NEET-UG

Full Syllabus BASED ON

10 Mock Tests
LATEST PAPER
PATTERN
with Answer Key & Hints

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INCLUDES 10 OMR SHEETS

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Salient Features:

• Set of 10 full length Question Papers with Solutions as per the latest paper pattern of
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NEET (UG) provided by NTA.
• Hints provided wherever necessary.
• 10 OMR Sheets provided for practice.
• Analysis of NEET (UG) Exam Papers from the year 2013 to 2022.
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Printed at: Print to Print, Mumbai

© Target Publications Pvt. Ltd.

No part of this book may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, C.D. ROM/Audio Video Cassettes or electronic, mechanical
including photocopying; recording or by any information storage and retrieval system without permission in writing from the Publisher.

P.O. No. 6333

TEID: 2055
 PREFACE

Our latest offering ‘NEET (UG) 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests’ is a meticulously designed book to assess
the threshold of knowledge imbibed by students over a period of two years in junior college.
The book charts out a compilation of Mock Tests aimed at students appearing for the NEET (UG)
examination. Every question paper in this book has been created in line with the examination pattern and
touches upon all the conceptual nodes of Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). The
questions throughout this book are specifically curated by our expert authors with an astute attention to
detail. The core objective of this book is to gauge the student’s preparedness to appear for NEET (UG)
examination. To aid students, hints are provided as deemed necessary. Also, to offer students an insight
about the weightage allotted to each chapter in recent examinations, analysis of past 10 years papers is
given at the start of the book. We have also provided 10 OMR sheets to build speed and accuracy of the

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students for NEET (UG) examination.

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We aspire this book to be the perfect tool that’d help students to excel in the examination.

- Publisher

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Edition: First Co
The journey to create a complete book is strewn with triumphs, failures and near misses. If you think
we’ve nearly missed something or want to applaud us for our triumphs, we’d love to hear from you.

Please write to us on : mail@targetpublications.org

A book affects eternity; one can never tell where its influence stops.
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Disclaimer
This reference book is transformative work based on textual contents published by National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT). We the publishers are
making this book which constitutes as fair use of textual contents which are transformed in the form of Multiple Choice Questions and their relevant hints, with a view to
enable the students to understand, memorize and reproduce the same in NEET (UG) examination.

This work is purely inspired by the paper pattern prescribed by NTA (National Testing Agency). Every care has been taken in the publication of this reference book by the
Authors while creating the contents. The Authors and the Publishers shall not be responsible for any loss or damages caused to any person on account of errors or omissions
which might have crept in or disagreement of any third party on the point of view expressed in the reference book.

© reserved with the Publisher for all the contents created by our Authors.

No copyright is claimed in the textual contents which are presented as part of fair dealing with a view to provide best supplementary study material for the benefit of
students.
 LATEST PAPER PATTERN
 Paper Pattern of NEET (UG) Examination
The latest Paper Pattern comprises of subjects - Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will
have 15 questions. Out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The Paper Pattern for the NEET (UG) Examination is as follows:
Mark(s)
Sr. No. of Type of
Subject(s) Section(s) (Each Question Carries
No. Questions(s) Questions(s)
04 (Four) Marks)
Section A 35 140
1. Physics
Section B *15 40
Section A 35 140

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2. Chemistry
Section B *15 40 MCQ

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Section A 35 140 (Multiple Choice
3. Botany
Section B *15 40 Questions)
Section A 35 140
4. Zoology
Section B *15 40
Total Marks 720

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* Only the first 10 attempted questions from out of 15 will be considered for evaluation.
Important points to note for Section A & B:
i. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
ii. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
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iii. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
iv. In case of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one of
the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4). However,
unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
v. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective
of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not attempted by the candidate.
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 Mode of Examination:
It is a Pen & Paper-based Test, to be answered on the specially designed machine gradable OMR sheet
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using Ball Point Pen.

 Duration of Examination:
The duration of the examination would be three (03) hours.
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INDEX
Sr. Page No.
Test Name
No. Mock Test Answer Key Hints OMR Sheet
1 Mock Test – 1 1 164 245
159
2 Mock Test – 2 17 172 247
3 Mock Test - 3 34 180 249
160
4 Mock Test - 4 51 188 251
5 Mock Test - 5 68 196 253
161
6 Mock Test - 6 84 204 255
7 Mock Test - 7 99 212 257
162
8 Mock Test - 8 114 220 259
9 Mock Test - 9 129 228 261
163
10 Mock Test - 10 144 237 263
 PHYSICS
Analysis of NEET (UG) Exam Papers from the year 2013 to 2022
Note: NEET (UG) exam was conducted twice;  In year 2015 and 2016, as per Supreme Court's Directive  In year 2019, due to flood situation in Odisha State  In year 2020, due to COVID-19 pandemic

Sr. Re-Test 2016 2016 Odisha 2020 2020

Topic Name 2013 2014 2015 2017 2018 2019 2021 2022 Total
No. 2015 (Phase I) (Phase II) 2019 (Phase I) (Phase II)
1 Physical World 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 0 0 2
2 Units & Measurements 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 2 0 3 2 16
3 Motion In a Straight Line 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 2 0 1 2 2 12
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4 Motion In a Plane 1 2 2 3 3 0 1 1 2 1 1 0 1 1 19
5 Laws of Motion 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 4 5 1 3 1 1 35
6 Work, Energy and Power 1 1 4 4 1 2 1 1 2 1 1 0 1 1 21
7 System of Particles & Rotational Motion 2
m 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 1 2 1 2 3 34
8 Gravitation 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 3 2 26
9 Mechanical Properties of Solids 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 2 1 0 1 13
10 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 1 2 20
11 Thermal Properties of Matter 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 0 1 0 19
12 Thermodynamics 2 2 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 0 1 22
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13 Kinetic Theory 3 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 1 1 22
14 Oscillations 0 1 2
e 1 0 1 2 1 3 2 1 1 2 1 18
15 Wave 3 3 1 2 3 2 2 2 0 1 1 1 0 1 22
16 Electric charges and Fields 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 0 3 2 1 2 0 1 17
17 Electrostatic potential and Capacitance 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 0 1 3 2 7 3 26
18 Current Electricity 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 4 4 41
19 Moving charges and Magnetism 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 1 0 4 3 29
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20 Magnetism and Matter 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 11
21 Electromagnetic Induction 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 0 2 1 2 17
22 Alternating Current 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 0 1 2 1 3 2 20
23 Electromagnetic Waves 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 2 0 2 2 1 3 17
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24 Ray optics and Optical instruments 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 1 4 4 3 36
25 Wave Optics 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 1 2 3 1 0 1 26
26 Dual nature of radiation and matter 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 27
27 Atoms 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 13
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28 Nuclei 2 2 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 3 2 20
29 Semiconductor electronics 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 4 3 3 39
Total 45 45 45 45 45 45 v45 45
t 45 45 45 45 50 50 640
 CHEMISTRY Std. XI

Analysis of NEET (UG) Exam Papers from the year 2013 to 2022
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Sr. 2015* 2016 2016* 2019* 2020 2020*
Topic Name 2013 2014 2015 2017 2018 2019 2021 2022 Total
No. Re-Test (Phase I) (Phase II) Odisha (Phase I) (Phase II)
1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 0
m3 1 3 0 1 0 2 1 0 1 1 1 1 15
2 Structure of Atom 3 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 22

Classification of Elements and

3 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 09
Periodicity in Properties

Chemical Bonding and Molecular

4 3 3 5 1 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 2 3 2 32
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Structure

5 States of Matter 2 0 0
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1 1 0 0 2 1 1 0 1 2 2 13

6 Thermodynamics 0 2 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 1 21
7 Equilibrium 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 1 2 36
8 Redox Reactions 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 2 1 1 1 0 0 07
9 Hydrogen 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 07
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10 The s-Block Elements 0 0 2 1 1 2 1 3 2 2 1 2 2 2 21
The p-Block Elements (group 13
11 4 0 0 1 0 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 0 1 18
and 14)
Organic Chemistry - Some basic
12 2 1 4 1 0 0 3 3 0 1 2 2 2 1 22
Principle and techniques
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13 Hydrocarbons 4 0 3 3 3 6 3 1 5 2 2 2 3 1 38
14 Environmental Chemistry 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 09
Total 21 18 20 17 14 19 19 21 24 20 19 20 20 18 270
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 CHEMISTRY Std . XII

Analysis of NEET (UG) Exam Papers from the year 2013 to 2022

Sr. 2015* 2016 2016* 2019* 2020 2020*

Topic Name 2013 2014 2015 2017 2018 2019 2021 2022 Total
No. Re-Test (Phase I) (Phase II) Odisha (Phase I) (Phase II)
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1 The Solid State 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 20
2 Solutions 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 0 2 3 3 2 3 1 28
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3 Electrochemistry 3 3 1 1 1 5 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 3 28

4 Chemical Kinetics 2 0 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 24
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5 Surface Chemistry 0 2 1 0 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 14

6
General Principles and Processes of 1 0 1
e1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 15
Isolation of Elements
The p-Block Elements (group 15 3 1 1 4 6 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 3 2
7 42
to 18)
8 The d- and f-block elements 2 4 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 29
9 Coordination Compounds 2 2 3 4 1 2 3 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 28
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10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 0 2 2 3 2 1 2 1 0 1 1 1 2 2 20

11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 1 3 1 2 1 0 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 26

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic
12 2 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 1 0 2 2 2 5 30
Acids
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13 Amines 1 2 1 3 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 21
14 Biomolecules 0 2 0 0 3 3 1 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 19

15 Polymers 2 2 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 15
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16 Chemistry In Everyday Life 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 11

Total 24 27 25 28 31 26 26 24 21 25 26 25 30 32 370
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Note: In above statistics, questions considered to be ambiguous and irrelevant to current syllabus are not considered.
 BIOLOGY Std. XI

Analysis of NEET (UG) Exam Papers from the year 2013 to 2022

Sr. 2015* 2016 2016* 2019* 2020 2020*

Topic Name 2013 2014 2015 2017 2018 2019 2021 2022 Total
No. Re-Test (Phase I) (Phase II) Odisha (Phase I) (Phase II)
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1 The Living World 1 0 0 0 1 3 1 1 1 2 0 0 1 1 12
2 Biological Classification 1 6 2 7 5 3 3 5 2 3 1 1 1 2 42
3
4
Plant Kingdom
Animal Kingdom
4
4
m4
4
4
4
0
3
2
4
2
1
5
3
2
3
1
2
0
2
3
4
3
4
5
4
3
3
38
45
5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 3 4 4 5 5 5 5 3 1 3 3 4 2 4 51
6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 3 2 3 1 1 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 34
7 Structural organisation in Animals 1 2 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 3 3 4 4 29
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8 Cell: The Unit of Life 4 5 6 6 3 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 4 2 53
9
10
Biomolecules
Cell Cycle and Cell Division
4
2
2
3
1
2
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2
1
2
3
3
3
2
3
1
1
3
2
3
2
4
4
1
4
4
5
2
4
34
39
11 Transport in Plants 1 0 3 2 1 1 2 0 3 3 1 1 1 3 22
12 Mineral Nutrition 2 1 2 2 1 1 0 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 21
13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 0 1 0 2 4 2 2 3 0 2 2 2 3 3 26
14 Respiration in Plants 2 1 1 0 0 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 0 2 17
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15 Plant Growth and Development 1 3 2 1 1 1 1 0 2 2 3 4 3 3 27
16 Digestion and Absorption 1 2 2 2 2 0 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 26
17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 25
18 Body Fluids and Circulation 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 32
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Excretory Products and Their
19 0 1 2 1 0 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 0 1 18
Elimination
20 Locomotion and Movement 3 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 26
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21 Neural Control and Coordination 2 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 1 1 0 1 23
Chemical Coordination and
22 4 2 2 2 4 4 3 1 2 4 2 2 1 1 34
Integration
Total 46 50 49 47 48 46 51 47
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43 47 47 48 52 53 674
 BIOLOGY Std. XII

Analysis of NEET (UG) Exam Papers from the year 2013 to 2022

Sr. 2015* 2016 2016* 2019* 2020 2020*

Topic Name 2013 2014 2015 2017 2018 2019 2021 2022 Total
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No. Re-Test (Phase I) (Phase II) Odisha (Phase I) (Phase II)
1 Reproduction in Organisms 3 0 0 1 0 2 0 2 1 1 0 1 0 0 11

2
Sexual Reproduction
Flowering Plants
in
4 5
m 4 5 5 3 4 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 50

3 Human Reproduction 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 40
4 Reproductive Health 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 2 32
Principles of Inheritance and
5 5 3 7 6 6 3 5 3 6 4 4 3 2 6 63
Variation
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6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 2 4 2 4 4 5 6 7 5 6 4 5 8 7 69
7 Evolution 5 3 2
e2 3 4 1 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 42
8 Human Health and Diseases 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 34
Strategies for Enhancement in
9 1 1 2 2 1 2 1 0 1 2 1 1 4 1 20
Food Production
10 Microbes in Human Welfare 2 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 5 3 2 3 1 1 26
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Biotechnology Principles and
11 3 3 0 2 3 4 5 1 3 5 6 4 6 5 50
Processes
Biotechnology and its
12 1 2 3 2 2 1 0 4 2 3 3 3 6 3 35
Application
13 Organisms and Populations 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 0 2 2 2 5 3 33
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14 Ecosystem 3 3 5 3 3 0 2 1 1 0 2 3 3 3 32
15 Biodiversity and Conservation 2 4 2 1 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 0 3 31
16 Environmental Issues 3 2 3 4 3 3 1 4 4 3 2 2 1 3 38
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Total 44 40 41 43 42 44 39 43 47 43 43 42 48 47 606

Note: In above statistics, questions considered to be ambiguous and irrelevant to current syllabus are not considered.
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 

Mock Test - 1

Mock Test - 1
Time: 3 Hours Total Marks: 720

Physics (Section A) 5. The energy of the e.m. waves is of the order of

15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it
1. If x = (a – b), the maximum percentage error in belong?
the measurement of x will be (1) -rays (2) X-rays
 a b  (3) Infra-red rays (4) Ultraviolet
(1)  a  b  a  b   100
 
6. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg
 a b  respectively are attached to the ends of a rigid
(2)  a  b  a  b   100
  rod of length 1 m with negligible mass. The

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 a b  centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
(3)  a  b   100

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  particle is nearly at a distance of:
(1) 50 cm (2) 67 cm
 a b 
(4)  a  b   100 (3) 80 cm (4) 33 cm
 
7. Two solid conductors are made up of same
2. A person can see clearly objects only when they material, have same length and same resistance.

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lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In One of them has a circular cross section of area
order to increase the maximum distance of A1 and the other one has a square cross section
distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of of area A2. The ratio A1/A2 is
the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be (1) 2 (2) 1.5
(1) convex, +0.15 diopter
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(3) 1 (4) 0.8
(2) convex, +2.25 diopter
(3) concave, 0.25 diopter 8. Which of the following is the graph between the
(4) concave, 0.2 diopter height (h) of a projectile and time (t), when it is
projected from the ground?
3. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is: h h
A (1) (2)
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Y
O t O t
B
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h h
A B Y (3) (4)
(1) (2) A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 1 O t O t
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1 0 1 1 0 1
9. The equation of the progressive wave is
1 1 1 1 1 0
 t x 
Y = 3 sin        where x and Y are in
(3) A B Y (4) A B Y  3 5 4
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0 0 1 0 0 0 metre and time in second. Which of the

0 1 0 0 1 0 following is correct?
(1) velocity, v = 1.5 m/s
1 0 0 1 0 0
(2) amplitude, A = 3 cm
1 1 0 1 1 1 (3) frequency, f = 0.2 Hz
 CP  (4) wavelength,  = 10 m
4. The value of     for hydrogen, helium
 CV  10. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to
and another ideal diatomic gas X (whose a magnetising field of 1200 A m1. The
molecules are not rigid but have an additional permeability of the material of the rod is:
vibrational mode), are respectively equal to, (0 = 4  107 T m A1)
(1)
7 5 7
, , (2)
7 5 9
, , (1) 8.0  105 T m A1
5 3 4 5 3 7 (2) 2.4  105 T m A1
5 7 9 5 7 7 (3) 2.4  107 T m A1
(3) , , (4) , ,
3 5 7 3 5 5 (4) 2.4  104 T m A1
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 

NEET-UG 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests

11. Preeti reached the metro station and found that 16. Out of the following which one is a forward
the escalator was not working. She walked up biased diode?
the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, 0V
if she remains stationary on the moving (1) –3 V
escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time –4V
t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the (2) –2 V
moving escalator will be:
2V
t1  t 2 t1t 2 (3) 5V
(1) (2)
2 t 2  t1 –2 V
t1t 2
(4) +2V
(3) (4) t1 – t2
t 2  t1 17. The difference between angular speed of minute
hand and second hand of a clock is
12. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is 59π 59π
indicated by the force-time graph shown below. (1) rad/s (2) rad/s

t
900 1800
The change in momentum of the particle over
59π 59π

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the time interval from zero to 8 s is (3) rad/s (4) rad/s
2400 3600
  
6 18. If A  3iˆ  2ˆj  k,
ˆ B  ˆi  3jˆ  5kˆ and C  2iˆ  ˆj  4kˆ

3 form a right angled triangle then out of the

F(N)

following which one is satisfied?

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0   
2 4 6 8 (1) A  B  C and A2 = B2 + C2
3   

t(s) (2) A  B  C and B2 = A2 + C2

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  
(3) B  A  C and B2 = A2 + C2
(1) 24 Ns (2) 20 Ns
  
(3) 12 Ns (4) 6 Ns (4) B  A  C and A2 = B2 + C2
13. Match the physical quantities listed in column I
with their corresponding dimensions listed in 19. The increase in energy of a metal bar of length
column II. ‘L’ and cross-sectional area ‘A’ when
compressed with a load ‘M’ along its length is
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Column-I Column-II (Y = Young’s modulus of the material of metal

Physical quantity Dimensions bar)
(a) Specific heat capacity (p) [L2 T2] FL F2 L
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(1) (2)
(b) Latent heat (q) [M0 L0 T0] 2AY 2AY
(c) Adiabatic Constant (r) [M0L0 T0 K1] FL F2L2
(d) Coefficient of (s) [L2 T2 K1] (3) (4)
AY 2AY
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superficial expansion
20. An object kept in a large room having air
(1) (a)  (p), (b)  (q), (c)  (r), (d)  (s) temperature of 25 °C takes 12 minutes to cool
(2) (a)  (s), (b)  (p), (c)  (q), (d)  (r) from 80 °C to 70 °C. The time taken to cool for
(3) (a)  (r), (b)  (s), (c)  (p), (d)  (q)
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the same object from 70 °C to 60 °C would be

(4) (a)  (s), (b)  (q), (c)  (r), (d)  (p) nearly,
(1) 15 min (2) 10 min
14. A charge moves in circular path perpendicular
(3) 12 min (4) 20 min
to magnetic field. The time period of revolution
is independent of 21. The velocity-time diagram of a harmonic
(1) mass of the particle. oscillator is shown in the figure. The frequency
(2) charge. of oscillation is
+4
(3) magnetic field.
(4) velocity of the particle. +2
v in 0.04
15. Ina single slit diffraction experiment the first (m/s)
minimum for red light of wavelength 6600 Å 0.01 0.02 0.03
–2 T(in s)
coincides with the first maximum for other light
of wavelength . The value of  is –4
(1) 2200 Å (2) 3300 Å (1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz
(3) 4400 Å (4) 5000 Å (3) 12.25 Hz (4) 33.3 Hz
22
 

Mock Test - 1
22. A spherical shell of radius 10 cm is carrying a 29. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the
charge q. If the electric potential at distances escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and
5 cm, 10 cm and 15 cm from the centre of mean density are twice as that of earth is
spherical shell is V1, V2 and V3 respectively, (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
then (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 2
(1) V1= V2 > V3
(2) V1 > V2 > V3 30. A simple pendulum is oscillating with amplitude
(3) V1 = V2 < V3 ‘A’ and angular frequency ‘’. At displacement
(4) V1 < V2 <V3 ‘x’ from mean position, the ratio of kinetic
energy to potential energy is
23. The mutual inductance between two coils is
x2 x2  A2
1.25 henry. If the current in the primary changes (1) (2)
at the rate of 80 ampere/second, then the A  x2
2
x2
induced e.m.f in the secondary is A2  x2 Ax
(3) (4)

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(1) 12.5 V (2) 64.0 V x2 x
(3) 0.016 V (4) 100.0 V

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31. Two capacitors of 10 pF and 20 pF are
24. A ray of light is incident normally on a glass connected to 200 V and 100 V sources
slab of thickness 5 cm and refractive index 1.6. respectively. If they are connected by the wire,
The time taken to travel by a ray from source to what is the common potential of the capacitors?
surface of slab is same as to travel through glass (1) 133.3 volt (2) 150 volt
(3) 300 volt (4) 400 volt

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slab. The distance of source from the surface is
(1) 4 cm (2) 8 cm 32. Light waves travel from optically rarer medium
(3) 12 cm (4) 16 cm to optically denser medium. Its velocity
25. The total energy of an electron in the nth decreases because of change in _______.
(1) frequency (2) wavelength
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stationary orbit of the hydrogen atom can be
obtained by (3) amplitude (4) phase
(1) En = –13.6 × n2 eV 33. O2 molecule consists of two oxygen atoms. In
13.6 the molecule, nuclear force between the nuclei
(2) En = 2 eV
n of the two atoms
13.6 (1) is not important because nuclear forces
(3) En =  2 eV are short-ranged.
e

n
(2) is as important as electrostatic forces for
1.36
(4) En =  2 eV binding the two atoms.
n (3) cancels the repulsive electrostatic force
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26. For a pnp transistor, the base is between the nuclei.

(1) an insulator (4) is not important because oxygen nucleus
(2) a conductor have equal number of neutrons and protons.
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(3) an n-type semiconductor
(4) a conductor of very low resistance
27. A block of mass 10 kg moving in x direction
with a constant speed of 10 ms1, is subjected to
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34. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a
horizontal plane. Two of them go-off at right
angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg
moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and the second

part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 ms–1 speed. If

a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel
the third part flies-off with 4 ms–1 speed, then its
from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final KE will be
mass is
(1) 475 J (2) 450 J
(1) 3 kg (2) 5 kg
(3) 275 J (4) 250 J
(3) 7 kg (4) 17 kg
28. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers 35. Three blocks with masses m, 2m
distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the F v
and 3m are connected by strings, as
next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds m
shown in the figure. After an
respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 upward force F is applied on block
is m, the masses move upward at 2m
(1) h1 = 2h2 = 3h3 constant speed v. What is the net
h2 h force on the block of mass 2 m?
(2) h1 = = 3 3m
3 5 (g is the acceleration due to gravity)
(3) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2 (1) zero (2) 2 mg
(4) h1 = h2 = h3 (3) 3 mg (4) 6 mg
3
 

NEET-UG 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests

41. Two inductors each of inductance L are
Physics (Section B)
connected in parallel. One more inductor of
value 5 mH is connected in series of this
36. The correct graph representing the variation of
configuration then, the effective inductance is
total energy (E), kinetic energy (K) and
15 mH. The value of L is _______ mH.
potential energy (U) of a satellite with its
(1) 10 (2) 5.0
distance from the centre of earth is
(3) 2.5 (4) 20

Energy
Energy

(1) E (2) E 42. Two coherent sources of light interfere and

produce fringe pattern on a screen. For central
U K
maximum, the phase difference between the two
O O waves will be,
r r
K U (1) π/2 (2) zero
(3) π (4) 3π/2

t
43. When an electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ is
Energy
Energy

en
(3) (4) accelerated from rest through a potential
K K difference ‘V’, the maximum velocity of
O O electron is
r r
E U eV eV
U (1) (2)
m 2m

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E 4eV 2eV
(3) (4)
37. A small metal ball of mass ‘m’ is dropped in a m m
liquid contained in a vessel, attains a terminal
44. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of
velocity ‘v’. If a metal ball of same material but
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length L and mass M about an axis passing
of mass ‘8m’ is dropped in same liquid then the
through a point at a distance of L/3 from one of
terminal velocity will be
its ends and perpendicular to the rod is
(1) v (2) 2v (3) 4v (4) 8v
7ML2 ML2 ML2 ML2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
38. Consider an ideal gas at pressure P, volume V 48 36 9 3
and temperature T. The mean free path for
molecules of the gas is L. If the radius of gas 45. A liquid does not wet the solid surface if angle
e

molecules, as well as pressure, volume and of contact is

temperature of the gas are doubled, then the (1) zero (2) equal to 45°
mean free path will be (3) equal to 60° (4) greater than 90°
pl

5L L L 46. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and

(1) (2) (3) (4) 2L
2 4 8 400 K has 800 J of useful work. The amount of
39. Two wires of same material are vibrating under heat energy supplied to the engine from the
m

the same tension. If the first overtone of first source is

wire is equal to the second overtone of second (1) 2400 J (2) 3200 J
wire and radius of first wire is twice the radius (3) 1200 J (4) 3600 J
of the second then the ratio of length of first
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47. Two point charges A and B, having charges + Q

wire to second wire is and  Q respectively, are placed at certain
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 distance apart and force acting between them is
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1 F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then
40. When the value of R in force between the charges becomes:
the balanced Wheatstone 16F 4F 9F
P Q (1) (2) (3) F (4)
bridge, shown in the 9 3 16
figure, is increased from G
48. A proton, an alpha particle both enter a region
5  to 7 , the value of of uniform magnetic field B, moving at right
S has to be increased by R S
angles to the field B. If the radius of circular
3  in order to maintain orbits for both the particles is equal and the
the balance. What is the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV, the
initial value of S? energy acquired by alpha particle will be:
(1) 2.5  (2) 3 (1) 1 MeV (2) 4 MeV
(3) 5  (4) 7.5  (3) 0.5 MeV (4) 1.5 MeV
44
 

Mock Test - 1
49. The capacity of a parallel plate air capacitor is (3) 2,3-dimethylbutene
2 F and voltage between the plates is changing (4) 1,2-dimethylcyclobut-1-ene
at the rate of 3 V/s. The displacement current in 57. Under what conditions will a pure sample of an
the capacitor is ideal gas exhibit a pressure of 1 atm and a
(1) 2 A (2) 3 A (3) 5 A (4) 6 A concentration of 1 mol L1?
50. The diameter of the pupil of human eye is (R = 0.082 litre atm mol1deg1)
2.5 mm. Assuming the wavelength of light used (1) At STP
is 5000 Å. What must be the minimum distance (2) When V = 22.4 litres
between two point like objects to be seen clearly (3) When T = 12 K
if they are at a distance of 5 m from the eye? (4) When T = 56 K
(1) 1.34 × 10–3 m (2) 1.22 × 10–3 m
–3 58. Find the CORRECT match.
(3) 1.5 × 10 m (4) 1.6 × 10–3 m
Dry distillation
Calcium salt of fatty acid

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Chemistry (Section A) product

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i. Calcium acetate a. Ethanal
51. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction
with excess water gives _______. ii. Calcium propanoate b. Cyclopentanone
(1) one mole of phosphine iii. Calcium formate + c. 3-Pentanone
(2) two moles of phosphoric acid Calcium acetate
(3) two moles of phosphine iv. Calcium adipate d. Propanone

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(4) one mole of phosphorus pentaoxide
(1) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
52. A gas placed in a cylinder fitted with a (2) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a
frictionless piston expands against a constant (3) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of (4) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
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10 litres to 15 litres by absorbing 400 J heat.
The change in internal energy is _______. 59. In Lucas test for alcohols, the appearance of
(1) –106.5 J (2) 106.5 J turbidity is due to the formation of _______.
(3) –906.5 J (4) 906.5 J (1) acid anhydride (2) allyl chloride
(3) alkyl chloride (4) acid chloride
53. The atoms of element ‘Y’ form hexagonal close
2 60. By Wurtz reaction, a mixture of methyl iodide
packing and the atoms of element X occupies rd
e

and ethyl iodide gives _______.

3
(1) butane
portion of the number of tetrahedral voids. Write
(2) ethane
the formula of the compound formed by X and Y.
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(3) propane
(1) X2Y2 (2) X2Y
(4) a mixture of the above three
(3) X3Y4 (4) X4Y3
61. The CORRECT order of bond angles (smallest
54. A cell constructed by coupling a standard copper
m

first) in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is _______.

electrode and a standard magnesium electrode,
(1) H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3
has e.m.f. of 2.7 volts. If the standard reduction
(2) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3
potential of copper electrode is + 0.34 volt; that
(3) H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3
of magnesium electrode is _______.
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(4) H2S < NH3< BF3< SiH4

(1) + 3.04 volts (2) – 3.04 volts
(3) + 2.36 volts (4) – 2.36 volts 62. Among alkali metal salts, the lithium salts are
the poorest conductors of electricity in aqueous
55. In group 15 elements, _______ shows
solution because of _______.
maximum tendency for catenation.
(1) easy diffusion of Li+ ions
(1) phosphorus (2) arsenic
(2) low ability of Li+ ions to polarize water
(3) antimony (4) bismuth
(3) lowest charge to radius ratio
56. IUPAC name of the following compound is (4) high degree of hydration of Li+ ions
_______.
63. When white phosphorus (P4) is treated with
CH3 thionyl chloride, the products obtained are
_______.
(1) PCl3 and PCl5
CH3 (2) PCl3 and POCl3
(1) 1,2-dimethylcyclobutane (3) PCl3, S2Cl2 and SO2
(2) 2,3-dimethylcyclobutene (4) PCl3, PCl5 and S2Cl2
5
 

NEET-UG 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests

64. Which of the following amino acids is basic in 71. In the synthesis of acetylene by Kolbe's process,
nature? the aqueous solution of _______ salt would be
(1) Valine (2) Tyrosine used.
(3) Arginine (4) Leucine (1) potassium acetate
(2) potassium maleate
65. Which of the following has a bond formed by (3) potassium formate
overlap of sp  sp3 hybrid orbitals? (4) potassium succinate
(1) CH3  C  C  H 72. Which of the following statements indicates that
(2) CH3  CH = CH  CH3 law of multiple proportion is being followed?
(3) CH2 = CH  CH = CH2
(1) Sample of carbon dioxide taken from any
(4) HC  CH
source will always have carbon and
66. For which of the following processes, S is oxygen in the ratio 1:2.

t
negative? (2) Carbon forms two oxides namely CO2
and CO, where masses of oxygen which

(1) H2(g)  2H(g)
(2) N2 (g, 1 atm)  N2(g, 5 atm)
(3) C (diamond)  C (graphite)
(4) N2 (g, 273 K)  N2 (g, 300 K)
en
combine with fixed mass of carbon are in
the simple ratio 2:1.
(3) When magnesium burns in oxygen, the
amount of magnesium taken for the
reaction is equal to the amount of

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67. Which of the following is a CORRECT magnesium in magnesium oxide formed.
statement? (4) At constant temperature and pressure,
(1) The hydroxide of aluminium is acidic. 200 mL of hydrogen will combine with
(2) The hydroxide of boron is basic, while 100 mL oxygen to produce 200 mL of
water vapour.
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that of aluminium is amphoteric.
(3) The hydroxide of boron is acidic, while 73. The Kc for H2(g) + I2(g) 
 2HI(g) is 64. If the
that of aluminium is amphoteric. volume of the container is reduced to one-half of
(4) The hydroxides of aluminium and boron its original volume, the value of the equilibrium
are amphoteric. constant will be _______.
(1) 28 (2) 64
68. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When (3) 32 (4) 16
e

1.80 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in

90 g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 74. Which of the following is used in van Arkel
354.11 K. The molar mass of the solute is method?
pl

______. (Kb for benzene = 2.53 K m–1) (1) Br2 (2) NaCN
(1) 5.8 g mol1 (2) 0.58 g mol1 (3) I2 (4) CO
1
(3) 58 g mol (4) 0.88 g mol1 75. Freundlich adsorption isotherm is given by
m

_______.
69. The CORRECT acidic order of the following is x m
_______. (1) = k log p1/n (2) = k log p1/n
m x
OH OH OH m 1 x 1
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(3) = (4) =
x kp1/ n m kp1/ n
I. II. III. 76. Identify product ‘X’ in the following.

KMnO4 / dil.H 2SO 4
X
CH3 NO2 Δ

(1) I > II > III (2) III > I > II (1) Salicylic acid (2) Adipic acid
(3) Glutaric acid (4) Succinic acid
(3) II > III > I (4) I > III > II
77. What is the symbol of element if it’s atomic
70. The Glycosidic linkage present in sucrose is number is 116?
between _______. (1) Uut (2) Uus
(1) C1 of α-glucose and C2 of β-fructose (3) Uuh (4) Uun
(2) C1 of α-glucose and C4 of α-glucose 78. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(3) C1 of β-galactose and C4 of α-glucose (1) CO (2) NO
(4) C1 of α-glucose and C4 of β-fructose (3) SO2 (4) SO3
66
 

Mock Test - 1

Br 87. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of

1.110 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is
79. CH3  C  CH3 
Alc.NH3

 Y _______.
 HBr
(1) 3.33 M (2) 3.05 M
CH3 (3) 3.64 M (4) 3.0504 M
Y in this reaction is _______.
88. The number of S=O and S–OH bonds present in
(1) 2-methylpropan-1-amine
peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acid
(2) 2-methylpropene
respectively are _______.
(3) 2- methylpropan-2-amine
(1) (2 and 2) and (2 and 2)
(4) but-2-ene
(2) (2 and 4) and (2 and 4)
80. If the rate constant of zero order reaction is (3) (4 and 2) and (2 and 4)
3  10–3 M s–1, the time taken for the initial (4) (4 and 2) and (4 and 2)
concentration of the reactant to fall from 0.5 M
89. The order of basic strength among the following

t
to 0.05 M in minutes is _______.
amines in the vapour phase (non-aqueous phase)
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5

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is _______.
(3) 5.0 (4) 15.0
(1) CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH
81. In which of the following process, dihydrogen (2) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
gas is NOT formed? (3) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
(1) When a piece of sodium is added to cold (4) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
water.

nt
90. The order of the reaction occurring by following
(2) When zinc granules are added to dilute
mechanism should be _______.
HCl.
(3) When magnesium is exposed to steam. (i) A2 + B2  AB2 + A (slow)
(4) When iron is added to cold water. (ii) A + B2  AB2 (fast)
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1 1
82. Which one is CORRECT for a non-ideal (1) 1 (2) 3
2 2
solution that shows positive deviation from
(3) 2 (4) 3
Raoult’s law?
(1) mixH < 0, mixV < 0, PobservedPRaoult < 0 91. This does NOT convert a ketone to an alcohol
(2) mixH > 0, mixV > 0, PobservedPRaoult > 0 _______.
(3) mixH > 0, mixV < 0, PobservedPRaoult < 0 (1) Zn/Hg + HCl (2) H2/Raney Ni
e

(4) mixH < 0, mixV > 0, PobservedPRaoult < 0 (3) LiAlH4 (4) Na/Hg + H2O

83. Which of the following will displace the 92. The ratio of number of  and -bonds in
pl

halogen from the solution of halide? but-1-en-3-yne is _______.

(1) Br2 added to NaCl solution. 7
(1) 1 (2)
(2) Cl2 added to KF solution. 3
(3) Cl2 added to KBr solution. 3
(3) 4 (4)
m

(4) Br2 added to KF solution. 2

84. Which one of the following lanthanide ions does 93. Which of the following does NOT represent a
NOT exhibit paramagnetism? conjugate acid-base pair?
(1) Lu3+ (2) Ce3+
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3+
(1) NH 4 and NH 2 (2) HNO3 and NO 3
(3) Eu (4) Yb3+
(3) HSO 4 and SO 24  (4) HCO3 and CO 32 
85. The drug chlordiazepoxide belongs to the class
of _______. 94. Interstitial compounds have higher melting
(1) tranquilizer (2) hypnotic point then pure metal because _______.
(3) analgesic (4) antipyretic (1) they are chemically inert
(2) of stronger metal – nonmetal bond
Chemistry (Section B) (3) of stronger metal – metal bond
(4) of high density
86. Na2CO3 can be manufactured by Solvay process
but K2CO3 CANNOT be prepared, because 95. Ethene on heating in a hydrocarbon solvent at
_______. 373 K, under pressure of 6 atm to 7 atm in the
(1) K2CO3 is more soluble presence of [TiCl4 + (C2H5)3Al] results in the
(2) K2CO3 is less soluble formation of ________.
(3) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3 (1) LDPE (2) HDPE
(4) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3 (3) polypropylene (4) melamine

7
 

NEET-UG 10 Full Syllabus Mock Tests

96. The net cell reaction for cell 102. Stem thorns is a characteristic feature seen in
Ni | Ni2+ || Sn2+ | Sn is _______. (1) Citrus (2) Opuntia
(1) Sn  Sn2+ + 2e (3) Pumpkins (4) Mint
(2) Ni  Ni2+  2e
103. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic
(3) Ni2+ + Sn  Ni + Sn2+
function of veins of leaf?
(4) Ni + Sn2+  Ni2+ + Sn
(1) Provide rigidity to leaf blade.
97. The number of radial nodes present in a given (2) Act as channels for transport of food,
orbital is equal to _______. water and minerals.
(1) l (2) n – l (3) Provide structural framework for the
(3) n – l – 2 (4) n–l–1 lamina.
(4) Store the food prepared by leaf.
98. Enthalpy of formation of two compounds x and
y are – 84 kJ and – 156 kJ respectively. Which 104. Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in

t
of the following statements is CORRECT? size is termed as
(1) x is more stable than y. (1) Oogamy (2) Isogamy

en
(2) x is less stable than y. (3) Anisogamy (4) Zoogamy
(3) Both x and y are unstable.
(4) x and y are endothermic compounds. 105. Which of the following information about
collenchyma is INCORRECT?
99. Which of the following complex compounds is (1) Simple, living mechanical tissue.

nt
a poor electrolytic conductor in solution? (2) Cells thickened at the corners due to
(1) K2[PtCl6] deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and
(2) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] pectin.
(3) K4[Fe(CN)6] (3) Intercellular spaces are absent.
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(4) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (4) Perform function of secretion and storage
of food.
100. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc crystal
with density d = 10 g/cm3 and cell edge equal to 106. Which is the highest in the hierarchy of
100 pm, is equal to _______. taxonomic category?
(1) 4  1025 (2) 3  1025 (1) Genus (2) Family
25
(3) 2  10 (4) 1  1025 (3) Order (4) Class
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Biology Botany (Section A) 107. Select the INCORRECT pair from the following
options.
pl

101. An alga which can be employed as food for (1) Epipetalous – Brinjal
human being is: (2) Epiphyllous – Lily
(1) Chara (2) Chlorella (3) Diadelphous – Pea
(3) Cycas (4) Cedrus (4) Polyadelphous – China rose
m

108. Complete the following table and opt for the appropriate answer.
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Features Five Kingdoms

Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia
Cell type (i) Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic
Cell wall (ii) Present in some Present (without chitin) (iii) Absent
Organization Cellular Cellular (iv) Present Present

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) Eukaryotic Present (Non cellulosic) Absent Cellular
(2) Eukaryotic Present (Cellulosic) Present Tissue organ
(3) Prokaryotic Present (Cellulosic) Absent Organ system
(4) Prokaryotic Present (Non cellulosic) Present Multicellular

109. Cell organelles found only in plants are

(1) Golgi complex (2) Mitochondria (3) Plastids (4) Ribosomes
88
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en
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Page no. 9 to 158 are purposely left blank.
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To see complete chapter buy Target Notes or Target E‐Notes
e
pl
m
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 
Answer Key to Mock Tests
Answer Key to Mock Tests

Mock Test - 1
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (3)
31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (4)
41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (4) 50. (2)
51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (4) 57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (4)
61. (1) 62. (4) 63. (3) 64. (3) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (1)
71. (2) 72. (2) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (2)

t
81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (3) 84. (1) 85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (3)
91. (1) 92. (2) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (2) 99. (2) 100. (1)

en
101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (4) 104. (3) 105. (4) 106. (4) 107. (4) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (2)
111. (3) 112. (2) 113. (1) 114. (2) 115. (1) 116. (2) 117. (2) 118. (4) 119. (2) 120. (2)
121. (1) 122. (3) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (3) 127. (3) 128. (2) 129. (3) 130. (2)
131. (2) 132. (2) 133. (3) 134. (2) 135. (3) 136. (2) 137. (1) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (3)

nt
141. (1) 142. (2) 143. (1) 144. (4) 145. (3) 146. (2) 147. (3) 148. (1) 149. (2) 150. (2)
151. (3) 152. (2) 153. (1) 154. (3) 155. (3) 156. (2) 157. (1) 158. (3) 159. (2) 160. (1)
161. (4) 162. (4) 163. (2) 164. (1) 165. (4) 166. (1) 167. (3) 168. (3) 169. (1) 170. (3)
Co
171. (3) 172. (4) 173. (3) 174. (2) 175. (3) 176. (2) 177. (4) 178. (1) 179. (4) 180. (2)
181. (3) 182. (1) 183. (3) 184. (4) 185. (3) 186. (1) 187. (2) 188. (1) 189. (1) 190. (2)
191. (3) 192. (2) 193. (1) 194. (1) 195. (1) 196. (4) 197. (3) 198. (2) 199. (4) 200. (1)

Mock Test - 2
e

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (1)
pl

21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (1)
31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (3)
41. (3) 42. (4) 43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (2) 50. (3)
m

51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (3) 57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (4)
61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (4) 64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (4)
71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (1) 77. (2) 78. (1) 79. (4) 80. (1)
Sa

81. (1) 82. (1) 83. (3) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86. (2) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (4)
91. (4) 92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (1) 98 (3) 99. (4) 100. (1)
101. (1) 102. (3) 103. (1) 104. (2) 105. (3) 106. (3) 107. (1) 108. (1) 109. (1) 110. (2)
111. (2) 112. (2) 113. (2) 114. (1) 115. (1) 116. (2) 117. (3) 118. (3) 119. (3) 120. (2)
121. (2) 122. (2) 123. (4) 124. (4) 125. (2) 126. (3) 127. (1) 128. (4) 129. (2) 130. (2)
131. (3) 132. (2) 133. (3) 134. (1) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137. (2) 138. (4) 139. (3) 140. (1)
141. (2) 142. (2) 143. (1) 144. (3) 145. (4) 146. (2) 147. (3) 148. (3) 149. (2) 150. (3)
151. (1) 152. (3) 153. (3) 154. (4) 155. (4) 156. (3) 157. (2) 158. (4) 159. (2) 160. (1)
161. (2) 162. (1) 163. (1) 164. (4) 165. (3) 166. (3) 167. (1) 168. (3) 169. (1) 170. (3)
171. (3) 172. (2) 173. (3) 174. (3) 175. (3) 176. (4) 177. (2) 178. (1) 179. (3) 180. (2)
181. (1) 182. (3) 183. (4) 184. (2) 185. (3) 186. (4) 187. (3) 188. (2) 189. (4) 190. (3)
191. (2) 192. (4) 193. (4) 194. (4) 195. (4) 196. (2) 197. (1) 198. (4) 199. (2) 200. (4)

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Page no. 160 to 163 are purposely left blank.
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To see complete chapter buy Target Notes or Target E‐Notes
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 Hints to Mock Tests

Mock Test - 1

Physics (Section A) ⇒
A1 ρ1 l1 R 2
= × ×
A 2 ρ 2 l2 R 1
2. The person to be able to see object at infinity, Here R1 = R2, l1 = l2 and ρ1 = ρ2
the image should be formed at 400 cm. A1
 u= ∴ =1
A2
v =  400 cm =  4 m
By lens formula, 9. Given equation of the wave can also be written as,
 t x  
1 1 1 1 1
  =  Y = 3 sin  2    
f v u 4    6 10  4 
 
Comparing with y = A sin  2     
f=4m t x
As focal length is negative, the lens used is   T   4

t
concave. (where, x and y are in metre)
1 we get,

en
 P = =  0.25 D 1
f A = 3 m, n= = 0.17 Hz,  = 10 m and
T
3. The given logic circuit corresponds to AND v = n = 1.7 m/s
gate which produces high output only when all Hence, option (4) is correct.
inputs are high. Hence, option (4) is the correct

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answer. 10. Relative permeability, r = 1 + 
= 1 + 599 = 600
4. Diatomic gases have 5 degrees of freedom, Magnetic permeability,
neglecting vibrational mode.
 = r0 = 600  4  107 = 2.4  104 TmA1
2 2 7
Co
 For hydrogen, 1 = 1 + =1+ = 11. Let velocity of Preeti be v1, velocity of escalator
f 5 5
Monoatomic gases have 3 degrees of freedom, be v2 and distance travelled be l.
2 2 5 distance
 For Helium, 2 = 1 + =1+ =  Speed =
f 3 3 time
Considering two vibrational modes, diatomic distance
time =
gases have 7 degrees of freedom, Speed
e

2 2 9 l
 For gas X, 3 = 1 + =1+ = t=
f 7 7 v1  v 2
7 5 9 l
pl

 (1, 2, 3) =  , ,  tt

t= = 12
5 3 7 l l t  t1
 2
t1 t 2
34 8
hc 6.6×10 ×3×10
5. = = = 0.825 Å 12. Change in momentum = Area under the F versus
m

E 15×103×1.6×1019
t graph in that interval
 1Å
1 
This wavelength value belongs to X-ray region =   2  6   (2  3) + (4  3) = 6  6 + 12 = 12 Ns
of the spectrum. 2 
Sa

6. m1 m2 14. Time period of revolution is given by,

2m
T=
1m qB
x1 = 0 x2 = 1 m Hence, time period is independent of velocity of
Centre of mass from 5 kg particle, the particle.
m x  m2 x 2 15. For first minima in diffraction pattern,
Xcm = 1 1
m1  m2 a sin  = 1 Red
5  0   10 1 10 2 For first maxima in diffraction pattern,
=   m  67 cm
5  10 15 3 3
a sin  = 
2
7. Resistance of conductor,
3
R = ρl As both coincide, Red = 
A 2
ρl 2 2
∴ A=   = Red = 6600  = 4400 Å
R 3 3

164
 

Hints to Mock Test - 1

16. In option (1), p-type is connected to the higher dI
potential with respect to the n-type of diode. 23. e=M = 1.25  80 = 100 V
dt
Hence, it is forward biased.
2π 24. S
17. =
T d
2π
minute = rad/s 5 cm
60 × 60
2π
second = rad/s thickness of slab (t) = 5 cm
60
2π  1  59π  = 1.6
minute  second = 1 = rad/s
60  60  1800 c d/T d
Now, g =  
v t/T t
   
 
18. Here, B  C = ˆi  3jˆ  5kˆ  2iˆ  ˆj  4kˆ  d = gt = 1.6  5 = 8 cm

t

= 3iˆ  2jˆ  kˆ  A 27. W = K.Ef  K.Ei

en
  K.Ef = W + K.Ei
As, A  3iˆ  2jˆ  kˆ , 1 2 30
  1
 K.Ef =  F.d s + mu = 0.1  xdx + 2  10  10
2

A = 9  4  1  14 ….(i) 2 20

= –25 + 500 = 475 J

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Similarly,
 28. At point A, u = 0
B= 1  9  25  35 ….(ii)
A u=0
 h1 t = 5s
C = 4  1  16  21 ….(iii) B
Co
h2 t = 5s
From equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we get, C
B2 = A2 + C2 h3 t = 5s
1 1 FL F2 L D
19. U=  Fl =  F =
2 2 AY 2AY 1 2 1
 h1 = gt =  10  25
20. By Newton’s law of cooling, 2 2
e

1   2    2   h1 = 125 m
 K 1  0 
t  2  Now, v = u + gt = 0 + 10(5)
80  70  = K(75  25) 
pl

v = 50 m/s
12 At point B, final velocity from A to B = initial
10 = K  600 velocity at B
1 1
 K= ….(i)  h2 = ut + gt2 = 50  5 +  10  25
m

60 2
 70  60  = K(65  25) Now, h2 = 375 m
t v = u + gt = 50 + 10(5)
1  v = 100 m/s
Sa

 K= ….(ii)
t  4  Similarly, At point C, we get,
1 1 h3 = 625 m
From (i) and (ii), 
4t 60  h1 : h2 : h3 = 125 : 375 : 625 = 1 : 3 : 5
60 h2 h
 t = i.e., h1 = = 3
4 3 5
 t = 15 minutes
8
1 1 29. Escape velocity, ve = R G
21. n=  = 25 Hz 3
T 0.04
22. As, the potential is constant inside the spherical  v e  R 
shell, vp R p p
 V1 = V2 Given: Rp = 2R and p = 2
1 ve 1
Also, V   =
r vp 2 2
 V1 = V2 > V3
165