FST-33 (15-02-2024) (E+h) Paper

FST : 33
Test ID : 233
ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24
DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 15-02-2024 MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : Full Syllabus
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Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2023 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
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of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
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• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
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Entrance NEET
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NCERT - XI (346) pages NCERT - XII (285)

Pages Total 631 pages 28 pages compress
SET-H4 74 Questions
NEET-2024 80+ Questions
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All India Full Syllabus Test–33 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / 15-Feb-2024
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NLI / 3
TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS (MODEL)
SECTION-A -A
Attempt All 35 Questions 35

1. Figure shows a series LCR circuit with R = 200 , 1. LCR
C = 15.0 F and L = 230 mH. If , R = 200 , C = 15.0 F L = 230 mH.
The amplitude l0 of the current I in the circuit is I l0
close to
E T
E N_
(1) 109 mA (1) 109 mA
T
(2) 126 mA (2) 126 mA
S
(3) 150 mA
H
(3) 150 mA
E
(4) 164 mA (4) 164 mA
G
2. The equivalent resistance between the points a 2. a b

I
and b of the electrical network shown in the figure

R
is:
I L TS
E
W
S_
E T_
N
(1) 6r (1) 6r
(2) 4r
@
(2) 4r
E
(3) 2r (3) 2r
(4) r (4) r
3. A particle of mass M and charge q, initially at rest, 3. M q
is accelerated by a uniform electric field E through E D
a distance D and is then allowed to approach a
Q
fixed static charge Q of the same sign. The distance
of the closest approach of the charge q will then q
be:
qQ Q
qQ Q (1) (2)
(1) (2)
qQ Q qQ Q
(3) (4) (3) (4)
NLI / 4
4. In a screw gauge, 5 complete rotations of the screw 4.
cause it to move a linear distance of 0.25 cm. There
are 100 circular scale divisions. The thickness of a
wire measured by this screw gauge gives a reading
of 4 main scale divisions and 30 circular scale
divisions. Assuming negligible zero error, the
T
thickness of the wire is:
(1) 0.3150 cm (1) 0.3150 cm
S
(2) 0.2150 cm (2) 0.2150 cm
E
(3) 0.4300 cm (3) 0.4300 cm
(4) 0.0430 cm (4) 0.0430 cm
T
5. The moment of inertia of a uniform disc about an 5.
axis passing through its centre and perpendicular
_
to its plane is 1 kg m2. It is rotating with an angular
velocity 100 rad s-1. Another identical disc is gently
T
placed on it so that their centres coincide. Now,
these two discs together continue to rotate about
E
the same axis. Then, the loss in kinetic energy (in
kJ) is:
E (1) 2.5
(1) 2.5
(2) 3.0
(2) 3.0
N
(3) 3.5 (3) 3.5
(4) 4.0 (4) 4.0

_
6. In a photoelectric experiment, the graph of 6.

frequency of incident light (in Hz) and stopping
T
V
potential V (in V) is as shown in the figure. From
e
figure, the value of the Planck's constant is (e is
H
the elementary charge)

G I L IRE
W
S E
AC CB
E S_
AC CB (1) e (2) e
(1) e (2) e CB AB
CB AB
N
AB AC AB AC
(3) e (4) e (3) e (4) e
BC AB BC AB
@
7. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm made of glass 7.

of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water having
refractive index 1.33 The change in the focal length
of lens is:
(1) 62.2 cm (1) 62.2 cm
(2) 5.82 cm (2) 5.82 cm
(3) 58.2 cm (3) 58.2 cm
(4) 6.22 cm (4) 6.22 cm
NLI / 5
8. In a sonometer wire, the tension is maintained by 8.
suspending a 50.7 kg mass from the free end of
the wire. The suspended mass has a volume of
0.0075 m3. The fundamental frequency of the wire
is 260 Hz. If the suspended mass is completely
submerged in water, the fundamental frequency
will become:
(1) 200 Hz
(1) 200 Hz
(2) 220 Hz (2) 220 Hz
(3) 230 Hz (3) 230 Hz
(4) 240 Hz (4) 240 Hz
9. A proton and an -particle enter a uniform 9.

magnetic field perpendicularly with the same
speed. If proton takes 25 to make 5 revolutions, 25
then periodic time for the -particle would be:
(1) 50 (2) 25 (1) 50 (2) 25
(3) 10 (4) 5 (3) 10 (4) 5
10. A block of mass m1 lies on a smooth horizontal 10. m1
table and is connected to another freely hanging
m2
block of mass m2 by a light inextensible string
passing over a smooth fixed pulley situated at the
edge of the table as shown in the figure. Initially
the system is at rest with m1 at a distance d from m1 d
the pulley. The time taken for m1 to reach the pulley m1
is:
m2 g m2 g
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
m2g m2 g
2m2 d 2m2 d
(3) (3)
(4) None of these. (4)

11. A magnet of magnetic moment M is lying in a 11. M
magnetic field of induction B. W1 is the work done B W1
in turning it from 00 to 600 and W2 is the work done
W2
in turning it from 300 to 900. Then
(1) W1 (2)
(1) W1 (2)
(3) (4) .
(3) (4) .
NLI / 6
12. Four closed surfaces and corresponding charge 12.
distributions are shown below.
Let the respective electric fluxes through the

surface be and . Then
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
13. A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that its 13. m
velocity according to the law where k
is constant and s is the distance covered. Find k s
the total work performed by all the forces which
are acting on the locomotive during the first
seconds after the beginning of motion.
1 1
(1) W  mk 4 t 2 (1) W  mk 4 t 2
8 8
1 2 42 1 2 42
(2) W  mk t (2) W  mk t
4 4
1
(3) W  mk 4 t 4 1
4 (3) W  mk 4 t 4
4
1
(4) W  mk 4 t 4 1
8 (4) W  mk 4 t 4
8
14. A uniform chain has a mass M and Length L. It is 14. M L

placed on a frictionless table with length  0 0
hanging over the edge. The chain begins to slide
down, then the speed v with which the end slides v
down from the edge is given by :-
g
(1) v  L  0 g
L (1) v  L  0
L
g
(2) v  L  0 g
L (2) v  L  0
L
g 2
(3) v  L   02 g 2
L (3) v  L   02
L
(4) v  2g L   0
(4) v  2g L   0
NLI / 7
15. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve 15.
of radius 90 m on a frictionaless road. If the
banking angle is 450 the speed of the car is :-
(1) 20 ms-1 (1) 20 ms-1
(2) 30 ms-1 (2) 30 ms-1
(3) 5 ms-1 (3) 5 ms-1
(4) 10 ms-1 (4) 10 ms-1
16. A uniform rod of mass ‘m’ and length  is 16. ‘m’ 
suspended by two string at its ends as shown.
When one of the string is cut, the rod starts falling
with an initial angular acceleration (assume
string is rigid)
g g
(1) (1)
 
g g
(2) (2)
2 2
3g 3g
(3) (3)
2 2
3g 3g
(4) (4)
4 4
17. Gravitational field at the centre of a semicircle 17. m  AB
formed by a thin wire AB of mass m and length
 is :-
Gm
(1) + x-
Gm 2
(1) 2 along + x-axis

Gm
Gm (2) + y-
(2) along + y-axis 2
 2
2Gm 2Gm
(3) along + x-axis (3) + x-
2 2
2Gm 2Gm
(4) along + y-axis (4) + y-
2 2
NLI / 8
18. The depth d at which the value of acceleration 18. d
1 1
due to gravity become times the value at the R=
n n
surface is (R = Radius of earth) :-
R R R R
(1) (2) (1) (2)
n n2 n n2
 n   n  1  n   n  1
(3) R   (4) R   (3) R   (4) R  
 n  1  n   n  1  n 
19. A water tank resting on the floor has two small 19.
holes vertically one above the other. The holes h1 h2
are h1 cm and h2 cm above the floor. How high
does water stand in the tank if the jets from the
holes hits the floor at the same point :-
(1) (h1 + h2)
(1) (h1 + h2)
(2) (h2 - h1) (2) (h2 - h1)
h12  h22 h12  h22

(3) (3)
2 2
h22  h12 h22  h12

(4) (4)
2 2
20. A spherical ball falls through a viscous medium 20. v
with terminal velocity v. If this ball is replaced by
another ball of the same mass but half the radius,
then the terminal velocity will be (neglect effect
of buoyancy).
(1) v (1) v
(2) 2 v (2) 2 v
(3) 4 v (3) 4 v
(4) 8 v (4) 8 v
21. At what speed, the velocity head of water is equal 21. Hg
to pressure head of 40 cm of Hg :
(1) 10.32 m/s (1) 10.32 m/s
(2) 2.8 m/s (2) 2.8 m/s
(3) 5.6 m/s (3) 5.6 m/s
(4) 8.5 m/s (4) 8.5 m/s
22. A particle of mass m is released from the top of 22. m R
the smooth hemisphere R as shown
The normal contact between the particle and the 

hemisphere in position  is :- (1) mg(3 - 2 cos )
(1) mg(3 - 2 cos )
(2) mg(3 cos  - 2)
(2) mg(3 cos  - 2)
(3) mg(4 cos  - 3) (3) mg(4 cos  - 3)
(4) mg(4 - 3 cos ) (4) mg(4 - 3 cos )
NLI / 9
23. For the equilibrium of the system shown, the 23. m
value of mass m should be :-
(1) 9 kg
(1) 9 kg
(2) 12 kg
(2) 12 kg
(3) 21 kg
(3) 21 kg
(4) 4.5 kg
(4) 4.5 kg
24. A particle of mass m is placed at the centre of a 24. m 3m R

uniform spherical shell of mass 3 m and radius
R. The gravitational potential on the surface of
the shell is :-
Gm 3Gm Gm 3Gm
(1)  (2)  (1)  (2) 
R R R R
4Gm 2Gm 4Gm 2Gm

(3)  (4)  (3)  (4) 
R R R R
25. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 25. 3T 2T
minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that T
Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The
temperature of the body at the end of next 10
minutes will be:
7 3 7 3
(1) T (2) T (1) T (2) T
4 2 4 2
4 4
(3) T (4) T (3) T (4) T
3 3
26. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken 26. A C
by a gas to go from a state A to a state C. in process AB
AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in BC
process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system.
The heat absorbed by the system in the process AC
AC will be:
(1) 460 J (2) 300 J (1) 460 J (2) 300 J

(3) 380 J (4) 500 J (3) 380 J (4) 500 J
NLI / 10
27. At 100C the value of the density of a fixed mass of 27. 100C
an ideal gas divided by its pressure is x. At 1100C x 1100C
this ratio is:
10
(1) x 10
110 (1) x
110
283 283
(2) x x
383 (2)
383
(3) x (3) x
383 383
(4) x (4) x
283 283
28. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. 28.

Its velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean x1 x2 V1 V2
position are V1 and V2 respectively. Its tiem period
is:
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 2 (4) 2
29. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate 29.

for some time after which it de-acelerates at a
constant rate and comes to rest. If total time t
elapsed is t, then maximum velocity acquired by
car will be:
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
NLI / 11
30. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a 30. r
region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with 
 dB
dB dt
time at a rate . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses
dt
R>r r
the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the
R
region of magnetic field as shown in the figure.
Then the e.m.f. generated is:
(1) zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 (1) zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
   
(2) in loop 1 and in loop 2 (2) in loop 1 and in loop 2
 
(3) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 (3) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
 
(4) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 (4) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
31. A 100 resistance and a capacitor of 100 31. 100 100 220 V
reactance are connected in series across a 220 V
source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the
peak value of the displacement current is:
(1) 2.2 A (1) 2.2 A
(2) 1.1 A (2) 1.1 A
(3) 4.4 A (3) 4.4 A
(4) 11 2A (4) 11 2A
32. In Young's double slit experiment the separation 32.

d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength of 0
0
5896 A
the light used is 5896 A and distance D betwen
the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the
angular width of the fringes is 0.200. To increase
D
the fringe angular width to 0.210 (with same and
D) the separation between the slits needs to be
changed to:
(1) 1.8 mm
(1) 1.8 mm
(2) 1.9 mm
(2) 1.9 mm
(3) 2.1 mm (3) 2.1 mm
(4) 1.7 mm (4) 1.7 mm

NLI / 12
33. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes 33.
from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The
velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon
emission will be:
24hR 25hR 24hR 25hR

(1) (2)
(1) (2) 25m 24m
25m 24m
25m 24m
25m 24m (3) (4)
(3) (4) 24hR 25hR
24hR 25hR
34. When temperature is increased : 34.
(1) Resistance of metal increases (1)

(2) Conductance of semicondutor increases (2)
(3) Resistivity of silicon decreases (3)
(4) All are true (4)
35. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a 35. p-n 2.5 eV.
semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can
detect a signal of wvelength.
(1) 4000 nm (1) 4000 nm
(2) 6000 nm (2) 6000 nm
0 0
(3) 4000 A (3) 4000 A
0 0
(4) 6000 A (4) 6000 A
SECTION-B -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
15 15
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
10 10
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted 10
questions will be considered for marking.
     
36. The magnitude of vectors A,B and C are 3, 4 and 36. A,B C
       
5 units respectively. If , the angle , A B
 
between A and B is: (1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
37. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves carry energy 37. :
and momentum :
Reason : Electromagnetic waves can be polarised.

(1)
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is (2)
not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) assertion is false but reason is true. (3)
(4) Both assertion and reason false. (4)
NLI / 13
38. Assertion : The image formed by a concave mirror 38. :
is certainly real if the object is virtual.
Reason : The image formed by a concave mirror :
is certainly virtual if the object is real.
correct explanation of assertion is not
(3) assertion is true but reason is false. (3)
39. Assertion : The graph between velocity and 39. :
displacement for a harmonic oscillator is a
parabola.
:
Reason : Velocity changes uniformly with
displacement in harmonic motion.
(1)
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion is not
40. Assertion : The number of degrees of freedom of 40. :
a linear triatomic molecules is 7.
Reason :The number of degree of freedom :
depends on number of particle in the system.
not the correct explanation of assertion
41. Match the Devices with their electric field :
41.
Device Electric field
A. Infinite plane sheet P. 0
of charge
A. P. 0
B. Infinite conducting Q. 2
plane charge sheet B. Q. 2

R
C. Non-conducting R. 3
R
C. R R. 3
uniformly charged solid sphere
of radius R at its surface
D. Non-conducting S. D. R S.
uniformly charge solid sphere of

radius R at its centre (1) A-Q, B-Q, C-R, D-P (2) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P
(1) A-Q, B-Q, C-R, D-P (2) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S (4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-P (3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S (4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-P
NLI / 14
42. Match the List-I with List-II : 42.
List-I List-II
A. Magnet attracts P. rests particular A. I.
direction
B. Magnet can be Q. Iron B. II.
repelled
C. Magnet if suspended R. by another magnet C. III.
freely
D. Poles of the magnet S. Iron filings D. IV.
can be identified by
(1) A-SP, B-Q, C-R, D-P (1) A-SP, B-Q, C-R, D-P
(2) A-QS, B-R, C-P, D-R (2) A-QS, B-R, C-P, D-R
(3) A-PQ, B-Q, C-R, D-S (3) A-PQ, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(4) A-PR, B-P, C-R, D-P (4) A-PR, B-P, C-R, D-P
43. The speed of electromagnetic wave in a medium 43.
is equal to the:
(1)
(1) Speed of light
(2) less than speed of light (2)
(3) more than speed of light
(3)
(4) less or more than speed of light depends upon
medium (4)
44. Find the current through load resistance RL in the 44. R
following circuit. (breakdown voltage of ideal
= 10
zener diode is = 10 volt).
volt)
(1) 2 mA
(1) 2 mA
4
(2) mA 4
3 (2) mA
3
(3) 0 (3) 0
(4) None of the above
(4)
x x
45. Ratio of volume of two nuclie are . The ratio of 45.
y y
their mass numbers will be:
1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
NLI / 15
46. If the length of the (n+1) division of vernier scale is 46. (n+1)
equal to the 'n' division of main scale. If length of 'n' v
the vernier divisions is v, then least count of the
vernier scale is.
v v
(1) (1)
v v
(2) (2)
n n
nv nv
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
47. In young's double slit experiment setup upper and 47.

lower portions are filled by two different medium
of refractive index and as shown in figure.
(1) central maxima will formed at O (1) O
(2) Phase difference at O is zero (2) O
(3) Both above are true (3)
(4)
(4) 1 and 2 are false
48.
48. Which of the following is not true :
(1) Electric field due to a static charge is non (1)

conservative
(2)
(2) Gravitational field is conservative
(3) Indivisual magnetic poles do not exists (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 are true

(4)
NLI / 16
49. The equivalent resistance of parallel combinations 49. 10
of several conductors is 10 . Now one of the
conductor is removed and new equivalent
15
resistance of remaining is 15 . Then
(1) 10
(1) New equivalent will be less than 10
(2) 30
(2) The removed conductor has 30 resistance
(3)
(3) In parallel combination of resistors equivalent is
smaller than smallest resistance of network
(4) Both 2 and 3 are correct (4)
50. Two charges q1 and q2 are put on square plate of 50. q1 q2

side 'a' as shown in figure. The electric flux passing 'a'
through the plate.
(1) zero
(1)
(2)
(2)
q1
(3) 8
q1
(3) 8
q2
(4) 24
q2
(4) 24
NLI / 17
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A -A
51. The reagent used for protection of amino group 51.

during the nitration of aniline is :
(1) Acetic acid (1)
(2) Acetic anhydride (2)
(3) PCl5 (3) PCl5
(4) SOCl2 / Pyridine (4) SOCl2
52. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 52. (A)
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R).
(A) :
Assertion(A) :
Molar conductivity increases with decrease in
concentration for weak electrolytes.
Reason (R) :
(R) :
No. of ions increases and No. of ions per unit volume
decreases due to dilution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (1) (A) (R) (R)
(A). (A)
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (2) (A) (R) (R)
Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (3) (A) (R)
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false (4) (A) (R)
53. The bond order in ClO4– is : 53. ClO4–
(1) 5/7 (1) 5/7
(2) 4/7 (2) 4/7
(3) 7/4 (3) 7/4
(4) 5/4 (4) 5/4
54. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CONH(Br) 54. CH3CONH(Br) IUPAC
is:
(1) 1-bromoacetamide
(2) N-bromoethanamide
(3) N-bromoethanone
(4) N-bromo-2-oxo methane -2-
NLI / 18
55. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 55. (A)
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R).
(A) :
Assertion(A) :
Carbylamine reaction involves chemical reaction 1°
between 1° amine and chloroform in basic medium.
Reason (R) : (R) :
In carbylamine reaction, –NH2 group changes into –NC
–NH2 –NC
group
below:
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
(1) (A) (R) (R)
Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A). (A)
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (2) (A) (R) (R)
Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (3) (A) (R)
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false (4) (A) (R)
56. Eº for Cl2 + 2e–  2Cl– is 1.36 V, Eº for 56. Cl2 + 2e–  2Cl–, E° = 1.36 V
1/2Cl2+e– Cl– will be: 1/2Cl2+ e– Cl– E°
(1) 1.36 v (1) 1.36 v
(2) .68V (2) .68V
(3) 2.72V (3) 2.72V
(4) –1.36V (4) –1.36V
PCl PCl
5
57. CH3MgBr 5
A   B C, C is: 57. CH3MgBr A   B C, C
(1) n- butane
(2) n-hexane
(3) 2,3-dimethyle butane
(4) neopentane (4)
58. Select the incorrect statement about a catalyst: 58.
(1) It increases the rate of reaction (1)
(2) It does not affect the energy of activation (2)
(3) It does not alter G of a reaction (3) G
(4) It does not change the equilibrium constant of a (4)
reaction
59.
59.
(P) :
Major product (P) is:
(1) Ph – CH2 –CH2 – OH
(1) Ph – CH2 –CH2 – OH
(2) Ph – CH2 – CHO (2) Ph – CH2 – CHO
(3) Ph – CO – CH3 (3) Ph – CO – CH3
(4) Ph – CH2 – O – CH3 (4) Ph – CH2 – O – CH3
NLI / 19
60. Mole fraction of the solute in 0.5 molal aqueous 60. 0.5
solution is:
(1) 1/112
(1) 1/112
(2) 1/56
(2) 1/56
(3) 1/25
(3) 1/25
(4) 1/150 (4) 1/150
61. Given below are two statements : 61.
Statement I: I:
Nephthalene is an aromatic compound and has 10
10 electrons.
Statement II :
II :
Pyridine is an heterocyclic aromatic compound .
below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II
62. Correct statement(s) with respect to [Ni(CN)4]2– ion 62. [Ni(CN)4]2–

is/are:
(1) Ni2+ sp3
(1) The central Ni2+ ion is sp3 hybridised
(2)
(2) It is a planar complex
(3)
(3) It is paramagnetic in nature
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) (3)
63. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 63.

p-subshell is:
(1) (2) 2
(1) Zero (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 12 
(3) 6 (4) 12 
64. A mixture showing negative deviation from 64.

Raoult’s law is:
(1) +
(1) Hexane + Heptane
(2) +
(2) Benzene + Toluene
(3) Water + Ethanol (3) +
(4) Nitric acid + Water (4) +

65. The correct order of increasing ionic radii of the 65.
following isoelectronic species is:
(1) S2– < Cl– < P3– < K+ (1) S2– < Cl– < P3– < K+
– 2– 3– +
(2) Cl < S < P < K (2) Cl– < S2– < P3– < K+
+ – 2– 3–
(3) K < Cl < S < P
(3) K+ < Cl– < S2– < P3–
+ 2– – 3–
(4) K < S < Cl < P
(4) K+ < S2– < Cl– < P3–
NLI / 20
Statement I: I:
Boiling point increases down the group in halogens
Statement II : II :
F has higher electron affinity than Cl. F Cl
below :
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
67. Consider the following redox reaction: 67.
Cu2S(s) + MnO4– (aq) Cu2S(s) + MnO4– (aq)
Cu2+ (aq) + SO42– (aq) + Mn2+ (aq) Cu2+ (aq) + SO42– (aq) + Mn2+ (aq)
The number of moles of MnO 4– ion that will be Cu2S

needed to oxidise one mole of Cu2S completely is MnO4–
:
(1) 2
(1) 2
(2) 5
(2) 5
(3) 2/5 (3) 2/5
(4) 5/2 (4) 5/2

68. Enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids A, B, C and 68. NaOH A, B, C D
D with NaOH are –10.5, –13.7, –5.9 and –12.7 kcal –10.5, –13.7, –5.9 –12.7 kcal eq–1
eq–1 respectively. Out of A, B, C and D the strongest
A, B, C D
acid is:
(1) C (1) C
(2) A (2) A
(3) D (3) D
(4) B (4) B
69. The equilibrium constant of the reversible reaction 69. N2 + 3H2  2NH3
N2 + 3H2  2NH3 is K. The equilibrium constant K
for the following reaction will be:


(1) K2
(1) K2
(2) K / 2
(2) K / 2
1 1
(3)
(3)
K1/ 2 K1/ 2
(4) 1 / 2K (4) 1 / 2K
NLI / 21
70. Oxidation states of N in HCN, HN 3 and NO 70. HCN, HN3 NO N
respectively are:
(1) +1, +3 –2
(1) +1, +3 and –2
(2) –3, +3 and +2 (2) –3, +3 +2
(3) –3, and +2 (3) –3, +2
(4) +2, and +2 (4) +2, +2
71. Consider the following reaction sequence: 71. D
Product D is:
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
72. Statement I: In presence of DMSO solvent, the rate 72. I : DMSO SN2
of SN2 reaction increases.
Statement II: DMSO is a polar protic solvent. II : DMSO
(1) Statement I and II both are true (1) I II
(2) Statement I and II both are false (2) I II
(3) Statement I is true statement II is false (3) I II
(4) Statement I is false statement II is true (4) I II
73. Match the compounds given in column I with the 73. I II

name reactions given by them in column II and
select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II I II
a. Phenol (i) Etard a. (i)
b. Acetic acid (ii) Canniozzaro b. (ii)
c. Formaldehyde (iii) Reimer-Tiemann
c. (iii)
d. Toluene (iv) Hell-Volhard
Zelinsky d. (iv)
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
NLI / 22
74. RCOR + RMgX  Intermediate Product. 74. RCOR + RMgX  .
In the above reaction sequence, the product is:
(1) A primary alcohol (1)
(2) A secondary alcohol (2)
(3) A tertiary alcohol (3)
(4) An ether (4)
75. Identify the product (D) in the following reaction 75. (D)
sequence:
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
cone. H SO
2 4
76. Identify D in the sequence: 76. B C   D
2 4 cone. H SO D
B C   D
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
77. 0.520
77. Elevation in b.p. of an aqueous urea solution is
d i
0.520. K b  0.52 mol kg . hence, mole fraction of
0 1 dK b i
 0.52 0 mol 1 kg
urea in this solution is :

(1) 0.982 (1) 0.982
(2) 0.0567 (2) 0.0567
(3) 0.943 (3) 0.943
(4) 0.0176 (4) 0.0176

78. For the equilibrium in a closed vessel 78.
PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 ( g) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 ( g)  Cl2 ( g)
Kp is found to be double of Kc. This is attained Kp, Kc
when:
(1) T  2 K
(1) T  2 K
(2) T  12.18 K
(2) T  12.18 K
(3) T  24.36 K (3) T  24.36 K
(4) T  27.3 K (4) T  27.3 K
NLI / 23
79. Select the incorrect statement : 79.
(1) R  C  C  R on reaction with H2 in the presence of (1) R – C  C – R H2

Lindlars catalyst gives cis-alkene
(2) t-Alkyl halides do not give Wurtz reaction
(3) Symmetrical ketoximes do not show geometrical

(3)
isomerism
(4)
(4) Alkene undergo nucleophilic addition generally
80. Give the correct match of reactions (List I) with the 80. I II
regents in (List II) :
I II
List I List II
(1) CH3CH = CH2 CH3CH2CH2Br HBr/Peroxide (1) CH3CH = CH2 CH3CH2CH2
(2) CH3CH = CH2 CH2BrCH=CH2 NBS/CCl4 (2) CH3CH = CH2 CH2BrCH=CH2 NBS/CCl4
(3) CH3CH = CH2 CH3CHBrCH2Br Br2,low temp. (3) CH3CH = CH2 CH3CHBrCH2Br Br2,
(4) All are correct. (4)
81. 2-Butyne is heated with dil H2SO4/HgSO 4, the H2SO4/HgSO4
product formed is:
(1) Butanoic acid (1)
(2) Butanone (2)
(3) Butanol -1 (3) -1
(4) 2-Butanol
82. When CH3CH2CHCl 2 is treated with NaNH2, the 82. CH3CH2CHCl2 NaNH2
product formed is :
(1) CH3  C  CH (1) CH3  C  CH
(2) CH3 CH2CH (2) CH3 CH2 CH
(3) CH3 CH  CH2 (3) CH3 CH  CH2
(4) CH3 CH2CH (4) CH3 CH2 CH
83. Arrange in increasing basic strength order : 83.
H H
N N
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (d) NH3 (c) (d) NH3
(1) d < a < c < b (2) a < b < c < d (1) d < a < c < b (2) a < b < c < d
(3) c < d < a < b (4) d < c < a < b (3) c < d < a < b (4) d < c < a < b
NLI / 24
84. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2 One 84. CH2
mole of this compound has a mass of 42g. Its 42
molecular formula is :
(1) C3H6
(1) C3H6
(2) CH2
(2) CH2
(3) C2H2
(3) C2H2
(4) C3H8 (4) C3H8
85. Which of the following is an example of 85.

ketohexose :
(1)
(1) Mannose
(2)
(2) Galactose
(3) Maltose (3)
(4) Fructose (4)

SECTION-B -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
15 15
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
10 10
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted 10
questions will be considered for marking.
86. The application of coupling reaction in 86. :
thermodynamics :
(1)
(1) To make a reaction exothermic
(2) To make a reaction endothermic (2)
(3) To ppt. the given reactant (3)
(4) To make reaction spontaneous (4)

87. In chromyl chloride, the oxidation no. of chromium 87.
is :
(1) +6
(1) +6
(2) –4
(2) –4
(3) –6
(3) –6
(4) +3 (4) +3
88. When copper is treated with a certain 88.

concentration of nitric acid, nitric oxide and
nitrogen dioxide are liberated in equal volumes :
according to the equation :
XCu + yHNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + NO + NO2 + H2O
XCu + yHNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + NO + NO2 + H2O
The coefficients of x and y are : x y :
(1) 2 and 3 (1) 2 3
(2) 2 and 6 (2) 2 6
(3) 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) 3 and 8 (4) 3 8

NLI / 25
89. Flourine is the best oxidising agent because it has: 89. :
(1) Highest electron affinity (1)
(2) Highest Eº reduction (2) Eº
(3) Highest Eºoxidation (3) Eº
(4) Lowest electron affinity (4)
90. According to the long form of periodic 90.

classification of elements, thallium is present in :
(1) First group and seventh period (1)
(2) Thirteenth group and sixth period (2)
(3) Fourth group and seventh period (3)
(4) Third group and sixth period (4)
91. If K1 and K2 are the respective equilibrium constants 91. K1 K2

for the two reactions,
XeF6(g)+H2O(g) XeOF4(g)+2HF(g) XeF6(g)+H2O(g) XeOF4(g)+2HF(g)

XeO4(g)+ XeF6(g) XeOF4(g)+XeO3F2(s)
XeO4(g)+ XeF6(g) XeOF4(g)+XeO3F2(s)
the equilibrium constant of the reaction

XeO4(g)+ 2HF(g) XeO3F2(g)+H2O(g), :
XeO4(g)+ 2HF(g) XeO3F2(g)+H2O(g), will be :
(1) K1 / (K2)2
(1) K1 / (K2)2
(2) K1.K2
(2) K1.K2
(3) K1 / K2 (3) K1 / K2
(4) K2 / K1 (4) K2 / K1
92. One mole of an ideal gas at 300K is expanded 92. 300K 1L

isothermally from an initial volume of 1 L to 10L. 10L
–1 –1
The E for this process is (R=2calmol K ): E (R=2 –1
K–1):
(1) 163.7 cal (1) 163.7 cal
(2) zero (2) zero
(3) 1381.1 cal (3) 1381.1 cal
(4) 9 L atm (4) 9 L atm
93. HClO4 + P2O5  A + B, A and B are : 93. HClO4 + P2O5  A + B, A B
(1) HClO3, H3PO4 (1) HClO3, H3PO4
(2) Cl2O6, HPO3 (2) Cl2O6, HPO3
(3) ClO2, H3PO4 (3) ClO2, H3PO4
(4) Cl2O7, HPO3 (4) Cl2O7, HPO3
NLI / 26
94. Which of the following do not give fridel craft 94.
reaction :
(1)
(1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
95. Identify the product Z in the series, 95. Z
: :
(1) CH3CHO (1) CH3CHO

(2) CH3CH2CONH2 (2) CH3CH2CONH2
(3) CH3COOH (3) CH3COOH
(4) CH3CH2NHOH (4) CH3CH2NHOH
96. The correct acidity order of the following is : 96.
(1) iii > iv > ii > i (1) iii > iv > ii > i
(2) iv > iii > i > ii (2) iv > iii > i > ii
(3) iii > ii > i > iv (3) iii > ii > i > iv
(4) ii > iii > iv > i (4) ii > iii > iv > i
97. The pressure of H2 required to make the potential 97. 2980K H

of H2 electrode zero in pure water at 2980K is : H2
(1) 10–10 atm (1) 10–10 atm
(2) 10–14 atm (2) 10–14 atm
(3) 10–4 atm (3) 10–4 atm
(4) 10–12 atm (4) 10–12 atm
98. Among the following, the pair in which the two 98. (pair)
species are not isostructural is :
(1) SiF4 SF4
(1) SiF4 and SF4
(2) IO3– XeO3
(2) IO3– and XeO3
(3) BH4– and NH4+ (3) BH4– NH4+
(4) PF6– and SF6 (4) PF6– SF6

NLI / 27
99. Which of the following amines will give the 99.
carbylamine test :
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4) (4)
100. In the complex [ CO (en)2 Cl2] Br, the Co-ordination 100. [ CO (en)2 Cl2] Br,
number and oxidation state of cobalt are : :
(1) 6 and +3 (1) 6 +3
(2) 3 and +3 (2) 3 +3
(3) 4 and +2 (3) 4 +2
(4) 6 and +1 (4) 6 +1
NLI / 28
PART-1 (SECTION-A)
101. Which of the following is not a function of the 101.
skeletal system :
(1)
(1) Production of body heat
(2)
(2) Locomotion
(3) Production of erythrocytes (3)
(4) Storage of minerals (4)
102. Ground tissue includes : 102.
(1) all tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles (1)
(2) epidermis and cortex (2)
(3) all tissues internal to endodermis (3)
(4) all tissues external to endodermis (4)
103. Which one of the following containes maximum 103.
content of energy :
(1) (2)
(1) Grass (2) Snake
(3) Grasshopper (4) Frogs (3) (4)
104. Given below are two statements 104.
Statement I: -I:
Surgical methods, also called sterilisation are generally
advised for the male/female partner as a terminal method
to prevent any more pregnancies.
Statement II :
- II :
Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and there
by prevent conception.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
Statement I: -I:
IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want
to delay pregnancy and/or space children.
IUDs
Statement II :
- II :
Oral administration of small doses of either
progestogens or Relaxin-prolactin combinations is
another contraceptive method used by the females.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
NLI / 29
Statement I: -I:
In prokaryotes such as E.coli though they do not have
a defined nucleus the DNA is not scattered throughout
the cell. DNA
Statement II : - II :
The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held by DNA
proteins.
below:
(1) I II

Statement I: -I:
The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires
additional set of proteins that collectively are referred to
as non-histone chromosomal proteins.
Statement II :
- II :
Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation,
DNase
suggesting that the DNA caused the transformation.
below:

Statement I: -I:
Stability as one of the properties of genetic material
was very evident in Griffith transforming principle itself
that heat which killed the bacteria, at least did not
destroy some of the properties of genetic material.
Statement II :
- II :
In fact the presence of thymine at the place of uracil
DNA
also confers additional stability to DNA.
below:

NLI / 30
109. The primers used during annealing step of PCR 109. PCR
are
(1) Polypeptides (1)

(2) A type of nucleic acids (2)
(3) Lipids (3)
(4) Carbohydrates (4)
110. 'The integration of natural science and organisms 110.
cells, parts there of, and molecular analogues for
products and services'
Above given sentence is
(1)
(1) Definition of bioinformatics
(2) Definition of biotechnology (2)
(3) Special method of tissue culture (3)
(4) Special method for hybridisation (4)

Statement I: -I:
Some plasmids may have only one or two copies per
cell whereas others may have 15–100 copies per cell.
Plasmids and Bacteriophage have the ability to replicate
within bacterial cell indepedent of the control of
DNA
chromosomal DNA.
below:

112. Which one of the following 4-carbon containing 112.
compound forms in mesophyll cells :
(a) OAA (a) OAA
(b) Malic acid (b)
(c) Aspartic acid (c)
(1) Only a (2) Only a, b (1) a (2) a, b
(3) Only a, c (4) a, b, c (3) a, c (4) a, b, c

113. What is not true about bundle sheath cells of 113.
maize:
(1)
(1) They have numerous chloroplast
(2)
(2) Intercellular spaces absent
(3) Their walls are not impervious to gaseous exchange (3)
(4) Their walls are thick (4)
NLI / 31
Statement I: -I:
Closely located genes assorted together and distantly
located genes, due to recombination assorted
independently.
Many genes were linked to sexes also and called sex-
linked genes.
below:
(1) I II

Statement I: -I:
The thalassemia could be due to either mutation or
deletion which ultimately results in reduced rate of
synthesis of one of the globin chains ( and  chains)
( )
that make up haemoglobin.
Statement II :
- II :
Due to haemophilia in an affected individual a simple
cut will result in non-stop bleeding.
below:

Statement I: -I:
In addition to recombination, mutation is another DNA
phenomenon that leads to variation in DNA.
Statement II :
- II :
UV radiation can cause mutation in organisms. It is a
UV
mutagen.
below:

NLI / 32
Statement I:
-I:
Deletions and insertions of base pairs of DNA, causes
DNA
frame - shift mutations.
Statement II :
- II :
In honey bee the numebr of chromosome in queen and
worker are same.

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

Statement I:
-I:
Further investigation by other scientist led to the
conclusion that the X-body of henking was in fact a
chromosome and that is why it was given the name X- X X-
chromosome.
Today genetic maps are extensively used as a starting
point in the sequencing of whole genomes as was done
in the case of the human genome sequencing project,
describe later.
below: (1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
119. If the sequence of m-RNA is 119. m-
AUGUUUCUUAUUAUAUCU AUGUUUCUUAUUAUAUCU
Then what is the sequence of amino acid in
polypeptide chain :
(1) met-Phe-Leu-Ile-Ile-Ser
(1) met-Phe-Leu-Ile-Ile-Ser
(2) met-Leu-Phe-Ile-Ile-Ser
(2) met-Leu-Phe-Ile-Ile-Ser
(3) met-Leu-Ile-Phe-Ile-Ser (3) met-Leu-Ile-Phe-Ile-Ser
(4) met-Phe-Leu-Ile-Ser-Ile (4) met-Phe-Leu-Ile-Ser-Ile
NLI / 33
Statement I: -I:
The mammary glands of the female undergo
differentiation during pregnancy and starts producing
milk towards the end of pregnancy by the process called
lactation.
The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation

is called colostrum.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

121. In human male reproductive system, secretion of 121.
which gland constitute the seminal plasma :
(1) Paired seminal vesicle, paired prostate, a
bulbourethral gland (1)
(2) Paired seminal vesicle, a prostate, a bulbourethral
gland (2)
(3) A seminal vesicle, paired prostate, paired
bulbourethral gland (3)
(4) Paired seminal vesicle, a prostate, paired
(4)
bulbourethral gland
122. Which one of the following is not correct regarding 122.
the endomembrane system :
(1)
(1) Formed by those organelles whose functions are
well coordinated (2)
(2) It consist of endoplasmic reticulum, microbodies
and peroxisome
(3)
(3) It consist of endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex,
lysosome and vacuoles
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) 1 3
123. What is the NAD and NADP : 123. NAD NADP :

(1) Coenzyme (1)
(2) Cofactor (2)
(3) Vitamin containing chemical (3)
(4) All (4)

124. Which of the following cells do not have nucleus 124.
at maturity :
(1) Mature erythrocytes (1)

(2) Sieve tube cells (2)
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3)
(4) Lysosome (4)
NLI / 34
125. A common character of dicot stem and dicot root 125.
is :
(1) Exarch protoxylem (1)
(2) Endarch protoxylem (2)
(3) Occurrence of secondary growth (3)
(4) All (4)

Statement I: -I:
The reserve material in prokaryotic cell are stored in
the cytoplasm in the form of inclusion bodies.
Statement II :
- II :
Besides flagella, pili and fimbriae are also surface
structures of the bacteria but do not play a role in
motility.

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Statement I: -I:
The cell wall of a young plant cell, the primary wall is
capable of growth which gradually diminishes as the
cells matures and the secondary wall is formed on the
inner side of the cell.
An improved model of the structure of cell membrane

was proposed by Singer and Nicolson (1972) widely
accepted as fluid mosaic model.

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

NLI / 35
Statement I: -I:
Amino acids are organic compounds containing an
amino group and an acidic group as substituents on
the same carbon i.e. the -carbon. Hence, they are
called -amino acids. 
Living organisms have a number of carbon compounds
in which heterocyclic rings can be found. Some of these
are nitrogen bases Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil
and thymine.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

Statement I: -I:
Adult Human haemoglobin consist of 8 sub units.
The enzymes isolated from organisms who normally
live under extremely high temperatures (e.g. hot vents
and sulphur springs), are stable and retain their catalytic
800–900C
power at high temperatures (up to 800–900C).
below:

Statement I: -I:
In human kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped
structures situated between the levels of last thoracic
and third lumbar vertebra close to the dorsal inner wall
of the abdominal cavity.
The renal tubules begins with a double walled cup like
structures called Bowman's capsule.
below:
NLI / 36
Statement I: -I:
JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular JGA
modifications in the distal convoluted tubule and the
afferent arteriole at the location of their contact.
Statement II :
- II :
Tubular secretion is also an important step in urine
formation as it help in the maintenance of ionic and
acid base balance of body fluids.
below:

132. Select the incorrect statement for Abscisic acid 132.
(1) It acts as a general plant growth inhibitor and an (1)
inhibitor of plant metabolism
(2) ABA inhibits seed germination (2) ABA
(3) ABA helps seeds to withstand desiccation and other (3) ABA
factors unfavourable for growth
(4) In most situation, ABA act as an antagonist to (4) ABA
ethylene
133. There are many species of Panthera genus, which 133.
of the following is not the species of Panthera
genus :
(1) leo (2) nigram (1) (2)
(3) tigris (4) pardus (3) (4)

134. The chief producers in the oceans are : 134.
(1) Golden algae (1)
(2) Diatoms (2)
(3) Euglenoids (3)
(4) Slime moulds (4)
135. In Oogamous type of sexual reproduction, which 135.
statements are correct regarding to male and
female gametes:
(a)
(a) male gamete is small and motile
(b)
(b) male gamete is large and motile
(c) female gamete is small and non motile (c)
(d) female gamete is large and non-motile (d)
(1) both a and c (2) both a and d (1) a c (2) a d

(3) both b and c (4) both b and d (3) b c (4) b d
NLI / 37
PART-1 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 15 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking. 10
136. Which of the following are correctly matched 136.
(1) Ulothrix Isogamous (1)
(2) Gelidium Oogamous (2)
(3) Gracilaria Oogamous (3)
(4) All (4)
137. Statement -I- Cells, tissues, organs and organ system 137. -I-
split up the work in a way that exhibits division of labour
and contribute to the survival of the body as a whole.
Statement-II- Each organ in our body is made of one
or more type of tissues.
138. Given below are two statements , one is labelled 138. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R).
(A) :
Assertion (A):
In Neem the leaf is pinnately compound type.
Reason (R) : (R) :
In leaf of Neem the incisions of the lamina reach up to
the midrib breaking it into a number of leaflets.
below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) R
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
R
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
R
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) R
139. How many matching are correct for frog 139.
(a) Frog – External ear is absent (a) –
(b) Bidders canal – Part of Ovary
(b) –
(c) Mesorchium – Double fold of
(c) –
peritoneum
(d) Testes – Two pair (d) –
(1) Three (2) Four (1) (2)

(3) One (4) Two (3) (4)
NLI / 38
140. Select the correct statement for the root hair 140.
(a) Root hair absorb water and minerals from the soil (a)
(b) Present in region of maturation of the root

(b)
(c) It is very fine and delicate, thread - like structure
(c)
(d) Epidermal cells form the root hair
(d)
(1) All
(1)
(2) Only a, b, c
(2) a, b, c
(3) Only b, c, d (3) b, c, d
(4) Only c, d (4) c, d

141. The smallest stage in M-phase of cell cycle is : 141.
(1) Anaphase (1)
(2) Metaphase (2)
(3) Prophase (3)
(4) Telophase (4)

142. A molecule of haemoglobin carries oxygen 142.
molecules:
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4
143. In respiratory system the alveoli and their ducts 143.
form
(1)
(1) Conducting part
(2)
(2) Exchange part
(3) Respiratory part (3)
(4) Both 2 & 3 (4) 2 3

144. What is ganglia 144.
(1) Other name of neuron (1)
(2) Group of neuron (2)
(3) Group of nissl's granules (3)
(4) Other name of synaptic knob (4)

145. Which one of the following is the incorrect match 145.
(1) Cranial bone – Axial skeleton (1)
(2) Facial bone – Axial skeleton (2)
(3) Sternum – Axial skeleton (3)
(4) None of these (4)

NLI / 39
146. How many tarsals are present in ankle 146.
(1) 7 (1) 7
(2) 8 (2) 8
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 3 (4) 3
147. Which one of the following is the incorrect match 147.
(1) Syncarpous pistil – Michelia (1) –
(2) Apocarpous pistil – Papaver (2) –
(3) Sporopollenin – Most resistant Inorganic material (3) –
(4) All (4)

148. At which temperature storage of pollen grains of 148.
a large number of species for years in liquid
nitrogen is possible
(1) –960C (1) –960C
(2) –1960C (2) –1960C

(3) +1960C (3) +1960C
(4) –1000C (4) –1000C
149. Statement -I- In replication deoxyribonucleoside 149. -I-
triphosphates serve dual purposes.
Statement-II- There is a definite region in E.coli DNA DNA

where the replication originates such regions are
termed as origin of replication.

Statement I: -I:
M.S. Swaminathan initiated collaboration with Norman
Borlaug, which culminated in the 'Green Revolution'
through introduction of mexican varieties of wheat in
India.
M.S. Swaminathan is also known for the development
of the concept of crop cafeteria, crop scheduling and
genetically improving the yield and quality.
below :
(1) I II
(2) I II

NLI / 40
PART-2 (SECTION-A)
151. Conversion of humus into inorganic nutrients is 151.
called:
(1)
(1) Catabolism
(2)
(2) Leaching
(3) Mineralisation (3)
(4) Fragmentation. (4)

152. Herbivores are 152.
(1) Primary consumers only (1)
(2) Belong to the third trophic level (2)
(3) Belong to the second trophic level only (3)
(4) Primary consumers or belong to the second trophic (4)

level or consumers of 1st order
153. Which one of the following is not a type of physical 153.
carcinogenic agent :
(1) X-rays (1) X-

(2) Gamma rays (2)
(3) UV rays (3)
(4) None of these (4)
154. Intestinal perforation may occur in severe cases 154.
of :
(1)
(1) Ringworm
(2)
(2) Malaria
(3) Typhoid (3)
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) 1 3
155. In life cycle of plasmodium the gametocytes are 155.
develop in :
(1) RBC
(1) RBC of human
(2)
(2) liver
(3) Salivary gland of mosquito (3)
(4) Mosquito gut (4)

156. AIDS and cancer are examples of 156.
(1) infectious disease (1)
(2) non-infectious disease (2)
(3) AIDS infectious and cancer non infectious (3)
(4) AIDS non- infectious and cancer infectious (4)
157. Out of every 10 animals on earth, number of insects 157.
is estimated nearly will be :
(1) 6 (2) 7
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 10 (4) 5 (3) 10 (4) 5
NLI / 41
158. In agarose gel electrophoresis the DNA fragment 158. DNA
which moves farthest from loading place
(1) Largest (1)

(2) smallest (2)
(3) no information for size can be given (3)
(4) medium size (4)

159. Cell wall of bacteria can be lysed by 159.
(1) Lysozyme (1)
(2) Cellulase (2)
(3) Chitinase (3)
(4) Lignase (4)
160. Which one of the following animal is Triploblastic: 160. :
a. Sea Pen a.
b. Sea hare b.
c. Sea Cucumber c.
d. Sea lily d.
(1) All (2) Only a,b,c (1) (2) a,b,c
(3) b,c,d (4) Only c,d (3) b,c,d (4) c,d

161. Select the correct statement for Chameleon, 161.
Calotes and Hemidactylus : :
(1) All are a type of lizard (1)
(2) All are triploblastic (2)
(3) All are belongs to same class (3)
(4) All (4)

162. What is wolffia : 162. :
(1) Smallest Bryophytes (1)
(2) Brown algae (2)
(3) Smallest angiosperm (3)
(4) Smallest Gymnosperm (4)
163. Select the correct statement for Malvaceae family: 163. :
a. Capsule type of fruit occurs a.
b. Twisted aestivation of corolla present b.
c. Numerous stamens present c.
d. Flower bisexual and actinomorphic d.
(1) All (2) Only b,c,d (1) (2) b,c,d
(3) Only a,b,c (4) Only a,b,d (3) a,b,c (4) a,b,d
NLI / 42
164. How many matching are correct : 164. :
a. Feathery stigma – Poaceae a. –
b. Versatile anther – Poaceae
b. –
c. Glumes and lemma – Poaceae
c. –
d. Pappus – Asteraceae
d. –
e. Lomentum type of – Caesalpinioidae and
fruit Mimosoidae e. –
(1) Five (2) Four (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Two (3) (4)

165. Select the Incorrect match : 165. :
(1) GIP – Gastro--intestinal tract (1) GIP –
(2) Glucocorticoids – Adrenal gland (2) –
(3) TCT – Thymus gland (3) TCT –
(4) Erythropoietin – Kidney (4) –

(1) Rapid spasms – Tetany (1) –
(2) Osteoporosis – Increased chances of
(2) –
fractures
(3) Muscular dystrophy – Autoimmune disorder (3) –
(4) Gout – Inflammation of joints (4) –

167. In the given below example how many organism 167.
are unicellular Eukaryotes. :
Gonyaulax, Euglena, Mycoplasma, Nostoc, , , , , ,
Amoeba, Trypanosoma, Methanogens. ,
(1) Five (1)
(2) Four (2)
(3) Two (3)
(4) Three (4)
168. Which of the following are not a heterocyclic 168. :
compound :
(1)
(1) Alanine
(2)
(2) Adenine
(3) Cytosine (3)
(4) Uracil (4)

169. Which one of the following are not a plasma 169. :
protein :
(1)
(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Albumin (2)
(3) Globulin (3)

(4) Haemoglobin (4)
NLI / 43
170. Select the correct option : 170. :
(1) A – Thalamus (1) A –

(2) B – Seed (2) B –
(3) C – Endocarp (3) C –
(4) All (4)

Statement I: -I:
During replication and transcription a nucleic acid was
copied to form another nucleic acid
Statement II :
- II :
The process of translation requires transfer of genetic
information from a polymer of nucleotides to synthesise
a polymer of amino acids.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

172. Which one of the following organisms produce 172. :
Heterogametes :
(1)
(1) Hens
(2)
(2) Male grasshopper
(3) Male human (3)
(4) All (4)

(1) Primary lymphoid Organ – Thymus (1) –
(2) Primary lymphoid Organ – Tonsils (2) –
(3) Secondary lymphoid Organ – lymph nodes (3) –
(4) Secondary lymphoid organ – Vermiform appendix (4) –

NLI / 44
Statement I: -I:
Rice is an important food grain, the presence of which
goes back thousands of years in Asia's agriculture
history.
The diversity of rice in india is one of the lowest in the

world.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

175. Which one of the following are odd : 175. :
(1) Pst I (2) Pvu II (1) Pst I (2) Pvu II
(3) Cla I (4) DNAs (3) Cla I (4) DNAs
176. Which one of the following process in PCR takes 176. PCR
place at highest temperature : :
(1) Denaturation (1)
(2) Annealing (2)
(3) Extension (3)
(4) All process takes place at same temperature (4)
177. Which is revered as the father of ecology in India: 177.
(1) P. Maheswari :
(1)
(2) M.S. Swaminathan
(2)
(3) Ramdeo Mishra
(3)
(4) Birbal sahani (4)
178. Which is the scientific name of Carrot grass : 178. :
(1) Parthenium somniferum (1)
(2) Parthenium hysterophorus (2)
(3) Eicchornia crassipes (3)
(4) Clarias gariepinus (4)

179. According by Robert may the global species 179. :
diversity at about :
(1) 7
(1) 7 million
(2) 10
(2) 10 million
(3) 17 million (3) 17
(4) 2 million (4) 2
NLI / 45
180. In India how many strain of Rice occurs : 180. :
(1) More than 90000 (1) 90000
(2) More than 50000 (2) 50000
(3) Less than 20000 (3) 20000
(4) 30000 (4) 30000
181. What is the full form of IUCN : 181. IUCN :
(1) International union for conservation of nature and (1) International union for conservation of nature and
natural resources natural resources
(2) Indian union for cooperation of nature (2) Indian union for cooperation of nature
(3) Indian union of control for nature (3) Indian union of control for nature
(4) International union of control for nature (4) International union of control for nature
182. In the Lac operon what is the meaning of 'l' in l' 182. 'l' l :
gene :
(1)
(1) Inducer
(2)
(2) Inhibitor
(3) Intron (3)
(4) Interference (4)

183. Select the correct statement for salient feature of 183.
Human genome : :
(1) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. (1) 2%
(2) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of (2)

the human genome.
(3) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations (3) 1.4
where single base DNA differences. DNA
(4) All (4)

Statement I: -I:
DNA fingerprinting is a very Quick way to compare the DNA DNA
DNA sequence of any two Individuals.
If one aims to find out genetic differences between two
individuals or among individuals of a populations,
DNA
sequencing the DNA every time would be a daunting
and expensive task.
below:

NLI / 46
(1) Thymine – DNA (1) – DNA
(2) Adenine – RNA (2) – RNA
(3) Guanine – RNA (3) – RNA
(4) Cytosine – Only in DNA (4) – Only in DNA
PART-2 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can 15 15
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking. 10
186. Select the Incorrect match for photosynthesis : 186. :
(1) RuBP – Primary CO2 acceptor (1) RuBP – CO2
(2) PEP – Primary CO2 acceptor (2) PEP – CO2
(3) OAA – First stable product (3) OAA –
(4) PGA – Primary CO2 acceptor (4) PGA – CO2
187. "If a chemical process is affected by more than one 187.
factor, then its rate will be determined by the factor
which is nearest to its minimal value: it is the factor
which directly affects the process if its quantity is
changed".
"
The above given sentence is :
:
(1) Law of limiting factor
(1)
(2) Rivet popper hypothesis (2)
(3) Species – Area relationship (3) –
(4) None (4)
188. The total volume of air accommodated in the lungs 188.
at the end of a forced inspiration :
:
(1) FRC (2) VC (1) FRC (2) VC
(3) TLC (4) IC (3) TLC (4) IC
Statement I: -I:
obviously, by counting the number of QRS
QRS
complexes that occur in a given time period, one
can determine the heart beat rate of an individual
Each peak in the ECG is identified with a letter ECG P T
from P to T that corresponds to a specific electrical
activity of the heart.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
NLI / 47
190. Select the incorrect statement for Ethylene 190.
(1) Ethylene is a simple gaseous PGR (1) PGR
(2) It is synthesised in large amounts by tissues (2)
undergoing senescence and ripening fruits
(3) The most widely used compound as source of (3)

ethylene is ethephon
(4) Ethylene inhibits flowering in mango (4)

Statement I: -I:
Gibberellins, cause fruits like apple to elongate and
improve its shape.
Statement II :
- II :
Gibberellins also promotes bolting in beet, cabbages
and many plants with rosette habit.
below:
(1) I II

Statement I: -I:
Plant growth and development are under the control of
both intrinsic and extrinsic factors.
Statement II :
- II :
Intercellular intrinsic factors are the chemical substances
called plant growth regulators.
below:

193. Which of the following are involved in oxidative 193.
decarboxylation :
(1) Acetyl CoA (1) CoA
(2) NADH (2) NADH
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (3)
(4) All (4)
NLI / 48
194. Which one of the following compound may be 194.
formed from pyruvic acid : :
(1) Lactic acid (2) Ethanol (1) (2)
(3) Acetyl CoA (4) All (3) CoA (4)
195. Which is not involved in meiosis II 195. II
(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex (1)
(2) Separation of homologous chromosomes (2)
(3) Recombinase enzyme (3)
(4) All (4)
Statement I: -I:
At the time of cytoplasmic division, organelles like
mitochondria and plastids get distributed between the
two daughter cells.
- II :
Statement II :
In telophase centromere split and chromatids separate.
below:

197. Select the correct ascending order of carbon 197.
containing compound
(1) < <
(1) Pyruvic acid < Fumaric acid < Citric acid
(2) CoA < <
(2) Acetyl CoA < Malic acid < -ketoglutaric acid (3) < <
(3) Succinic acid < -ketoglutaric acid < Isocitric acid
(4) All (4)
Statement I: -I:
For aerobic respiration to take place within the ER, the ER
final product of glycolysis, pyruvate is transported from
the cytoplasm into, ER. ER
Decarboxylation process takes place during conversion 
of oxalosuccinic acid to -ketoglutaric acid.
below:
(1) I II

NLI / 49
199. Select the correct match 199.
(1) Serum – Clotting factors absent (1) –
(2) Amino acid, lipids – Plasma
(3) Monocytes, – Colourless (2) –
basophils (3) –
(4) All (4)
200. In which animal maximum chamber of heart 200.
present
(1)
(1) Exocoetus
(2)
(2) Frog
(3) Viper (3)
(4) Kangaroo (4)
NLI / 50

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FST : 33

DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 15-02-2024 MARKS : 720

• The important points to note:

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

NCERT - XI (346) pages NCERT - XII (285)

NEET-2024 80+ Questions

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TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS (MODEL)

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

2. The equivalent resistance between the points a 2. a b

and b of the electrical network shown in the figure

(4) 4.0 (4) 4.0

6. In a photoelectric experiment, the graph of 6.

the elementary charge)

7. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm made of glass 7.

(3) 230 Hz (3) 230 Hz

(4) 240 Hz (4) 240 Hz

9. A proton and an -particle enter a uniform 9.

(4) None of these. (4)

Let the respective electric fluxes through the

14. A uniform chain has a mass M and Length L. It is 14. M L

h12  h22 h12  h22

h22  h12 h22  h12

The normal contact between the particle and the 

24. A particle of mass m is placed at the centre of a 24. m 3m R

4Gm 2Gm 4Gm 2Gm

(1) 460 J (2) 300 J (1) 460 J (2) 300 J

28. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. 28.

29. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate 29.

(1) 2.2 A (1) 2.2 A

(2) 1.1 A (2) 1.1 A

(3) 4.4 A (3) 4.4 A

32. In Young's double slit experiment the separation 32.

(3) 2.1 mm (3) 2.1 mm

(4) 1.7 mm (4) 1.7 mm

24hR 25hR 24hR 25hR

(1) Resistance of metal increases (1)

Reason : Electromagnetic waves can be polarised.

plane charge sheet B. Q. 2

uniformly charge solid sphere of

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

47. In young's double slit experiment setup upper and 47.

(1) central maxima will formed at O (1) O

(2) Phase difference at O is zero (2) O

(3) Both above are true (3)

(1) Electric field due to a static charge is non (1)

(3) Indivisual magnetic poles do not exists (3)

(4) Both 2 and 3 are true

50. Two charges q1 and q2 are put on square plate of 50. q1 q2

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS (MODEL)

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

51. The reagent used for protection of amino group 51.

(1) Acetic acid (1)

(2) Acetic anhydride (2)

(3) PCl5 (3) PCl5

(4) SOCl2 / Pyridine (4) SOCl2

(4) –1.36V (4) –1.36V

61. Given below are two statements : 61.