3-Sep-2021 Neet Model-22 Paper

NEET MODEL-22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / 03-Sept.
-2021
Test Booklet Code Test ID : 000
NEET Model - 22
A Test CODE :
(NEET TEST SERIES-UG)-2020-21
TEST DATE : 03-09-2021
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :

• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
• The important points to note:
I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2021

NLI / 1
NEET MODEL-22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / 03-Sept.-2021
INSTRUCTION
• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
u te
tit
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
s
t In
igh
L
w
Key Points of New LighteTest Series :
N
• Rapid Fire Revision of all tests Live Classes available on "New LIght Institute"
Channel ( ) before the scheduled test.
• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.
• Chat support 24×7 available for the students on "New Light Institute" App.
• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.
For lattest update on NEET, PDF sheets, other examinations and class schedule.
Please Subscribe our –
Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur
Youtube Channel - New Light Institute
NLI / 2
TOPIC : MODEL (Full Syllabus)

SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light 1. m
spring of force constant k and unstretched
length  . The system is rotated about the other end  k
of the spring with an angular velocity  in gravity

free space. The increase in length of the spring 
will be:
w w
k k
m m
u te
m 2  s titm  2
(1)
k
t In (1) k
igh
m2 
L m  2
(2)
k  m 2 ew (2)
k  m 2
N
m 2  m 2 
(3) (3)
k  m 2 k  m 2
(4) None of these (4)
2. A step-down transformer is used on a 1000V line 2. 1000V 20A

to deliver 20A at 120 V at the secondary coil. If the 120 V
efficiency of the transformer is 80% the current 80%
drawn from the line is:
(1) 3A (1) 3A
(2) 30 A (2) 30 A
(3) 0.3 A (3) 0.3 A
(4) 2.4 A (4) 2.4 A
NLI / 3
3. Three masses 700g, 500g and 400g are suspended 3. 700g, 500g 400g
at the end of a spring as shown and are in
equilibrium. When the 700g mass is removed, the
700g 3 sec
system oscillates with a period of 3 seconds; when
500g
the 500g mass is also removed, it will oscillate
with a period of: :
700g 700g
500g 500g
400g 400g
(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec (1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec
12 12
(3) 3 sec (4) sec (3) 3 sec (4) sec
5 5
4. Find the maximum velocity for not skidding for a 4.

car moved on a circular track of radius 100 m.
The coefficient of friction between the road and
u te
tyre is 0.2:
s tit :
(1) 0.14 m/s

t In (1) 0.14 m/s
(2) 140m /s igh (2) 140m /s
L
(3) 1.4 m/s ew (3) 1.4 m/s
N
(4) 14.1 m/s (4) 14.1 m/s
5. In interference which quantity remains conserved: 5. :
(1) Energy (1)
(2) Momentum (2)
(3) Charge (3)
(4) Anular momentum (4)
6. Two waves having equations x1 = a sin (t + 1), 6. x1 = a sin (t + 1),
x2 = a sin (t+ 2). If in the resultant wave the x2 = a sin (t+ 2).
frequency and amplitude remain equal to those
of superimposing waves. Then phase difference
between them is: :
(1) /6 (1) /6
(2) 2/3 (2) 2/3
(3) /4 (3) /4
(4) /3 (4) /3
NLI / 4
7. Which of the following is not measured in the units 7. ?
of energy?
(1) ×
(1) Force couple ×angle of rotation
(2) Moment of intertia ×(angular velocity)2 (2) ×( )2
(3) Force ×distance (3) ×

(4) Impulse × time (4) ×
 t x   t x 
A wave is given by y  3 sin 2   y  3 sin 2  
0.04 0.01
8. . 8.  0.04 0.01 .
where y is in cm. Frequency of wave and y cm.
maximum acceleration of particle will be:
:
(1) 100 Hz, 4.7×103 cm/s2
(1) 100 Hz, 4.7×103 cm/s2
(2) 50 Hz, 7.5 ×103 cm/s2 (2) 50 Hz, 7.5 ×103 cm/s2
(3) 25 Hz, 4.7×104 cm/s2 (3) 25 Hz, 4.7×104 cm/s2
(4) 25 Hz, 7.4×104 cm/s2 (4) 25 Hz, 7.4×104 cm/s2
9. A simple spring has length  and force constant 9.  K 1 2

K. It is cut into two parts of lengths  1 and  2 such
u te 1  n 2
that   n (n  an integer). The force constant (nti=t ). 1
1 2
s
of spring of length  is:
1
t In :
igh K
(1)
K L (1)
(n  1)
ew (n  1)
N
K(n  1) K(n  1)
(2) (2)
n n
Kn Kn
(3) (3)
(n  1) (n  1)
(4) K(n  1) (4) K(n  1)
10. The total energy of the body excuting S.H.M. is E. 10. S.H.M. E.
Then the kinetic energy when the displacement :
is half of the amplitude:
E
E (1)
(1) 2
2
E E
(2) (2)
4 4
3E 3E
(3) (3)
4 4
3
3 (4) E
(4) E 4
4
NLI / 5
11. With how much velocity a block of mass 2kg should 11. 2kg
move on a frictionless horizontal surface so as to 2 N/m

4m :
compress a spring with force constant 2 N/m by 4 m:
(1) 4 m/s
(1) 4 m/s
(2) 16 m/s
(2) 16 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4)
(4) None of these
12. For a particle executing S.H.M the kinetic energy 12. SHM (K),
K is given by K = K0 cos2t. The maximum value
K = K0 cos t. 2
of potential energy is:
:
(1) K0
(1) K0
(2) zero
(2)
K0
(3) K0
2 (3)
2
u te
(4)
K 0
s titK
(4)
0
4
t In 4
13. A body falls on the surface of the earth from iag 13.
h
20cm.
Lits
w
height of 20cm. If after colliding with the earth,
e
N
mechanical energy is lost by 75% then determine 75%
height upto the body would reach: :
(1) 5 cm (1) 5 cm
(2) 10cm (2) 10cm
(3) 20 cm (3) 20 cm
(4) 15 cm (4) 15 cm
14. In Young's experiment for interference of light the 14. 0.2 .

slits are 0.2 cm. apart are illuminated by yellow 
 (  5896 A) .
light (  5896 A) . What would be the fringe width
on a screen placed 1 meter from the plane of slits.
The whole experiment is immersed in water (   4 / 3) :
(   4 / 3) :
(1) 2.25
(1) 2.25 mm
(2) 0.225
(2) 0.225mm
(3) 0.40 mm (3) 0.40
(4) 0.04 mm (4) 0.04
NLI / 6
15. Two monochromatic light waves of amplitudes 'A' 15. 'A' '2A'
and '2A' interfering at a point, have a phase
600.
difference of 600. The intensity at the point will be
proportional to: :
(1) 3A2 (1) 3A2

(2) 5A2 (2) 5A2
(3) 7A2 (3) 7A2
(4) 9A2 (4) 9A2
16. Which of the following is not suitable as a 16.
moderator in a nuclear reactor:
(1) Graphtie (1)
(2) Heavy water (2)
(3) Water (3)
(4) Aluminium (4)
17. The force between two charges 0.06m apart is 5N. 17. 0.06m
If each charge is moved towards the other by 5N.
0.01m, then the force between them will become: 0.01m,
u te:
(1) 7.20 N
s tit
(2) 11.25 N t In (1) 7.20 N
gh
(2) 11.25 N
(3) 22.50 N
Li (3) 22.50 N
(4) 45.00 N ew (4) 45.00 N
N
18. Two similar spheres having +q and –q charge are 18. +q –q
kept at a certain distance. F force acts between F
the two. If in the middle of two spheres, another
+q/2
similar sphere having +q/2 charge is kept, then it
experience a force in magnitude and direction :
as:
(1)
(1) zero having no direction
(2) 8F , +q
(2) 8F towards +q charge
(3) 8F, –q
(3) 8F towards –q charge
(4) 4F towards –q charge (4) 4F, –q
19. In the nuclear reaction given below 19.
4 Be9 +2 He 4  6 Ca + 0H1 , Be9 +2 He 4  6 Ca + 0H1 ,

4
The value of "a" is: "a" :

(1) 16 (1) 16
(2) 12 (2) 12
(3) 10 (3) 10
(4) 14 (4) 14
NLI / 7
20. There is a uniform field E in X-direction. If the work 20. E , X- 0.2 C
done on moving a charge 0.2 C through a distance X- 60 0
2
of 2m along a line making an angle 600 with the 4.0 E
X-axis is 4.0J, what is the value of E:
(1) 3N / C (2) 4 N/C (1) 3N / C (2) 4 N/C
(3) 5 N/C (4) 20 N/C (3) 5 N/C (4) 20 N/C
21. The ionization potential of Li++ ion is 122.4 V. Then 21. Li++ 122.4 V.
its first excitation potential is: :
(1) 122.4V (1) 122.4V
(2) 91.8 V (2) 91.8 V
(3) 61.2 V (3) 61.2 V
(4) 30.6 V (4) 30.6 V
22. The wavelength of the least energetic photon in 22.

the Balmer spectrum of hydrogen atom is: :
(1) 365 nm (1) 365 nm
(2) 656 nm u te
(2) 656 nm
t
ti912
(3) 912 nm n s
(3) nm
I
t (4)
h
(4) None of these
L ig
23. An aeroplane with wing span 50m is flying
e w 23. 50m
N
horizontally with the speed 360 Km/hr in presence
of vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
360 Km/hr
2 × 10–4
2×10–4 tesla then potential difference between the
tips of wings would be : emf
(1) zero (1)
(2) 0.1 V (2) 0.1 V
(3) 1 V (3) 1 V
(4) 0.01 V (4) 0.01 V
24. Two condensers C1 and C2 in a circuit are joined 24. C1 C2

as shown in figure. The potential of point A is V1 A V1 B V2.
and that of B is V2. The potential of point D will
be: D :
A D A D B
B
V2 V1 C1 V2
V1 C1
C2 V1  C1V2 1 C2 V1  C1V2
1 (1) (V1  V2 ) (2)
(1) (V1  V2 ) (2) C1  C2 2 C1  C2
2
C1V1  C2 V2 C2 V1  C1V2 C1V1  C2 V2 C2 V1  C1V2

(3) C1  C2 (4) C1  C2 (3) C1  C2 (4) C1  C2
NLI / 8
25. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the 25.
three situations shown in the figure their mutual Ma, Mb Mc
inductances are M a, Mb and Mc respectively then: :
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
(1) Ma  Mb  Mc (1) Ma  Mb  Mc
(2) Ma  Mb  Mc (2) Ma  Mb  Mc
(3) Ma  Mc  Mb (3) Ma  Mc  Mb
(4) Ma  Mc  Mb (4) Ma  Mc  Mb
26. With a potentiometer null point were obtained at 26. 1.1V

140 cm and 180 cm with cells of emf 1.1 V and one 140cm X 180 cm
unknown X volt. Unknown emf is:
u te A
(1) 1.1V
(1)
t
ti1.1V
s
(2) 1.8 V
t In (2) 1.8 V
(3) 2.4 V igh (3) 2.4 V
L
(4) 1.41 V ew (4) 1.41 V
N
27. Lenz's law is consequence of the law of 27. :
conservation of:
(1)
(1) Charge
(2)
(2) Mass
(3) Momentum (3)
(4) Energy (4)
28. The formula for induced e.m.f. in a coil due to 28.

change in magnetic flux through the coil is (here
A = area of the coil, B = magnetic field) A= B=
dB dA dB dA
(1) e   A. (2) e  B. (1) e   A. (2) e  B.
dt dt dt dt
d d d d
(3) e   ( A.B ) (4) e   (A  B) (3) e   ( A.B ) (4) e   (A  B)
dt dt dt dt
NLI / 9
29. A long magnetic needle of length 2L, magnetic 29. 2L
moment M and pole strength m units is broken into M m
two pieces at the middle. The magnetic moment

:
and pole strength of each piece will be :
M m
M m (1) ,
(1) , 2 2
2 2
m
m (2) M,
(2) M, 2
2
M M
,m (3) ,m
(3) 2
2
(4) M, m (4) M, m
30. If the tension and diameter of a sonometer wire of 30. n

fundamental frequency n are doubled and density
is halved then its fundamental frequency will
become :
n n
(1)
te
(1) 4
4
tu
(2)ti 2n
(2) 2n s
t In (3) n
gh
(3) n
Li
n n
(4)
2 ew (4)
2
N
31. The relation between the gas pressure P and 31. P P
average kinetic energy per unit volume E is :
1 1
(1) P  E (1) P  E
2 2
(2) P = E (2) P = E
3 3
(3) P  E (3) P  E
2 2
2 2
(4) P  E (4) P  E
3 3
32. At 0 K which of the following properties of a gas 32. 0 K

will be zero
(1)
(1) Kinetic energy
(2) Potential energy (2)
(3) Mass (3)
(4) Density (4)
NLI / 10
33. In the electric field of a point charge q, a certain 33. q
charge is carried from A to B, C, D and E. Then the
A B, C, D E
work done :
(1) AB
(1) Is least along the path AB
(2) AD
(2) Is least along the path AD
(3) AB, AC, AD AE
(3) Is zero along all the paths AB, AC, AD and AE
(4) Is least along AE (4) AE
34. The combination of the gates shown in the figure 34. :

below produces:
A
A A
A Y
Y
u te
B it
B
B
B
s t
t In
(1) NOR gate g h (1) NOR
Li (2) OR
(2) OR gate
ew
(3) AND gate N (3) AND
(4) XOR gate (4) XOR
35. Which state of triply ionised Baryllium (Be+++) has 35. (Be+++)
the same orbital radius as that of the ground state :
of hydrogen:
(1) n = 4
(1) n = 4
(2) n = 3 (2) n = 3
(3) n = 2 (3) n = 2
(4) n = 1 (4) n = 1
SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. When forward bias is applied to a P-N junction 36. P-N

then what happens to the potential barrier VB and VB x
the width of charge depleted region x:
(1) VB increases x decreases (1) VB x
(2) VB decreases x increases (2) VB x
(3) VB increases x increases (3) VB x
(4) VB decreases, x decreases (4) VB ,x

NLI / 11
37. The retarding potential for having zero photo- 37.
electron current:
(1) Is proportional to the wavelegnth of incident light
(1)
(2) Incrases unifromly with the increase in the
wavelength fo incident light (2)
(3) Is proportional to the frequenc of incidnet light (3)

(4) Increases uniformly with the increase in the
frequency of incident light wave (4)
38. A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano- 38.

cacave lens. Their plane surfaces are to each
other. If the lenses are made of different materials 1 2
of refractive indices 1 and 2 and R is the radius R
of curvature of the curved surfaces of the lenses, :
then the focal length of the combination is:
R
R (1)   
1 2
(1)   
1 2
2R
2R (2)   
(2)   
te
2 1
2 1
u
s tit 2R
2R
(3) 2(   )
t In (3) 2(   )1 2
gh
1 2
Li 2R
2R
(4) 2  (   )
ew (4) 2  ( 1   2 )
1 2
N
39. A thin prism P1 with angle 40 and made from glass 39. P1
of refractive index 1.54 is combined with another P2
thin prism P2 made from glass ofrefractive index
1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The
P2 :
angle of the prism P2 is:
(1) 5.330
(1) 5.330
(2) 40
(2) 40
(3) 30
(3) 30
(4) 2.60
(4) 2.60
40. In semi-conductors at a room temperature: 40. :
(1) The valence band is partially empty and the (1)

conduction band is partially filled
(2) The valence band is completely filled and the (2)

conduction band is partially filled
(3) The valence band is completely filled (3)
(4) The conduction band is completely empty (4)
NLI / 12
41. In a series LCR circuit, resistance R = 10 and the 41. LCR R = 10
impendance Z = 20. The phase difference
Z = 20.
between the current and the voltage is:
(1) 300 (1) 300
(2) 450 (2) 450
(3) 600 (3) 600
(4) 900 (4) 900
42 Three long straight wires A, B and C are carrying 42 A, B C B

current as shown in figure. The resultant force on :
B is directed:
A B C
A B C
1A 2A 3A
1A 2A 3A
d d
d d
(1) A
(1) Towards A
(2) Towards C (2) C
(3) Remains stationary (3)

u te
(4) None of these (4)tit
s
43. An conducting current (i) carrying loop of radius r 43.In
is placed in uniform magnetic field B making an h
t (i) r
angle 60 from its plane then magnetic force L

0 ig
on
B 600
:
the loop is:
e w
(1) irB N (1) irB
(2) 2riB (2) 2riB
(3) zero (3)
(4) riB (4) riB
44. The freezing point on a thermometer is marked 44. 200 1500.

as 200 and the boiling point as 1500. A temperature 0
60 C :
of 600C on this thermometer will be read as:
(1) 400
(1) 400
(2) 650
(2) 650
(3) 980 (3) 980
(4) 1100 (4) 1100

45. At what distance from the centre of the earth, the 45. 'g'
value of acceleration due to gravity 'g' will be half (R = ):
that on the surface (R = Radius of earth):
(1) 1.414 R
(1) 1.414 R
(2) 0.5 R (2) 0.5 R
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2

NLI / 13
46. Two identical rods AC and CB made of two different
46. AC CB
metals having thermal conductivities in the ratio
2 : 3 are kept in contact with each other at the end 2:3 ) C
C as shown in the fig. A is at 1000C and B is at A
250C. Then the junction C is at: 0 0
100 C B 25 C. C
A C B
100 0 C 25 0 C A C B
100 0 C 25 0 C
0 0
(1) 55 (2) 60
(1) 550 (2) 600
(3) 750C (4) 500C
(3) 750C (4) 500C
47. A Carnot engine absorbs an amount Q of heat from 47. T Q

a reservior at an absolute temperature T and T/3
rejects heat to a sink at a temperature of T/3. The
amount of heat rejected is :
(1) Q/4 (2) Q/3 (1) Q/4 (2) Q/3
(3) Q/2 (4) 2Q/3 (3) Q/2 (4) 2Q/3
48. Two closed pipes produce 10 beats per second 48. 10

when emitting their fundamental nodes. If their
u te 25 : 26.
lengths are in ratio of 25 : 26. Then their
fundamental frequency in Hz, are: s tit Hz, :
(1) 270, 280 (2) 260, 270 t In (1) 270, 280 (2) 260, 270
igh (3) 260, 250
(3) 260, 250 (4) 260, 280 L (4) 260, 280
49. The wavelength is 120 cm when the source is ew 49. 120
stationary, if the source is moving with relativeN
velocity of 60 m/sec. towards the observer, then
the wavelength of the sound wave reaching to
the observer will be (velocity of sound = 330 m/s): ( = 330 ):
(1) 98 cm (1) 98 cm
(2) 140 cm (2) 140 cm
(3) 120 cm (3) 120 cm
(4) 144 cm (4) 144 cm
50. The plots of intensity vs. wavelength for three 50. T 1, T2 and T3
black bodies at temperature T 1 , T 2 and T 3
respectively are as shown. Their temperatures are
such that: :
(1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T1 > T3 > T2 (1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T1 > T3 > T2
(3) T2 > T3 > T1 (4) T3 > T2 > T1 (3) T2 > T3 > T1 (4) T3 > T2 > T1
NLI / 14
TOPIC : MODEL (Full Syllabus)
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A SECTION-A
51. 0.16 g of dibasic acid required 25 ml of 51. 0.16 g 25
decinormal NaOH solution for complete ml NaOH
neutralisation. The molecular weight of the acid
will be :
(1) 32
(1) 32
(2) 64
(2) 64
(3) 128 (3) 128
(4) 256 (4) 256

52. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers 52.
represents the highest energy for hydrogen atom:
(1) n = 3,  = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2 (1) n = 3,  = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2

(2) n = 3,  = 2, m = 1, s = –1/2 (2) n = 3,  = 2, m = 1, s = –1/2
(3) n = 4,  = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 (3) n = 4,  = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
u te
(4) n = 3,  = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
tit = 3,  = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(4)
n
What is the correct mode of hybridisation of the 53.n
s
53.
t I
central atom in the following compounds :
g h NO2+, SF4, PF6–
NO2+, SF4, PF6– Li (1) sp2, sp3, d2sp3
w
Ne
2 3 2
(1) sp , sp , d sp3
(2) sp3, sp3d2, sp3d2
(2) sp3, sp3d2, sp3d2
(3) sp, sp3d, sp3d2
(3) sp, sp3d, sp3d2
(4) sp, sp2, sp3 (4) sp, sp2, sp3
54. In which of the following ionization processes, 54.

the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behaviour has changed :
(1) C2  C2+
(1) C2  C2+
(2) NO  NO+
(2) NO  NO+
(3) O2  O2+
(3) O2  O2+
(4) N2  N2+ (4) N2  N2+
55. A non ideal solution was prepared by mixing 30 55. 30 ml 50 ml

ml chloroform and 50 ml acetone. The volume of
mixture will be :
(1) > 80 ml
(1) > 80 ml
(2) < 80 ml
(2) < 80 ml
(3) = 80 ml (3) = 80 ml
(4)  80 ml (4)  80 ml
NLI / 15
56. If osmotic pressure of 1 M of the following in water 56. 1M
can be measured, which one will show the
maximum osmotic pressure :
(1) AgNO3 (1) AgNO3

(2) MgCl2
(2) MgCl2
(3) (NH4)3PO4
(3) (NH4)3PO4
(4) Na2SO4
(4) Na2SO4
57. The radii of Na+ and Cl– ions are 95 pm and 181
57. Na+ Cl– 95 pm 181 pm
pm respectively. The edge length of NaCl unit cell
NaCl
is :
(1) 276 pm (1) 276 pm
(2) 138 pm (2) 138 pm
(3) 552 pm (3) 552 pm
(4) 415 pm (4) 415 pm
58. In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, 58. 10%,

the pressure of the gas should be approx :
u te
(1) Decrased by 10%
s tit
(1) 10%
(2) Decreased by 1% t In
igh (2) 1%
(3) Increased by 10% L (3) 10%
(4) Increased by 1% ew
N (4) 1%
59. For the reversible reaction,
59. N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
500°C Kp 1.44 × 10–5
at 500°C, the value of Kp is 1.44 × 10–5 when partial
Kc
pressure is measured in atmospheres. The
–1
corresponding value of Kc with concentration in
mole litre–1, is : (1) 1.44 × 10–5 / (0.082 × 500)–2
(1) 1.44 × 10–5 / (0.082 × 500)–2
(2) 1.44 × 10–5 / (8.314 × 773)–2
(2) 1.44 × 10–5 / (8.314 × 773)–2
(3) 1.44 × 10–5 / (0.082 × 773)2
(3) 1.44 × 10–5 / (0.082 × 773)2
(4) 1.44 × 10–5 / (0.082 × 773)–2 (4) 1.44 × 10–5 / (0.082 × 773)–2
60. If the pH value is 4.5 for a solution then what is 60. pH 4.5 H+
the value of H+ concentration :
(1) 3.162 × 10–5 mol / L (1) 3.162 × 10–5 mol / L
(2) 31.62 × 10–5 mol / L (2) 31.62 × 10–5 mol / L
(3) 0.3162 × 10–5 mol / L (3) 0.3162 × 10–5 mol / L
(4) 3.162 × 10–8 mol / L (4) 3.162 × 10–8 mol / L
NLI / 16
61. The heat of combustion of CH4(g), C(graphite) and 61. CH4(g), C( ) H2(g)
H 2 (g) are –20 kcal, –40kcal and –10kcal –20 kcal, –40kcal –10kcal
respectively. The heat of formation of methane
is:
(1) –40 kcal
(1) –40 kcal
(2) +40 kcal
(2) +40 kcal
(3) –80 kcal
(3) –80 kcal
(4) +80 kcal
(4) +80 kcal
62. N2O4 NO2 58.04
62. The standard enthalpy of the decomposition of
kJ 176.7 J/K
N2O4 to NO2 is 58.04 kJ and standard entropy of
25°C
this reaction is 176.7 J/K. The standard free energy
change for this reaction at 25°C is :
(1) 539 kJ
(1) 539 kJ
(2) – 539 kJ
(2) – 539 kJ
(3) – 5.39 kJ (3) – 5.39 kJ
(4) 5.39 kJ (4) 5.39 kJ

63. R
63. The following graph show how t1/2 (half-life) of a
u te
t1/2 ( ) a0
tit
reactant R changes with the initial reactant
concentration a0. The order of the reaction will s
be :
t In
igh
L t1/2
t1/2 ew
N
1/a0
1/a0 (1) 0
(1) 0
(2) 1
(2) 1
(3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 3
(4) 3
64.
64. Which of the following is the strongest oxidising
agent : (1) BrO3– / Br2+, E° = +1.50
(1) BrO3– / Br2+, E° = +1.50 (2) Fe3+ / Fe2+, E° = +0.76
(2) Fe3+ / Fe2+, E° = +0.76
(3) MnO4– / Mn2+, E° = +1.52
(3) MnO4– / Mn2+, E° = +1.52
(4) Cr2O72– / Cr3+, E° = +1.33
(4) Cr2O72– / Cr3+, E° = +1.33
65. H2S + 2HNO3  2H2O + 2NO2 + S
65. In the equation H2S + 2HNO3  2H2O + 2NO2 + S
The equivalent weight of hydrogen sulphide is :
(1) 16
(1) 16
(2) 68
(2) 68
(3) 34 (3) 34
(4) 17 (4) 17
NLI / 17
66. A current 2.0 A is passed for 5 hours through a 66. 2.0 A 5
molten metal salt deposits 22 g of metal (at. wt. = 22 g (
177). The oxidation state of the metal in the metal = 177)
salt is :
(1) +1 (1) +1
(2) +2 (2) +2
(3) +3 (3) +3
(4) +4
(4) +4
67.
67. What will be the emf for the given cell
Pt | H2(P1) | H+ (aq) | H2 (P2) | Pt
Pt | H2(P1) | H+ (aq) | H2 (P2) | Pt
RT P1
RT P1 (1) ln
(1) ln F P2
F P2
RT P1
RT P1 (2) ln
(2) ln 2F P2
2F P2
RT P2
RT P2 (3) ln
(3) ln F P1
F P1
(4) None of these

u te
(4)
68. Plot of log x/m against log p is a straight line 68. slogtit x/m log p 45°
inclined at an angle of 45°. When the pressure is
t In 0.5 atm
0.5 atm and Freundlich parameter, k is 10, the h k 10
ig
L
amount of solute adsorbed per gram of adsorbent (log 5 = 0.6990)
will be (log 5 = 0.6990) : w
(1) 1g Ne (1) 1 g
(2) 2g
(2) 2g
(3) 3g
(3) 3g
(4) 5g
(4) 5g
69. The successive ionization energy values for an 69. X
element X are given below
A. 1st ionisation energy = 410 kJ mol–1 A. 1st = 410 kJ mol–1
B. 2nd ionisation energy = 820 kJ mol–1 B. 2nd = 820 kJ mol–1
C. 3rd ionisation energy = 1100 kJ mol–1 C. 3rd = 1100 kJ mol–1
D. 4th ionisation energy = 1500 kJ mol–1
D. 4th = 1500 kJ mol–1
E. 5th ionisation energy = 3200 kJ mol–1
E. 5th = 3200 kJ mol–1
Find out the number of valence electron for the
atom, X : X :
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 2 (4) 2
NLI / 18
70. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O5 and SO3 the correct 70. Al2O3, SiO2, P2O5 SO3
order of acid strength is :
(1) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO3 < P2O5 (1) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO3 < P2O5
(2) SiO2 < SO3 < Al2O3 < P2O5 (2) SiO2 < SO3 < Al2O3 < P2O5
(3) SO3 < P2O5 < SiO2 < Al2O3 (3) SO3 < P2O5 < SiO2 < Al2O3
(4) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3 (4) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3
71. Which one of the following salts will produce an 71.
alkaline solution can dissolving in water :
(1) NH4Cl (1) NH4Cl
(2) Na2CO3 (2) Na2CO3
(3) NaNO3 (3) NaNO3
(4) Na2SO4 (4) Na2SO4
72. Which of the following pair can't exist in solution 72.
:
(1) NaHCO3 and NaOH (1) NaHCO3 NaOH
(2) Na2CO3 and NaOH (2) Na2CO3 NaOH
(3) Na2CO3 and NaCl (3) Na2CO3 NaCl
(4) NaHCO3 and NaCl

u te 3 NaCl
(4)
NaHCO
73. A metal M readily forms its sulphate MSO4 which 73. st

it M MSO4
is water soluble. If forms its oxide MO which t I
n MO
i
becomes inert on heating. It forms its insolublegh
hydroxide M(OH) 2 which is soluble in NaOH
L M(OH)2 NaOH
w
solution. Then M is : Ne M
(1) Mg (1) Mg
(2) Ba (2) Ba
(3) Ca (3) Ca
(4) Be (4) Be
74. The structure of diborane (B2H6) contains : 74. (B2H6)
(1) Four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-2e bonds (1) 2c-2e 3c-2e
(2) Two 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds (2) 2c-2e 3c-2e
(3) Two 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-3e bonds (3) 2c-2e 3c-3e
(4) Four 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds (4) 2c-2e 3c-2e
75. Oxygen does not react with : 75.
(1) P (1) P
(2) Na (2) Na
(3) S (3) S
(4) Pt (4) Pt
NLI / 19
76. Which has the highest molar heat of vaporisation: 76.
(1) HF (2) HCl (1) HF (2) HCl
(3) HBr (4) HI (3) HBr (4) HI
77. Which of the following statements is not true in 77.

regard to transition elements :
(1) They readily form complex compounds (1)
(2) They show variable valency (2)
(3) All their ions are colorless (3)
(4) Their ions contain partially filled d-electron levels (4) d-
78. Which one of the following sets correctly 78.

represents the increase in the paramagnetic
property of the ions :
(1) Cu2+ < V2+ < Mn2+ < Cr2+
(1) Cu2+ < V2+ < Mn2+ < Cr2+
(2) Cu2+ < Cr2+ < V2+ < Mn2+
(2) Cu2+ < Cr2+ < V2+ < Mn2+
(3) Cu2+ < V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+ (3) Cu2+ < V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+
(4) V2+ < Cu2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+ (4) V2+ < Cu2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+
u te
79. In which of the following complex ion, the central
metal ion is in a state of sp3d2 hybridisation : s tit
79.
sp3d2
t In
(1) [CoF6]3–
g h (1) [CoF6]3–
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ Li (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
w
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3–
Ne (3) [Fe(CN)6]3–
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
80. The most stable ion is : 80.
(1) [Fe(OH)3]3– (1) [Fe(OH)3]3–
(2) [Fe(Cl)6]3– (2) [Fe(Cl)6]3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (3) [Fe(CN)6]3–
(4) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
81. The IUPAC name of the following compound is : 81. IUPAC
OH OH
CN CN
Br Br
(1) 4-Bromo-3-cyanophenol (1) 4- -3-
(2) 2-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile (2) 2- -5-
(3) 2-Cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene (3) 2- -4-
(4) 6-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile (4) 6- -3-
NLI / 20
82. Which is the decreasing order of stability 82.

+ +
(i) CH3 – CH – CH3 (i) CH3 – CH – CH3
+ +
(ii) CH3 – CH – O – CH3 (ii) CH3 – CH – O – CH3
+ +
(iii) CH3 – CH – CO – CH3 (iii) CH3 – CH – CO – CH3
(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii) (1) (i) < (ii) < (iii)
(2) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (2) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (3) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(4) (ii) > (iii) > (i) (4) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
83. The ascending order of stability of the carbanion 83. CH3(P), C6H5CH2 (Q), (CH3)2CH(R)
CH3(P), C6H5CH2 (Q), (CH3)2CH(R) and H2C – CH = CH2(S)
H2C – CH = CH2(S)
(1) P<R<S<Q (1) P<R<S<Q
(2) R<P<S<Q (2) R<P<S<Q
(3) R<P<Q<S (3) R<P<Q<S
(4) P<R<Q<S (4)
uPte< R < Q < S
84. n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol
s
are 84. n- tit
examples of :
t In (1)
(1) Position isomerism
igh (2)
(2) Chain isomerism
L
ew (3)
(3) Tautomerism N
(4) Geometrical isomerism (4)
85. Methane can be prepared by : 85.
(1) Wurtz's reaction (1)
(2) Decarboxylation (2)
(3) Hydrogenation reaction (3)
(4) All of these (4)
SECTION-B SECTION-B
86. In the reaction R

86. CH2 = CH2 M CH2 – OH
Hypochlorous R
CH2 = CH2 acid
M CH2 – OH CH2 – OH
CH2 – OH (M = ,R= ), M R
Where M = molecule, R = reagent ; M and R are :
(1) CH3CH2Cl and NaOH (1) CH3CH2Cl NaOH
(2) CH2Cl – CH2OH and aq. NaHCO3 (2) CH2Cl – CH2OH NaHCO3
(3) CH3CH2OH and HCl (3) CH3CH2OH HCl
(4) CH2 = CH2 and heat (4) CH2 = CH2

NLI / 21
87. Identify the product D in the following series of 87. D
reaction LiAlH4 Br2
H+
CH3COOH A 443 K B C
LiAlH4 H +
Br2
CH3COOH A 443 K B C
alc.
KOH
D
alc.
KOH
D
(1)
(1) Methane
(2)
(2) Alcohol
(3)
(3) Acetylene
(4) Benzaldehyde (4)
88. Lindane can be obtained by reaction of benzene 88.
with :
(1) CH3Cl / anhy. AlCl3 (1) CH3Cl / AlCl3
(2) Cl2 / sunlight (2) Cl2 /
(3) C2H5I / anhy. AlCl3 (3) C2H5I / AlCl3
(4) CH3COCl / AlCl3 (4) CH3COCl / AlCl3
89. Which of the following is aromatic : 89.
(1) (2) (1)u te (2)
s tit
+ – t In + –
g h
(3) (4) Li (3) (4)
ew
90. When CH3CH2CHCl2 is treated with NaNH2, the N 90. CH3CH2CHCl2 NaNH2
product formed is :
(1) CH3 – CH – CH2 (1) CH3 – CH – CH2
(2) CH3 – C  CH (2) CH3 – C  CH
(3) CH3CH2CH(NH2)(Cl) (3) CH3CH2CH(NH2)(Cl)
(4) CH3CH2C(NH2)2 (4) CH3CH2C(NH2)2
91. For the following reaction, (i) Mg, Et2O

91. Br (ii) CO2(s)
[A]
+
(i) Mg, Et2O (iii) H3O
Br (ii) CO2(s)
[A]
+
(iii) H3O (A)
Product (A) is :
(1) COOH
(1) COOH
(2) COO 2Mg (2) COO 2Mg
O O
(3) C (3) C
(4) (4)
NLI / 22
92. In which alkyl halide, SN2 mechanism is favoured 92. SN2
maximum :
(1) CH3Cl (2) CH3CH2Cl (1) CH3Cl (2) CH3CH2Cl
(3) (CH3)2CHCl (4) (CH3)3C – Cl (3) (CH3)2CHCl (4) (CH3)3C – Cl
93. The strongest acid among the following aromatic 93.
compound is : (1) -
(1) Ortho-nitrophenol
(2) -
(2) Para-chlorophenol
(3) Para-nitrophenol (3) -
(4) Meta-nitrophenol (4) -

94. For phenol, which of the following statement is 94.
correct :
(1)
(1) It is insoluble in water
(2)
(2) It has lower melting point compared to aromatic
hydrocarbons of comparable molecular weight
(3)
(3) It has higher boiling point than toluene
(4)
(4) It does not show acidic property
95.
95. In the reaction for dinitration
te
OH
OH
u
conc. stit X
In
X HNO3
HNO3
t CH3
CH3
igh X
The major dinitrated X is : L
ew OH
OH N O2N
O2N
(1)
(1)
CH3
CH3
NO2
NO2
OH
OH O2N NO2
O2N NO2
(2)
(2)
CH3
CH3
OH
OH NO2
NO2
(3)
(3) CH3
CH3 NO2
NO2 OH
OH
(4) O2N CH3

(4) O2N CH3
NO2
NO2
NLI / 23
96. Canesugar on hydrolysis gives equimolar mixture 96. D-(+) D(–)
of D-(+) glucose and D(–) fructose, mixture is :
(1) dextrorototatory (1)

(2) laevorotatory (2)
(3) racemic mixture (3)
(4) none (4)
97. One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction 97.
with excess of water gives :
(1) one mole of ammonia (1)

(2) one mole of nitric acid (2)
(3) two moles of ammonia (3)
(4) two moles of nitric acid (4)
98. Norethindrone is an : 98.
(1) Antifertility drug (1)
(2) Antihistaminic (2)
(3) Antiseptic (3)

u te
(4) Antibiotic (4)it
s t
99. Which of the following structures represents 99.In
neoprene polymer : ht
g
Li
(1) ( CH–CH ) 2 n
(1) ( CH–CH ) 2 n
CH
w 6 5
Ne
CH6 5
CN
CN
(2) ( CH2–CH )n
(2) ( CH2–CH )n
Cl
Cl
(3) ( CH2–CH )n
(3) ( CH2–CH )n
Cl
Cl
(4) [CH2=C–CH=CH2 ]n (4) [CH2=C–CH=CH2 ]n
100. Crystalline allotrop of carbon is : 100.
(1) Diamond (1)

(2) Graphite (2)
(3) Carbon black (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4)
NLI / 24
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (MODEL)

BOTANY BOTANY
SECTION–A SECTION–A
101. T.W. Engelmann using a prism and split the light 101.
into its spectral components and then illuminated
a green alga, placed in a suspension of aerobic
bacterium. Name that green alga :
(1) Chlorella (1)
(2) Cladophora (2)
(3) Chlamydomonas (3)
(4) Nostoc and Anabaena (4)
102. During Photochemical reaction in photosynthesis 102.
the following is/are formed:
(1) ATP, Hydrogen and O2 donor (1)
(2) ATP, Hydrogen donor and O2 (2)
(3) Hydrogen, O2 and Sugar (3)
(4) ATP and Sugar u te (4)
103. In Calvin cycle what is the correct sequence of 103. s
tit
substances: t In
i
(1) A ketose sugar, 3-phosphoglycerate, Triosegh (1) , 3-
L
phosphate
ew (2) 3-C , ,
N
(2) 3-C organic acid, A ketose sugar, Triose phosphate
(3) , 3-C ,
(3) Triose phosphate, 3-C organic acid, A ketose sugar
(4) 1, 3 , 3- ,
(4) Ribose 1, 3 biphosphate, 3-phosphoglycerate,
triose phosphate
104. Which of the following is 5C compound of Kreb's 104. 5C

cycle:
(1) -
(1) -ketoglutaric acid
(2)
(2) Isocitric acid
(3) Cis aconitic acid (3)
105. Which one of the following is not included in 105.

glycolysis:
(1)
(1) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs
(2) CO2 H2 O
(2) The end products are CO2 and H2O.
(3) ATP is formed. (3) ATP
(4) ATP is used. (4) ATP

NLI / 25
106. Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabo- 106.
lism of carbohydrates in cytosol, after it enters in
mitochondrial matrix undergoes:
(1) Oxidative carboxylation (1)
(2) Oxidative dehydrogenation (2)
(3) Reductive decarboxylation (3)
(4) Oxidative decarboxylation (4)
107. Which of the following are true about 107.

basidiomycetes
(a)
(a) Also called bracket fungi
(b)
(b) Sex organs absent, but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative cells of dif-
ferent genotypes (c)
(c) Karyogamy and meiosis takes place outside
the basidium
(d)
(d) Basidiospores are produced exogenously
(1) a b
(1) Only a and b are correct
(2) tbu
te c
(2) b and c are correct
s ti
(3) a, b and d are correct t In (3) a, b d
(4) a, b, c and d all are correct igh (4) a, b, c d

L
108. Non membranous cell organelles are :
ew 108.
(1) Mitochondria
N (1)
(2) Ribosomes and chloroplast (2)
(3) ER and nucleolus (3)
(4) Ribosomes and centrioles (4)

109. Leucoplasts for storing oil are called : 109.
(1) Chromoplast (1)
(2) Aleuroplast (2)
(3) Elaioplast (3)
(4) Amyloplast (4)
110. The inner membrane of mitochondria bears 110.

foldings/finger like projections called cristae.
These cristae :
(1)
(1) Increase the thickness of wall
(2)
(2) Increase surface area
(3) Decrease ATP supply (3)
(4) Keep external substances away. (4)

NLI / 26
111. What will be the chromosome number in S-phase 111. S- G 1-
of cell cycle if in G1-phase it is 46 :
(1) 92 (1) 92
(2) 23 (2) 23
(3) 46 (3) 46
(4) 138 (4) 138
112. Movement of plant in response to light is known
112.
as
(1) photoperiodism (1)
(2) phototropism (2)
(3) photorespiration (3)
(4) none of these (4)
113. _____________involves pairing of homologous 113. _____________

chromosomes and recombination between them :
(1) Mitosis (1)
(2)
(2) Meiosis
u te
(3) Cytokinesis (3)it
s t
(4) Dinomitosis
t In (4)
114. Match the following columns :
igh114.
L
Column-I Column-II
ew -I -II
(a) Mutualism (i) Orchid N (a) (i)
(b) Commensalism (ii) Mycorrhizae (b) (ii)
(c) Parasitism (iii) Copepode (c) (iii)
(d) Brood parasitism (iv) Koel (d) (iv)
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
115. Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of 115.

biological organisations, namely - organism,
populations, communities and .....................:
(1) Ecosystem (1)
(2) Environment (2)
(3) Biomes (3)
NLI / 27
116. Mammals from colder climates generally have 116.
shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss, this
is called :
(1) Allen’s rule (1)
(2) Gause rule (2)
(3) Verhulst’s rule (3)
(4) Birgman’s rule (4)
117. Which population growth model is more realistic 117.

:
(1) Exponential growth with J-shaped curve (1) J-
(2) Logistic growth with J-shaped curve (2) J-

(3) Logistic growth with sigmoid curve (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3
(4) 2 3
118. Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during 118.
spermatogenesis some sperms carry both sex
(22A + XY)
chromosomes (22A + XY) while others do not carry
(22A + O)
any sex chromosome (22A + O). If these sperms
fertilize normal eggs (22A + X), then what type of
genetic disorders appear among the offsprings :
u te
(1)t
it
(1) Down’s syndrome and Edward’s syndrome s
t In
gh (2)
(2) Down’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome
Li
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome and turner’s syndrome
e w (3)
(4) Down’s syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome N (4)

119. Tallness (T-) is dominant over dwarfness (tt) while
119. (T-) (tt) (R-)
red flower colour (R-) is dominant over white colour
(rr). A plant with genotype TtRr is crossed with plant TtRr
of genotype ttrr. Percentage of progeny having tall ttrr
plants with red flowers is :
(1) 25% (1) 25%
(2) 50% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (3) 75%
(4) 100% (4) 100%
120. A sex linked recessive gene c produces red green 120. c
colour blindness in humans. A normal woman
whose father was colour blind marries a colour
blind man. Of all the girls born to these parents,
what percentage is expected to be colour blind:
(1) 25 %
(1) 25 %
(2) 50 %
(2) 50 %
(3) 75 %
(3) 75 %
(4) 100 %
(4) 100 %
NLI / 28
121. A template strand is given as below : 121.
3’–ATGCATGCATGCAT–5’ 3’–ATGCATGCATGCAT–5’
then what is the sequence of RNA transcribed from
above DNA
(1) 5’–TACGTACGTACGTA–3’
(1) 5’–TACGTACGTACGTA–3’
(2) 3’– UACGUACGUACGUA–5’
(2) 3’–UACGUACGUACGUA–5’
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
122. Which one of the following is not salient feature 122.

of genetic code :
(1)
(1) The codon is triplet
(2)
(2) Genetic codes are ambiguous
(3) Degenerate (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) 2 3
123. The Artificial system of classifications was given 123.

by which scientist :
(1)
u te
(1) Carolus linnaeus
(2)t
it
s
(2) Benthem & Hooker
t In
(3) E. Mayr
g h (3)
(4) Hutchinson Li (4)
ew
N
124. In Oogamous type of sexual reproduction, which 124.
statements are correct regarding male and female
gametes:
(a)
(a) male gamete is small and motile
(b)
(b) male gamete is large and motile
(c)
(c) female gamete is small and non motile
(d)
(d) female gamete is large and non-motile
(1) a c
(1) both a and c
(2) a d
(2) both a and d
(3) both b and c (3) b c
(4) both b and d (4) b d
125. Which one of the following is correct about 125.

Trypanosoma
(1)
(1) They are flagellated protozoan
(2)
(2) They are parasites
(3)
(3) They cause sleeping sickness
NLI / 29
126. Mode of nutrition absent in fungi : 126.
(1) Parasitic
(1)
(2) Saprophytic
(2)
(3) Autotrophic
(3)
(4) Heterotrophic (4)
127. The hilum represents the junction between 127.
(1) Nucellus and funicle (1)
(2) Ovule and funicle
(2)
(3) Ovule and ovary wall
(3)
(4) Nucellus and ovary wall
(4)
128. In the given below example. How many cells are
128.
Diploid
Megaspore, Microspore, MMC, Zygote, tapetum,
Endosperm, Pollen grain, Generative cell,
Vegetative cell, Nucellus, Functional megaspore,
Synergid, PMC
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 7
(2) 7
u te
(3)it1
(3) 1
s t
(4) 3 t In (4) 3
i
129. How many characters of seed, pod and flower weregh129.
L:
taken respectively by Mendel in his experiments
w
(1) 1 , 2 , 2 Ne (1) 1 , 2 , 2
(2) 2 , 2 , 1 (2) 2 , 2 , 1
(3) 2 , 2 , 2 (3) 2 , 2 , 2
(4) No option true (4)
130. There is a special phenomenon found in grasses 130.
which is a type of asexual reproduction that mimics
sexual reproduction this phenomenon is :
(1) Apomixis (1)

(2) Polyembryony (2)
(3) Syngamy (3)
(4) Parthenogenesis (4)
131. Which one of the following is not an outbreeding 131.
device
(1)
(1) Self incompatibiltiy
(2)
(2) Cross pollination
(3)
(3) Unisexual flower
(4)
(4) None of these
NLI / 30
132. Multicarpellary apocarpous and multicarpellary 132.
syncarpous gynoecium respectively occurs in
plants -
(1)
(1) Michelia, papaver
(2)
(2) Papaver, michelia
(3) Marchantia, papaver (3)
(4) Papaver, Marchantia (4)
133. Which one of the following statements are correct 133.

with reference to given diagram :
(i) (ii) (i) (ii)
u te
s tit
t In
igh
(iii) (iv) L (iii) (iv)
ew
N
a. All given plant are cryptogams a.
b. All given plant are same type of life cycle
pattern b.
c. All given plant are produced motile male
gamete c.
d. All given plant are contained chlorophyll a d. a
(1) a, c, d (1) a, c, d
(2) c, d (2) c, d
(3) a, b, d (3) a, b, d
(4) a, d (4) a, d
134. Read the given name carefully 134.
Ustilago, Puccinia, Neurospora, Claviceps,
Aspergillus, Trichoderma. .
How many fungi is/are imperfect
(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 5 (4) 5
NLI / 31
135. Arrange the given below diagram sequentially 135.
according to the stages of cell division :
A B C D A B C D
(1) ABDC (1) ABDC
(2) CDAB (2) CDAB
(3) DACB (3) DACB
(4) CABD (4) CABD
SECTION–B SECTION–B
136. In leaves, the ground tissues consist of : 136.
(1) Epidermis (1)
(2) Vascular tissue (2)
(3) Mesophyll cells (3)

u te
(4) Medullary rays (4)tit
s
137. Agar a type of chemical which obtained from 137. t In ..................
.................. and these are used for .................. : gh ..................
Li
(1) Gelidium, For grow microbes
e w (1)
(2) Gracilaria, Preparation of Ice-cream

N (2) ,
(3) Gelidium, preparation of jellies (3)
138. Information on any one taxon is provided by : 138.
(1) Key
(1)
(2) Flora (2)
(3) Catalogue (3)
(4) Monograph (4)
139. The correct sequence of path followed by water 139.

in symplastic pathway :
(1)
(1) Epidermis, cortex, pericycle, endodermis
(2)
(2) Epidermis, endodermis, cortex, pericycle
(3) Epidermis, cortex, endodermis, pericycle (3)
(4) Epidermis, pericycle , cortex, endodermis (4)
NLI / 32
140. Which is incorrect : 140.
(1) Potassium plays an important role in opening and (1)
closing of stomata
(2) Mn+2 is an activator for phosphoenol pyruvate (2) Mn+2
carboxylase
(3) Calcium needed during the formation of mitotic
(3)
spindle.
(4) Zn++
(4) Zn++ is an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase
141.
141. In global biodiversity, of the following :
(1)
(1) Angiosperms represent minimum number
(2)
(2) Algae represent maximum number
(3) Fungi represent maximum number (3)
(4) Mosses represent maximum number (4)
142. Which of these is/are true about DDT : 142. DDT :
(1) Undergo biomagnification in aquatic ecosystem (1)

(2) Disturb calcium metabolism in bird (2)
(3) It contribute to Global worming
u te (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 t
(4)ti 1 2
s
143. How many structures are modified stem : In
Thorn, phylloclade, pitcher, phyllode, cladode, ht
143.
tendril.
Lig (1) 4
(1) 4 w
Ne
(2) 5 (2) 5
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 3 (4) 3
144. The medicinal plant, Rauwolfia vomitoria, growing 144.
in Himalayan ranges shows variation in terms of
the potency and concentration of the chemical
(reserpine), that it produces. It is an example of :
(1)
(1) Species diversity
(2)
(2) Ecological diversity
(3) Genetic diversity (3)
(4) None of them (4)
145. Greater biological diversity of tropics than 145.

temperate region is due to the :
(1) Presence of more seasonal environment (1)
(2) Frequent glaciations in the past (2)
(3) Highly variable climate and availability of less solar (3)

energy in the past
(4) Availability of more solar energy which contributes (4)

to higher productivity
NLI / 33
146. Degree of biodiversity increases from : 146.
(1) Equator to poles (1)
(2) Poles to equator (2)
(3) Low latitude to high latitude (3)
(4) low altitude to high altitude (4)
147. In plant life cycle during alternation of generation 147.

which structures are alternate :
(1) Haploid plant body To diploid plant body (1)
(2) Sporophyte To gametophyte (2)
(3) Gamete producing plant body To spore producing (3)

plant body
148. How many are single membrane bounded 148.

structure
u te
Lysosome, Nucleoli, Microbodies, Vacuole,
s tit
Nucleus, Chloroplasts
t In (1) 1
(1) 1
igh (2) 2
(2) 2 L
w
Ne
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 3 (4) 3
149. How many cell cycles of yeast can be completed 149.

within the duration of one cell cycle of human
cell :
(1) 16
(1) 16
(2) 90
(2) 90
(3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 10
(4) 10
150. Which among the following is matched incorrectly: 150.
(1) Prefertilisation event - oogenesis (1)
(2) Heterogametes - Cladophora (2)
(3) Postfertilization event - embryo formation (3)
(4) Prefertilization event - spermatogenesis (4)

NLI / 34
ZOOLOGY ZOOLOGY
SECTION–A SECTION–A
151. In the immune system, interferons are a part of : 151.
(1) Physiological barriers (1)
(2) Cellular barriers (2)
(3) Physical barriers (3)
(4) Cytokine barriers (4)
152. Antihistamine drug is effective in : 152.
(1) Bacterial infection (1)
(2) AIDS (2)
(3) Bradycardia (3)
(4) Allergy (4)
153. Cancer can be detected by : 153.
(1) Biopsy (1)
(2) CT (2)
(3) MRI u
(3) te
(4) All s tit
(4)
n
tI
154. Which epithelium is responsible to move particles h154.
g
or mucus in a specific direction : Li
(1) Cuboidal epithelium ew (1)
N (2)
(2) Transitional epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium (3)
(4) None (4)
155. Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to 155.

inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles is called:
(1) Emphysema
(1)
(2) Asthma
(2)
(3) Occupational Respiratory Disorders (3)
(4) Constipation (4)
156. Which leucocytes are 0.5-1 percent of the total 156. 0.5-1 WBCs
WBCs:
(1) Neutrophils (1)
(2) Eosinophils (2)
(3) Basophils (3)
(4) Monocytes (4)

NLI / 35
157. Parathyroid hormone 157.
(1) Increases the Na+ levels in the blood. (1) Na+
(2) Increases the K+ levels in the blood. (2) K+
(3) Increases the Fe2+ levels in the blood. (3) Fe2+
(4) Increases the Ca2+ levels in the blood. (4) Ca2+
158. Which is a correct match of hormone and its target 158.

organ :
-I - II
Column - I Column - II
(a) (i)
(a) ACTH (i) Thyroid
(b) (ii)
(b) MSH (ii) Pituitary
(c) (iii)
(c) Hypothalamic (iii) Skin
releasing factor
(d) (iv)
(d) TSH (iv) Adrenal cortex
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

u te
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i s tit

(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
t In
gh (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
i
L 159.
159. Protochordates includes :
ew
(1) Urochordata N (1)
(2) Cephalochordata (2)
(3) Hemichordata (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
160. Which one of the following pair of animals are 160.

jawless
(1) Hagfish, petromyzon (1)
(2) Lamprey, myxine (2) ,
(3) Hagfish, Fighting fish (3) ,
(4) Two of the above are correct (4)
161. What is the function of Cu ions in IUDs 161. Cu IUDs
(1) Suppress sperm motility (1)
(2) Suppress fertilizing capacity of sperms (2)
(3) Enhances fertilising capacity of sperms (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
NLI / 36
162. Which of the following are example of 162.
contraceptive in which Ovum and sperms are
prevented from physically meeting.
(1)
(1) Male condoms
(2)
(2) Vaults
(3)
(3) Female condoms
163. Which of the following is correct 163.
(1) ICSI - Intra cervical sperms Injection (1) ICSI - Intra cervical sperms Injection
(2) GIFT - Gonads intra fallopian transfer (2) GIFT - Gonads intra fallopian transfer
(3) RTI - Reproductive technologies involvement (3) RTI - Reproductive technologies involvement

164. Which of the following hormones are not secreted 164.
by placenta in human
HCG, HPL,
HCG, HPL, Cortisol, Estrogens, Progestogens,
Thyroxine, Relaxin, Prolactin
(1) 7
(1) 7
u te
tit
(2) 6
(2) 6
s
(3) 5
t In (3) 5
(4) 3 igh (4) 3
L 165.
165. Signals for parturition originate from
ew
N
(1) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus (1)
(2) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary (2)
(3) Placenta only (3)
(4) Fully developed foetus only (4)

166. In human beings how many meiotic division are 166.
required for the formation of 1000 sperms, 250
ovum an 200 zygotes respectively
(1) 250, 350, 250
(1) 250, 350, 250
(2) 250, 200, 300
(2) 250, 200, 300
(3) 250, 250, 250
(3) 250, 250, 250
(4) 250, 250, 300 (4) 250, 250, 300
167. At the time of Ovulation which hormone is not at 167.

its peak level
(1)
(1) LH
(2)
(2) Estrogen
(3) FSH (3)
(4) Progestogen (4)

NLI / 37
168. Which one is not related to modern 168.
biotechnology:
(1)
(1) Curd making
(2) DNA
(2) DNA vaccine
(3) Test tube baby (3)
(4) Gene therapy (4)
169. Which statement is incorrect in recombinant DNA 169.

technology
(1) Different restriction enzymes are used one for vec- (1)
tor and other for foreign DNA.
(2) Same restriction enzymes are used for vector and (2)
foreign DNA
(3) Vector with recombinant DNA transforms host cell (3)
(4) Recombinant DNA replicates due to presence of (4) ori

'ori site' and make several copies
170. In gel electrophoresis technique, the stained DNA 170.

fragments on exposure to UV light show :
u te
(1) Orange colour bands s tit
(2) Black colour bands t In (1)
igh (2)
(3) Blue colour bands L (3)
(4) White colour bands ew (4)
N
171. Correct order of making competent cells 171.
(a) DNA enters the cell (a)
(b) Place on 420C and then keep on ice (b) 420C
(c) cells treated with divalent cations (c)
(d) addition of recombinant DNA with the cell on (d)

ice
(1) c,b,d,a (1) c,b,d,a

(2) b,d,c,a (2) b,d,c,a
(3) c,d,b,a (3) c,d,b,a
(4) b,a,d,c (4) b,a,d,c
172. GM crops are useful in : 172.
(1) Increase yields (1)
(2) Reduce reliance on chemical pesticides (2)
(3) Prevents early exhausation of fertility of soil (3)
(4) All of the above (4)

NLI / 38
173. Permanent cure of ADA deficiency is 173.
(1) Genetically engineered lymphocyte (1)
(2) Bone marrow transplantation (2)
(3) Enzyme replacement therapy (3)
(4) ADA gene introduced in early embryonic stages (4)
174. Today, transgenic models exist for many human 174.
diseases which includes
(a) Cancer (a)
(b) Cystic fibrosis (b)
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis (c)
(d) Alzhiemer's disease (d)
(1) Only (a) and (c) (1) (a) (c)
(2) Only (b) and (c) (2) (b) (c)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b) (c)
175. Which organisation in India monitors genetic 175.
engineering programs
(1) GEAC (1) GEAC
u te (2) IARI
tit
(2) IARI
(3) NDRI s(3) NDRI
t In (4) CDRI
gh
(4) CDRI
176
i
L 176.
A special structure air sacs are present in which
w
Ne
group of animals and supplement in which process
of body :
(1)
(1) Birds, Respiration
(2)
(2) Birds, Reproduction
(3) Birds, Excretion (3)
(4) Birds, Blood circulation (4)

177. Which of the following statement are not correct 177.
according to given diagram :
(1)
(1) It is a kind of barrier method for contraception
(2) IUDs
(2) It is a kind of IUDs
(3) Only progesterone used (3)
NLI / 39
178. The opening between the right atrium and the right 178.
ventricle is guarded by which valve :
(1) Tricuspid valve

(1)
(2) Bicuspid valve
(2)
(3) Mitral valve
(3)
(4) Thebesian valve (4)
179. How many matching are corrects : 179.
a. 2-chambered heart – Fishes

a. 2- –
b. 3-chambered heart – Two auricle and one
b. 3- –
ventricle
c. 3-chambered heart – Two ventricle and one c. 3- –
auricle
d. 3- –
d. 3-chambered heart – All reptiles, Amphibian
e. 4- –
e. 4-chambered heart – Mammals, birds
(1) 3
(1) 3
u te
(2) 2
(2) 2
tit
s
(3) 4
t In (3) 4
(4) 1 igh (4) 1
L
180. The correct route through which pulse making
ew 180.
impulse travels in the heart is : N
(1) SA Node  Purkinje fiber  Bundle of his  AV (1) SA N    AVN 
node  Heart muscle
(2) SA Node  AV node  Bundle of his  Purkinje (2) SA N  AVN   

fiber  Heart muscle
(3) AV node  Bundle of his  SA Node  Purkinje (3) AVN   SA N  
fiber  Heart muscle

(4) AVN  SA N   
(4) AV node  SA Node  Purkinje fiber  Bundle of
his  Heart muscle
181. When CO 2 concentration in blood increases 181. CO2 :

breathing becomes :
(1)
(1) Slow
(2)
(2) There is no effect on breathing
(3)
(3) Slow and deep
(4)
(4) Faster and deeper
NLI / 40
182. Match the items given in column I with those in 182. I II
column II and select the correct option given
below :
I II
Column I Column II
a. i.
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric
acid in joints
b. ii.
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
salts within the
kidney
c. iii.
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
glomeruli
d. iv.
d. Glomerular nephritis iv. Presence of glucose
in urine
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
183. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal 183.

pyramid :
(1)
u te
(1) Peritubular capillaries
s tit
(2)
(2) Convoluted tubules
t In
(3) Collecting ducts igh (3)
L
(4) Loop of Henle
ew (4)
184. In the given below example how many are

N 184.
peptide and steroidal hormone respectively -
Progesterone, ANF, GIP, Cortisol, CCK, Gastrin, ANF, GIP, , CCK,
Androgens, Aldosterone, Glucagon

(1) 5, 4
(1) 5, 4
(2) 4, 5
(2) 4, 5
(3) 6, 3
(3) 6, 3
(4) 7, 2
(4) 7, 2
185. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of 185.
(1) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased

metabolic rate.
(1)
(2) The kidney, leading to suppression of renin-
angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (2)
(3) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion (3)

of epinephrine and norepinephrine
(4) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood
sugar levels. (4) .
NLI / 41
SECTION–B SECTION–B
186. In the example given below, the number of 186.
animals having two chambered heart are :
Dog fish, Saw fish, Flying fish, ,
Hyla, Bufo, Salamander, Clarias
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 5 (4) 5
187. Which of the following is matched correctly : 187.
(1) Non-medicated IUDs – lippes loop, LNG-20 (1) IUDs - LNG-20
(2) Copper releasing IUDs – Cu7, CuT, LNG-20 (2) - Cu7, CuT, LNG-20
multiload 375 IUDs 375
(3) Hormone releasing IUDs – Progestasert, LNG-20, (3) - LNG-20,
multiload 375 IUDs 375
188. The process of annealing requires 188.
(1) One set of small chemically synthesized (1)

u te
oligonucleosides
s tit
(2) Two set of primers (large chemically synthesized
t In (2)
gh
oligonucleotides)
(3) L i
Two sets of primers (small chemically synthesized (3)
oligonucleotides) w
(4) None of these
Ne (4)
189. Match with the correct option 189.
(1) Lepidopterans – Tobacco bud worm,
Armyworm (1) –
(2) Coleopterans – Beetles, bud worm (2) –

(3) Dipterans – Flies, Mosquitoes,
(3) –
Spiders
190. How many matching are correct : 190.

a. Glissons capsule – Pancreas a. –
b. Gall bladder – Common bileduct b. –
c. Glisson's capsule – Liver c. –
d. Gastric gland – Intestine d. –
e. Crypts of lieburkuhn – Intestine e. –
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 2 (4) 2
NLI / 42
191. Red muscles fibers containes : 191.
(1) High content of haemoglobin and plenty of
(1)
mitochondria
(2) High content of myoglobin and few mitochondria (2)
(3) High content of myoglobin and plenty of

(3)
mitochondria
(4) High content of haemoglobin and few mitochondria (4)
192. The nerve centres which control the body 192.

temperature and the urge for eating are contained
in :
(1)
(1) Hypothalamus
(2)
(2) Pons
(3) Cerebellum (3)
(4) Thalamus (4)
193. Which converts angiotensinogen in blood to 193. I

angiotensin I
u te
(1) Rennin (1)t
it (Rennin)
s
(2) Ptyalin t In (2)
igh (3)
(3) Renin L (Renin)
(4) Trypsin ew (4)

N
194. Which one of the following are unique feature of 194.
mammals :
a. mammary glands a.
b. Cartilaginous diaphragm b.
c. Muscular diaphragm c.
d. Body hair d.
(1) a, c, d (1) a, c, d
(2) a, b, d (2) a, b, d
(3) Only a, d (3) a, d
(4) Only c, d (4) c, d
195. Select the correct option, which represents the 195.

homopolysaccharides made up of glucose
monomers:
(1)
(1) Sucrose, lactose, maltose
(2)
(2) Chitin, glycogen, starch
(3) Starch, inulin, peptidoglycan (3)
(4) Starch, glycogen, cellulose (4)
NLI / 43
196. Identify A in given diagram of an alveolus with a 196. A
pulmonary capillary :
A
A
(1) Mesothelium
(1)
(2) Red blood cell (2)
(3) Alveolar wall (3)
(4) Basement substance (4)
197. The Hardy - Weinberg principle cannot operate if 197.
(1) The population is very large (1)
(2) Frequent mutations occur in the population (2)
(3) Free interbreeding occurs among all members of

u te (3)
tit
the population
s
(4) Both 1 and 2
t In (4) 1 2
198. The thickness of each kidney of an adult human h
g 198.
is about: Li
(1) 14-15 cm e w (1) 14-15 cm
N (2) 10-12 cm
(2) 10-12 cm
(3) 21-25 cm (3) 21-25 cm
(4) 2-3 cm (4) 2-3 cm
199. Which statement is incorrect for thick filament 199.

muscle fibre :
(1)
(1) Each thick filament is formed by myosin protein
(2) HMM
(2) The head with short arm of meromyosin is formed
by HMM
(3) Each thick filament is formed by actin protein (3)
(4) The tail of meromyosin is formed by LMM (4) LMM
200. The optic nerves leave the eye and the retinal 200.
blood vessels enter it at a point medial to and
slightly above the posterior pole of the eye ball
that region is called
(1)
(1) Blind spot
(2)
(2) Yellow spot
(3)
(3) Macula lutea
(4)
(4) Fovea centralis
NLI / 44
u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N
NLI / 45
NEW LIGHT INSTITUTE
FULL SYLLABUS / SBRTS
DATE DAY TEST TEST MODE
16-Aug MONDAY PHYSICS MODEL-100 QUES ONLINE / OFFLINE
17-Aug TUESDAY NEET MODEL ONLINE / OFFLINE
18-Aug WEDNESDAY SBRT ONLINE
20-Aug FRIDAY SBRT ONLINE
21-Aug SATURDAY NEET MODEL ONLINE / OFFLINE

u te
25-Aug WEDNESDAY SBRT stit ONLINE
t In
27-Aug FRIDAY NEET MODEL
igh ONLINE / OFFLINE
L
ew
28-Aug SATURDAY NEETNMODEL ONLINE / OFFLINE
2-Sep THURSADY BIO MODEL-NCERT 2- 100 QUES ONLINE / OFFLINE
3-Sep FRIDAY NEET MODEL ONLINE / OFFLINE
6-Sep MONDAY NEET MODEL ONLINE / OFFLINE
8-Sep WEDNESDAY NEET MODEL ONLINE / OFFLINE
10-Sep FRIDAY NEET MODEL ONLINE / OFFLINE
Contact Info :
117 / N / 57, Behind Kulwanti Hospital Lane, Kakadeo,
Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh - 208025
NLI / 46

3-Sep-2021 Neet Model-22 Paper

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

3-Sep-2021 Neet Model-22 Paper

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

NEET MODEL-22 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / 03-Sept.

(NEET TEST SERIES-UG)-2020-21

TEST DATE : 03-09-2021

Please read the instructions carefully :

• The important points to note:

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2021

• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.

• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.

Please Subscribe our –

Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur

Youtube Channel - New Light Institute

TOPIC : MODEL (Full Syllabus)

of the spring with an angular velocity  in gravity

(4) None of these (4)

2. A step-down transformer is used on a 1000V line 2. 1000V 20A

(3) 0.3 A (3) 0.3 A

(4) 2.4 A (4) 2.4 A

(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec (1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec

4. Find the maximum velocity for not skidding for a 4.

(1) 0.14 m/s

5. In interference which quantity remains conserved: 5. :

(1) Energy (1)

(2) Momentum (2)

(3) Charge (3)

(4) Anular momentum (4)

(1) /6 (1) /6

(2) 2/3 (2) 2/3

(3) /4 (3) /4

(4) /3 (4) /3

(2) Moment of intertia ×(angular velocity)2 (2) ×( )2

(3) Force ×distance (3) ×

(4) 25 Hz, 7.4×104 cm/s2 (4) 25 Hz, 7.4×104 cm/s2

9. A simple spring has length  and force constant 9.  K 1 2

(4) K(n  1) (4) K(n  1)

move on a frictionless horizontal surface so as to 2 N/m

(2) 10cm (2) 10cm

14. In Young's experiment for interference of light the 14. 0.2 .

(3) 0.40 mm (3) 0.40

(4) 0.04 mm (4) 0.04

(1) 3A2 (1) 3A2

(1) Graphtie (1)

(2) Heavy water (2)

(3) Water (3)

(4) Aluminium (4)

(4) 4F towards –q charge (4) 4F, –q

19. In the nuclear reaction given below 19.

4 Be9 +2 He 4  6 Ca + 0H1 , Be9 +2 He 4  6 Ca + 0H1 ,

The value of "a" is: "a" :

(1) 3N / C (2) 4 N/C (1) 3N / C (2) 4 N/C

(3) 5 N/C (4) 20 N/C (3) 5 N/C (4) 20 N/C

(3) 61.2 V (3) 61.2 V

(4) 30.6 V (4) 30.6 V

22. The wavelength of the least energetic photon in 22.

(1) 365 nm (1) 365 nm

(1) zero (1)

(2) 0.1 V (2) 0.1 V

(4) 0.01 V (4) 0.01 V

24. Two condensers C1 and C2 in a circuit are joined 24. C1 C2

C1V1  C2 V2 C2 V1  C1V2 C1V1  C2 V2 C2 V1  C1V2

(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)

26. With a potentiometer null point were obtained at 26. 1.1V