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Test Booklet Test ID : 102

Series
02
A Test CODE : NEET Test-
ALL INDIA NEET TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23
TEST DATE : 04-09-2022
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :

• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:
I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022

All India NEET Test–02 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Series-A / 04-SEPT.-2022
INSTRUCTION
• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
u te
tit
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
s
t In
igh
L
w
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NLI / 2
All India NEET Test–02 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Series-A / 04-SEPT.-2022
TOPIC : Unit & Measurement

SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. A vernier callipers has 1 mm marks on the main 1. 1 mm
scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale 20 16
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this
vernier callipers, the least count is :
(1) 0.02 mm
(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.05 mm (2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.1 mm (3) 0.1 mm
(4) 0.2 mm (4) 0.2 mm
2. The solid angle () subtended by the intercepted 2. 5 cm

area of 1 cm2 of spherical surface about center O 1 cm2 O ()
of radius 5 cm will be :
A = 1 cm
2
te
O O A = 1 cm
2
u
r = 5 cm
stit r = 5 cm
t In
(1) 4 × 10–3 steradian igh (1) 4 × 10
L –3
(2) 2 × 10–2 steradian ew (2) 2 × 10–2

N
(3) 3 × 10–2 steradian (3) 3 × 10–2
(4) 4 × 10–2 steradian (4) 4 × 10–2
3. If force (F) work (W) and velocity (v) are taken as 3. (F), (W) (v)
fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula (T)
of time (T) is :
(1) [W 1F–1v–1]
(1) [W 1F–1v–1]
(2) [W –1F2v–1]
(2) [W –1F2v–1]
(3) [W 1F1v–2] (3) [W 1F1v–2]
(4) [W 1F1v1] (4) [W 1F1v1]
4. The correct relation between absolute error (a), 4. (a) (a0) (a)
true value (a0) and measured value (a) will be :
(1) a = a0 – a (1) a = a0 – a
(2) a0 = a + a
(2) a0 = a + a
(3) a = a – a0
(3) a = a – a0
1
(4) a0 = (a + a) 1
2 (4) a0 = (a + a)
2
NLI / 3
5.
All India NEET Test–02 [Paper]
Two clocks are being tested against a standard 5.
CRACK NEET 2023 / Series-A / 04-SEPT.-2022
clock. At 12 : 00 : 00 noon by standard clock the 12 : 00 : 00

reading of two clocks for three days are :
Day Clock - 1 Clock - 2 -1 -2
Monday 11 : 59 : 45 12 : 00 : 11 11 : 59 : 45 12 : 00 : 11
11 : 59 : 59 12 : 00 : 30
Tuesday 11 : 59 : 59 12 : 00 : 30
12 : 00 : 14 12 : 00 : 13
Wednesday 12 : 00 : 14 12 : 00 : 13
(1) -1
(1) Clock-1 is more precise
(2) -2
(2) Clock-2 is more accurate
(3) -1
(3) Clock-1 is less accurate
(4) -2
(4) Clock-2 is more precise.
b  x2
6. Power P is related to distance x and time t as 6. P x t P= .
at
b  x2 b
P= . Find the dimensional formula for : b
at a :
a
(1) [M–1L–2T2]
te
(1) [M–1L–2T2]
u
(2) [M–1L2T–2]
s tit [M L T ]
(2) –1 2 –2
(3) [ML–2T2] t In (3) [ML T ] –2 2
igh (4) [ML T ]

(4) [ML2T–2]
L 2 –2
7. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass

ew 7. 2%
and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How muchN 3%
will be the maximum error in the estimate of the
kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and
speed : (1) 11%
(1) 11% (2) 8%
(2) 8% (3) 5%
(3) 5% (4) 1%.
(4) 1%.
l
8. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is 8. T = 2
g
l
given by T = 2 where 'l' is about 100 cm and 'l' 100 cm 1 mm
g
(T) 2 50
is knwon to have 1 mm accuarcy. The time period
is about 2s. The time of 50 oscillations is measured
by a stop watch of least count 0.1 s. The 0.1 g
percentage error in g is :
(1) 0.1%
(1) 0.1%
(2) 0.2% (2) 0.2%
(3) 0.3% (3) 0.3%
(4) 0.8% (4) 0.8%
NLI / 4
9.
If two different systems of units of accelerations is 9.
represented by the same number, if velocity is

represented by numbers in the ratio 1:3
1 : 3. The ratios of units of length and time are :

(1) 1/3, 1/9
(1) 1/3, 1/9
(2) 1/9, 1/3
(2) 1/9, 1/3
(3) 1, 1
(3) 1, 1
(4)
(4) None of these.
10. If the units of mass, length and time are doubled, 10.
then unit of gravitational constant will be :
(1) Douboled (1)
(2) Tripled (2)
(3) Quadrupled (3)
(4) Remain same. (4)
u te
11. In the measurement as the focal length of a 11. tit
concave mirror the object distance is
Insu = 40 ± 0.1
u = 40 ± 0.1 cm and the real image distance t
igh v = 20 ± 0.2
v = 20 ± 0.2 cm. The maximum % error in the
f %
measurement of f is :
L
ew (1) 1.75
(1) 1.75 N
(2) 2.25
(2) 2.25
(3) 0.75
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.3 (4) 0.3
12. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote 12. 3.55 cm
it as 3.55 cm. Which instrument did he use to
measure it :
(1) 1 cm
(1) A meter scale of least cound 1 cm
(2) 10
(2) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier 9 1 cm
scale matches with 9 division in main scale and
5
main scale has 5 divisions in 1 cm
(3) 100
(3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular
1 mm
scale and pitch as 1 mm
(4) 10
(4) A screw gauge having 10 divisions in the circular
1 mm .
scale and pitch as 1 mm.
NLI / 5
13. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in 13.
the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56s, 2.40s

2.63 s, 2.56s, 2.40s
respectively. The average absolute error is :
(1) 0.1 s (1) 0.1 s
(2) 0.086 s (2) 0.086 s
(3) 0.01 s (3) 0.01 s

(4) 1.0 s (4) 1.0 s
14. If E = energy, G = graviational constant, I = impulse 14. E= G= ,I=
2
GIM GIM2
and M = mass, the dimensions of are same M=
E2 E2
as that of :
(1)
(1) Time
(2)
(2) Mass
(3) Length (3)
(4) Force (4)

15. If a composite physical quantity in term of moment 15. I F V, W
of Inertia I force F velocity V work W and length L
L is defined as:
 IFV 2 
 IFV 2 
Q=
 WL3  u te Q=
 WL3 
stit
Find the correct dimensional formula of Q.
t In Q
(1) [MT–2]
g h (1) [MT ] –2
(2) [ML2T–2] Li (2) [ML T 2 –2

]
(3) [MLT ] –2
ew (3) [MLT ] –2
(4) [ML–2]
N (4) [ML–2]
2 2
16. P = Po e (αT )
16. P = Po e (αT )
Where P is final pressure of gas and P0 is initial P P0

pressure of gas t is the time then find out the
t 
dimension of  :
(1) [T–1] (1) [T–1]
(2) [T–2] (2) [T–2]
(3) [T] (3) [T]

(4) [T2] (4) [T2]
17. New unit of length chosen such that the speed of 17.
light in vacumn is unity. What is the distance
between the Sun and the Earth in term of the
new unit. If time taken by light is 8 minute and 20 8 20
second to cover the distance:
(1) 600 new unit of length (1) 600

NLI / 6
18.
If V = (10  0.1)Volt 18.
V = (10  0.1)Volt
i = (5  0.2)Amp i = (5  0.2)Amp
Find the value of Req = R  dR Req = R  dR :
(1) (2  0.2) (1) (2  0.2)
(2) (2  0.3) (2) (2  0.3)
(3) (2  0.1) (3) (2  0.1)
(4) (2  0.4) (4) (2  0.4)
19. The poiseuille is the unit of : 19.
(1) Pressure (1)
(2) Friction (2)
(3) Viscoscity (3)
(4) Surface tension. (4)

u te
20. The cirular head of screw gauge is divided into 20. tit 200
200 division and move 1mm a head in one
Ins 1mm
revolution. Find the pitch and least count of screw t
gauge: igh
L (1) 1 mm, 0.0005 cm
(1) 1 mm, 0.0005 cm w
Ne (2) 1 mm, 0.005 cm
(2) 1 mm, 0.005 cm
(3) 1.1 mm, 0.007 cm (3) 1.1 mm, 0.007 cm
(4) 1.1 mm, 0.006 cm (4) 1.1 mm, 0.006 cm
21. If we constant a new physical quantity having 21. QL

dimensions of length QL name as plank length in G, C
term of gravitional constant G, Velocity c and h QL :
plank constant h. Then find the formula of QL :
GC3
(1) QL 
GC3 h
(1) QL 
h
Gh
Gh (2) QL 
(2) QL  C3
C3
h
h (3) QL 
(3) QL  GC3
GC3
C3 C3
(4) QL  (4) QL 
Gh Gh
NLI / 7
22. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 22. I
II
by using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II -I -II

(Item) (Units of length) ( ) ( )
a. Distance between i. Micron a. i.
earth and stars
b. Inter atomic ii. Angstrom

b. ii.
distance in a solid
c. Size of nucleus iii. Light year

c. iii.
d. Wavelength of iv. Fermi
d. iv.
Infrared Laser
v. Kilometre
v.
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-v, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (3) a-v, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-iv. u te (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-iv.
23. When a wave travels in a medium, the 23. st
it
x
displacement of a particle located at distance x
t In t y = a sin (bt – cx) a, b c are
at time t is given by y = a sin (bt – cx) where a, bg h
Li
b/c
and c are constants of the wave. The dimensions
of b/c are same as that of : ew
(1) wave velocity
N (1)
(2)
(2) wave length
(3) wave amplitude (3)
(4) wave frequency (4)
24. Zero error of an instrument is : 24.

(1) Systematic errors (1)
(2) Random errors (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) None of these (4)
25. What is the fractional error in g calculated from 25. T  2  / g g

T  2  / g ? Given that fractional errors in T and T 
 are ± x and ± y respectively : ±x ±y
(1) x + y (1) x + y
(2) x – y (2) x – y
(3) 2x + y (3) 2x + y
(4) 2x – y (4) 2x – y
NLI / 8
26. Which of the following is incorrect? 26.
(1) All derived quantities may be represented (1)

dimensionally terms of the base quantities
(2) A base quantity cannot be represented (2)

dimensionally in terms of other base quantities
(3) The dimension of a derived quantity is never zero (3)

in any base quantity
(4) The dimension of a base quantity in other base (4)

quantities is always zero.
27. A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time. 27. F F = at + bt2 t
The dimensions of a and b are :
a b
–3 –4
(1) [MLT ] and [MLT ] (1) [MLT–3] [MLT–4]
(2) [MLT–4] and [MLT–3] (2) [MLT–4] [MLT–3]
(3) [MLT–1] and [MLT–2] (3) [MLT–1] [MLT–2]
(4) [MLT–2] and [MLT0] (4) [MLT–2] [MLT0]
28. The flux density of mass is defined as the amount 28.
te
of mass crossing unit area per unit time. The
dimension of this quantity is : u
(1) ML–2T–1 s tit
(2) ML2T–1 t In (1) ML T –2 –1
gh (3) MLT
2 –1
(2) ML T
(3) MLT –1
Li –1
(4) M–1L–2T
ew (4) M–1L–2T
29. The velocity of water waves v may depend upon N 29. v ,
their wavelength , the density of water  and the
 g
acceleration due to gravity g. The method of
dimensions gives the relation between these
quantities as :
(1) v 2  g11
1 1
(1) v  g 
2
(2) v 2  g
(2) v 2  g
(3) v 2  g
(3) v 2  g
(4) v 2  g1 3 (4) v 2  g1 3
30. Assertion: An exact number has infinite number 30. :

of significant digits.
:
Reason: A number, which is not a measured value
has infinite number of significant digits.
(1)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (3)
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false (4)
NLI / 9
31. Assertion: A dimensionless quantity may have 31.

:
unit.
:
Reason: Two physical quantities having same
dimensions, may have different units.
(1)
(2)
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(3)
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4)
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false
32. A small steel ball of radius r is allowed to fall under 32. 
gravity through a column of a ciscous liquid of r
coefficient of viscosity . After some time the
velocity of the ball attains a constant value known vT
as terminal velocity v T. The terminal velocity (i) m (ii) 
depends on (i) the mass of the ball m, (ii) , (iii) r (iii) r (iv) g
and (iv) acceleration due to gravity g. Which of
the following relations is dimensionally correct:
u te mg
mg stit v  r
(1) T
(1) v T 
r t In
igh (2) v  r
(2) v T 
r L mg
T
mg
ew
N (3) v T  r mg
(3) v T  r mg
mgr
mgr (4) v T 
(4) v T  

33. Pressure gradient has the same dimension as that 33.

of :
(1)
(1) Velocity gradient
(2)
(2) Potential gradient
(3)
(3) Energy gradient
(4)
(4) None of these
34. The ratio of unit of length light minute and light 34.
second :
(1) 108 (1) 108
(2) 60 (2) 60
1 1
(3) (3)
60 60
(4) 100 (4) 100
NLI / 10
35. Dimension of R is :
35.
R
2 –1
(1) ML T (1) ML2T–1
(2) ML2T–3A–2 (2) ML2T–3A–2
(3) ML–1T–2 (3) ML–1T–2
SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. The error due to parallax is a : 36.
(1) Random error (1)
(2) Constant error (2)
(3) Personal error (3)
(4) Instrumental error. (4)

37. With the usual notations, the following equation 37.
1 1
S t = u + a(2t  1) is : S t = u + a(2t  1) is :
2 2
(1) Only physically correct (1)
(2) Only dimensionally correct
u te (2)
(3) Both physically and dimensionally correct
s tit
(3)
(4) Neither physically nor dimensionally correct. t In (4)

38.
h
1 astronomical unit is the distance between : ig 38. 1
L
w
Ne
(1) Sun and Earth (1)
(2) Sun and Moon (2)
(3) 1
(3) Are length of earth's orbit which subtends angle of
1 arc second at the centre
(4)
(4) None of the given.
1/2
p F
39. The frequency of vibration of string is given by 39. =  
2l  m 
1/2
p F
= . Here p is number of segments in the p 'l' m
2l  m 
string and 'l' is the length. The dimensional formula
for m will be : (1) [M0LT–1]
(1) [M0LT–1] (2) [ML0T–1]
(2) [ML0T–1]
(3) [ML–1T0]
(3) [ML–1T0]
(4) [M0L0T0] (4) [M0L0T0]
40. A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003g, radius 40. 0.3 ± 0.003g, 0.5 ± 0.005 mm
0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The
6 ± 0.06 cm
maximum percentage error in the measurement
of its density is :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
NLI / 11
41. SI unit of pressure is : 41.
SI
(1) Bar (1)
(2) Newton/m2 (2) /
(3) Pascal (3)
(4) Atmosphere (4)
42. In the formula X = 5YZ2, X and Z have dimensions 42. X = 5YZ2, X Z

of capacitance and magnetic field, respectively. SI Y
What are the dimensions of Y is SI units :
(1) [M–2L–2T6A3]
(1) [M–2L–2T6A3]
(2) [M–1L–2T4A2] (2) [M–1L–2T4A2]
(3) [M–3L–2T8A4] (3) [M–3L–2T8A4]
(4) [M–2L0T–4A–2] (4) [M–2L0T–4A–2]
43. If force F, area A and density D are taken as the 43. F, A D

fundamental units, the representation of Young's
Y
modulus Y will be :
(1) F–1 A–1 D–1
(1) F–1 A–1 D–1
u te
(2) FA–2 D2
tit
(2) FA–2 D2
s
(3) FA D –1
(3) FA–1 D
t In
(4) FA–1 D0.
g h (4) FA D . –1 0
44. Spot odd one out : Li 44.

ew
(1) watt day N (1)
(2) calorie (2)
(3) coulomb-farad (3) -
(4) electron volt. (4) .
45. Assertion: The error in the measurement of radius 45. : 0.3%

of the sphere is 0.3%. The permissible error in its
0.6%
surface area is 0.6%.
Reason: The permissible error is calculated by the A 4 r

: =
A r
A 4 r
formula = .
A r
(1)
NLI / 12
46. Assertion: Force cannot be added to pressure. 46.

Reason: Because their dimensions are different. :
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason (1)
47. Match the column I and column II and select the 47. I II
correct match :
-I - II
Column - I Column - II
a. p. [M0 L3 T–1]
a. Specific gravity p. [M0 L3 T–1]
b. Surfae tension q. [M0 L0 T0] b. q. [M0 L0 T0]
c. Impulse r. [M1 L0 T–2] c. r. [M1 L0 T–2]

d. Rate of flow s. [M 1 L1 T–1] d. s. [M1 L1 T–1]
(1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s (2) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p (1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s (2) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p
(3) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p (4) a-r, b-q, c-p, d-s
u te (3) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p (4) a-r, b-q, c-p, d-s
48. Match the column I and column II and select the 48.
correct match : stit I II
Column - I Column - II t In -I - II
g h
Li
a. Specific heat p. [M L T K ] 1 2 –2 –1 a. p. [M1 L2 T–2 K–1]
b. Boltzmann constant q. [M L T K ] w0 1 0 1 b. q. [M 0 L1 T0 K1]

N e
c. Wien's constant r. [M1 L0 T–3 K–4] c. r. [M1 L0 T–3 K–4]
d. Stefan constant s. [M0 L2 T–2 K–1] d. s. [M0 L2 T–2 K–1]
(1) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p (1) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p
(2) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r (2) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(3) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s (3) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s
(4) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s (4) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
49. Among the following which one is largest : 49.
(1) Light year (1)
(2) Parsec (2)
(3) Angestrom unit (3)
(4) Mile (4)
50. One shake is equal to : 50.
(1) 10–6 sec (1) 10–6
(2) 106 sec (2) 106
(3) 10–8 sec (3) 10–8
(4) 108 sec (4) 108
NLI / 13
TOPIC : PERIODIC TABLE AND PROPERTIES

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A SECTION-A
51. The atomic number of the element unnilennium 51. unnilennium

is :
(1) 109
(1) 109
(2) 102
(2) 102
(3) 108
(3) 108
(4) 119
(4) 119
52.
52. Dobereiner triad law is applicable :
(1) Cl, Br, I (1) Cl, Br, I
(2) Ca, Sr, Ba (2) Ca, Sr, Ba
(3) Li, Na, Cs (3) Li, Na, Cs
u te
(4) Both (1) and (2)
st(4)it (1) (2)
53. In
In the sixth period, the orbitals that are filled are: 53.
t
(1) 6s, 5f, 6d, 6p igh
L (1) 6s, 5f, 6d, 6p
(2) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p e w (2) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
N
(3) 6s, 5d, 5f, 6p
(3) 6s, 5d, 5f, 6p
(4) 6s, 6p, 6d, 6f
(4) 6s, 6p, 6d, 6f
54. The group number, number of valence electrons
and valency of an element with atomic number 54.
15, respectively, are : 15
(1) 16, 5 and 2 (1) 16, 5 2
(2) 15, 5 and 3 (2) 15, 5 3
(3) 16, 6 and 3 (3) 16, 6 3
(4) 15, 6 and 2 (4) 15, 6 2

55. The element with Z=119 (not yet discovered) will 55. Z=119 ( )
be an/a :
(1)
(1) transition metal
(2)
(2) inner-transition metal
(3)
(3) alkaline earth metal
(4) alkali metal (4)
NLI / 14
56.
Given below are two statements : 56.
One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (A) (R)

labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :
(A) :
Metallic character decreases and non-metallic
character increases on moving from left to right
in a period.
Reason (R):
(R) :
It is due to increase in ionisation enthalpy and
decrease in electron gain enthalpy, when one
moves from left to right in a period.
In the light of the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(1) (A) (R)
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
u te (A)
(4) (R) (R), (A)
tit
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). s
57. The electronegative value of Flourine is : t In
57.
igh
(1) 4.0 L (1) 4.0
(2) 3.5 ew (2) 3.5

N
(3) 3.0 (3) 3.0
(4) 2.5 (4) 2.5
58. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The 58. Na 5.1 eV Na+
value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be:
(1) –2.55 eV (1) –2.55 eV
(2) –5.1 eV
(2) –5.1 eV
(3) –10.2 eV
(3) –10.2 eV
(4) +2.55 eV
(4) +2.55 eV
59.
59. In comparison to boron, beryllium has :
(1) lesser nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation (1)

enthalpy
(2) greater nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation (2)

enthalpy
(3) greater nuclear charge and greater first ionisation (3)

enthalpy
(4) lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionisation (4)

enthalpy.
NLI / 15
60.
Which one of the following orders presents the 60.
correct sequence of the increasing basic nature

of the given oxides :
(1) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(1) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(2) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
(2) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
(3) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3 (3) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
(4) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO (4) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
61. In d-block of elements, the last electron enters 61. d-

the:
(1) nd
(1) n d subshell
(2) (n – 1) d
(2) (n – 1) d subshell
(3) (n – 2) d
(3) (n – 2) d subshell
(4) All of these (4)
62. An element has successive ionization energies 62. 180, 350, 1000
as 180, 350, 1000 and 1200 kJ mol–1. To which 1200 kJ mol–1
group of the periodic table does this element
belong :
(1) 2
(1) 2
u t3e
tit
(2)
(2) 3
s
(3) 4
t In (3) 4
(4) 12
igh (4) 12
L
63. Given below are two statements :
ew 63.
Statement I: N I:
Mendeleev’s Periodic table was based on atomic
weights.
Statement II : II :
Modern periodic table is based on atomic
numbers.
below :
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II
64. (n – 1)d5 ns2 is the general electronic configuration 64. (n – 1)d5 ns2
of :
(1) Fe, Co, Ni
(1) Fe, Co, Ni
(2) Cu, Ag, Au (2) Cu, Ag, Au
(3) Zn, Cd, Hg (3) Zn, Cd, Hg
(4) Mn, Tc, Re (4) Mn, Tc, Re

NLI / 16
65.
The correct order of second ionization potential 65.
of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is :
(1) F < O < N < C. (1) F < O < N < C.

(2) C<F<N<O (2) C<F<N<O
(3) C<N<F<O (3) C<N<F<O
(4) C<N<O<F (4) C<N<O<F
66. The sizes of the second and third row transition 66.
element being almost the same. This is due to :
(1) d- and f-orbital do not shield the nuclear charge (1) d- f-
very effectively
(2) Lanthanide contraction (2)
(3) Both true (3)
(4) None is true (4)
67. Given below are two statements : 67.
Statement I: I:
Diagonal relationship is present between
Li – Mg, Be – Al, B – Si
te – Mg,
Li Be – Al, B – Si
Statement II :
titu II :
Due to the similar charge / size ratio.
Ins
In the light of the above statements, choose the ht
Lig
below :
e w (1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II areNincorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II
68. The nature of Al2O3 is : 68. Al2O3
(1) Amphoteric (1)
(2) Acidic (2)

(3) Basic (3)
69. The period number in the long form of the 69.
periodic table is equal to :
(1)
(1) Magnetic quantum number of any element of the
period
(2)
(2) Atomic number any element of the period
(3)
(3) Maximum principal quantum number of any
element of the period
(4) Maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any (4)

element of the period
NLI / 17
70.
Which one is the most basic oxide : 70.

(1) CO (1) CO
(2) Cl2O7 (2) Cl2O7
(3) Na2O (3) Na2O
(4) MgO
(4) MgO
71. Given below are two statements :
71.
Statement I:
I:
Oxides of elements in the centre of the periodic
table are amphoteric (eg. Al2O3, As2O5)
( Al2O3, As2O5)
Statement II :
II :
Oxide of elements in the centre of the periodic
(
table are neutral (eg. CO, NO, NO2)
CO, NO, NO2)
below :
(1)
u te I II
stit
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
t In
gh
(3) I II
(3) i
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
L (4) I II
w
Ne
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
72.
72. Electron affinity can be defined as :
(1)
(1) Energy needed for the change
M–(g)  M(g) + 1e–
M–(g)  M(g) + 1e–
(2)
(2) Energy change in the reaction
M(g) + e–  M–(g)
M(g) + e–  M–(g)
(3) The capacity of the atom to attract the electron (3)
pair through which it is bonded to another atom
(4) Energy required for the change (4)
M(s)  M(g) M(s)  M(g)
73. Among the following, the third ionization energy 73.

is highest for :
(1) Magnesium (1)

(2) Boron (2)
(3) Calcium (3)
(4) Aluminium
(4)
NLI / 18
74.
In which of the following arrangement, the order 74.

is NOT according to the property indicated against

it :
(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– -
(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– increasing ionic size
(2) B<C<N<O-
(2) B < C < N < O increasing first ionization enthalpy
(3) I < Br < F < Cl -
(3) I < Br < F < Cl increasing electron gain enthalpy
with negative sign
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb increasing metallic radius (4) Li < Na < K < Rb -
75. Given below are two statements : 75.
Statement I: I:
f-block elements are called inner transition f-
elements.
II :
Statement II :
f- = (n-2)f1-14 (n-
The outer electronic configuration of f-block
elements = (n-2)f1-14 (n-1)d0–1 ns2 1)d0–1 ns2

below :
u te
stit
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect t I

n (2) I II
(3) igh
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
L
(4) e w
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II
76.
N
In a periodic table, the basic character of oxides:
76.
(1) Increases from left to right and decreases from
top to bottom (1)
(2) Decreases from right to left and increases from
top to bottom (2)
(3) Decreases from left to right and increases from

(3)
top to bottom
(4) Decreases from left to right and increases from (4)
bottom to top
77. Arrange the following in the order of increasing 77.
ionization enthalpy :
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (iv) 1s2 2s2 2p2 (iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (iv) 1s2 2s2 2p2
(v) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (v) 1s2 2s2 2p3
(1) (ii) < (i) < (iv) < (v) < (iii) (1) (ii) < (i) < (iv) < (v) < (iii)
(2) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) < (v) (2) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) < (v)
(3) (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (v) > (iii) (3) (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (v) > (iii)
(4) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (v) (4) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (v)
NLI / 19
78.
The elements having IUPAC symbol Lv and Og 78.

IUPAC Lv Og
are belong to which group respectively : (Lv = (Lv = Livermoricium = 116, Og = Oganesson
Livermoricium = 116, Og = Oganesson = 118) = 118)
(1) 17, 2 (1) 17, 2
(2) 16, 0 (2) 16, 0
(3) 15, 0 (3) 15, 0
(4) 16, 1 (4) 16, 1
79. Electronic configuration of four element A, B, C 79. A, B, C D

and D are given below :
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Which of the following is the correct order of

increasing tendency to gain electron :
(1) A<C<B<D (1) A<C<B<D
(2) A<B<C<D (2) A<B<C<D
(3) D<B<C <A De< B < C < A

(3)
t
(4) D < A < B < C titu D < A < B < C
(4)
Ins
80. Which of the following statement is incorrect :
ht80.
(1)  e.g H of nitrogen and noble gases are

Lig (1) e.gH
positive
e w
N fluorine
(2) Caesium is the most electropositive, while (2)
is most electronegative element
(3) Chlorine has the highest electron affinity (3)
(4) In any period, the atomic radius of the noble gas (4)
is lowest
81. What is the block and period of element having 81. 103
atomic number 103 :
(1) d-Block, period = 7 (1) d- , =7
(2) f-Block, period = 7 (2) f- , =7

(3) p-Block, period = 7 (3) p- , =7
(4) p-Block, period = 6 (4) p- , =6
82. The group and period having maximum number 82.

of elements respectively :
(1) 1st and 3rd (1) 1st 3rd
(2) 18th and 6th (2) 18th 6th
(3) 3rd and 6th (3) 3rd 6th

NLI / 20
83.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled 83.

(A)
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R).
(A) :
Assertion(A):
For isoelectronic species, the radii be different

because of their different nuclear charges.
(R) :
Reason(R):
The cation with the Lesser Positive charge will

have smaller radius and anion with greater
negative charge will have larger radius because
of greater attraction of electrons to the nucleus.

below: (1) (A) (R) (R)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (A)
correct exaplanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
u te
ti
(4)t (A) (R) (R), (A)
ns
explanation of (A) I
t84.
g h
84. Incorrect order of acidic strength :
Li (1) H2S > H2Se
w
Ne
(1) H2S > H2Se
(2) HI > HBr
(2) HI > HBr
(3) HBr > HCl
(3) HBr > HCl
(4) H2Te > H2S
(4) H2Te > H2S
85. The correct order of screening effect is : 85.
(1) f>d>p>s (1) f>d>p>s
(2) d>s>p>f (2) d>s>p>f
(3) s>d>p>f (3) s>d>p>f
(4) s>p>d>f (4) s>p>d>f
SECTION-B SECTION-B
86. For magnitude of electron gain enthalpy of 86.
chalcogens and halogens, which of the following
option is correct :
(1) Br > F
(1) Br > F
(2) S>F
(2) S>F
(3) O < Cl (3) O < Cl
(4) S < Se (4) S < Se
NLI / 21
87.
In the following, the element with the highest 87.
electropositively is :
(1)
(1) Copper
(2)
(2) Caesium
(3) Barium (3)
(4) Chromium (4)
88. Which of the following five anions are arranged 88.

in order of decreasing ionic radius, the correct
sequence is :
(1) Se2–, I–, Br–, O2–, F–
(1) Se2–, I–, Br–, O2–, F–
(2) I–, Se2–, O2–, Br–, F–
(2) I–, Se2–, O2–, Br–, F–
(3) Se2–, I–, Br–, F–, O2–
(3) Se2–, I–, Br–, F–, O2–
(4) I–, Se2–, Br–, O2–, F–
(4) I–, Se2–, Br–, O2–, F–
89.
89. Which statement is incorrect :
(1)
(1) In any period, valency with respect to hydrogen,
first increase up to 4 and then decrease to 1 4 1
(2) In any period, valency with respect to oxygen (2) 8

increase up to 8
u te
(3) Ionization enthalpies are always positive stit
(3)
(4) For same element, electronegativity is always t I

n (4)
constant in all compounds
igh
90. Which element not placed in long form of 90.
L
w
Ne
periodic table on the basis of their electronic
configuration :
(1) As
(1) As
(2) Br (2) Br
(3) He (3) He
(4) Kr (4) Kr
91. Among the following which one has the highest 91.
cation to anion size ratio :
(1) CsI (1) CsI
(2) LiF (2) LiF
(3) NaF (3) NaF
(4) CsF (4) CsF
92. The element with lowest atomic number that has 92. (n-1)d6ns2
a ground state electronic configuration of
(n-1)d6ns2 is located in :
(1) 5th 7th
(1) 5th period and 7th group
(2) 6th 8th
(2) 6th period and 8th group
(3) 4th period and 8th group (3) 4th 8th
(4) 3rd period and 8th group (4) 3rd 8th
NLI / 22
93.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled 93.
(A)
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(R).
Assertion(A): (A) :
When an electron is added to a neutral gaseous (X)

atom(X) to convert it into a negative ion, the
enthalpy change accompanying the process is
called as electron affinity.
Reason(R): (R) :
The process of adding an electron to the neutral

gaseous atom is always endothermic only

below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R)
correct exaplanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) (A) (R)
(3) e
t(A) (R)
u
explanation of (A) stit
(4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
n
94. Which have the smallest ionic radius : ht94.I
g
(1) Cl– Li (1) Cl–
ew
S2– S2–
(2) N (2)
(3) C4– (3) C4–
(4) O2– (4) O2–
95. If the ionic radius of K+ is 1.34 Å, the atomic radii 95. K+ (1.34 Å), K
of K will be :
(1) > 1.34 Å (1) > 1.34 Å
(2) < 1.34 Å (2) < 1.34 Å
(3) = 1.34 Å (3) = 1.34 Å
(4) Can not predict (4)
96. In which of the following transformation more 96.

energy is required :
(1) F–(g)  F(g) + e– (1) F–(g)  F(g) + e–
(2) P–(g)  P(g) + e– (2) P–(g)  P(g) + e–
(3) S–(g)  S(g) + e– (3) S–(g)  S(g) + e–
(4) Cl–(g)  Cl(g) + e– (4) Cl–(g)  Cl(g) + e–
NLI / 23
97.
The element having very high ionization enthalpy 97.

but zero electron affinity is :
(1) H (1) H
(2) F (2) F
(3) He (3) He
(4) Be (4) Be
98. Among the given processes which are will be 98.
endothermic in nature :
a. O(g)+ e–  O–(g)
a. O(g)+ e–  O–(g)
b. K(g)  K+(g) + e–
b. K(g)  K+(g) + e–
c. Cl–(g) Cl(g) + e–
c. Cl–(g) Cl(g) + e–
d. O–(g)+ e–  O2–(g) d. O–(g)+ e–  O2–(g)
(1) a and b (1) a b
(2) b and c (2) b c
(3) c and d (3) c d
(4) b, c and d (4) b, c d

99. Which of the following obeys triad as well as 99.
u te
octave law :
stit
(1) Li, Na, K
t In (1) Li, Na, K
(2) B, C, N
igh (2) B, C, N
(3) O, S, Se L
ew (3) O, S, Se
(4) Both (1) and (2) N (4) (1) (2)
100. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy of P, 100. P, S, Cl F
S, Cl and F will be :
(1) S < P < F < Cl (1) S < P < F < Cl

(2) P < S < F < Cl (2) P < S < F < Cl
(3) S < P < Cl < F (3) S < P < Cl < F
(4) P < F < S < Cl (4) P < F < S < Cl
NLI / 24
TOPIC : The Living World, Biological Classification

SECTION–A– [Part-1] SECTION–A– [Part-1]
101. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 101. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(R)
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): (A) :
Archaebacteria are oldest living fossils.
Reason (R) :
(R) :
Methanogens are responsible for the production
of methane.

below :
(1) (A) (R) (R)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (A)

u te
(2) (A) (R)
s tit
In (3) (A)
(R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct h
t
g
explanation of (A) Li (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
w
102. Given below are two statements : one N is e
labelled 102. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (R)
Reason (R).
(A) :
Assertion (A):
Lichens are very good pollution Indicators
Reason (R) : (R) :
Lichens do not grow in polluted areas

below :

(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
NLI / 25
103. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 103.
(A)
(R)
Reason (R).
(A) :
Assertion (A):
Deuteromycetes known as Algal fungi
Reason (R) : (R) :
Members of deuteromycetes are decomposers of

litter and help in mineral cycling.

below :
correct explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
te
u
tit
(3) (A) (R)
s
explanation of (A)
t In (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
104. Given below are two statements : one is labelled igh104.

L (A)
w
Ne
(R)
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): (A) :
Reproduction is not a defining property of living

beings.
(R) :
Reason (R) :
Reproduction is absent in many organism and

totally absent in non livings

below :
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
NLI / 26
105. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 105.
(A)
(R)
Reason (R).
(A) :
Assertion (A):
In five kingdom classification Chlorella and

Chlamydomonas are placed in kingdom protista
Reason (R) : (R) :

Chlorella and Chlamydomonas are unicellular
eukaryotes.

below :
correct explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
explanation of (A) u te
tit
(4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
s
nutrition is found in it: t In
106. Identify the organism and tell which type of 106.
igh
L
w
Ne
(1) Paramecium – Heterotrophic (1)
(2) Paramecium – Autotrophic (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Slime moulds – Heterotrophic (4)
107. Earlier classification systems included bacteria,

107.
blue green algae, fungi, mosses, ferns,
gymnosperm and the angiosperms under plants.
Which character are taken for this classification :
(1) Cell membrane (1)
(2) Cell wall (2)
(3) Mode of nutrition (3)
(4) Type of reproduction (4)

NLI / 27
108. How many of the following are correct statements 108.
among Gonyaulax, Euglena and slime moulds :
a. All are photosynthetic a.
b. All are flagellated organisms b.
c. These are belongs to different kingdom. c.
d. All are unicellular organism. d.
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
109. Which of the following characters are similar in 109.
multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and
protonema of mosses :
(1)
(1) Diplontic life cycle
(2) Members of kingdom plantae (2)
(3) Mode of nutrition u te

(3)
(4) Multiplication by fragmentation s tit

t In (4)
110. Full form of ICBN :
igh110. ICBN :
L
(1) Indian code for botanical nomenclature
ew (1) Indian code for botanical nomenclature
N
(2) International code for botanical nomenclature (2) International code for botanical nomenclature
(3) International code of botany name (3) International code of botany name
(4) Indian code of botanical nomenclature (4) Indian code of botanical nomenclature
111. The correct scientific name of mango is : 111.
(1) Mangifera indica (1) Mangifera indica
(2) mangifera indica (2) mangifera indica
(3) Mangifera Indica (3) Mangifera Indica
(4) mangifera Indica (4) mangifera Indica
112. Which taxonomic category are real basic unit of 112.

classifications :
(1) Family (1)
(2) Genus (2)
(3) Species (3)
(4) Order (4)
NLI / 28
113. How many matching are correct according to 113.
different organisms and their genus :
a. Man – Homo a. –
b. Housefly – Musca b. –
c. Housefly – Housetica c. –
d. Mango – Mangifera d. –
e. Wheat – Triticum e. –
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 2 (3) 5 (4) 2
114. Arrange the following in ascending order of 114.

similar characteristic.
I. II.
I. Family II. Genus
Ill. IV.
Ill. Class IV. Species
V.
V. Order
u te<
(1) < <
(1) Class < Family < Genus < Species
tit
s
(2) Family < Class < Genus < Species
t In (2) < < <
(3) Species < Order < Family < Class

igh (3) < < <
L
(4) Class < Genus < Species < Family
ew (4) < < <
N
115. Which of the following statements is correct : 115.
(1) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the
(1)
number of common characteristics goes on
increasing
(2) As we go lower from kingdom to species the (2)
number of common characteristics goes on
decreasing
(3) Lower the taxa, less are the characteristics that (3)
the members within the taxon share .
(4) Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of
determining the relationship to other taxa at the (4)
same level
116. Which one of the following is not a correct 116.
Statement:
(1) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved (1)
plant specimens
(2) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants
for reference (2)
(3) A museum has collection of photographs of plants

and animals
(3)
(4) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of
specimens (4)
NLI / 29
117. What is /are referred as referral for study purpose: 117.
(1) Herbarium
(1)
(2) Museums
(2)
(3) Botanical Gardens and Zoological Parks
(3)
(4) All
(4)
118. Which of the following statements are correct :
118.
(i) Genus comprises a group of related species
(i)
(ii) Flora contains the actual account of habitat
(ii)
and distribution of animal of a given area
(iii) Family comprises a group of related genera
(iii)
(iv) Taxonomic category class includes related
orders (iv)
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (1) (i), (ii) (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iv) (2) (ii) (iv)

(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (3) (i), (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) (iv)
119. Match the following column I and column II : 119.
u te I II
Column I Column II
s tit I II
a. Lion i. Felis
t In a. i.
b. Leopard ii. Panthera leo igh b. ii.
L
c. Tiger iii. w
Panthera pardus
e
c. iii.
d. Cat N
iv. Panthera tigris d. iv.
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
120. Match the following columns : 120.
Column –I Column –II –I –II
(Common name) (Taxonomic category–
( ) ( )
order)
a. I.
a. Wheat I. Primata
b. II.
b. Mango II. Diptera
c. Housefly III. Sapindales c. III.
d. Man IV. Poales d. IV.
(1) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III (1) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
(2) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I (2) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
(3) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III (3) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
(4) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I (4) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
NLI / 30
121. Couplet represents the choice made between two 121.
opposite options which results in

(1) Rejection of both the option (1)
(2) Acceptance of both the option (2)
(3) Either acceptance or rejection of both the option (3)
(4) Acceptance of only one and rejection of the other (4)
122. NBRI is located at : 122.
(1) Lucknow (1)
(2) Uttar Pradesh (2)
(3) India (3)
(4) All (4)

123. Defining feature of living organisms is : 123.
(1) Consciousness (1)
(2) Metabolism (2)
(3) Cellular organisation (3)
124. Which of the following statement is incorrect : 124.
u te
(1) Plant growth is continuous throughout their life
s tit
(1)
(2) In animal growth is seen only up to a certain age
t In (2)
(3) Plant do not grow continuously through out their h
g
life Li (3)
(4) e w
In Yeast growth is synonymous with reproduction (4)
N
125. Which among the following is Incorrect statement: 125.
(1) Only most complex eukaryotes can sense and re- (1)
spond (2)
(2) Properties of tissue are present in constituent cell
(3) All mammals are self conscious (3)
126. Which is the incorrect statements about zoological 126.
parks:
(1)
(1) Dead animal are preserved
(2)
(2) Dead plants are preserved
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Living animals are kept in protacted environment (4)
127. Class mammalia includes families : 127.
(1) Felide (1)

(2) Canidae (2)
(3) Convolvulaceae (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
NLI / 31
128. There are many species of Panthera genus, which 128.
of the following is not the species of Panthera

genus :
(1)
(1) leo
(2)
(2) nigram
(3)
(3) tigris
(4) pardus (4)
129. Fill in the blanks in the given sentence. 129.
Museum have collections of ____________ specimens ____________

for study and reference :
(1) Preserved plants only (1)
(2) Preserved animals only (2)
(3) Both preserved plants and Animals (3)
(4) Living plants only (4)
130. Which scientist gives the currently accepted 130.

u te
tit
correct definition of biological species
s
(1) Aristotle
t In (1)
(2) Linnaeus igh (2)
L
(3) Huxley
ew (3)
(4) Ernst Mayr

N (4)
131. Which of the following statement is true 131.
a. Dinoflagellates are mostly marine and a.

photosynthetic
b.
b. They appear yellow, green , brown , blue or
red depending on the main pigments present
in their cells c.
c. The cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on their
outer surface
d.
d. Most of them have two flagella , one lies
longitudinally and the other transversely in the
furrow between the wall plates
(1) all of these (1)
(2) Only a,b,d (2) a,b,d
(3) Only b,c,d (3) b,c,d
(4) Only a,c,d (4) a,c,d

NLI / 32
132. Difference between Virus and Viroid is 132.

(1) Absence of protein coat in viroid but present in virus (1)
(2) Presence of low molecular weight RNA in virus but

(2)
absent in viroid
(3) Both 1 and 2

(3) 1 2
(4) Presence of DNA in viroid (4) DNA
133. Select the Incorrect statement regarding 133.
heterocysts: (1)
(1) These are present in some filamentous fungi such
as Nostoc and Anabaena (2) H2
(2) These cells are specialised to perform H2 - fixation

(3) CO2
(3) These cells are specialised to perform CO2 - fixation

u te
tit
134. How many are correct statements about the given 134.
diagram :
s
t In
igh
L
ew
N
(a)
(a) A type of protist
(b)
(b) Myxotrophic nutrition
(c) A type of connecting link (c)
(d) Cell wall absent (d)

(e) Multicellular organism (e)
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
135. How many of the following fungus found in the 135.

class Ascomycetes :
Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus,
Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Neurospora,
Alternaria, Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago,
Morels, Truffles, Colletotrichum, Toadstool: :
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) 7 (2) 7
(3) 9 (3) 9
(4) 10 (4) 10
NLI / 33
SECTION–B– [Part-1]
136. Match column-I with column -II and select the 136.
correct option from the codes given below :
Column - I Column - II -I - II
a. Virus i. Mad Cow disease a. i.
b. Bacteria ii. Potato spindle tuber b. ii.
c. Viroids iii. Typhoid c. iii.
d. Prions iv. Small pox d. iv.
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a -i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a -i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b- iv, c-i, d-ii (3) a-iii, b- iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
137. Match the different types of spores listed under 137. I

column-I with the class of fungi given under II
column-II
Column - I Column - II te-I -II
t itu
Spores Class
Insa. f.
a. Ascospores f. Basidiomycetes ht
b. Basidiospores g. Deuteromycetes L
ig b. g.
c. Zygospores h. e
Phycomycetes
w c. h.
N d. i.
d. Conidia i. Ascomycetes
(1) a-i, b-f, c-h, d-g (1) a-i, b-f, c-h, d-g
(2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-i (2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-i
(3) a-h, b-i, c-g, d-f (3) a-h, b-i, c-g, d-f
(4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-i (4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-i
138. Which one of the following matching is correct : 138.
Column - I Column - II -I - II
(1) Mushroom - Aseptate mycelium
(1) -
- Basidiomycetes
-
(2) Alternaria - Sexual reproduction is
absent (2) -
- Deuteromycetes
(3) Mucor - Reproduction by (3) -
conjugation
- Ascomycetes
(4) -
(4) Agaricus - Parasitic fungus
-
- Phycomycetes
NLI / 34
139. The main criteria for classification used by 139.
Whittaker was :
(1) Cell structure (1)
(2) Body organisation (2)
(3) Reproduction (3)
140. How many are the incorrect match 140.

A. Pseudopodia – Amoeboid protozoans A. –
B. Flagella – Trypanosoma,
B. –
Gonyaulax
C. –
C. Cilia – Euglena
D. –
D. No locomotory – Plasmodium
organelles
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2
te
(3) 2
(4) 1 u
(4)it1
st
141. Bacteria also reproduce by a method in which they 141.
t In
adopting a primitive type of DNA transfer from one h
g
bacterium to the other. This method are : Li
(1) Sort of sexual reproduction e w
N (1)
(2) Sort of Asexual reproduction (2)
(3) Sort of vegetative reproduction (3)
(4) Fragmentation (4)
142. The chief producers in the oceans are : 142.
(1) Golden algae (1)
(2) Diatoms (2)
(3) Euglenoids (3)
(4) Slime moulds (4)
143. Under suitable conditions slime moulds form an 143.

aggregation called as :
(1) Clasmodium (1)
(2) Plasmodium (2)
(3) Slasmodium (3)
NLI / 35
144. Protozoans are divided into four major groups. 144.
Which of the followings are NOT a major groups :

(1) Amoeboid protozoans (1)
(2) Flagellated protozoans (2)
(3) Sporozoans (3)
(4) Plasmozoan protozoans (4)
145. What is the function of pseudopodia : 145.
(1) Movement and capturing of food (1)
(2) Only movement (2)
(3) Only Capturing of food (3)
(4) Excretion (4)
146. How many matching are correct 146.
a. Yeast – Bread and beer a. –
b. Penicillium – Fungi b. –
c. Yeast – Non mycelial fungi c. –
d. Yeast – Multicellular fungi d. –
e. Mycorrhiza – Symbiosis e. –
(1) 3 (1) tu
3
te
(2) 4 sti
t In (2) 4
(3) 2
g h (3) 2
(4) 1 Li (4) 1
ew
147. In fungi the sexual cycle involves the many steps. 147.
This steps are N
(1)
(1) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or
nonmotile gametes called plasmogamy (2)
(2) Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy (3)
(3) Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores
148. How many statements are correct for 148.

phycomycetes :
(a)
(a) The mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(b)
(b) Vegetative reproduction by non motile
aplanospore (c)
(c) Asexual reproduction by motile zoospore
(d)
(d) Zygospore is formed by fusion of several
gametes (1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
NLI / 36
149. In life cycle of plants two distinct phases are 149.
(1) Diploid sporophytic and the haploid gametophytic (1)
(2) Diploid gametophytic and diploid sporophytic (2)

(3) Haploid sporophytic and diploid gametophytic (3)
(4) Haploid gametophytic and haploid sporophytic (4)
150. The capsomeres of viruses are arranged in which 150.
geometric forms
(1)
(1) Helical
(2)
(2) Polyhedral
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Square (4)
SECTION–A– [Part-2] SECTION–A– [Part-2]

151. Given below are two statements 151.
Statement I:
-I:
In Chlorella and Amoeba Reproduction
synonymous with growth
u te
Statement II :
stit - II :
Metabolism is absent in some living organism. t In
igh
L
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below: w
Ne
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

Statement I: -I:
The number and types of organism present on Earth
are referred as Biodiversity.
Statement II :
- II :
The scientific names ensure that each organism
has many name.

below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II

NLI / 37
Statement I: -I:
The word systematics is derived from the Greek
word systema.
Statement II : - II :
Linnaeus used Systema Naturae as the title of his

publication.

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
Statement I: -I:
Classification is a single step process.
Statement II : u t-eII :
stit
In
Each rank or Taxon in fact, represents a unit of
classification. t
igh
L
w
Ne
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
Statement I: -I:
Mycoplasma are pathogenic in Animals and plants.
Statement II :
- II :
Mycoplasma are largest living cell.

below:
(1) I II

NLI / 38
Statement I: -I:
The Boundaries of kingdom protista are well
defined
Statement II : - II :
Rhizopus and Plasmodium are placed under

kingdom protista.

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
(4) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Statement I:
-I:
Deuteromycetes known as Imperfect fungi because
only the sexual or vegetative phase of these fungi
are known.
u te
Statement II :
stit - II :
Morel, Truffles and puffballs are edible fungi.
t In
Choose the correct answer from the option given igh
L
below: w
Ne

Statement I:
-I:
Viruses, viroids and prions are acellular organism.
Statement II :
In the five kingdom classification of whittaker there - II :
is no mention of lichens.

below:

(1) I II

NLI / 39
Statement I: -I:
Viruses are facultative parasites.
Statement II :
- II :
Viruses are a type of connecting link

below:

Statement I:
-I:
Lichens are associations between algae and
protista
Statement II : u t-eII :
Lichens are symbiotic association stit
In
Choose the correct answer from the option given ht
g
below:
Li
ew
(1) I II
N (2) I II
(4) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Statement I:
-I:
Kingdom plantae includes all eukaryotic
chlorophyll containing organisms commonly
called plants.
Statement II :
- II :
Venus Fly trap are example of Insectivorous plant.

below:
NLI / 40
Statement I: -I:
Cuscuta is a parasitic fungi.
Statement II :
- II :
Neurospora is used extensively in biochemical and
genetic work.

below:

163. Information on any one taxon is provided by : 163.
(1) Key
(1)
(2) Flora
u te (2)
(3) Catalogue
stit
(3)
(4) Monograph
t In (4)
igh164.
164. Dicotyledonae, Hominidae and Angiospermae are
L
respectively : w
Ne
(1)
(1) Class, Family, Phylum
(2)
(2) Class, Family, Division
(3) Family, Class, Phylum (3)
(4) Division, Family,Class (4)
165. Which organisms are preserved in boxes after 165.

collecting, killings and pinning :
(1) Insects (1)
(2) Larger animals (2)
(3) Larger plants (3)
166. Which of the following containes the actual 166.

account of habitat and distribution of plants of a
given area:
(1)
(1) Fauna
(2)
(2) Flora
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Monographs (4)

NLI / 41
167. As compared to genus, which of the following is 167.
less general :
(1)
(1) Division
(2)
(2) Class
(3) Family (3)
(4) Species (4)
168. Plant families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae 168.

are included in which order :
(1) Sapindales (1)

(2) Poales (2)
(3) Polymoniales (3)
(4) Solymoniales (4)

169. By using which characters the plants classify into 169.
Herbs, Shrubs and Trees :
(1) Simple anatomical characters (1)

(2) Simple morphological characters
u te
tit (2)
(3) Simple reproductive characters s
n (3)
t I
(4) All of these
g h (4)
Li 170.
170. Which two kingdom are included in two kingdom
classification system :
ew
(1) Plantae and Animalia
N (1)
(2)
(2) Plantae and Protista
(3) Plantae and Monera (3)
(4) Animalia and Protista (4)
171. Many drawbacks was in two kingdom 171.

classifications system, because this system did not
distinguish between which :
(1)
(1) Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes
(2)
(2) Unicellular and multicellular organisms
(3) Photosynthetic and non photosynthetic (3)
172. In five kingdom classification system. The five 172.

kingdom are :
(1)
(1) Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
(2)
(2) Monera, Protozoa, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
(3) Cyanobacteria, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia (3)
(4) Monera, Protista, Fungi, Angiosperm, Animalia (4)

NLI / 42
173. In six kingdom classifications which kingdom is 173.
divided into two domains :

(1) Protista (1)
(2) Monera (2)
(3) Fungi (3)
(4) Plantae (4)
174. How many statement are correct for the given 174. :
diagram:
(a) It is a type of taxonomical Aids. u te

(a)
(b) It is a store house of collected plant and stit

(b)
Animal specimens that are dried, pressed and t I

n
preserved on sheets igh
L (c)
(c)
w
It also serve as Quick referral systems in
Taxonomical studies. Ne
(d)
(d) This diagram showing stored specimens.
(1)
(1) Three
(2) Two (2)
(3) Four (3)
(4) One (4)

175. How many of the following statements are NOT 175.
correct with reference to given diagram of
organism :
a.
a. This organism is prokaryote b.
b. Nuclear membrane absent
c.
c. It is used as contraceptive method
d. It is rod shaped d.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1
NLI / 43
176. How many matchings are correct : 176.

a. Extreme salty areas – Halophiles a. –
b. Hot springs – Thermoacidophiles b. –
c. Marshy areas – Methanogens c. –
d. Methanogens – Ruminant animals d. –
(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
177. In the given below diagrams cholera disease 177.
causing organism are related with :
u te
tit
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
s
(1) a
t In (1) a
igh
(2) b
L (2) b
(3) c ew
N (3) c
(4) d (4) d
178. Name the scientist who showed that viruses could 178.
be crystalised
(1) W.M. Stanley (1)
(2) D.J. Ivanowsky (2)
(3) T.O. Diener (3)
(4) Pasteur (4)
179. Which kingdom forms a link with the others 179.

dealing with plants, animals and fungi :
(1) Monera (1)
(2) Plantae (2)
(3) Protista (3)
(4) Animalia (4)
NLI / 44
180. How many statements are correct with reference 180.
to sporozoans (a)
(a) All are parasite
(b)
(b) Locomotory organelle absent
(c)
(c) Malaria causing agent belongs to sporozoans
(d) Nuclear membrane are absent (d)
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 2 (4) 2
181. How many matching are correct 181.
a. Entamoeba free living Ciliated protozoans

b. Trypanosoma parasite Flagellated protozoans
c. Plasmodium parasite Ciliated protozoans
d. Plasmodium parasite Sporozoans
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 1 (3) 4 (4) 1
182. How many statement are correct according to fungi 182. u te
a. They show great diversity in morphology only stit
b. They show great diversity in habitat only t In a.
c. They prefer to grow in warm and humid igh b.
places L c.
w
d. All member are multicellular
Ne d.
e. Some member are autotrophic and some e.
member are heterotrophic
(1) 2 (2) 1
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
183. How many statements are correct with reference 183.
to given diagram
a. It is an infectious agent a.
b. It is a connecting link between virus and b.
bacteria
c. Their genetical material are double stranded c.
RNA
d.
d. It is infect the bacteria
e. It is a obligate parasite e.
(1) 4 (2) 5 (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
NLI / 45
184. Which one of the following are correct statement 184.
for the given diagram :
(a) It is saprophytic organism

(a)
(b) Dimorphic nucleus present
(b)
(c) It is multicellular eukaryotes
(c)
(d) Their some character are similar with fungi
(d)
(1) a, b, d
(1) a, b, d
(2) a, d (2) a, d
(3) a,c,d (3) a,c,d
(4) Only a (4) a
185. Bladderwort are examples of 185.
u te
(1) Partially heterotrophic plants
s tit
(1)
(2) Insectivorous plants

t In (2)
(3) Totally heterotrophic plants igh (3)
L
(4) More than one options are correct
ew (4)
N SECTION–B– [Part-2]
186. Cuscuta is examples of 186.
(1) A type of plants (1)
(2) Parasite (2)
(3) A type of parasitic animal (3)
(4) More than one options are corrects (4)
187. How many statements are correct according to 187.
kingdom Animalia
a.
a. They directly depend on plants b.
b. They indirectly depend on plants c.
c. They store food reserves as glycogen or fat
d. Some of them are capable of locomotion d.
e. Their mode of nutrition is holozoic e.
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 5 (4) 5
NLI / 46
188. In the five kingdom classification there is no 188.
mention of
(1)
(1) Only lichens
(2)
(2) Only some acellular organisms
(3) Both lichens and some acellular organisms (3)
(4) Only virus (4)
189. M.W. Beijerinek demonstrated that the extract of 189.

the infected plants of tobacco could cause
infection in healthy plants and called the fluid as
(1) Contagium vivum fluidum (1)
(2) Infectious living fluid (2)
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Infectious non living fluid (4)
190. Viruses could be crystallised and crystals are made 190.

up of
(1) Largely of nucleic acids (1)
(2) Largely of protein

u te
(2)
(3) Largely of carbohydrates stit

(3)
(4) Largely of carbohydrates and protein both t In (4)

191. In the given below examples. How many are viral igh191.
L
diseases in animals :
e w
Common cold, mumps, small pox,Ntyphoid,
cholera, influenza, herpes, tetanus, AIDS
(1) 6
(1) 6
(2) 5
(2) 5
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 3 (4) 3
192. In plants many symptoms are visible due to viral 192.
infection. Which of the following are symptom
(1) Mosaic formation (1)

(2) Leaf rolling and curling (2)
(3) Vein clearing (3)

193. The Infectious abnormally folded protein are 193.
called
(1)
(1) Rions
(2)
(2) Prions
(3)
(3) Trions
(4) Viroids (4)
NLI / 47
194. Mycorrhiza is :
194.
(1) Symbiotic association of a soil fungus and roots of

(1)
higher plants
(2) Parasitic association between a fungus and roots
of seed plants
(2)
(3) Saprophytic association between a fungus and root
of seed plants (3)
(4) Symbiotic association between an alga and root of
seed plants. (4)
195. Read carefully and find out the correct 195.

statement from the given :
(a) Twin characteristics of Reproduction are (a)
increase in mass and number of individual.
(b)
(b) A multicellular organism grows by mitosis
(c) In animals cell division occurs in all tissues (c)
to replace lost cells.
(d) In Planaria (Flat-worms) we observe true re-
(d)
generation
(1) Only b u te b
(1)
(2) b, d s titb, d
(2)
(3) a, c, d t In (3) a, c, d
(4) All of these igh (4)
L 196.
w
196. Read carefully the below given statements and find
e
out the incorrect statement(s) : N (a)
(a) Fungi, Spirogyra, protonema of mosses all
easily multiply by fragmentation and fission.
(b)
(b) In majority of lower animals and lower plants
growth and reproduction are mutually
exclusive events. (c)
(c) Mule does not reproduce so reproduction can
not be as defining feature of living organisms. (d)
(d) Each different kind of plant or animal or
organism represents a species.
(1) d
(1) d
(2) b, c
(2) Only b, c
(3) a, b
(3) Only a, b
(4) a, b, c (4) a, b, c
197. Which one of the following is the correct 197.

statements about Trypanosoma
(1) They are flagellated protozoan (1)
(2) They are parasites (2)
(3) They cause sleeping sickness (3)

(4)
(4) All of these
NLI / 48
198. Which one of the following statement is false about 198.

deuteromycetes :
(1) They reproduce only by asexual spores (conidia) (1)
(2) Mycelium is branched and septate

(2)
(3) They have only parasitic forms
(3)
(4) They have no sexual stage (perfect stage) (4)
199. Which of the following are the basis of 199.

classification of fungi
(1)
(1) Morphology of the mycelium
(2)
(2) Mode of spore formation
(3)
(3) Fruiting bodies
200. Once perfect (sexual) stages of members of 200.
Deuteromycetes were discovered they were

moved to which groups of fungi
u te
(1) Ascomycetes s tit
(1)
t In (2)
gh (3)
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Phycomycetes Li
ew (4)
(4) More than one options are correct N
NLI / 49

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Test Booklet Test ID : 102

ALL INDIA NEET TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

TEST DATE : 04-09-2022

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TOPIC : Unit & Measurement

(4) 0.2 mm (4) 0.2 mm

2. The solid angle () subtended by the intercepted 2. 5 cm

(2) 2 × 10–2 steradian ew (2) 2 × 10–2

(4) 4 × 10–2 steradian (4) 4 × 10–2

(4) [W 1F1v1] (4) [W 1F1v1]

clock. At 12 : 00 : 00 noon by standard clock the 12 : 00 : 00

Day Clock - 1 Clock - 2 -1 -2

(3) [ML–2T2] t In (3) [ML T ] –2 2

igh (4) [ML T ]

7. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass

(1) 11% (2) 8%

(2) 0.2% (2) 0.2%

(3) 0.3% (3) 0.3%

(4) 0.8% (4) 0.8%

represented by the same number, if velocity is

1 : 3. The ratios of units of length and time are :

(1) Douboled (1)

(2) Tripled (2)

(3) Quadrupled (3)

(4) Remain same. (4)

(4) 0.3 (4) 0.3

the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56s, 2.40s

(2) 0.086 s (2) 0.086 s

(3) 0.01 s (3) 0.01 s

(4) Force (4)

(2) [ML2T–2] Li (2) [ML T 2 –2

Where P is final pressure of gas and P0 is initial P P0

(2) [T–2] (2) [T–2]

(3) [T] (3) [T]

(1) 600 new unit of length (1) 600

Find the value of Req = R  dR Req = R  dR :

(1) (2  0.2) (1) (2  0.2)

(2) (2  0.3) (2) (2  0.3)

(3) (2  0.1) (3) (2  0.1)

(4) (2  0.4) (4) (2  0.4)

19. The poiseuille is the unit of : 19.

(1) Pressure (1)

(2) Friction (2)

(3) Viscoscity (3)

(4) Surface tension. (4)

(3) 1.1 mm, 0.007 cm (3) 1.1 mm, 0.007 cm

(4) 1.1 mm, 0.006 cm (4) 1.1 mm, 0.006 cm

21. If we constant a new physical quantity having 21. QL

List-I List-II -I -II

b. Inter atomic ii. Angstrom

c. Size of nucleus iii. Light year

(4) wave frequency (4)

24. Zero error of an instrument is : 24.

(2) Random errors (2)