - Brain coral
16. 16. In arthropoda which one of the following structure
are balancing organs :
(1) (1) Statocysts
(2) (2) Malpighian tubules
(3) (3) Antennae
17. 17. Match the following columns :
-A -B Column-A Column-B
a. i. a. Ascaris i. King crab
b. ii. b. Ancyclostoma ii. Sea lily
c. iii. c. Gorgonia iii. Round worm
d. iv. d. Limulus iv. Sea fan

e. Antedon v. Hook worm
e. v.
(1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
(1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv, e-ii
(2) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv, e-ii
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(4) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii (4) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
NLI / 6
18. 18. Which is a correct matching set :
(1) (1) Metamerism Platyhelminthes
(2) (2) Coelomate Earthworm

(3) Fresh water sponge Leech
(3)
(4) All of these
(4)
19. In which class of vertebrata heart is usually three
19.
chambered, but in some animals it is four
chambered :
(1) (1) Aves
(2) (2) Mammalia
(3) (3) Amphibia
(4) (4) Reptilia
20. 20. Given below are two statements :
-I: Statement I :
Cnidoblasts are used for anchorage, defense and for
the capture of prey.
Statement II :
-II:
Cnidarians exhibit tissue level of organization and
triploblastic animal.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) I II (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) I II (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) I II (4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
-I: Statement I :
All living members of the class cyclostomata are ecto
pararite on all fishes.
Statement II :
-II:
Body of cyclostomata devoid of scales and paired fins.
below
22. 22. In all connective tissues except one of the
following cells secretes the fibres of collagen or
elastin protein:
(1)
(1) Bone
(2)
(2) Cartilage
(3)
(3) Areolar connective tissue
(4) (4) Fluid connective tissue or blood
NLI / 7
23. -I - II 23. Match Column -I with Column- II and select the
: correct option :
-I -II Column - I Column-II
Epithelial tissue Location
a. i. a. Cuboidal i. Wall of blood vessels
b. Ciliated ii. Lining of stomach and
b. ii. intestine
c. Columnar iii. Inner lining of
c. iii. fallopian tube
d. Squamous iv. Duct of glands
d. iv. (1) a -i, b-ii, c-iii, d- iv
(1) a -i, b-ii, c-iii, d- iv (2) a -ii, b-iii, c-i, d- iv
(2) a -ii, b-iii, c-i, d- iv
(3) a -iv, b-iii, c-ii, d- i
(3) a -iv, b-iii, c-ii, d- i
(4) a -iii, b-iv, c-i, d- ii
(4) a -iii, b-iv, c-i, d- ii
24. 24. Which statement is correct :
(1) (1) Hypopharynx act as tongue in cockroach
(2) (2) Epithelial tissue provides a covering or a lining for

some part of the body
(3) (3) The animal tissues are broadly classified into Epi-
thelial, Connective, Muscular and Neural tissue
(4) (4) All of the above
25. 25. In which Periplaneta americana wings extend

beyond the tip of the abdomen:
(1) (1) Male Periplaneta americana and female Periplan-

eta americana both
(2) (2) Only in male Periplaneta americana
(3) (3) Only in female Periplaneta americana
(4) (4) Neither male nor female Periplaneta americana
26. 26. All the exoskeleton plates of Periplaneta americana

collectively called as :
(1) (1) Tergite
(2) (2) Sternite
(3) (3) Pleurite
(4) (4) Sclerite
27. 27. Spiracles of cockroach regulated by :
(1) (1) Lid
(2) (2) Ligament
(3) (3) Tendon
(4) (4) Sphincter
NLI / 8
28. 28. Which is the correct statement :
(a) (a) Arthrodial membrane is a rigid membrane
(b) (b) Tergite is the dorsal sclerite
(c) (c) Labrum is a upper lip
(d) 7 (d) 7th sternum of male cockroach is boat shaped
(1) a b (2) b c (1) a & b (2) b & c
(3) a d (4) c d (3) a & d (4) c & d
29. 29. The respiratory system of cockroach consists of a
network of trachea that opens through :
(1) 10 (1) 10 spiracles
(2) 20 (2) 20 spiracles

(3) 15 pair spiracles
(3) 15
(4) 20 pair spiracles
(4) 20
30. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
30. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R) (R)
(A) : Assertion (A) :
Connective tissues are most abundant and widely
distributed in the body of complex animals.
(R) : Reason (R) :
Connective tissues perform special function of linking
and supporting other tissues/organs of the body.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(4) (A) (R) (R), (A) explanation of (A)
31. Given below are two statements :
31.
Statement I :
-I:
Circulatory system of cockroach contains aorta, vein
and capillary.
Statement II :
-II: Blood of cockroach does not contain any respiratory
pigment.
below
NLI / 9
32. 32. Haemolymph of cockroach does not have :
(1) (1) Haemocytes
(2) (2) Colourless plasma
(3) (3) Erythrocyte
(4) 1 2 (4) Both 1 & 2
33. 33. In cockroach tegmina is
(1) (1) Metathoracic wing
(2) (2) Hind wing
(3) (3) Forewing
(4) (4) Mouth part
34. 34. Identify the given mouth part of cockroach :
(1) (1) Upper lip

(2) (2) Mandible
(3) (3) Hypopharynx
(4) (4) Lower lip
35. 35. In cockroach both compound eye consist of how
many ommatidia :
(1) 4000 (1) 4000
(2) 3000 (2) 3000
(3) 2000 (3) 2000
(4) 5000 (4) 5000

PART-1 (SECTION-B)
-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
15 15 choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
10 10 question. In case if candiate attempts more than
10 10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking.
36.
36. In cockroach each ovary is formed by how many
ovarioles :
(1) 8
(1) 8
(2) 6 (2) 6
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 9 (4) 9
37. 37. During extreme summer frog take shelter in deep
burrows to protect them, this one called :
(1) (1) Hibernation
(2) (2) Aestivation
(3) (3) Mimicry
(4) (4) Protection
NLI / 10
38. 38. The skin of frog is smooth and slippery due to the
presence of :
(1) (1) Wax
(2) Oil
(2)
(3) Mucus
(3)
(4) Both 2 and 3
(4) 2 3
39. In frog the colour of ventral side of body is gener-
39. ally:
(1) (1) Olive green with dark irregular spots
(2) (2) Olive green with dark regular spots
(3) (3) Uniformly Pale yellow
(4) (4) Pale yellow with dark irregular spots
40. 40. Body of frog divisible into :
(1) , (1) Head , Thorax and trunk
(2) , , (2) Head, Neck, Thorax and abdomen
(3) , (3) Head, Neck and thorax
(4) (4) Head and Trunk
41. 41. When frog present inside the water then the eye
ball is protected by :
(1) (1) Tympanum
(2) (2) Eardrum
(3) (3) Nictating membrane
(4) (4) Feet web

Statement I :
-I:
Co-factors play a crucial role in the catalytic activity of
the enzyme.
Statement II :
-II:
Catalytic activity is lost when co-factors is removed from
the enzyme.
below
-I: Statement I :
Cellulose does not give iodine test but starch gives iodine
test.
-II: Statement II :
Starch forms helical structures but cellulose does not
contain complex helices.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
NLI / 11
44. 44. Which of the following is nucleotide :
(1) (1) Thymidine
(2) (2) Cytidine
(3) (3) Uridine

(4) Adenylic acid
(4)
COOH
COOH
45. H C NH2 This amino acids is :
45. H C NH2
CH3
CH3
(1) Glycine
(1)
(2) Alanine
(2)
(3) Serine
(3)
(4) Arginine
(4)
46. Which of the following is the primary metabolites:
46. (1) Glucose
(1) (2) Amino acid
(2) (3) Fatty acid
(3) (4) All
(4) 47. Match the column :
47. Column A Column B
Column A Column B i- Collagen a- Fight infectious
against
i- a- microbes
ii- GLUT - 4 b- ii- GLUT - 4 b- Inter cellular
ground
iii- c- substances
iii- Anti body c- Sensory
reception,Smell
iv- d- taste hormone
iv- Receptor d- Enables glucose
transport into cells
(1) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(1) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a (2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c (3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b (4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
48. Which of the following statements is/are correct :
48.
(i) Tertiary structure is neccessary for biological
(i) activity of protein
(ii) Nucleic acids exhibit a wide variety of sec-
(ii) ondary structures and more than a dozen
DNA froms of DNA
(iii) (iii) Haemoglobin is an example of quaternary
structure
(iv) N–
C– (iv) In primary structure of protein the first amino
acid is called as N–terminal amino acid and
the last one is called C–terminal amino acid
(1) ii (2) i iv (1) ii only (2) i and iv only
(3) i (4) i, ii, iii iv (3) i only (4) i, ii, iii and iv
NLI / 12
49. 49. Which one of the following correct statement :
(a) (a) Prosthetic group are organic compound
(b) (b) Proteineous portion of holoenzyme is called
apo enzyme
(c) (c) Zn+2 is a co-factor for the proteolytic enzyme
carboxypeptidase
(d) NAD NADP (d) NAD and NADP contain vitamin the niacin
(1) a, b (1) Only a, b
(2) a, d (2) Only a, d
(3) c, d (3) Only c, d
(4) a, b, c d (4) Only a, b, c and d
50. 50. If a living tissue is grinded in trichloroacetic acid
in pestle and mortar and then filtered through
: cheesecloth, the acid soluble portion will come in
(1) (1) Filtrate
(2) (2) Retentate
(3) (3) No acid soluble portion will be there
(4) (4) Both 2 and 3
51. 51. The chemical and physical properties of amino
: acids are due to
(1) (1) Amino group
(2) (2) Carboxyl group
(3) R– (3) R–functional group
52. 52. Palmitic and arachidonic acid have how many
carbons including carboxyl carbon
(1) 16,18 (1) 16,18
(2) 16,20 (2) 16,20

(3) 15,19
(3) 15,19
(4) 15,20
(4) 15,20
53. The given diagram A and B respectively
53. A B
B
B A
A
(1) Ribose sugar and Cholesterol

(1)
(2) Fructose and Cholesterol
(2)
(3) Glucose and Cholesterol
(3)
(4) Ribose and Cholesterol
(4)
NLI / 13
54. 54. The acid soluble pool have molecular weight
ranging from
(1)
(1) 18-8000 daltons
(2)
(2) 18-800 daltons
(3)
(3) 8-18000 daltons
(4)
(4) Both 2 and 3
55.
55. Which of the following is the most abundant
protein in animal world :
(1)
(1) RubisCO
(2) (2) Collagen
(3) (3) Keratin
(4) (4) Myoglobin
56. 56. Which of the following is a store house of energy
(1) in animal tissues
(2) (1) Cellulose

(2) Glucose
(3)
(3) Starch
(4)
(4) Glycogen
57.
57. Paper made from plant pulp and cotton fibre are :
(1)
(1) Chitin
(2)
(2) Starch
(3)
(3) Glycogen
(4)
(4) Cellulose
58.
58. In our skeletal muscle during anaerobic condition
glycogen gets converted into
(1) (1) Lactic acid
(2) (2) Ethanol
(3) (3) Acetic acid
(4) (4) None of these
59. 59. Least composition of cells :
(1) (1) Protein

(2) (2) Water
(3) (3) Ions
(4) (4) Nucleic acid
60. 60. Gums is :
(1) (1) A pigment
(2) (2) An alkaloid
(3) (3) An essential oil
(4) (4) Polymeric substance
NLI / 14
61. 61. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is
(1) (1) Lysozyme
(2) (2) Ribozyme
(3) (3) Ligase
(4) (4) Deoxyribonuclease.
62. 62. Which one of the following statements is correct
(1) (1) Cofactor may be identified as prosthetic groups,
coenzyme, and metal ion
(2)
(2) Prosthetic groups are organic compounds
(3)
(3) Co-enzymes are also organic compound
(4)
(4) All of the above
63.
63. Adult human haemolgobin consists of
(1) ( , )
(1) 2 subunits ( , )
(2) ( , ) (2) 2 subunits ( , )
(3) (2 , 2 ) (3) 4 subunits ( 2 ,2 )
(4) (2 , 1 ) (4) 3 subunits ( 2 ,1 )
64. 64. Match the following column I and column II :
I II Column I Column II
A. i. A. Acidic amino acid i. Lysine
B. ii. B. Aromatic amino acid ii. Valine
C. iii. C. Neutral amino acid iii. Glutamic acid
D. iv. D. Basic amino acid iv. Tyrosine
(1) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i (1) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i
(2) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i (2) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
(3) A – i, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii (3) A–i, B–iv, C–iii, D–ii
(4) A – iv, B–iii, C – i, D – ii (4) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
65. 65. Which is the correct matching pair :
(1) (1) DNA– Ribose sugar
(2) (2) Inulin – Fructose
(3) (3) Adenine and Uracil – Purine
(4) (4) Lectin – Abrin
66. 66. Amino acids are
(1) (1) Substituted methane
(2) (2) Substituted ethane

(3) Substituted alcohol
(3)
(4) Derivative of indoacetic acid
(4)
NLI / 15
67.
67.
Enzymetic activity shown in the above graph,
(1) pH
(1) pH (2) Temperature

(2)
(3) Concentration of substrate
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) (1) (2)
68. What is the percentage of sulphur in Earth’s crust
68.
and human body respectively :
(1) 0.03 % 0.3% (1) 0.03 % and 0.3%
(2) 0.3% 0.03% (2) 0.3% and 0.03%
(3) 0.03 % 18.5% (3) 0.03 % and 18.5%

(4) 2.1% 0.1 % (4) 2.1% and 0.1 %
69. 69. Which is zwitter ionic form of amino acid :
R
R +
+
(1) H3N–CH–COOH
(1) H3N–CH–COOH
R
R (2) +
–
(2) +
–
H3N–CH–COO
H3N–CH–COO
R
R
(3) –
(3) – H 2N–CH–COO
H 2N–CH–COO
70. 70. When co-factor saparated from apoenzyme its

activity is
(1) (1) Decreased

(2) (2) Increased
(3) (3) Lost
(4) (4) Not effected
NLI / 16
71. 71. Epiglottis is made up of :
(1) (1) Hyaline cartilage
(2) (2) Elastic cartilage
(3) (3) Fibrous cartilage
(4) (4) Hyoid bone
72. -I - II 72. Match Column - I with Column - II and select the
correct option from the codes given below :
-I - II Column - I Column - II
( ( ) (Animals) (Respiratory structures)
A. (i) (A) Spiders (i) Gills
B. (ii) (B) King crab (ii) Book lungs
C. (iii)
(C) Prawn (iii) Books gills
D. (iv)
(D) Frog (iv) Moist skin
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(ii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) (1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(ii)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iii) (2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(i)
(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(i)
73.
73. Total lungs capacity is :
(1) IRV + ERV (1) IRV + ERV
(2) IRV + ERV + TV – RV (2) IRV + ERV + TV – RV
(3) IRV + ERV + TV + RV (3) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
(4) IRV + ERV + TV (4) IRV + ERV + TV
74. 74. Emphysema is a condition resulting from :
(1) (1) Cigarette smoking
(2) (2) Chronic disorder
(3) (3) Alveolar walls are damaged
75. In the given diagram A, B, C and D are
75. A, B, C D
(1) alveolus, systemic vein, Body tissue, Pulmonary

artery
(1)
(2) alveolus, systemic artery, Body tissue, Pulmonary
(2) artery
(3) (3) Systemic vein, Body tissue, Pulmonary artery,
Alveolus
(4) (4) Pulmonary artery, Body tissues, systemic vein,
Alveolus
NLI / 17
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
Emphysema is major caused by cigarette smoking.
(R) :
Reason (R) :
Cigarette smoking increase the gaseous exchange area.
(2) (A) R (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) (R) (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) (R) (R), (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
77.
Statement I :
-I:
PO2 in alveoli is 40 mm Hg and PCO2 is 104 mm Hg.
PO2 40 mm Hg PCO2 104
mm Hg Statement II :
-II: CO2 is 10 times more soluble than O2.
CO2 O2 10 Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) I II
(3) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) I II
78. A molecule of haemoglobin carries how many
78.
oxygen molecules:
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4
79. A D 79. Given figure is of longitudinal section of kidney.
Identify the parts labelled as A to D and select the
correct option.
C
C A
A
B
B D
D
A B C D
A B C D
(1) Cortex Calyx Renal column Ureter
(1)
(2) Calyx Cortex Renal column Ureter
(2)
(3) Medulla Cortex Renal capsule Urethra
(3)
(4) Calyx Cortex Renal pelvis Urethra
(4)
NLI / 18
80. 80. Plasma contains which of the following minerals
(1) (1) Sodium, calcium ions
(2) (2) magnesium, bicarbonate ions
(3) (3) chloride ions
(4) (4) all of these
81. 81. Serum is
(1) (1) plasma with clotting factors
(2) (2) plasma without clotting factors
(3) (3) plasma without globulin
(4) (4) plasma without albumin
82. 82. Leucocytes are
(1) (1) white in colour
(2) (2) nucleated
(3) (3) without haemoglobin
(4) (4) all of these
83. 83. Platelets are cell fragments produced from
(1) (1) Megakaryocytes
(2) (2) Thrombocytes
(3) (3) Lymphocytes
(4) (4) Leucocytes
84. Rh 84. Rh positive persons are nearly
(1) 50% (1) 50%

(2) 60%
(2) 60%
(3) 40%
(3) 40%
(4) 80%
(4) 80%
85. Purkinje fibres along with left and right bundles
85.
are known as
(1) (2) (1) Bundle of HIS (2) Bundle of hus
(3) (4) (3) Bundle of Has (4) none of these
-B PART-2 (SECTION-B)
86. ‘A’ ‘B’ 86. Match the terms given under Column ‘A’ with their
functions given under Column ‘B’ and select the
answer from the options given below:
A B Column A Column B
A. i. A. Lymphatic System i. Carries oxygenated
blood
B. ii. B. Pulmonary vein ii. Immune Response
C. iii. C. Thrombocytes iii. To drain back the
tissue fluid to the
circulatory system
D. iv.
D. Lymphocytes iv. Coagulation of blood
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
NLI / 19
87. 87. Human heart is :
(1) (1) Myogenic
(2) (2) Neurogenic
(3) (3) Cardiogenic
(4) (4) Digenic
88. 88. Which is a correct statement :
(a) A.V (a) AV node is called as pace maker
(b) 30% (b) Atrial systole causes 30% ventricular filling
(c) (c) Cardiac output depends on ventricular filling
(d) (d) Blood pumped during a cardiac cycle is

cardiac output
(1) a b (1) a & b

(2) b & c
(2) b c
(3) c & d
(3) c d
(4) a & d
(4) a d
89. Which is a correct matching
89.
Column-I Column-II
-I -II
(a) Lymph capillary i. Artificial pacemaker
(a) i.
(b) Vein ii. Wall of artery
(b) ii.
(c) Tunica media iii. S.V.C.
(c) iii.
(d) Cardiac arrest iv. Lacteal
(d) iv.
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
90. Which excretory structures are found in
90. cephalochordate :
(1) (1) Urecose gland
(2) (2) Kidney
(3) (3) Protonephridia
(4) (4) Antennal gland
91. 91. Podocytes are present
(1) (1) Bowman's capsule
(2) PCT (2) PCT
(3) (3) Urinary bladder
(4) (4) Urethra
92. JGA 92. What is the full form of JGA
(1) Juxta glomerular artery (1) Juxta glomerular artery
(2) Juxta glomerular apparatus (2) Juxta glomerular apparatus
(3) Joint gonads artery (3) Joint gonads artery
(4) Joint glomerular apparatus (4) Joint glomerular apparatus
NLI / 20
93. 93. Arrange the parts of the nephron in a correct
sequence.
(I) (I) Glomerulus

(II) Bowman's capsule
(II)
(III) Henle's loop
(III)
(IV) Proximal convoluted tubule
(IV)
(V) Distal convoluted tubule
(V)
(1) I  II  III  IV  V
(1) I  II  III  IV  V
(2) I  II  IV  III  V
(2) I  II  IV  III  V
(3) I  II  V  III  IV (3) I  II  V  III  IV
(4) IV  III  II  I  V (4) IV  III  II  I  V
94. A, B C 94. Identify A, B and C respectively in longitudinal

section of Kidney :
A
A
B
B C
C
(1) A-Renal pelvis, B-Ureter, C-Renal artery

(1) A- B- , C-
(2) A-Renal artery, B-Ureter, C-Renal pelvis
(2) A- , B- , C-
(3) A-Renal artery, B-Renal pelvis, C-Ureter
(3) A- , B- , C-
(4) A- , B- , C- (4) A-Renal pelvis, B-Renal artery, C-Ureter
95. 95. Which of the followig is true for urea production

and excretion in body
(1)   (1) ammonia  urea in liver, blood  filtered and
excreted out by kidney
(2)   (2) uric acid  urea in liver, blood  filtered and
(3)   (3) ammonia  urea in kidney, blood  filtered and
(4)   (4) ammonia  urea in liver, kidney  filtered and
absorbed by blood
96. 96. Sweat does not contains which of the following
(1) NaCl (1) NaCl
(2) (2) small amount of urea
(3) (3) lactic acid
(4) (4) ketone body
NLI / 21
97. 97. Refer the given figure of human urinary system
and select the option that correctly identifies the
A E
labelled parts A to E.
B
B
E
E
C(blood coming from heart)

C(blood coming from heart) A
A
D
D
A B C D E
A B C D E
(1) (1) Superior Inferior Dorsal Urethra Pelvis
vena vena aorta
(2) cava cava
(2) Inferior Superior Dorsal Urinary Cortex
vena cava vena cava aorta bladder
(3)
(3) Ureter Inferior Dorsal Urinary Pelvis
vena cava aorta bladder
(4) (4) Dorsal Inferior Superior Urinary Cortex
aorta vena cava vena bladder
cava
98. ml 98. How much haemoglobin present in every 100 ml
of blood in human :
(1) 30-35
(1) 30-35 gms
(2) 12-16 (2) 12-16 gms
(3) 20-25 (3) 20-25 gms
(4) 5-10 (4) 5-10 gms
(R).
(A)
Assertion (A) : Erythrocytes, leucocytes and platelets
are collectively called formed elements and they
constitutes nearly 55 per cent of the blood.
(R) (WBC) Reasion (R) : Leucocytes or white blood cells (WBC)
are the most abundant of all the cells in blood.
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are false
(1) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) (A) (R) (R) (A) explanation of (A)
NLI / 22
-I: Statement I :
MSH Par's intermedia secrets a hormone called MSH.
-II: Statement II :
MSH MSH acts on the melanocytes and regulates

pigmentation of the skin.
below
(1) I II
(2) I II
101. 101. The pituitary gland is divided anatomically into :
(1) (1) An adenohypophysis and pars intermedia
(2) (2) An adenohypophysis and a epiphysis
(3) (3) An epiphysis and a neurohypophysis
(4) (4) An adenohypophysis and a neurohypophysis.
102. 102. .................. stimulates the synthesis and secretion

of thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland
(1) GH (1) GH
(2) ACTH
(2) ACTH
(3) Prolactin
(3)
(4) TSH
(4) TSH
103. Which one is essential for the hormone synthesis
103.
in the thyroid.
(1)
(1) Sodium
(2) (2) Iron
(3) (3) Chlorine
(4) (4) Iodine
104. 104. Which one is acts as both exocrine and endocrine
gland
(1)
(1) Parathyroid
(2)
(2) Testis
(3) (3) Adrenal
(4) (4) Pancreas
105. 105. Glucagon is a :
(1) (1) Carbohydrate
(2) (2) Steroid hormone
(3) (3) Fat

(4) Peptide hormone
(4)
NLI / 23
106. 106. Ovary produces group of steroid hormones called
(1) (1) Androgens
(2) (2) Progesteron
(3) (3) Estrogen
(4) 2 3 (4) Both 2 and 3

107. Erythropoiesis is regulated by
107.
(1) Cortisol
(1)
(2) Erythropoietin
(2)
(3) ADH
(3) ADH
(4) Both 1 and 2
(4) 1 2
108. The first antibiotic was discovered from
108.
(1) Algae
(1)
(2) Fungi
(2)
(3) Bacteria
(3)
(4) Cyanobacteria
(4)
109. Which is a correct matching set :
109.
Column I Column II
I II
a. Hypothalamus p. Insulin
a. p.
b. Anterior pituiary q. Estrogen
b. q.
c. Testis r. FSH and LH
c. r. d. Ovary s. Androgens
d. s. t. Gonadotropin
t. releasing hormone
(1) a-t, b-r, c-s, d-q
(1) a-t, b-r, c-s, d-q (2) a-t, b-r, c-q, d-s
(2) a-t, b-r, c-q, d-s
(3) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r
(3) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r
(4) a-r, b-t, c-s, d-q
(4) a-r, b-t, c-s, d-q
110.
Statement I :
-I:
A complex protein troponin is distributed at regular
interwals on the tropomyosin.
Statement II :
- II : Muscle contraction is initiated by signal sent by the
(CNS) central nervous system (CNS) via a motor neuron.
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) I II incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) I II
NLI / 24
111. 111. Choose the correct statement :
a- a- Dark band is called A-band
b- b- Cardiac muscles are striated
c- c- Z line bisects I-band
(1) a b (1) a and b only
(2) b c (2) b and c only
(3) a c (3) a and c only
(4) a, b c (4) a, b and c
112. 112. During contraction of skeletal muscle, Ca2+ bind

to :
(1)
(1) Myosin
(2) (2) Troponin
(3) (3) Tropomyosin
(4) (4) Myosin ATPase
113. 113. Articulation of ulna with humerus at the elbow is
a type of joint :
(1) (1) Hinge
(2) (2) Ball and socket
(3) (3) Pivotal
(4) (4) Gliding
114. 114. Which statement is incorrect for limb :
(1) (1) Tarsals are 7 in number
(2) (2) Metatarsals are 5 in number
(3) (3) Carpals are 8 in number
(4) (4) Humerus is the longest bone
115. A, B C 115. Identify A, B and C in an actin filament and
choose the correct option :
A
A
B
B
C
C
(1) A–Troponin, B–F actin, C–Tropomyosin
(1) A– , B–F , C–
(2) A– F actin, B–Troponin, C–Tropomyosin
(2) A– F , B– , C–
(3) A– , B– , C– F (3) A–Troponin, B–Tropomyosin, C– F actin
(4) A– , B–F , C– (4) A–Tropomyosin, B–F actin, C–Troponin
116. 116. In which disease inflammation of joints occur due

to accumulation of uric acid crystals :
(1) (2) (1) Tetany (2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) (4) (3) Gout (4) Myasthenia gravis
NLI / 25
117. 117. How many main types of movements are
performed by the cell present in human body
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 5 (4) 5
118. 118. In human beings the cranium is formed by
(1) (1) Eight bones of which two are paired
(2) (2) Fourteen bones of which six are paired
(3) (3) Eight bones of which three are paired
(4) (4) Fourteen bones of which two are paired
119. 119. Na+/K+ pump in cell is an example of :
(1) (1) Passive transport
(2) (2) Osmosis
(3) (3) Diffusion
(4) (4) Active transport

120. The electrical potential difference between outside
120.
and inside of a nerve axon before excitation is
called as :
(1) (1) Resting potential
(2) (2) Action potential
(3) (3) Spike potential
(4) (4) None
121. 121. Which cranial meninges is in direct contact with
brain :
(1)
(1) Duramater
(2)
(2) Arachnoid
(3)
(3) Piamater
(4) 1 3
(4) Both 1 and 3
122. 122. The part of human brain which is responsible for
urge for eating and drinking :
(1) (1) Hypothalamus
(2) (2) Cerebellum
(3) (3) Pons
(4) (4) Medulla oblongata
123. 123. In the axons, the nerve impulse travels :
(1) (1) Towards the cell body
(2) (2) Away from the cell body
(3) (3) Away from synapse
(4) (4) In both directions
NLI / 26
124. A, B C 124. Identify A, B and C in the following diagram :
A A
B B
C C
(1) A-Schwann cell, B-Myelin sheath, C-Node of Ran-

(1) A- , B- , C- vier
(2) A- , B- , C- (2) A-Schwann cell, B-Node of Ranvier, C-Myelin
sheath
(3) A- , B- , C- (3) A-Myelin sheath, B-Schwann cell, C-Node of Ran-
vier
(4) A- , B- , C- (4) A-Node of Ranvier, B-Myelin sheath, C-Schwann
cell
125.
125. Which is not a part of hindbrain :
(1) (2)
(1) Thalamus (2) Cerebellum
(3) (4) (3) Pons (4) Medulla
126. 126. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one
of which is
(1) (1) Cerebellum
(2) (2) Hypothalamus
(3) (3) Spinal cord
(4) (4) Corpus callosum
127. 127. In the given below diagram of brain which part
are contains pneumotaxic centre
B B
A A
C C
D D
(1) A (2) B (1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D
NLI / 27
128. 128. Chemicals which are released at the synaptic junc-
tion are called
(1)
(1) Cerebrospinal fluid
(2)
(2) Hormones
(3)
(3) Neurotransmitters
(4)
(4) Lymph
129.
129. Knee joint is :
(1)
(1) Hinge joint
(2)
(2) Ball and socket joint
(3)
(3) Pivot joint
(4) (4) Gliding joint
130. 130. The ovaries are connected to the pelvic wall and
uterus with the help of :
(1) (1) Tendons
(2) (2) Ligaments
(3) (3) Striped muscles
(4) (4) Filaments
131. 131. How many primary follicles are left in both ovaries
at the time of puberty :
(1) 60,000–80,000 (1) 60,000–80,000
(2) 80,000 – 100,000 (2) 80,000 – 100,000
(3) 20,000–40,000 (3) 20,000–40,000
(4) 1,20000–1,60000
(4) 1,20000–1,60000
132.
132. In a normal menstrual cycle, the menstrual flow
(1) results due to :
(2) (1) Breakdown of glandular layer of uterus
(3) (2) Breakdown of muscular layer of uterus

(3) Breakdown of outer layer of uterus
(4)
(4) All
133.
133. Which is the longest phase of menstrual cycle :
(1)
(1) Follicular phase
(2)
(2) Luteal phase
(3) (3) Ovulatory phase
(4) (4) All
134. 134. Interstitial cells found in human testis are secretary
source of :
(1) (1) Glucagon
(2) (2) Androgens
(3) (3) Progesterone
(4) (4) hCG
NLI / 28
135. 135. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis
is normally diploid :
(1) (1) Secondary Oocyte
(2) (2) Secondary spermatocytes
(3) (3) Spermatozoa

(4) Oogonia
(4)
PART-3 (SECTION-B)
-B
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
10 considered for marking.
136. 136. Transfer of sperms into female genital tract is
called:
(1) (1) Parturition
(2) (2) Insemination
(3) (3) Ejaculation
(4) (4) Fertilization
137. 137. Which is correct for Human
(1) (1) Asexual reproduction and viviparous
(2) (2) Sexual reproduction and oviparous
(3) (3) Asexual reproduction and oviparous
(4) (4) Sexual reproduction and viviparous
138. 138. Role of scrotum is
(1) (1) Protect prostate gland
(2) (2) Maintanining the low temperature of testes (2-2.5
o
2-2.5 C o
C less than internal body) for spermatogenesis
(3) (3) Protect seminal vesicles
(4) (4) Bring the sperms in the urethra
139. 139. Seminiferous tubules are lined inside by how
many types of cells
(1) (1) Two
(2) (2) One
(3) (3) Four
(4) (4) Three
140. 140. Relaxin is secreted by :
(1) (1) Testes
(2) (2) Cervix
(3) (3) Ovary
(4)
(4) Uterus
NLI / 29
(R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
(A) : Assertion (A) :The testes are situated outside the
abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
(R) : Reason (R) : Scrotum helps in maintaining the low
temperature of testes which is necessary for
spermatogenesis.
(1) (A) (R) (R) (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(A) explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A) : A primary spermatocyte complete the
first meiotic division and form two secondary
23
spermatocytes each have only 23 chromosome.
(R) : Reason (R) : Primary oocyte within secondary follicle
growth in size and complete its first meiotic division
and form a large haploid secondary oocyte and a tiny
first polar body.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
143. 143. Given below are two statements:
I: Statement I :
In sperm, the acrosome is filled with enzymes that help
fertilisation of the ovum.
Statement II :
II : The middle piece posses of sperm numerous golgi
bodies
most appropriate answer from the optins given
below :
(1) I II
(2) I II (2) Statement I is correct but statment II is incorrect
(4) I II (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
NLI / 30
144. : 144. Given below are two statements :
I: Statement I :
The release of sperms from the seminiferous
tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II :
II :
Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of
. sperms from spermatogonia.
most appropriate answer from the optins given
below :
(1) I II
(2) I II (2) Statement I is correct but statment II is incorrect
145. 145. The following size, number, temperature are
associated with
a) 34.5 -35 C0 i)
a) 34.5 -35 C0 i) Semen ejaculation
b) 1-3 ii)
b) 1-3 ii) Mammary lobes
c) 10-12 cm iii) c) 10-12 cm iii) Fallopian tubes
d) 15-20 iv) d) 15-20 iv) Seminiferous
e) 200-300 v) tubules
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i e) 200-300 million v) Scrotum

(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
146. 146. The following size, number, temperature are
associated with
a) 60,000-80,000 i) a) 60,000-80,000 i) Heart
b) 28 ii) b) 28 days ii) Morula
c) 50 iii) c) 50 years iii) Menopouse
d) 8-16 iv) d) 8-16 cells iv) Menstrual cycle
e) v) e) First month v) Primary follicle
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii (1) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii (3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
147. 147. Which is a correct statement regarding uterus :
a- a- Infundibulum is the pear shaped part of uterus
b- Fimbriae are liver like in shape
b- c- Isthmus is a part of oviduct
c- d- Prostate is attached to isthmus by broad
d- ligament
e- e- Endomatrium is glandular
(1) a&b (1) Only a & b
(2) b&c (2) Only b & c
(3) c&d
(3) Only c & d
(4) c&e (4) Only c & e
NLI / 31
148. 148. Parts of the human female reproductive system
are :
a.
a. Vagina
b.
b. Fallopian tube
c.
c. Uterus
d.
d. Prostate
e.
e. Glans penis
(1) a b
(1) a and b
(2) a, b c
(2) a, b and c
(3) c d
(3) c and d
(4) d e (4) d and e
149. 149. Identifiy the labelled part A and B in given figure
A B : of human foetus with in the uterus :
A A
B B
(1) A - Yolksac B - Umbilical Cord

(1) A - B-
(2) A - Umbilical cord B - Cavity of uterus
(2) A - B-
(3) A - Placental villi B - Umbical cord
(3) A - B-
(4) A - Yolk sac B - Placental villi
(4) A - B-
150. 150. GIFT is :
(1) (1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(2) (2) Genome intra fallopian transfer
(3)
(3) GnRH intra fallopian transfer
(4) (4) Other name of MIF
151. Which is the correct matching set :
151.
Column I Column II
–I – II a. The pill i. Prevents sperm
a. i. reaching cervix
b. Condom ii. Prevents
implantation
b. ii.
c. Vasectomy iii. Prevents ovulation
c. iii.
d. Copper T iv. Semen contains no
d. iv. sperm
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
NLI / 32
152. 152. Match the development of the foetus in
accordance with its correct time during
pregnancy.
(1) 4 -
(1) 4 weeks - heart formation
(2) 12 -
(2) 12 weeks - limibs and digits are formed
(3) 20 - ,
(3) 20 weeks - hair, eyelids and eyelashes are formed
(4) 24 -
(4) 24 weeks - external genital organs
153.
153. An ideal contraceptive should be
(1) -
(1) User-friendly
(2)
(2) Easily effective
(3)
(3) Reversible with no or least side-effects
(4)
154. -B
154. Hepatitis-B can be transmitted by :
(1)
(1) Sexual intercourse with the infected person
(2)
(2) Sharing of infected needles or surgical instruments
with infected person
(3) (3) From an infected mother to the foetus
155. 155. Which is a possible aspect of reproductive health
formulated by WHO :
(1) (1) Physical
(2) (2) Emotional
(3) (3) Social
(4) (4) All
156. 156. Which is not a STD :
(1) (1) Hepatitis B
(2) (2) Genital herpes
(3) (3) HIV infection
(4) (4) Maleria
157. 157. Which is an incorrect statement :
(a) (a) ZIFT technique is unuseful for the women who

cannot produce ovum
(b) (b) Low sperm count can be tackled by artificial

insemination
(c) (c) MTPs are relatively safe during the third

trimester
(d) 1971
(d) Government of India legalised MTP in 1971
(1) a b (1) a and b
(2) b c (2) b and c
(3) c (3) Only c
(4) a c (4) a and c

NLI / 33
158. 158. Which is a method of birth control :
(1) GIFT
(1)
(2) IUD
(2)
(3) IVF
(3)
(4) All
(4) 159. Which is a hormone releasing IUD :
159. (1) Lippes loop
(1) (2) LNG-20
(2) (3) Progestasert
(3) (4) Both 2 and 3
(4) 160. Given below are two statements :
160. : Statement I :
I: Both the male and the female condoms are disposable,
can be self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to the
user.
II : Statement II :
Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also barriers
made of rubber that are inserted into the female
reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus.
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
161. : 161. This contraceptive is used by :
(1) Male only

(1)
(2) Female only
(2)
(3) Both male and female
(3)
(4) None
(4)
162. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
162. : (A) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R) (R)
(A) Assertion (A) :
IUDs IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus
(R) Reason (R) :
Cu ions releasing IUDs suppress sperm motility and
Cu increases fertilising capacity of sperms
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(1) (A) (R) (R) correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
NLI / 34
163. 163. Menarche is :
(1) (1) An arche formed by vas deferentia

(2) Small membrane on cervix
(2)
(3) Begening of menstruation
(3)
(4) Inner mass of ovary
(4)
164. Which is a correct matching set :
164. Column I Column II
I II a- Curable STD i- MTP
a- i- b- Incurable STD ii- GIFT
b- ii- c- Infertility removal iii- AIDS
c- iii- d- Unwanted iv- Syphilis
d- iv- pregnancy
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
165.
Statement I :
-I:
Corpus luteum secretes large amount of
progesterone which is essential for maintenance
of myometrium.
-II: Statement II :
In absence of fertilisation the corpus luteum
degenerates.
(1) I II below
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
166.
166. Which is the correct matching
I II
Column I Column II
a. i. a. CDRI i. Periodic abstinence
b. ii. b. STD ii. Foetal sex
determination
c. iii.
c. Amniocentesis iii. AIDS
d. iv.
d. Contraceptive iv. Lucknow
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
167. 167. Which is the correct matching
I II Column I Column II
a. i. a. Periodic abstinence i. Saheli
b. ii. b. IMR ii. Related to mother
c. iii. c. MMR iii. Related to infant

d. PILL iv. Natural method
d. iv.
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
NLI / 35
168. 168. Organs which are similar in function and different
in origin are :
(1) (1) Homologous organs
(2) (2) Analogous organs
(3) (3) Vestigeal organs
(4) (4) None
169. 169. Origin of universe explained by :
(1) (1) Big Bang theory
(2) (2) Oparin theory
(3) (3) Biogenesis theory
(4) (4) Haldane theory
170. 170. Hugo De Vries worked on :
(1) (1) Evening Primrose
(2) (2) Garden Pea
(3) (3) Chick Pea
(4) (4) Finches
171. 171. Eye of the octopus and mammals show :
(1) (1) Analogy
(2) (2) Homology
(3) (3) Atavism
(4) (4) Vestigeal organ
172. 172. The biggest land reptile were :
(1) (1) Turtles
(2) (2) Ichthyosaurs
(3) (3) Tyrannosaurus rex
(4) (4) Tortoises

Statement I :
-I:
The universe is very old almost 20 billion years old.
Statement II :
- II : In the solar system of the milky way galaxy, earth was
supposed to have been formed about 4.5 billion years
back.

(2) I II incorrect
NLI / 36
-I: Statement I :
The first non-cellular forms of life could have orginated
3 billion years back.
Statement II :
- II :
S.L. Miller created electric discharge in a closed flask
0 0
S.L. 800 C CH , H , NO containing CH , H , NO and water vapour at 800 C
4 2 2 4 2 2
(1) I II
(2) I II incorrect
175. 175. Given diagram the variety of beaks of finches that

darwin found in
(1) (1) Galapagos Island
(2) (2) Australian Island

(3) England Island
(3)
(4) Affrican Island
(4)
176. Match the following with respect to discovery and
176. experiments associated years.
a) 1938 i) Fossil discovered in
a) 1938 i) Java
b) 1920 ii) S.L. b) 1920 ii) S.L Miller created
closed flask
experiment
c) 1850s iii)
c) 1850s iii) A fish cought in South
Africa
d) 1953 iv)
d) 1953 iv) More dark winged
moths in the same
area of England
e) 1891 v) observed
e) 1891 v) Collection of moth
(1) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii before industrilization
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-i
177.
177. An antibody molecule have
(1) 3 1 (1) 3 light chain and 1 heavy chain
NLI / 37
178. 178. The exaggerated response of the immune system
to certain antigens present in the environment is
called
(1)
(1) Immunity
(2)
(2) Passive immunity
(3) (3) Innate immunity
(4) (4) Allergy
179. 179. Ringworms is caused by which
(1) (1) Bacteria
(2) (2) Helminths
(3) (3) Viruses
(4) (4) Fungus
180. Given diagram represent
180.
(1) Chemical structure of morphine
(2) Skeletal structure of cannabinoid molecule

(1)
(3) Chemical structure of heroine
(2)
(3) (4) It is opoid
(4) 181. Given below are two statements :
181. Statement I :
-I: Tobacco has been used by human beings for more
than 4000 years.
Statement II :
- II : Natural Cannabinoids are obtained from the
inflorescences of the plant Cannabis sativa.
(1) I II
(2) I II incorrect
182. 182. Fertilisation of malaria parasite occurs where :
(1) (1) Man
(2) (2) Mosquito
(3) (3) Housefly
(4) (4) Butterfly
183. 183. Cell mediated immunity is elicited by which
(1) B (1) B lymphocyte
(2) (2) Neutrophil
(3) T (3) T lymphocyte
(4) (4) Mast cell
NLI / 38
184. 184. Which organ is infected by Rhino virus :
(1) (1) Nose
(2) GIT (2) GIT

(3) Lungs
(3)
(4) CNS
(4) CNS
185. Which of the following is a pair of bacterial dis-
185.
ease:
(1) AIDS (1) Common cold, AIDS
(2) (2) Dysentary, common cold
(3) (3) Typhoid, tuberculosis
(4) AIDS (4) Ringworm, AIDS
-B PART-4 (SECTION-B)
15 15 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
186.
186. Which of the following is a major cause of death
(1) in India
(1) Diabetes Mellitus
(2)
(2) Diabetes insipidus
(3) (3) Hypertension
(4) (4) Cancer
187. 187. Which of the following is correct for auto-immunity
(1) (1) Memory based innate immunity
(2) (2) Based on the ability to differentiate pathogens from

self cells
(3) (3) Allergy is a type of auto-immune disease
(4) (4) Pneumonia fever is an auto-immune disease
188. 188. Which of the following disease is not spread by

mosquito
(1)
(1) Malaria
(2)
(2) Filariasis
(3) (3) Amoebiasis
(4) (4) Dengue
189. 189. Metastasis is the most feared property of :
(1) (1) AIDS
(2) (2) Benign Tumors
(3) (3) Malignant tumors
(4) (4) Common cold
NLI / 39
190. 190. How many of the following are congenital disease
a. a. Haemophilia
b. b. Typhoid
c. c. AIDS
d. d. Pneumonia
e. e. Malaria
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 1 (4) 1
191. 191. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease
(1) (1) Cancer
(2) (2) Pneumonia
(3) (3) Common cold
(4) (4) Rheumatoid arthiritis
192. X- : 192. For diagnosis of cancer X-rays are used in :
(a) CT (a) CT
(b) MRI (b) MRI
(c) (c) Radiography
(1) c (1) Only c
(2) a, b (2) a, b
(3) a, b, c (3) a, b, c
(4) a, c (4) a, c
193. 193. Match the following
a. (i) N2 a. Oscillatoria i. free living N2 fixer
b. (ii) b. Trichoderma ii. Free living fungi
c. (iii) N2 – c. Rhizobium iii. N2–fixer cynobacteria
d. (iv) N2 d. Azotobacter iv. Symbiotic N2 fixer
(1) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i (1) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
(2) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i (2) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
(3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i (3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
(4) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii (4) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii
194. 194. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) at suitable temperature
multiply, thus converting milk to curd, which
improves its nutritional quality by increasing :
(1) B12 (1) Vitamin B12
(2) B2 (2) Vitamin B2
(3) B6 (3) Vitamm B6
(4) (4) Folic acid
NLI / 40
195. 195. The 'Roquefort cheese' is ripened by growing a
specific:
(1)
(1) Algae chlorella
(2)
(2) Fungi
(3)
(3) Bacteria
(4)
(4) Blue green alga
196.
196. Microbes are present :
(1)
(1) Deep inside the geysers
(2)
(2) Under the layers of snow
(3) (3) Highly acidic enviroment
197. 197. Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack on :
(1) (1) Insects and other Arthropods
(2) (2) Protozoans and Arthropods
(3) (3) Viruses and Arthropods
(4) (4) Fungus and Arthropods
198. 198. Biofertiliser :
(1) (1) Use to enrich the nutrient quality of the soil

(2) The main sources bioferlitizer are bacteria, fungi
(2)
and cyanobacteria
(3) The roots of leguminous plants formed by the
(3)
symbiotic association of Rhizobium
(4)
199. Match the column :
199.
Match –A Match –B
–A –B
1- Cyclosporin A a. Monascus purpureus
1- A a.
2- Statin b. Propionibacterium
2- b. sharmani
3- c. 3- Streptokinase c. Trichoderma
4- d. 4- Swiss cheese d. Streptococcus
(1) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b (1) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
(2) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a (2) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
(3) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b (3) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
(4) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a (4) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
200. 200. Which of them can fix atmospheric nitrogen :
(1) Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria

(1)
(2) Anabaena, Riccia, Oscillatoria
(2)
(3) Anabaena, Chara, Ectocorpus
(3)
(4) (4) Anabaena, Voucharia, Oscillatoria
NLI / 41
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IN DUCTANCE EDUCARE,ASHIRVAD BHAWAN, NEAR
34 SHIVPURI RAJESHWARI TEMPLE, SHANKAR COLONY,SHIVPURI
(mp)473551
10th APRIL 2024 & 16th APRIL 2024
He a d Offic e :
11 7 /N/5 7 , Be h in d Ku lwa n ti Ho sp ita l L a n e ,
Ka ka d e o , Ka n p u r-2 0 8 0 2 4
Ce ntre -2 :
3 0 /n , Ava n M a rke t, Ka ka d e o ,
Ka n p u r, Utta r Pra d e sh 2 0 8 0 2 5
South Ka npur Ce ntre :

NEW LIGHT NEET
2 8 6 -W -2 Ju h i Ka la n
(Ne a r SBI Ba n k, Ba rra Bye Pa ss Ch a u ra h a )
Ka n p u r

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FST : 57

DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 25-04-2024 MARKS : 720

BIOLOGY : ZOOLOGY [FULL SYLLABUS]

• The important points to note:

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

NCERT - XI (346) pages NCERT - XII (285)

Pages Total 631 pages 28 pages compress

NEET-2024 80+ Questions

(AM) Online Test Attend

Physics & Chemistry Important Formule

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

For Today's Paper Discussion - Scan the QR code -

• Youtube Channel Link :

• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas

TOPIC : ZOOLOGY [FULL SYLLABUS]

35 Attempt All 35 Questions

(1) (2) (1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda

(1) (2) (1) Tape worm (2) Round worm

d. iv. d. Limulus iv. Sea fan

(2) (2) Coelomate Earthworm

(1) (1) Hypopharynx act as tongue in cockroach

(2) (2) Epithelial tissue provides a covering or a lining for

(4) (4) All of the above

25. 25. In which Periplaneta americana wings extend

(1) (1) Male Periplaneta americana and female Periplan-

(2) (2) Only in male Periplaneta americana

(3) (3) Only in female Periplaneta americana

(4) (4) Neither male nor female Periplaneta americana

26. 26. All the exoskeleton plates of Periplaneta americana

(1) (1) Tergite

(2) (2) Sternite

(3) (3) Pleurite

(4) (4) Sclerite

27. 27. Spiracles of cockroach regulated by :

(1) (1) Lid

(2) (2) Ligament

(3) (3) Tendon

(4) (4) Sphincter

(1) 10 (1) 10 spiracles

(2) 20 (2) 20 spiracles

(1) (1) Upper lip

(4) 5000 (4) 5000

42. 42. Given below are two statements :

(1) (1) Thymidine

(2) (2) Cytidine

(3) (3) Uridine

(1) 16,18 (1) 16,18

(2) 16,20 (2) 16,20

(1) Ribose sugar and Cholesterol

(2) (1) Cellulose

(1) (1) Protein

60. 60. Gums is :

(1) (1) A pigment

(2) (2) An alkaloid

(3) (3) An essential oil

(4) (4) Polymeric substance

(3) (3) Adenine and Uracil – Purine

(4) (4) Lectin – Abrin

66. 66. Amino acids are

(1) (1) Substituted methane

(2) (2) Substituted ethane

Enzymetic activity shown in the above graph,

(1) pH (2) Temperature