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5. A sonometer wire of density  and radius r is held

between two sharp edges at a distance I. The wire
TOPIC : Waves, Electric Charges and Fields has a tension T. The fundamental frequency is :

SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. When a wave is reflected from a rigid surface, it 1. 1 r 2
(1) n 
undergoes a phase change given by : 2l T

(1) /2 (1) /2

1 T
(2) /4 /4 n 
(2) (2)
2l r2
(3)  (3) 

(4) 2  (4) 2 
1 T
(3) n 
2. A string is cut into three parts, having fundamental 2. 2l r 2
frequency n1 , n2 and n3 respestively. Then origional n1 , n2 n3 'n'
fundamental frequency 'n' related by the
1 r 2 T
expression as: (4) n 
1 1 2l 1  1
(1)   
1 1 1 1 n n1 n2 n3
(1)   
n n1 n2 n3 6. Standing waves are produced in 10 m long
(2) n = n1 × n2 × n3
(2) n = n1 × n2 × n3
u te stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments

tit
(3) and
n= nwave
1
+ n2 velocity
+ n3 is 20 m/s. the frequency is :
(3) n= n + n + n
1 2 3
s
n n n
1 2 3 t In (4) (1)n 2nHz n  n 1 2 3
(4) n 
3
igh 3
igh
3.
L
Two waves, y = 0.25 sin 316 t ; y =0.25 sin 310 t are 3. (2) 4y Hz
= 0.25 sin 316 t y =0.25 sin 310 t
L
w
e beats ew
travelling in same direction. The number Nof (3) 5 Hz N
produced per second will be :
(4) 10 Hz
(1) 6 (1) 6

(2) 3 7.(2) The

3 speed of sound in pure hydrogen is v. The
speed of sound in a mixture of hydrogen and
(3) 3/ (3) 3/
oxygen as 5 :1 by volume at the same temperature
(4) 3  (4) is
3:

4. Intensity level in decibles is equal to (I0 = zero level 4. (I0 =

intensity) :
6
(1) v
I 5
I (1) log
Io
(1) log
Io 5
(2) v
(2) 10 log
6I
I Io
(2) 10 log
Io
7
(3) v I0
I0 (3) 10 log 2
(3) 10 log I
I

I0 I 2
(4) log log v0
(4) (4)
I I 7
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8. A stationary wave is represented by, y = A sin (100t) 8. 13. The equation y = of a (100t)
A sin stationary wave
cos (0.01 x), along
y a
cos (0.01 x), where y and A is in millimetres, t is in A t x x
stretched string is given by y = 5 sin cos 40t
seconds and x is in meters. The velocity of the 3
wave is:
(1) where
1 m/s x and y are in centimeters and t in seconds.
(1) 1 m/s
(2) The separation between two adjacent nodes is:
102 m/s
(2) 102 m/s
(3) 104 m/s (3) (1)
1041.5
m/scm

(4) not derivable (4) (2) 3 cm

9. The sound waves of frequency more than 20 KHz 9. (3)

KHz 6 cm
are termed as:
(1) (4) 4 cm
(1) Supersonic 14. The pressure amplitude of a sound wave is tripled,
(2)
(2) Audible then the intensity of the sound is increased by a
(3) factor of:
(3) Infrasonic
(1) 9
(4) Ultrasonic (4)
(2) 3
10. Four wires of identical lengths, diameters and 10. (3) 6
materials are stretched on a sonometer box. The (4) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
3
ratio of their tensions is 1 : 4 : 9 : 16. The ratio of 15. Two sources of sound are said to be coherent if:
u te
tit(1)
their fundamental frequencies is:
They produce sounds of equal intensity
(1) 16 : 9 : 4 : 1
s
(1) 16 : 9 : 4 : 1
t In (2) They produce sounds of equal frequency
(2) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 g h (2) (3)4:3:2:1
They produce sound waves vibrating with the samegh
Li Li
(3) phase
1 : 2 : 3but
: 4may differ in frequency
(3) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 w w
(4) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
Ne (4) They produce sound waves with zero or
(4) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 Neconstant
phase difference at all instants of time
11. The ratio of velocity of sound in air at 4 atmosphere 11. 16. What causes reverberation:
pressure and that at one atmosphere pressure (1) Reflection
would be (temperature remains same):
(2): 1
(1) 1 Refraction
(1) 1 : 1 (3) Diffraction
(2) 4 : 1
(2) 4 : 1 (4) Interference
(3) 1
17. : 4 ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to
The
(3) 1 : 4
that in helium gas, at 300 K is:
(4) 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
2
12. For a resonance tube the air columns for the first 12. (1)
7
and the second resonance differ in length by 31.5
31.5 cm
cm. The wave length of the sound wave is: 1
(2) cm
(1) 31.5 7
(1) 31.5 cm

(2) 63.0 cm (2) 63.0 cm

3
(3)
5
(3) 126.0 cm (3) 126.0 cm

(4) 252.0 cm 6
(4) 252.0
(4) cm
5
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18. A wave travelling in positive x-direction with 22.
18. Doppler effect in light
A = is:
0.2m = 360 m/sec
A=0.2m, velocity =360 m/sec and =60 m , then = 60 m + x
correct expression for the wave is : (1) Symmetric

(2) Asymmetric
L F x IO LM FG x IJ OP
(1) y  0.2SinM2GH 6t  60 JK P (1)(3)y Both
 0.2Sin 2 6t 
N Q N H
(1) and (2) 60 KQ
(4) None
L F x IO LM FG x IJ OP
(2) y  0.2SinMGH 6t  JK P y  0.2Sin  6t 
N 60 Q 23. (2)In a stationary wave,
NH 60 pressure is:KQ
(1) Uniformly distributed
L F x IO LM FG x IJ OP
(3) y  0.2SinM2GH 6 t  60 JK P (3)(2)y Minimum
 0.2Sin 2 6 t 
N Q N H
at nodes KQ
60and maximum at antinodes

(3) Maximum at nodes and minimum at antinodes

L F x IO LM FG x IJ OP
(4) y  0.2SinMGH 6t  JK P (4)(4)yNone
 0.2Sin  6t 
N 60 Q NH
of the above
60 KQ
19. The velocities of sound at the same pressure in 24. Two waves of ampli tude a1 and a 2 are
19. 1 2
superimposed at phase  then the new amplitude
two mono atomic gases of densities 1 and 2) V V
is : 1 2 1 2 = 4
:
are V1 and V2 respectively if 1: 2 = 4, then the V1 V2
(1) a1 + a2
ratio of V1 and V2 is:

u te
(1)
(2)1/4
a1– a2
tit1/2
(1) 1/4
s(2)
n (3) a  a 2 2
(2) 1/2 I 1 2

(3) 2 g ht (3) 2 gh
Li (4) a  a
(4) 4
1
2
2
2
 2a1a2 cos  Li
(4) 4
ew ew
20. N of a
When temperature increases , the frequency 25.
20. The ratio of intensities of two waves is 4 :N
1. Find
tuning fork :
the ratio of maximum and minimum itensities in
(1)
(1) increases
the superimposed wave :
(2)
(2) Decreases
(1) 16:1
(3)
(3) Remains same
(2) 2:1
(4) Increases or decreases depending on the material (4)
(3) 5:3
F 2t  IJ FG 2t  IJ
21. The equation of wave is y = 10 sin GH K 21. (4) 9:1 y = 10 sin H 33 K t=0
33
t = 5.5 approach each other
26. A source and an observer
When the displacement is 5 cm at t = 0 then the
total phase at t = 5.5 second is: with same velocity 50 m/s. If the apparent frequency
 (1) radian
(1) radian 2 s–1, then the real frequency is :
is 435
2
2 (1) 2320
(2)
 s–1
radian
(2) radian 3
3
(2) 360 s–1
 
(3) radian (3) radian
3 (3) 3390 s–1

2 (4) 2  s–1
420
(4) radian (4) radian
7 7
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27. The figure shows some of the electric field lines 27. 30. The electric force between two charges each equal
corresponding to an electric field. The figure
suggests : to 3  C , when placed in vacuum is 12 N. What
will be the force between them if the charges are
embeded in a dielectric of constant 6:
(1) 36N
(2) 18 N
(1) EA > EB > EC (1) EA > EB > EC
(3) 2 N
(2) EA = EB = EC (2) EA = EB = EC
(4) 1 N
(3) EA= EC > EB (3) EA= EC > EB
31. When a body is earth connected, electrons from
(4) EA = EC < EB (4) E A =earth
the EC < flow
EB into the body. This means the body
is..........
q1 q1
28. Determine the ratio
q2 , as lines of force of two 28. (1) Uncharged q2
point charges are shown in figure : (2) Charged positively
(3) Charged negatively
(4) An insulator
32. Six equal charges Q of same nature are placed at
six corners of a regular
q 1 hexagon
q of side r, then
2

q1 q2
force on charge placed at centre is :

u te
stit(1) Zero
t In 6Q
g h (2) K 2
r gh
q1 Li (1)
q
 4 1
Li
q Q
(1)
q2
4
ew (3)2 K 2
r ew
N q1 KQ
N
q1
3 (2) (4)  32
(2) q2 4 r
q2
33. Ifq1016 electrons move out of a body to another
q1 1
 2every second then how much time is
(3) 2 (3) body
q2 q2
required to get a total charge of 1C on the other
body :
q1 q 1
(4) 1  1 sec
(4) (1) 525
q2 q2
(2) 261 sec
29. Electric field at the centre ‘o’ of a semicircle of 29. ‘o’
(3) 732 sec
radius ‘a’ having linear charge density  is given
as : (4) 625 sec
34. Find net force at charge placed at O in given figure:
(1) Zero

4Kq2 +q a +q
(2)
a2
O
2 3Kq
2 a  –q a
2 
(1)  a (2)  a (1) (3)
0a a2 (2)  a
0
0 0

2
+q a +q
   5Kq 
(3) 2 a (4)  a (3) (4)
2a0 a2 2 (4)  a
0
0 0

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35. For the given figure the direction of electric field 35. 39. In a region ofAspace the electric field is given by
at A will be : 
E  8ˆi  4 ˆj  3kˆ . The electric flux through a surface
L of area of 100 units in x – y plane is :
L
X
X
(1) 800 units
A Y
A Y
Z
Z
(2) 300 units
B C
Q –Q B C
Q –Q
(3) 400 units
(1) Towards AL (1) AL
(2) Towards AY (4) 1500 units
(2) AY
(3) Towards AX 40.
(3) Which
AX of the following quantity is scallar :

(4) Towards AZ (4) (1)

AZElectric force

SECTION-B SECTION-B
(2) Electric potential
36. Net electric field intensity at P in the following 36. P
figure is (where  , is linear charge density):  (3) Electric field

u te
P
stit(4) None of the aboveP
R R
t In R R

g h 41. With rise in temperature , the dielectric constant k h

g
Li of liquid :
Li
 2 ew  2 ew
(1)
4 R
(2)
2 0R N (1) (1) Increases
4 R
(2) N
2 0R
(2) Decreases
 2 4  2 4
(3) (4) (3) (3) Remains same (4)
4 R 2 0R 4 R 2 0R

37. If electric lines are equidistant and parallel then (4) None of these
37.
field is:
42.
(1) A metallic sphere (solid) is placed in a uniform
(1) Non uniform electric field. The lines of force follow the paths
(2)
(2) Uniform shown in the adjoining diagram is :
(3) Convergent (3)

(4) Divergent (4)

38. A Gaussian sphere encloses an electric dipole 38.

within it. The total flux across sphere is :
q/o1
(1) (1)
(1) q/o
(2) 2q/o
(2) 2q/o (2) 2
(3)
(3) zero (3) 3
(4) 4q/o
(4) 4q/o (4) 4

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43. The variation of electric field intensity E with 43. 47. r
R The electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed
distance r from centre of a uniformly charged E
surface is 1 and 2 respectively, the charge inside
dielectric sphere of radius R is correctly the enclosed surface will be:
represented by:
1 + 2) 0
(1) (E
E

(1) (2) (2 – 1) 0 (2)

(1) (2)
(3) 1 + 2 / 0
(0,0) r
(0,0) r R
R
(4) (2 – 1) / 0

48. Which E one of the following is Enot the property of

E E
electric lines of force :
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
(1) They never cut each other

(0,0) r (0,0) r
(0,0) r (0,0) r R more densed
(2) They are R region
at high intensity
R R

(1) 1(3) They are always closed

(2)curve
2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3(4) None of the above (4) 4
(3) 3 (4) 4
u te
49.titThe equipotential surface for a stationary point
44. The electric field inside a charged isolated 44.
conductor is :
Ins(1) charge is :
(1) Constant
g ht g h
L i (2) (1) Circular
L i
(2) Zero w w
(3) Depending upon shape Ne (3) (2) Spherical Ne
(4) Depending upon charge (4) (3) Cylindrical

45. (4) Rectangular

+ 9e + 25e, 5 cm.
45. Two charges of + 9e and + 25e are separated by
distance 5 cm. Then the position of null point from 50. Which of the following is correct :
smaller charge will be in cm.
(1) 15/8
(1) 15/8 dv
(1) E
(2) 25/8 dr
(2) 25/8
(3) 9/8 dv
(3) 9/8 (2)  E
dr
(4) 1/2 (4) 1/2
dE
46. The region surrounding a stationary dipole has : 46. (3) V
dr

(1) Electric field only (1)

dE
(4)  V
(2) Electric as well as magnetic field (2) dr

(3) Magnetic field only (3)

(4) None
(4)

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55. Perovskite, a mineral of titanium is found to contain
TOPIC : The Solid State, Solutions
calcium atoms at the corners, oxygen atoms at the
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
face centres and titanium atoms at the centre of
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
the cube. Oxidation number of titanium in the
mineral is :
(1) +2
SECTION-A SECTION-A
(2) +3
51. When electrons are trapped into the crystal in 51. (3) +4
anion vacancy, the defect is known as
(4) +1
(1) Schotky defect 56.
(1) If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance
between the body-centred atom and one corner
(2) Frenkel defect (2) atom in the cube will be :
(3) Stoichiometric defect (3) 2
(1) a
(4) F-centres 3
(4) F-
52. Which of the following statement is correct : 52. 4
(2) a
2+
3
(1) In fluorite lattice, Ca are located at face centred (1) Ca2+ F–
cubic lattice and F– at half of the tetrahedral voids.
3
(3) a
(2) The fraction of the total volume unoccupied by 4
atoms in a primitive unit cell is 0.52 u te
(2) 0.52
it t(4) 3 a
(3) Schottky defect mainly occurs when positive and
n s(3)
negative ions are almost of same size. t I 2

g h 57. If NaCl is doped with 10 mol % of SrCl thegh –4

(4)
Li
Total volume of atoms (radius r) present in face (4) concentration of cation vacancies will be: Li
2

12 3
r . ew (N = 6.02×10
12
A
mol ) :23 –1
e w
centred cubic unit cell is
3 N ( r) r
(1) 6.02×10
3

3 14 mol–1
N
53. Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice 53. (2) 6.02×1015 mol–1
with a unit cell lengthof 361 pm. What is the radius
(3) 6.02×1016 mol361
–1
pm
of copper atom in pm :
pm(4) 6.02×1017 mol–1
(1) 108
(1) A108
58. cubic solid is made by planing atoms A at lattice
(2) 128 point and atoms B at 2/3 tetra headral void formula
(2) of
128
solid is :
(3) 157 (3) (1)
157A4B3
(4) 181 (4) (2)
181A2B4

54. If a cubic cell atom A present at all corner, and (3) A3B4
54. A B
atom B at the centre of each face, what will be the (4) AB2
molecular formula if all the atom present on one
body diagonal are replaced by atom C : C Percentages of free space in cubic close packed
59.
structure and in body centred packed structure are
(1) ABC3 (1) respectively
ABC3 :

(2) A3B12C4 (2) (1)

A3B48%
C and 26%
12 4
(2) 30% and 26%
(3) A3B12C (3) A3B12C
(3) 26% and 32%
(4) AB12C3 (4) (4)
AB1232%
C3 and 48%

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60. The most unsymmetrical crystal system is : 60. 66. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms
present in a simple cube is
(1) Cubic (1)

(2) Hexagonal (2) 

(1)
(3) Triclinic (3) 3 2

(4) Orthorhombic (4) 

(2)
61. The correct statement is : 61. 4 2
(1) Stoichiometry of crystal alters due to schottky (1)
defect 
(3)
4
(2) F-centres are the neutral holes. (2) F-

(3) In wustite, the percentage of +3 ionic form of metal (3)  (wustite), +3

is 15.02% (4)
15.02
6
(4) All of these (4)
67. Which is amorphous solid among the following :
62. Number of unit cells in 4g of X (atomic mass=40). 62. 4 (1) XNaCl
( =40)
Which crystallises in bcc pattern is (NA=Avogadro bcc (NA= ):
number) : (2) CaO
(1) 0.1 NA
(1) 0.1 NA (3) Rubber
(2) 2×0.1 NA
(2) 2×0.1 NA
u te (4) ZnS

0.1N A stitThe
68.
(3)
0.1N
unit cell present in ABAB, closest packing of
A

(3)
2 In 2
atoms is :
t
(4) 2×N igh (4) (1)2×NHexagonal A
igh
A
L L 23
63. An element has bcc structure having unitwcells 63. bcc 12.08×10
w
Necells is : Ne
(2) Tetragonal
23
12.08×10 . The number of atoms in these
(3) Face centered cube
(1) 12.08×1023 (1) 12.08×1023

(2) 24.16×1023 (2) (4) Primitive

24.16×10 23 cube

(3) 48.38×1023 69.

(3) Which of the
48.38×10 23 following statements is correct in the
body centered type cubic structure of an ionic
(4) 12.05×1022 12.05×1022 :
(4) compound

64. If the ratio of coordination no. of A to that of B is 64. A Co-ordination

(1) B number of each cation andx:y
anion is two
x:y, then the ratio of no. of atoms of A to that no.
A (2) BCo-ordination number of each cation and anion is four
of atoms of B in unit cell is :
(1) (3)
x:y Co-ordination number(2)of each
y:x cation and anion is six
(1) x:y (2) y:x

(3) x 2:y (4) y:x2 (3) (4)

x 2:yCo-ordination number(4)
of each
y:x 2cation and anion is eight
70. If F.C.C lattice A, B, C, D atoms are arranged at
65. When anion leaves the normal lattice site and 65.
corner, facecentre, octahedral void and
electron occupies interstitial sites in its crystal tetrahebral void respectively, then one body
lattice, it is called: diagonal will contains following atoms :
(1)
(1) Schottky defect (1) 2A, C, 2D
(2) Frenkel defect (2)
(2) 2A, 2B, 2C
(3) metal excess defect (3)
(3) 2A, 2B, D
(4) Stoichiometric defect (4)
(4) 2A, 2D
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71. A 5% solution of cane sugar is isotonic with 0.877% 71. 76. Which5%
one of theX following
0.877 %solutions exhibits the
of X. The molecular weight of substance X is : maximum elevation in boiling point :
X
(1) 59.98 (1) 0.1 m NaCl
(1) 59.98
(2) 119.96 (2) 0.1 m CaCl2
(2) 119.96
(3) 0.1 m BaCl2
(3) 95.58 (3) 95.58
(4) 0.1 m FeCl3
(4) 126.98 (4) 126.98
77. What will molality of 1 liter solution of 93% H2SO4
72. Equivalent mass of crystalline oxalic acid is : 72. (weight/volume) The density of the solution 1.84 g
/ml:
(1) 90 (1) 90
(1) 10.43 M
(2) 63 (2) 63
(2) 0.1043 M
(3) 53 (3) (3)
53 104.3 M

(4) 45 (4) (4)

45 0.00143 M
78. When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous
73. The volume of 0.1 M H2SO4 required to neutralise 73. 0.2 solution
M NaOH of 40 ml 0.1 M
potassium iodide :
completely 40 mL of 0.2 M NaOH solution is :
H2SO4
(1) Freezing point is raised
(1) 10 mL

u te (1) (2)
10 mL
Freezing point is lowered
(2) 40 mL
s tit(3)
(2) 40 mL
Freezing point does not change
(3) 20 mL
t In (3) (4)
20 mL
Boiling point does not change
h
g 79.(4) Which
80 mL will form maximum boiling azeotrope : ig
h
(4) 80 mL
L i L
74. w
An aqueous solution freezes at –0.186 C (Ke= 1.86 ; 74.
0 0
(1) HNO + H O solution
–0.186 C 3 2 w
(K = 1.86 ;eK =
0 0

N f
Kb = 0.5120). What is the elevation in boiling point: (2)0) C2H5OH + H2O solution
0.512
N f b

(1) 0.186 (3) C H + C6H5 CH3 solution

(1) 0.1866 6
(4) None of these.
(2) 0.512 (2) 0.512
80. The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are
0.512 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour
0.512
(3) (3) pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 moles
1.86 1.86
of P and 2 moles of Q would be :
(4) 0.0512 (4) (1)
0.0512
140 torr

75. Relative lowering in vapour pressure of solution 75. (2) 20 torr

containing non-volatile solute is directly (3) 68 torr
proportional to mole fraction of solute. Above
(4) 72 torr
statement is :
81. Which of the following will have highest measure
(1) Henry law (1) of any coligative property :

(2) Dulong and Petit law (2) (1) 1% sucrose solution

(2) 1% glucose solution
(3) Raoult's law (3)
(3) 1% glycerol solution
(4) Le-Chatelier's principle (4)
(4) 1% urea solution

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82. How are O.P. of 6% urea 1 and 6% glucose 82. 88.

6% Highest osomotic
O.P.( pressure
) will
1
be:
6%
2 related to each other : (1) 0.1 M
2NaCl 1 2
(2) 0.1 M Urea
(1) 1  2 (1) 1  2
(3) 0.1 M CaCl2
(2) 1   2 (2) 1 0.1
 2 M AlCl
(4) 3

(3) 1  2 (3) Calculate

89. 1  2 the mole fraction of ethylene glycol
(C2H6O2) in a solution containing 20% of C2H6O2 by
mass :1
1
(4) 1  (4) 1 
2 2
(1) 0.068

83. An X molal solution of a compound in benzene 83. X (2) 6.8

has mole fraction of solute equal to 0.2. The value (3) 2.3 0.2 X
of X is nearly :
(1) (4)
14 None
(1) 14
90.
(2) Calculate
3.2 molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid
(2) 3.2 (CH3COOH) in 75 g of benzene.
(3) 1.4
(3) 1.4 (1) 5.56 mol kg–1
(4) 0.8
(4) 0.8 (2) 2.556 mol kg–1
84.
84. The example of positive deviation of :
u te (3) 0.556 mol kg–1
(1) CH3COOH
tit
(1) CH3COOH and water
(4) 7.556 mol kg–1
s (2) NaOH
(2) NaOH and water
t In 91. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 g
(3) of benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene
gh gh
(3) Ethyl alcohol & water
(4) Nitric acid and water Li (4) by 0.40 K. The freezing point depression constant
Li
of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. Find the molar mass
85. The vapour pressure of water depends upon : ew 85. of the solute. : ew
N N
(1) Amount of liquid (1) (1) 356 g mol-1

(2) Surface area of container (2) (2) 256 g mol-1

(3) Temperature (3) (3) 156 g mol-1

-1
(4) All of these (4) (4) 456 g mol
SECTION-B 92. 50 g glucose is present in 550 g solution (density
SECTION-B
of solution = 1.1 gm/ml), Calculate the % wt./vol
86. When 1.04 g of BaCl2 is present in 105 g of solution 86. 105will
g be : 1.04 g BaCl2
the concentration of solution is :
(1) 10
(1) 0.104 ppm (1) (2)
0.104
15ppm
(2) 10.4 ppm (2) (3)
10.420
ppm
(3) 0.0104 ppm (3) (4)
0.0104
25 ppm
(4) 104 ppm (4) 200
93. 104 ppm
ml M/10, H2SO4 is mixed with 300 ml M/10,
87. The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of NaOH solution. The molarity of H2SO4 in resulting
87. 750 mm Hg 373
glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373 K. the molality is: solution will be :
K
(1) 0.64 (1) 0.01 M
(1) 0.64
(2) 0.741 (2) 0.02 M
(2) 0.741
(3) 0.68 (3) 0.03 M
(3) 0.68
(4) 0.94 (4) 0.04 M
(4) 0.94
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94. The density of a face - centred cubic element is 94. 6.25
BIOLOGY : Reproduction in gOrganisms,
cm –3
Sexual Rep
6.25 g cm–3. Calculate the length of the edge of ( = 60.2 amu):
the unit cell. (At mass of the element = 60.2 amu): BOTANY
(1) 400 pm
(1) 400 pm SECTION–A
(2) 600 pm
(2) 600 pm 101. To a biologist which structure in angiosperms are
(3) 800 pm (3) 800 pm
morphological and embryological marvels and the
(4) 200 pm (4) sites
200 pm
of sexual reprodction,
95. Which of the following statement is incorrect : 95.
(1) Flowers
(1) In NaCl structure tetrahedral voids are unoccupied (1) NaCl
(2) Fruit
(2) In ZnS structure, octahedral voids are unoccupied
(2) ZnS
(3) In CaF2 structure, all tetrahedral voids are occupied (3) Seed
(3) CaF2
(4) In Na 2 O structure, all tetrahedral voids are (4) All of these
unoccupied. (4) Na2O
96. The range of radius ratio (cationic to anionic) for 96. 102. A typical angiosperm
octahedralanther is :
arrangement
an octahedral arrangement of ions in an ionic solid
(1) Hexalobed
is :
(1) 0 – 0.155 (2) Bilobed
(1) 0 – 0.155
(2) 0.155 – 0.225 (2) (3) Pentalobed
0.155 – 0.225
(3) 0.225 – 0.414 (3) 0.225 – 0.414
(4) 0.414 – 0.732
u te (4)
(4) Tetralobed
0.414 – 0.732
97. If  is the degree of dissociation of Na SO the van't
2 4 stit 97. 103. Which
Na SO of the
following
 wall layers of
n 2 4

t I developing pollen grains

Hoff's factor (i) used for calculating the molecular microsporangium provide nutrition to the
(i)
mass is :
g h :
gh
(1) 1 +  L i (1) 1 + 
Li
(1) Endothecium
w (2) 1 –  w
Ne e
(2) 1 – 
(3) 1 + 2
(2) Middle layers
(3) 1 + 2 N
(4) 1 – 2 (4) (3)
1 – Epidermis
2
98. The depression in freezing point of 0.1 M aqueous 98. HCl,(4)CuSO
Tapetum K2SO4 0.1 M
4
solutions of HCl, CuSO4 and K2SO4 are in the ratio:
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 104. Which kind of process takes place in tapetum cell
(1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 3 by which they are being binucleated
(2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 1 : 1.5 (3) (1)
1 : 1Karyokinesis
: 1.5 but not cytokinesis
(4) 2 : 4 : 3 (4) 2 : 4 : 3
(2) Karyokinesis as well as cytokinesis
99. 1.0 molal aqueous solution of the electrolyte 99. Mg3(PO4)2 1.0 25%
Mg3(PO4)2 is 25% ionized. If Kb for H2O is 0.52 K (3) Cytokinesis but notHkaryokinesis
O K - 0.52 K kg/mol
2 b
kg/mol, the boiling point of the solution is :
(1) 375.5 K (4) None of these
(1) 375.5 K
(2) 374.04 K 105.
(2) Which
374.04of
K the following is odd
(3) 377.12 K (3) 377.12 K
(1) Pollen mother cell
(4) 373.25 K (4) 373.25 K
100. The von't Hoff factor for 0.1 M Cs2SO4 solution is 100. (2)
0.1 Pollen
M Cs2SOgrain 2.74
4
2.74. The degree of dissociation of salt will be :
(3) Vegetative cell
(1) 34.8% (2) 87.0% (1) 34.8% (2) 87.0%
(3) 91.3% (4) 98.4% (3) (4) Generative cell
91.3% (4) 98.4%

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106. For formation of male gametophyte and female 106.112. It is possible to store pollen grains of a large
gametophyte which kind of process is similar in number of species for many years. Which type of
angiosperm
(1) chemical is used at which temperature
(1) Number of meiotic division
(2) (1) Liquid nitrogen, – 1960C
(2) Number of mitotic division
(3) (2) Gaseous nitrogen, – 1960C
(3) Number of meiotic division and mitotic division
(4) (3) Liquid nitrogen, 77 Kalvin
(4) None of these
107.
107. The generative cell and vegetative cell are occurs (4) More than one options are correct
in which structure :
113. In Bisexual flower which structures are present
(1) Ovule (1)
(1) Both Androecium and Gynoecium
(2) Pollen grain (2)

(3) Male gametophyte (3) (2) Both stamens and carpels

(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) (3)
2 Both
3 stamens and pistils
108. What is the function of germpore in pollen grain 108. (4) All of these
(1) Release of male gametes (1) Which structures is represents the junction
114.
(2) Initiation of pollen tube (2) between ovule and funicle in gynoecium :
(3) Formation of male gametes
u te (3) (1) Locule
(4) None of these tit(2) Placenta
(4)
s
109. In angiosperm for the formation of two male t109. In
gametes which type of cell division takes placeg h (3) Thalamus
gh
sequentially in microspore mother cell Li Li
e w (4) Hilum
ew
N
(1) One meiosis and two mitosis respectively (1) 115. The given diagram is related with N
(2) Two mitosis and one meiosis respectively (2)
(3) One meiosis and one mitosis respectively (3)
(4) One mitosis and one meiosis respectively (4)
110. In flowering plants male gamete are formed by 110.
which type of division and from which cell

(1) Mitosis, generative cell (1)

(2) Meiosis, generative cell
(2)
(3) Mitosis, vegetative cell
(3)
(4) Meiosis, vegetative cell
(4)
111. In western countries for which purpose a large
111.
number of pollen products in the form of tablets
and syrups are available in the market :
(1) A Angiosperm Michelia
(1)
(1) In vitro fertilizations
(2) (2) A Gymnosperm Michelia
(2) Breeding programmes
(3) (3) A Pteridophyte Michelia
(3) Supplementing food
(4) (4) A Angiosperm Papaver
(4) None of these

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116. For the formation of female gametophyte only one 116.122. Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering
of the megaspores is functional while the other
three degenerate. Such type of development is plants and is limited to about :
occur in which plants and are called as
respectively (1) 30 Species, mostly monocotyledons
(1) Majority of flowering plants, monosporic (1) (2) 30 Family, mostly monocotyledons
development
(2)
(2) Few flowering plants, monosporic development (3) 30 Genera, mostly monocotyledons
(3) All flowering plant, monosporic development (3)
(4) 30 Genera, mostly dicotyledons
(4) None of these (4)
117. Pollination can be divided into three types. This 117.123. Which of the following are the important floral
classification is based upon
(1) rewards to the animal pollinators
(1) Size of pollen grain
(2) (1) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
(2) Source of pollen grain
(3) Size of stamen and anther (3)
(2) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
(4) All of these (4)
(3) Colour and large size of flower
118. Two types of flowers cleistogamous and 118.
chasmogamous are present in which plants : (4) Nectar and pollen grains
(1) Common pansy (1) Many insects may consume pollen or the nectar
124.
(2) Oxalis
u te
(2) without bringing about pollination. Such floral
(3) Both 1 and 2
stit 1 2 are referred to as:
(3) visitors
(4) None of these t In
g h (4) (1) Pollen robbers gh
119. Which of the following statement is correct:
Li 119. Li
w
(1) In chasmogamous flowers always autogamy occur
e (1)
(2) Nectar robbers
ew
N
(2) In chasmogamous flowers always geitonogamy (3) Flower robbers
N
(2)
occurs
(3) In chasmogamous flowers autogamy is never occur (3) (4) Both 1 and 2

(4) None of these (4) In angiosperms in artificial hybridisation which

125.
120. In which type of flower no requirements of 120. two process are used :
pollinating agents for pollination :
(1) Removal of anther, bagging
(1) Cleistogamous (1)
(2) Chasmogamous (2) (2) Emasculation, bagging
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) (3)
1 Bagging,
2 Rebagging
(4) None of these (4)
(4) More than one option are correct
121. A type of pollination which are functionally cross 121.
pollination but genetically similar to autogamy 126. Sequence of developing embryo are
such type of pollination are : (1) pro-embryo, heart-shaped, linear and mature
embryo
(1) Autogamy (1)
(2) pro-embryo, heart-shaped, globular and mature
(2) Geitonogamy (2) embryo

(3) Xenogamy (3) (3) pro-embryo, globular, heart-shaped and mature

embryo
(4) All of these (4) (4) none of these

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127. Which is the correct matching according to many 127.132. Which of the following fruits contain large number
structures are change to other structure after of seeds
fertilisation in angiosperms : (1) Orchid
(a) i)
(a) Zygote i) seed (2) Orobanche
(b) ii)
(b) central cell ii) fruit (3) Striga
(c) iii)
(c) ovule iii) embryo (4) all of these
(d) iv)
(d) ovary iv) endosperm 133. Apomixis is
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (1) a form of sexual reproduction that mimics asexual
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
reproduction
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) (2)
a(iii),
a b(iv),
form c(i), d(ii)
of asexual reproduction that mimics
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
parthenocarpy
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
128. (3) a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual
128. Double fertilisation refers to reproduction
(1)
(1) syngamy in flowerings plants (4) a form of sexual reproduction that mimics
(2) parthenocarpy
(2) triple fusion in flowerings plants
(3) Polyembryony
134. 1 2 is seen in which of the following
(3) Both 1 and 2
plants
(4)
(4) fertilisation in animals
(1) orange
129.
129. Perisperm is
u te (2) citrus
(1) outer covering of sperm
stit (1)
(3) mango
(2) newly generated endosperm
t In (2)
(4) all of these
(3) mature endosperm igh (3)
135. During polyembryony which cells divide and igh
L L
(4) remnant of nucellus in mature seed
ew (4) protrude into embryosac and develop into embryo:
ew
130. In which of the following plants endosperm is notN 130.
(1) nucellus cells
N
totally consumed before seed maturation
(1) pea (2) style cells
(1)
(2) groundnut (3) stigma cells
(2)
(3) beans
(3) (4) pollen tube cells
(4) castor SECTION–B
(4)
131. Parthenocarpic fruits are 136. The microscopic motile asexual reproductive
131. structures is :
(a) developed without fertilisation
(a) (1) Zoospores
(b) have large seeds (b) (2) Gemmules
(3) Conidia
(c) artificially induced by growth hormones (c)
(4) Buds
(d) apple is an example (d)
137. No individual is immortal except :
(1) all are true (1)
(1) Paramoecium
(2) a,b,c are true (2) a,b,c
(2) Pinus
(3) a,c,d are true (3) a,c,d
(3) Chara
(4) a c
(4) a and c are true (4) Tapeworm

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138. Which one of the following is not vegetative 138.144. The basal part of ovule represented by :
propagules :
(1) (1) Micropyle
(1) Rhizome
(2) Sucker (2) (2) Nucellus

(3) Offset (3) (3) Chalaza

(4) Gemmules (4) (4) Hilum
139. Which one of the following organism containes 139.145. Total types of cells are presents in embryo sac :
minimum number of chromosomes :
(1) 3
(1) Housefly (1) (2) 4

(2) Butterfly (2) (3) 2

(3) Fruitfly (3) (4) 5

(4) Maize (4) Which part of stamen is attached to thalamus or

146.
140. petal :
140. Which one of the following is incorrect match :
(1) (1) Pollen grains – 140
(1) Parrot – 140 years
(2) (2) Proximal end of anther
– 60
(2) Crocodile – 60 years
(3) (3) Distal end of stamen
– filament
150
(3) Crow – 150 years
u te (4) (4) Proximal end of stamen
– 100filament
– 150
(4) Tortoise – 100 – 150 years
titWhich one of the following statement is correct :
n
141. s
147. PMC
141. If 20 chromosomes present in PMC of a plant then
t I (1) The number of stamens is variable in flowers of
what will be the number of chromosome in h h
generative cell and synergid cell respectively L ig different species ig
: L
(1) 10, 20 ew (2) The
(1) 10, 20 length of stamen is constant in w
flowers
e of
N different species N
(2) 20, 10 (2) 20, 10
(3) In angiosperm anther is always Bilobed
(3) 10, 10 (3) 10, 10
(4) Anther and funicle are the two parts of a stamen
(4) 15, 20 (4) 15, 20
148. Which one of the following statement is incorrect:
142. The most resistant organic material known is : 142.
(1) Tapetum is the innermost layer of microsporangium

(1) Scutellum (2) Tapetum helps in dehiscence and release of pollen

(1)
(2) Sporopollenin (3) Cells of tapetum posses dense cytoplasm
(2)
(4) Cells of tapetum generally have more than one
(3) Germpore
(3) nucleus
(4) Tapetum (4) In 60% angiosperms pollen is shed at which cell
149.
143. In some members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and 143. stage :
Solanaceae, pollen grain maintain viability for :
(1) One
(1) Many years (1)
(2) Two
(2) Months (2)

(3) Few days (3) (3) Four

(4) Few hours (4) (4) Numerous

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150. Egg apparatus contains : 150.153. The members of phylum Coelenterate are :

(1) 2 central cell and 1 egg cell (1) (1)

2 Mostly marine
1

(2) 2 synergids and 1 egg cell (2) (2)

2 Mostly fresh water
1
(3) 1 synergids and 3 antipodals (3) (3)
1 Sessile or free3 swimming
(4) 1 egg cell and 3 antipodals (4) Both 1 and 3
(4) 1 3
154. Digestion is both extracellular and Intracellular
ZOOLOGY ZOOLOGY
are occurs in which phylum :
SECTION–A SECTION–A
(1) Ctenophora
151. How many statement are correct for given 151.
diagram: (2) Coelenterata

(3) Porifera

(4) Both 1 and 2

155. First and second largest phylum of kingdom

animalia are respectively :
(1) Mollusca, Arthropoda
(2) Arthropoda, Annelida
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca
u te a. (4) Arthropoda, Hemichordata
a. It is marine
stit
b.
b. Triplobalstic In156. The circulatory system in arthropoda and annelida
c. It is fresh water
g ht c. are respectively : g h
d. It is unisexual Li d. (1) closed, open L i
w w
Ne Ne
e. Ostia present (2) open, closed
e.
(1) 2 (1) (3)
2 open, open
(2) 3 (2) (4)
3 closed, closed
(3) 4 (3) What
157. 4 happens in metagenesis :
(4) 1 (4) a.
1 Polyp produce medusae sexually

152. How many matching are correct : 152. b. Medusae produced polyp sexually

a. Sycon - Scypha a. c. Polyps produce medusae asexually

d. Medusae produced polyp asexually
b. Spongilla - Marine b.
(1) a, d
c. Euspongia - Bath sponge c.
(2) b, c
d. Spongilla - Fresh water d. (3) a, b

e. Spongilla - Bilateral symmetry e. (4) c, d

(1) 3 158.
(1) Feather
3 like gills in mollusca for which function :
(1) Excretion
(2) 2 (2) 2
(2) Respiration
(3) 4 (3) 4
(3) Sensory organ
(4) 1 (4) (4)
1 Both 1 and 2

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159. Which one of the following matching are not 159.162. Which is not a correct match
correct :
(1) (1) Ascaris round worm
(1) Pila – Apple snail
(2) Pila – Neophron (2) (2) Taenia flatworm

(3) Sepia – Cuttle fish (3) (3) Wuchereria filaria worm

(4) Aplysia – Sea Hare (4) (4) Ancylostome Earthworm

160. The given below diagram is 160.163. The given below diagram of animal belongs to

(1) Tape worm (1)

(2) Round worm
u te (2)

(3)it
(3) Sea anemone (1) Annelida
st
(4) Liver fluke
t In (4) (2) Arthropoda
161. Which is the correct for the given below diagramg h 161. gh
Li i
(3) Echinodermata
of animal L
e w (4) Mollusca ew
N N
164. Which of the following is molluscan

(a) Pila (b) Pinctada

(c) Octopus (d) Aplysia

(e) locusta (f) Dentalium

(1) all of these

(2) a,c,d,e,f

(3) a,b,c,d,e

(4) a,b,c,d,f

165. Subphylum vertebrata is further divided into two

divisions.These division are :

(1) (1) Agnatha, Gnathostomata

(1) Diploblastic
(2) (2) Agnatha, Tetrapoda
(2) Acoelomate

(3) Pseudocoelomate (3) (3) Cyclostomata, Tetrapoda

(4) Coelomate (4) (4) Agnatha, Pisces

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166. Which one of the following animals are members 166.171. The similar feature are found in all Birds and
of urochordata : Mammals:
(1)
(1) Ascidia (1) Homoiothermous
(2)
(2) Muscular diaphragms
(2) Salpa (3)
(3) Oviparous
(3) Doliolum
(4)
(4) Toothless jaws
(4) All of these
167.172. In class Reptilia heart is :
167. Blood sucking leech is known as
(1) (1) Two chambered and four chambered
(1) Pheretima
(2) (2) Three chambered and four chambered
(2) Ascaris (3) Only three chambered
(3)
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Two chambered and three chambered
(4)
(4) Nereis 173. Which one of the following feature are of Birds :
168.
168. How many matching are correct : a. Forelimbs are modified into wings
a. b. All birds are fly –
a. Electric organs – Torpedo
b. c. Scales are present–upon forelimbs
b. Poison sting – Trygon
c. d. Air sacs help in reproduction
– directly.
c. Trygon – Sting ray
u te
d. (1) a, c –
d. Claspers – Saw fish
tit(2) a, c, d
s
n e. (3) a, d –
e. Hagfish – Petromyzon I
(1) 3 g ht (1) 3 gh
Li (4) only a
(2) 4
Li
(2) 4
ew 174. How many statements are not correct about
ew
(3) 2 N (3) Amphibia:
2 N
a. Body is divisible into Head, Neck, Trunk
(4) 5 (4) 5
b. All member containes tail
169. In Cyclostomata cranium and vertebral column 169.
c. Tympanum represents eye
are made up of respectively :
d. In skin scales are occurs.
(1) Bone, cartilage (1)
(1) 4
(2) Cartilage, cartilage (2) (2) 3

(3) Cartilage, Bone (3) (3) 2

(4) 1
(4) Cartilage, Chitin (4)
175. Which one of the following statements are correct
170. Which one of the following group of animals are 170.
with reference to given below animals :
mostly terrestrial and their body is covered by dry
Bufo, Toad, Hyla, Neophron, Naja, Crocodilus,
and cornified skin, epidermal scales or scutes :
Pavo, Pteropus, Felis, Panthera
(1) Cyclostomata (1)
(1) All are belongs from same class
(2) Mammals (2)
(2) All are belongs from same super class
(3) Amphibia (3) (3) All are cartilaginous cranium containing animals

(4) Reptilia (4) (4) All of these

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176. Identify, whether the given conditions are anabolic 176.181. Uridine is a :
or catabolic : (1) Nucleotide
I. 
I. Glucose  Lactic acid (2) Nucleoside
II. 
II. Amino acids Proteins (3) Pyrimidine
(1) I- ; II-
(1) I-catabolic; II-catabolic (4) Purine
(2) I-anabolic; II-catabolic (2) I- ; II-
182. The number of glycerol molecule which is present
(3) I-catabolic; II-anabolic (3) in
I- mono,
; II-Di and Triglycerides respectively :

(4) I-anabolic; II-anabolic (4) (1)

I- 1, 2,; II-
3

177. Classification of amino acids are done on the basis (2) 0, 1, 2

177.
of: (3) 1, 1, 1
(1)
(1) Position of hydroxyl group (4) 2, 3, 4
(2)
(2) Position of carboxyl group 183. What is the similarity among primary, secondary,
(3) tertiary, structure of protein :
(3) Position of hydrogen
(4) Nature of R group (4) (a)
R Type of Amino acid

178. (b) Number of Amino acid

178. Which one is correct representation of enzymatic
action (c) Type of bonds
(1) E  S  ES  E  P  EP
(1) E  S  ES  E  P  EP
u te (d) Stability
(2) E  S  ES  E  P  E  P
(2) E  S  ES  E  P  E  P
stit (1) a, b, c, d
(3) E + S
(3) E + S ES E P E+P t In (2) a, d
ES E P E+P

gh gh
(4) E + S
(3) b, c, d ES EP E+P
(4) E + S ES EP E+P i
L 179. (4) a, b Li
179. Match the following columns :
ew ew
Column – I Column – II N 184. Which–one
I of the following –isIIcorrect match : N
a. a. Fibrinogen i. Monocytes
i. 10-15
a. Water i. 10-15
b. b. Phagocytic cells ii. Blood clotting
ii. 70-90
b. Proteins ii. 70-90
c. Basophils iii. Osmotic balance
c. iii. 5-7
c. Carbohydrates iii. 5-7
d. Albumins iv. Inflammatory
d. Lipids iv. 3 d. iv. 3
reactions

e. Nucleic acid v. 2 e. (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii v. 2

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-v (1) (2)

a-i, a-i,
b-iii,b-ii,
c-ii,c-iii,
d-iv,d-iv
e-v

(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-v, e-iii (2) (3)

a-ii,a-i,
b-i,b-iv,
c-iv,c-ii,
d-v,d-iii
e-iii

(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v (3) (4)

a-i, a-ii,
b-ii, b-iii,
c-iii, c-i,
d-iv,d-iv
e-v
185.
(4) Aa-v,
special system
b-iii, c-ii, of blood vessels is present in our
d-i, e-iv
(4) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-i, e-iv
body exclusively for the circulation of blood to
180. Role of enzyme in a reaction is to : 180. and from the cardiac musculature :

(1) Decrease activation energy (1) (1) Carotid system

(2) Increase activation energy (2) (2) Systemic circulation

(3) Increase transition energy (3) (3) Coronary system

(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) (4)

1 Pulmonary
3 circulation

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SECTION–B SECTION–B
191. The graveyards of erythrocytes is :
186. What is the correct sequence of calorific value of 186. (1) Lymph nodes
different nutrient in ascending order :
(2) Spleen
(1) Carbohydrates < Protein < Fats (1) < <
(3) Peyer's patches
(2) Protein < Carbohydrates < Fats (2) < <
(4) Tonsils
(3) Fats < Proteins < Carbohydrates (3) < <
192. For coagulation of blood many factor are involved.
(4) Carbohydrates < Fats < Proteins (4) Some are <inactive
< but for coagulation they will
be active by reaction with the help of chemical.
187. In human alimentary canal no significant digestive 187. Some reaction are given below-
activity occurs in the : X
Fibrinogens  Fibrins
(1) Mouth (1)

(2) Stomach (2) Y

Prothrombrin  Thrombin
(3) Small intestine (3)
In these reaction identify X and Y respectively :
(4) Large intestine (4)
(1) Prothrombin, Thrombokinase
188. Which hormones are responsible for secretion of 188.
bile juice from gall bladder : (2) Thrombin, Hexokinase
(1) CCK
u te (1) (3)
CCKThrombokinase, Thrombin
(2) GIP stit GIP
(2)
In (4) Thrombin, Thrombokinase
(3) Secretin
g ht 193.
(3)
Which one of the following is incorrect match : g h
(4) Gastrin L i (4) Li
w
189. During the Absorptions of fats a very smalleprotein 189.
(1) Ammonotelic – Aquatic insect w

coated fat globule are formed, which are

N (2) Ureotelic
Ne – Frog
transported into the lymph vessels (Lacteals) in
(3) Uricotelic – Cockroach
the villi. This protein coated fat globule is :
(4) Ureotelic – Birds
(1) Chilomicrons (1) Chilomicrons
(2) Chylomacrons 194. Which one of the following part are not situated
(2) Chylomacrons
in the cortical region of the kidney :
(3) Chilomacrons (3) Chilomacrons
(1) PCT
(4) Chylomicrons (4) Chylomicrons
(2) DCT
190. Which one of the following statements are correct: 190.
(3) Henley loop
(1)
(1) Bile contains no enzyme but help in digestion (4) Malpighian corpuscle

(2) Bile contains few enzyme but help in digestion (2) Which excretory structures are found in
195.
cephalochordate :
(3) Bile contains many enzymes but help in digestion (3) (1) Urecose gland
(2) Kidney
(4) Bile contains no enzyme and also not help in (3) Protonephridia
(4)
digestion (4) Antennal gland

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196. Mark the correct statement in context to O2 binding 200. In the given below diagram of brain which part
196. O2
are the unique character of human
to Hb.
(1)
(1) Lower temperature
(2) pCO2
B
(2) Lower pCO2 A
(3) pO2
(3) Higher pO2
(4)
(4) All of these
197. C
197. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre is D
present at : (1)
(1) Pons region of brain (2)
(1) A
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) (2) B
(3) Spinal cord
(4) (3) C
(4) Right cerebral hemisphere
198. (4)- ID - II
198. Match the column - I with column - II and select
the correct option from the codes given below :

Column - I Column - II te-I - II

(A)itu (i)
(A) Fish (i) Larynx
s t
(B) Biologically usefull (ii) Alveolar air Po2 t In (B) (ii) Po2

energy igh (C) 104 mm Hg (iii) igh

L L
(C) 104 mm Hg w
(iii) Branchial respiration
e (D) (iv) ATP
ew
(D) Vocal cords (iv ATP
N (1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
N
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) (2) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(2) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) (3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) 199.
199. Which is a incorrect statement
(a)
(a) Trachea is a straight tube extending upto the
mid abdominal cavity
(b) Pleural fluid is present between two lungs (b)

(c) Thoracic chamber is dorsally formed by (c)

cervical vertebrae
(d)
(d) We can not directly alter the pulmonary
volume (1) a b
(1) a and b only
(2) b c
(2) b and c only
(3) c
(3) only c
(4) a, b and c (4) a, b c

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u te
stit
t In
igh igh
L L
ew ew
N N

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Test Booklet Code PHYS
SECTION-A

A 1. (3)

According to stoke's law phase changes by 180o

(NCERT-374)

2. (1) (NCERT-376)

1 T 1 T
n l
2l  2n 
ALL INDIA SCORE BOOSTER REVISION TEST SERIES-UG 2020-21
l = l1+ l2 + l3

1 T 1 T 1 T 1 T
  
2n  2n1  2n 2  2n3 

1 1 1 1
 = + +
n n1 n2 n3
Test ID : 958
Paper ID : Test-8

li ity-cume - 3. (3) (NCERT-379)

b NEW tut
iL
Number of beats = n1 – n2

st I =
316

310
In
GH

2 2
t ht
gh
T

i g
Li
INSTITUTE
ra
6 3
L = 
ew 2 
ew
l

N 4. (2)
N
(NCERT-367)

In decibles

es t I
L = 10 log
Na Io

5. (2) (NCERT- 376)

Frequency of sinusoidal wave,

6. (3) (NCERT- 377)

TEST DATE : 06-Aug-2021

Given : v = 20 meter/sec,

5l
and length of five segments =
2

5l
SOLUTION \ 10 =
2

Þ l = 4 meter

v 20
\ Frequency, n = = = 5 Hz
l 4

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7. (4) (NCERT- 371) 7. 13.
(4) (2) (NCERT-
(NCERT-375)
371)
For stationary wave
Density of H2, 0=16 rH = 1 H2 , 0=16 rH = 1
2x 2vt
y = – 2A sin cos
5 x 1 + 1 x 16 21  5 x 1+  1 x 16 21
Density of mixture, rm = = , rm = =
5 +1 6 5 +1 6
2 
Here  . Hence  = 6 cm. Distance between
vm  3 v
6 2 m 6 2
\ vH = 21
=
7
\ vH =  216
=
7
adjacent nodes = = = 3 cm
2 2
8. (3) (NCERT- 375) 8. (3) (NCERT- 375)
14. (1) (NCERT-)
Given equation of wave,y = A sin (100t) cos (0.01x) P02 y = A sin (100t) cos (0.01x)
I
2v
Comparing the given equation with
2
æ 2pt ö æ 2px ÷ö I1  (P0 )1  æ 2pt ÷ö
çç
æ 2px ÷ö
çç
y = 2a sin çççè T ÷÷÷ø cos çç y = 2a sin
 çè T ÷÷ø cos çè l ÷÷ø
çè l ÷÷ø I2  (P0 )2 

2pt 2pt 2 2px

we get = 100t and
2px
= 0.01 I2  (P0 )  = 100t = 0.01
T l  T l
I1  (3P0 ) 

 I = (3)
te
æ 2p / T ö÷ 100 æ 22p=/ 9.
T ö÷ 100
v= = çç ÷= = 104 m/sec \ v = 2 = çççè 2p / l ø÷÷ = .01 = 104
\
k èç 2p / l ø÷ .01
itu 15. (4) k (NCERT-373)
t
9. (4) (NCERT-371) 9. Ins (4) Constant phase difference is the essential condition
(NCERT-371)
ht for coherrence of source as .
h t
g g
Li Li
The sound waves of frequency more than 20 KHz 20 KHz
16. (1) (NCERT-365)
are termed as ultrasonic.
ew Reflection of sound through rigid surfacewcauses
10. (3) N Reverberation.
(NCERT-377) 10. (3) Ne (NCERT-377)
17. (3) (NCERT-372)
Frequency f  T f T
RT
v
where T = Tension of the string. T= M

hence f1 : f2 : f3 : f4 = 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 vfN1 2: f2 : f3 N: 2f4 = M

1:2:3:4
   He
vHe  He MN2
11. (1) (NCERT-372) 11. (1) (NCERT-372)

Velocity of sound does not change with change in Now,  N2 7/5 and  He = 5/3
P
pressure
d
= constant P vN2  7/5 4
 
3
=
d vHe 5 / 3 28 5
where P = pressure, d = density 18. (3) (NCERT-368)
P= , d=
equation of wave in positive x-direction is given by
 v1 : v2 = 1 : 1
 v1 : v2 = 1 : 1
12. (2) (NCERT-378)  t x
12. (2) y  A sin 2    (NCERT-378)
T 
v= 2nl v= 2nl  1 v 360
v     6
v/n = 2l T
v/n = 2l T  60
  x 
 = 2 l = 63  =2
y  0.2 sin 2  6t 
l = 63 
60  
 
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19. (2) (NCERT-372) 19.
26. (2)
(1) (NCERT-372)
(NCERT-381)

p p 330  50  
v v = n  330  50 
435
 
v1 1 1 1 v1  1280 1 1
    x
n = 435  
v2 2 4 2 v2  2380 = 4320.52 Hz
27. (3) [NCERT-47]
20. (2) (NCERT) 20. (2) (NCERT-)
As temperature increases ,(L)increases so At A and C fields are uniform hence are equal and
frequency decreases. greater than B.(L)

21. (1) (NCERT-367) 28. (1)

21. (2) [NCERT-48]
(NCERT-367)

Y = 5 cm at t = 0 AsY we
= 5know
cm atthat
t =magnitude
0 of charge  No. of field
line entering or leaving it
5 = 10 sin  5 = 10 sin 

1  q1 118  q1
sin =    = 30º So sin =     = 30º q  3
2 6 q2 2 6 6 2

total phase at t = 5.5 second t = 5.5

29. (3) [NCERT-38]
2  5.5     2  5as   - 
.5 given
 Total       90º te formula
Reffer  below
   90º
33 6 3 6 2 u Total
33 6 3 6 2

22. (1)
tit
(NCERT-381) 22.s (1) E 
 
In 2  r
sin
2
(NCERT-381)
Doppler effect in light is symmetric i.e. doppler effectht t
0

g g h
in light does not depend on the fact that which i is 30. (3) [NCERT-12]i
moving (source is moving or observer) itLonly L
w w
Ne Ne
depends on relative motion of source & observer. F 12
F  medium F   2N
air
, medium
23. (3) (NCERT-376) K 6
23. (3) (NCERT-376)
At nodes displacment of particles is always zero. 31. (2) [NCERT-6]

So they are permanently at rest, but strain

FG dy IJ When a body is earth connected, electrons from
H dx K FGthe
dy Iearth flow into the body. This means the body
at nodes is maximum. So pressure is maximum at JK
HisdxCharged
node (energy is also maximum at nodes) while at positively
antinodes, the displacement is maximum and strain
32. (1)
FG dy IJ is zero. So pressure and hence energy is FG dy[NCERT-32]
IJ
H dx K H dx
For any symmetric shape to uniform K charge
minimum at antinodes. distribution, net force on charge placed at centre

24. (4) will be zero. (NCERT-)

24. (4) (NCERT-)
33. (4) 2 2
[NCERT-1]
2 2
a1  a 2  2a1a2 cos   a=210162×1.6×10
qa=1 ne  = 1.6×10–3 C
a1a2 cos–19

25. (4) (NCERT-) 25. (4) so 1.6×10–3 c charge move out in = 1 sec
(NCERT-)

a1 I1 a1 1 c I1charge move out in = 1

 2 so  2 1.6  103
sec
a2 l2 a2 l2

2 2 = 625
2
sec
Imax  a1  a2   2  1
2
9 Imax  a1  a2   2  1 9
     
Imin  a1  a2   2  1 1 Imin  a1  a2   2  1 1

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34. (1) [NCERT-10] (1) (2)
34. 44. [NCERT-10]
[NCERT 33]

+q +q +q The electric field +q

inside a charged isolated
conductor is Zero

O F 45. (1) O F
F –q Fat = 0 F –q Fat = 0[NCERT 18]
F F F F
+q +q +q +q

35. (2) Let null point is at a distance x from 9e charge

[NCERT -10]
35. (2) [NCERT -10]
Net electric field will be towards AY. Net AY
9e 25e
SECTION-B So x 2  SECTION-B
2
5x
b g
36. (2) [NCERT- 38] 36. (2) [NCERT- 38]

  x 3  
Enet = E1 + E2 =  1 + E2 =
Enet = E
2 0R 2 0R 5  x 25 0R 2 0R

37. (2) [NCERT-23] 37. (2) [NCERT-23]

If electric lines are equidistant and parallel then field

Simplifying
is uniform
38. (3) [NCERT-34] 38. (3) [NCERT-34]
15
e 5x+3x = 15 x cm
t 8
-q +q
titu -q +q

Ins46. (1) [NCERT 18]

g ht Electric field only g ht

Dipole has two equal and opposite charge.
Li Li
q

q ew 47. (4)
q q ew
[NCERT 25]
so flux = =0 N =  N
o o o = 0
 o surface
For an enclosed
39. (2) [NCERT-33] 39. (2) [NCERT-33]
 qin  
  E .A
 qin  2 1
  ENet
.A flux =  o 0

 (8ˆi  4 ˆj  3kˆ) (100kˆ)  (8ˆi  4 ˆj  3kˆ) (100kˆ)

48. (3) [NCERT- 23]
 = 300 units.  = 300
Electric lines of force, they never cut each other, they
40. (2) [NCERT-53] 40. (2) [NCERT-53]
are more densed at high intensity region, they are
Electric potential is scalar .
41. (2) [NCERT-71] always closed curve.
41. (2) [NCERT-71]
Dielectric constant k of liquid depends on temperature 49. (2) [NCERT-60]
when temperature rise then k decreases. k
For point charge equipotential surface is spherical
42. (4) [NCERT-23] 42. (4) [NCERT-23]
50. (2) [NCERT-]
 electric field lines are perpendicular to the surface. 
43. (4) [NCERT-39] 43. (4) dv [NCERT-39]
 E
Inside a dielectric sphere electric field E  r and dr Er
1 1
outside sphere E  . E .
r2 r2
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C H E M I S 59.
T R(3)Y [NCERT 12]
Percentages of free space in cubic close packed
SECTION-A SECTION-A
structure and in body centred packed structure are
51. (4) 51. (4)
respectively 26% and 32%.
When electrons are trapped into the crystal in anion 60. (3) [NCERT 8]
vacancy, the defect is known as F-centres. F-
52. (3) abc
52. (3)
53. (2) [NCERT-19]
53. (2)       900 [NCERT-19]
a 61. (3) [NCERT 23]
Using ratom  
a
ratomWustite is Fe0.93O which has approx 15% of iron in
2 2
2 2 Schottky defect is a stoichiometric defect.
+3 form.
361 F-centres are negatively charged holes.
= 361
2.8 =
62. (3) 2.8 [Mod. CBSE]
54. (3) [NCERT 11]
54. (3) 40 g = N atoms [NCERT 11]
A
1
ZA = 6  1  4 g = 0.11× NA atoms
8 ZA = 6  1 
2 atoms 8 form 1 unit cell in bcc crystal
1
ZB = 6  1  1
6  1 atoms = 0.1NA unit cells
2 ZB =
0.1×N A 2
2
1
ZC = 2  1  63. (2) 1 [Mod. CBSE]
8 ZC = 2  1 
In bcc Z =8 2
Z A : Z B : ZC
3 : 12 : 1
u te Z A : Z B : ZC
No. of atom = 12.08 × 1023 × 2

tit
3 : 12 : 1
55. (3) [NCERT 12] 64 (2) [NCERT-XII-12]
55. (3) [NCERT 12]
s
1
t In No. of atom of B = Co-ordinate of A = x
Ca atoms per unit cell = 8 
ht
1 1
= 8   1of B = y
gh
8 CaNo. of atom of a = Co-ordinate
i 8 g
O atoms per unit cell = 6 
1
3
L So, ratio of atom will be 1
y Li
w 6  x 3 w
Ne e
2 O =
2
Ti atoms per unit cell = 1 65. (3) N
[NCERT-XII-24,25]
Ti =1
Hence, the formula of the mineral is CaTiO3 This is non stoichionetric defect.
Suppose ox. no. of Ti = x CaTiO3
66. (4) [CBSE 2007]
Then +2 +x +3 (–2) = 0 or x = +4 +2 +x +3 (–2) = 0 or x = +4
Number of atoms per unit cell = 1
56. (4) [NCERT 18] 56. (4) [NCERT 18]
Atoms touch each other along edges.
Body diagonal length = a 3
So, distance between body centre atom and any a 3 a
= Hence r =
a 3 2 2
corner atom =
2 57. (4) [NCERT 31]
(r = radius of atom and a = edge lenght)
57. (4) [NCERT 31] 100 mol NaCl –4
10 mole SrCl2
–4
100 mol NaCl dopped with 10 mole SrCl2 4 3 4
 r 10  6
1 mole NaCl % fraction = 3 =100.52mole
104 therefore =
1006
1 mole NaCl dopped with  10 6 mole SrCl2 (2r )3
100 SrCl2
10–6 mole cation vacancies in 1 mole NaCl 67. (3) [NCERT-XII-
NaCl 2, 3]
So, number of cation vacancies per mole of NaCl –6
10 Rubber
×6.022×10 23
is the only solid which is amorphous.
is 10–6×6.022×1023 = 6.022×1017 mol–1
= 6.022×1017 mol–1 68. (1) [NCERT-XII-15]
58. (3) [NCERT 19]
58. (3) [NCERT 19] ABAB..... packing occurs in hCP.
2
2 69. (4)A  2  3 B [NCERT-XII-15]
A  2 B
3 = AThis
B4/3 is similar to CsCl structure.
= A B4/3 = A3B4
= A3B4
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70. (1) [NCERT-XII-16] 70. 78.
(1) (1) [NCERT-XII-16]
[NCERT 57]
One body diagonal will contain two corner, two T.V. Kl reacts with Hgl2 to form a complex as
71. (1) [NCERT 48]
and one O.V. 2 KI + HgI2  K2[HgI4]  Ionizes

71. (1) [NCERT 48] 5 0.877 0.877 3422
   2I ) or X 
(2K 2K  HgI4
5 0.877 0.877  342 342 X  5 
 or X 4 ions 3 ions

342 X 5 X = Thus,
59.98 number of ions decreases in the solution
X = 59.98 Hence, depression in freezing point is less, i.e.,
72. (2) [NCERT 34]
72. (2) [NCERT 34] actual freezing point is raised .
H2C2O4 . 2H2O is a dibasic acid 79. (1)
H2C2O4 . 2H2O [NCERT 46]
HNO3 + H2O solution shows negative deviation from
126 ideal behaviour.
126 Hence, it forms azeotrope with
Eq. mass = = 63 Eq. maximum
mass = boiling
= 63point
2 2
73. (2) [NCERT 35] 80. (4) [NCERT 41]
73. (2) P = PA0 XA + PB0XB = 80 × 3/5 + 60[NCERT
2/5 = 7235]
torr
2NaOH + H2SO4  Na2SO4 + H2O
81. (4)
2NaOH + H SO  Na SO + H O [NCERT 47]
2 4 2 4 2
M1V1 M2 V2
 1
n1 n2 M1V MV
(NaOH) (H2 SO4 )
C.P.
1
 2nB2 = Molar mass
n1 n2
(NaOH) (H2 SO4 )
0.2  40 0.1  V 1 1 1 1
 = V = 40 mL sucrose,  Glucos,  Glycerol,  Urea,
2 1 342 180 92 60
0.2  40 0.1  V
74. (4) [NCERT 51] 82. (1) 2  = V = 40 mL [NCERT 52]
Tf = Kf ×m
u te 1

it C.P.  n =
74. t(4) 1 [NCERT 51]
0.186 s Molar mass B
or m = = 0.1
t In T = K ×m
, t
1.86 f f

Tb = Kb × m g h (For same concentrations in percentage or g L h

g
–1

Tb = 0.0512×0.1 Li or m =
soluties do not associate or disociates) i
when0.186
1.86
= 0.1 L
w 1 1 w
Ne    e
Tb = 0.05120 Sucrose,  Glucos e,
75. (3) [NCERT 50]
T = K × m342
b b
180 N 1 2

83. (2)
Tb = 0.0512×0.1 [Module]
According to diff. of Raoult's law
Tb = 0.05120 Xsolute  1000
76. (4) [NCERT 59] m
(1  Xsolute )  G.M.M of solvent
75. (3) [NCERT 50]
Greater the no. of ions greater will be elevation in
b.p. 0.2  1000
m  3.2
77. (1) [Mod. AMU 2004] (1  0.2)  78
76. (4) [NCERT 59]
Mass of H2SO4 in 100 ml of 93% 84. (3) [CBSE 2001]
H2SO4 solution = 93 g Ethyl alcohol and water are the example of +ve de-
viation.
mass of H2SO4 in 1000 ml of the H2SO4 solution
85. (3) [NCERT 41]
930 g mass of 1000 ml H2SO4 solution = 1000×1.84 77. (1) [Mod. AMU 2004]
= 1840 g It is the property of the liquids

Mass of water in 1000 ml solution

wt. of H2 SO4 930
H2SO4 = SECTION-B
Mol. wt. of H2SO4 = 98
1840 – 930 = 910 g = 0.910 kg
86. (2) [NCERT 35]
H2SO4 1 Kg
wt. of H2 SO4 930
Mole of H2SO4 = mass of solute
Mol. wt. of H2SO4 = 98 ppm 
930 1  106
 mass of solution
= = 10.43 M.
Moles of H2SO4 in 1 Kg of water 98 0.910
1.04
 106 = 10.4 ppm
930 1 10 5
=  = 10.43 M.
98 0.910

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87. (2) [NCERT 47, 48] 87. 91.
(2) (2) [NCERT 47, 48] 52]
[NCERT
P0  Ps w x m2  Ps w1 x m
P0 Substituting
 1  the
2 values of various terms involved in
Ps m1 x w 2 Pequation
m1(2.36)
x w 2 we get,
s

P0  Ps m2 m2 5.12 K kg mol1  1.00 g  1000 g kg1

 = (w1 x 1000) x =mx P 2  Ps
M 0 =
m2g m2
 0.40  50
Ps (m1 x w 2 ) 1000 1000 = (w1 x 1000) x =mx
Ps 1000 1000
= 256 g mol(m
–1
1 x w2 )
(m 1 = mol. wt. of solute)
Thus, molar mass of the solute = 256 g mol-1
(m 1 = mol. wt. of solute)
760  750 18 92. (1) [NCERT 33]
 =mx
750 1000 760  750 18
 wt. of solute in gm
10 x 1000 wt./ vol=m x 1000
%750  100
 m = 750 x 18 = 0.741 mol/kg of solvent volume of solution in ml
88. (4) [NCERT 52] 93. (1)m = 10 x 1000 = 0.741 mol/kg [NCERT 34]
For high O.P., i x c should be high  750 x 18
Mili-moles of H2SO4 in residual solution = 5
0.1 M NaCl = 2 x .1 = .2 88. (4) Volume of residual solution = 500 [NCERT
ml 52]
0.1 M Urea = 1 x .1 = .1
Therefore
0.1 M NaCl = 2molarity
x .1 = .2of H2SO4 in resulting solution
0.1 M CaCl2 = 3 x .1 = .3
= 0.01 M
0.1 M AlCl3 = 4 x .1 = .4
94. (1)
0.1 M Urea = 1 x .1 = .1 [CBSE 2006]
89. (1) [NCERT 36]
1/3
ZM 
0.1 Ma3CaCl 4  60.2 
Assume that we have 100 g of solution (one can  2 = 3 x .1 = .3
 23 
start with any amount of solution because the   NA  6.25  6.02  10 
results obtained will be the same). Solution will 0.1 M AlCl3 = 4 x .1 = .4
contain 20 g of ethylene glycol and 80 g of water.
te = 400 × 10 cm = 400 pm –10

Molar mass of C H O = 12×2+1×6+16×2

2 6 2
89. 95.
t itu It is on the basis of the characteristics
(1) (4) [NCERT-17]
[NCERT 36]

=62 g mol . –1
n s of antiflurite

ht I 96. (4) X
structure.
= moles of C H O  moles of H O [NCERT 16]ht
moles of C H O 2 6 2

20 g
Moles of C H O = 62 g mol =0.322 mol Li
g glycol
2 6 2
ig 2

2 6 2
1 For octahedral arrangement (co-ordination no. L=6),
ew radius ratio is in the range 0.414 – 0.732w

80 g N 0.322 mol
0.322 mol  4.444 mol
Ne = 0.068
Moles of water = 18 g mol1 =4.444 mol 97. (3) [NCERT 55]
+
90. (3)  2Na (aq) +
Na2SO4(aq) 

 SO42– (aq)
[NCERT 37]
moles of C2H6 O 2
Xglycol = moles of C H O  moles of H O initial conc. C 0 0
2 6 2 2 C H
at2eq. O
4 conc.
2
:
C(1-) 12×2+1×4+16×2
2C C
0.322 mol C(1   )  2(  C=60g
) mol–1
= 0.068 '  = 1+2
0.322 mol  4.444 mol C
90. (3) [NCERT 37] 98. (3) 2.5 g [NCERT 52]
C2 H4 O 2 = 60 g mol1 = 0.0417 mol
Molar mass of C2H4O2 : 12×2+1×4+16×2 Ratio of depression in F.P is equal to no. of particles
so 2 : 2 : 3 or 2 : 1 : 1.5
=60g mol–1
99. (2) = 75 g/1000 g kg–1 [NCERT 56]
2.5 g Using, (Tb)obs = i ×(Tb)nor
Moles of C2H4O2 = 60 g mol1 = 0.0417 mol
given that,  = 0.25=75 by –3
and×10 kg
ionization i = 1+4 
(Tb)obs = (1 + 4×0.25)×0.52 ×1
Mass of benzene in kg = 75 g/1000 g kg–1
C2H4O2 = 1.04 =
=75 ×10–3 kg
Hence, Tb = 374.04 K
Molality of C2H4O2 = kg1
Moles of C2H4 O2 0.0417 mol  1000 g [NCERT
100. (2) 56]

Moles of C2H4 O2 0.0417 mol  1000 g kg1 kgi of
= 1–  + 2  +
benzene 75 g
 2.74 = 1 + 2
kg of benzene 75 g
 = mol
–1
= 0.556 0.87kg
= 0.556 mol kg–1
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111. (3) [NCERT-II- 24]
BIOLOGY
Pollen grain are rich in nutrients. It has become a
BOTANY BOTANY
fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as
food supplements
SECTION–A .
SECTION–A
112. (4) [NCERT-II- 24]
101. (1) [NCERT-II- 20] 101. (1) [NCERT-II- 20]
It is possible to store pollen grains of a large
To a biologist, flowers are morphological and
number of species for years in liquid nitrogen at
embryological marvels and sites of sexual (–196 oC) .
reproduction.
102. (2) Kalvin scale = [NCERT-II-21]
273 + (–196 oC)
102. (2) [NCERT-II-21]
= 77 kalvin
A typical angiosperm anther are Bilobed structure.
103.113.
(4) (4) [NCERT-II- 24]
[NCERT-II-21]
In malvaceae family monolobed anther is occurs.
In bisexual flower both androecium and gynoecium
103. (4) [NCERT-II-21] are occur.
– Stamens are units of androecium
Inner most wall layers of microsporangium are 104. (1) [NCERT-II- 21]
tapetum they nourishes the developing pollen – Pistils or carpels are units of gynoecium .
grains. 114. (4) [NCERT-II-24-25]
104. (1) [NCERT-II- 21] In gynoecium hilum represents the junction between
ovule and funicle.
In tapetum cell karyokinesis does not fallowed by 105.115.
(1) (1) [NCERT-II- 22-23]
[NCERT-II-25]
cytokinesis then multinucleate condition are arised.
te The given diagram
= is

itu Multicarpellary
105. (1) [NCERT-II- 22-23]
apocarpous –Michelia
Pollen mother cell- Diploid cell st =

In Michelia ==Angiosperm
Pollen grain , vegetative cell, generative cell-ht 116. (1) [NCERT-II- 26]ht
g = g
Haploid cell.
Li 106. (1) Inmegaspores
a majority of flowering plants, one ofLithe
106. (1) w
[NCERT-II- 23,26,27]
e
is functional[NCERT-II-
e
degenerate only the functional megaspore
w three
while the23,26,27]
other
develops
N
For formation of male gametophyte and female
N
into the female gametophyte (Embryosac) this
gametophyte number of meiotic division is one. But method of embryo sac formation from a single
megaspores is termed mono sporic development .
number of mitotic division are variable .
117. (2) [NCERT-II-27]
107. (4) [NCERT-II- 23]
Depending on the source of pollen, pollination can
In mature pollen grain two types of cell are occurs. be divided into three types.
It is vegetative cell and generative cell . 118. (3) [NCERT-II-28]
108. (2) [NCERT-II- 23] 107. (4) [NCERT-II-
Some plants such as viola (common pansy),23]
oxalis
and commelina produce two types of flowers that
Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called is cleistogamous, chasmogamous.
germpore where sporopollenin is absent. Pollen
tube emerged from germpore . 119. (4) [NCERT-II-28]
108. (2) [NCERT-II- 23]
109. (1) [NCERT-II- 23] In chasmogamous flowers both autogamy and
geitonogamy are occur. In cleistogamous flowers
In PMC one meiotic division give rise four only autogamy are occurs.
microspore. In microspore one mitosis give rise to 109. (1) [NCERT-II- 23]
120. (1) [NCERT-II-28]
mature pollen grain which contained one generative
and vegetative cell. In generative cell one mitosis In cleistogamous flowers no requirements of
give rise to two male gamete . pollinating agents for pollination.
110. (1) [NCERT-II-23] 121. (2) [NCERT-II-28]
110. (1) [NCERT-II-23]
In flowering plants in generative cell of pollen grain A type of pollination which are functionally cross
mitosis division are gives rised to two male pollination but genetically similar to autogamy such
gametes. type of pollination are geitonogamy

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122. (3) [NCERT-II-29] 122.132.
(3) (4) [NCERT-II-38]
[NCERT-II-29]
Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants Orchid fruits are one such category and each fruit
and is limited to about 30 genera, mostly contain thousands of tiny seeds. Similar is the case
monocotyledons. in fruits of some parasitic species such as
123.(4) [NCERT-II-30] Orobanche and Striga.
123. (4) [NCERT-II-30]
Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral rewards 133. (3) [NCERT-II-38]
for animal pollinators. Thus, apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction
124.(4) [NCERT-II-31] that mimics sexual reproduction
Many insects may consume pollen or the nectar 124.134.
(4) (4) [NCERT-II-38, 39]
[NCERT-II-31]
without bringing about pollination. Such floral
visitors are referred to as pollen/nectar robbers. Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is
referred to as polyembryony. Their example are
125. (4) [NCERT-II-33] citrus, mango, orange.
In artificial hybridisation two process are 135. (1) [NCERT-II- 38-39]
emasculation and bagging techniques. Removal of
anthers are called emasculation. More often, as in many Citrus and Mango varieties
125. (4) [NCERT-II-33]
some of the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo
126. (3) [NCERT-II-34]
sac start dividing, protrude into the embryo sac
Pro-embryo, globular, heart-shaped and mature and develop into the embryos. In such species each
embryo ovule contains many embryos. Occurrence of more
127. (3) [NCERT-II-34, 35, 36] than one embryo in a seed is referred to as
polyembryony.
Zygote – embryo
126. (3) SECTION–B [NCERT-II-34]
central cell – endosperm
te
136.u(1) [NCERT-II-6, 7]
ovule – seed
t it
ovary – fruit
Ins The microscopic motile asexual reproductive
  
[NCERT-II-34] t
ht
128. (3) structures is zoospores.
g h 127. (3) g
Lithe [NCERT-II-3] i
137. (1) [NCERT-II-34, 35, 36]
One of the male gametes moves towards the egg
cell and fuses with its nucleus thus completing L
w w
Ne Ne
syngamy. This results in the formation of a diploid No individual is immortal except unicellular
cell, the zygote. The other male gamete moves organism.
towards the two polar nuclei located in the central
cell and fuses with them to produce a triploid primary e.g. Paramecium.
endosperm nucleus (PEN). As this involves the
fusion of three haploid nuclei it is termed triple fusion. 138. (4) [NCERT-II-6, 7]
Since two types of fusions, syngamy and triple
fusion take place in an embryo sac the phenomenon Gemmules asexual reproductive structures in
is termed double fertilisation. 128. (3) sponge. [NCERT-II-34]

129. (4) [NCERT-II-36] 139. (3) [NCERT-II-13]

Remnants of nucellus are also persistent. This
Housefly – 12
residual, persistent nucellus is the perisperm.
130. (4) [NCERT-II-36] 129. (4) Butterfly – 380 [NCERT-II-36]
Endosperm may either be completely consumed Fruitfly – 8
by the developing embryo (e.g., pea, groundnut,
beans) before seed maturation or it may persist in Maize – 20
the mature seed (e.g. castor and coconut) and be
used up during seed germination 130.140.
(4) (3) [NCERT-II-4]
[NCERT-II-36]
131. (4) [NCERT-II-37] Crow – 15 year
Although in most of the species, fruits are the results
141. (3) [NCERT-II-26, 27]
of fertilisation, there are a few species in which fruits
develop without fertilisation. Such fruits are called PMC = 2n = 20 = Diploid
parthenocarpic fruits. Banana is one such example. 131. (4) [NCERT-II-37]
Parthenocarpy can be induced through the n = 10
application of growth hormones and such fruits are
seedless. Synergids, Antipodals = Haploid = n

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142. (2) [NCERT-II-23] 142.152.(1)
(2) [NCERT-I-50]
[NCERT-II-23]
The most resistant organic material known is Examples: Sycon (Scypha), Spongilla (Fresh water
sponge) and Euspongia (Bath sponge).
sporopollenin.
153.(4) [NCERT-I-50]
143. (2) [NCERT-II-24] 143. (2) [NCERT-II-24]
They are aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or free-
In some members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and swim ming, radially symm etrical animals .
Solanaceae, pollen grain maintain viability for Cnidoblasts are used for anchorage, defense and
months. for the capture of prey.
144.154.(4)
(3) [NCERT-II-25]
[NCERT-I-50, 51]
144. (3) [NCERT-II-25]
In Ctenophora, Coelenterata Digestion is
The basal part of ovule represented by chalaza. extracellular and intracellular.
145. (2) [NCERT-II-26, 27]
145. (2) [NCERT-II-26, 27] 155.(3) [NCERT-I-53]
Four types of cells are present in embryo sac First and second largest phylum of kingdom
animalia are respectively Arthropoda, Mollusca.
Synergids, Antipodal, central cell, egg
146.156.(2)
(4) [NCERT-I-52, 53]
[NCERT-II-21]
146. (4) [NCERT-II-21]
The circulatory system in arthropoda and annelida
Proximal end of stamen filament is attached to are which type respectively open, closed.
thalamus or petal. 157.(2) [NCERT-I-50]
147. (1) [NCERT-II-21]
147. (1) [NCERT-II-21] Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms called
u te polyp and medusa. The former is a sessile and
tit
The length of stamens is variable in
cylindrical form like Hydra, Adamsia, etc. whereas,
s the latter is umbrella-shaped and free-swimming
Flowers of different species.
t In
ht
like Aurelia or jelly fish. Those cnidarians which
Typical anther is Bilobed.
igh g
exist in both forms exhibit alternation of generation
In malvaceae family anther is monolobed. L (Metagenesis), i.e., polyps produce medusae Li
ew w
asexually and medusae form the polyps sexually
e
N
Anther and filament are the two parts of typical (e.g., Obelia). N
stamen. 148.158.(4)
(2) [NCERT-II-21]
[NCERT-I-53]
148. (2) [NCERT-II-21] The space between the hump and the mantle is
called the mantle cavity in which feather like gills
Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grain not
are present. They have respiratory and excretory
help in dehiscence and release of pollen. functions.
149. (2) [NCERT-II-23] 149.159.(2)
(2) [NCERT-II-23]
[NCERT-I-54]
In 60% angiosperms pollen is shed at two cell stage. 60%Examples: Pila (Apple snail), Pinctada (Pearl
oyster), Sepia (Cuttlefish), Loligo (Squid), Octopus
150. (2) [NCERT-II-27] (Devil fish), Aplysia (Seahare), Dentalium (Tusk
150. (2) [NCERT-II-27]
shell) and Chaetopleura (Chiton).
Egg apparatus contains 2 synergids and 1 egg
cell. 160. (4) 2 1 [NCERT-I-51]

ZOOLOGY The given diagram

ZOOLOGYis of Fasciola (Liver fluke).

SECTION–A Phylum – Platyhelminthes

SECTION–A
151.(1) Examples: Taenia (Tapeworm),[NCERT-I-49]
Fasciola (Liver
151.(1) [NCERT-I-49] fluke).
161. (3) [NCERT-I-52]
The given animal are Euspongia. It is marine water
Given diagram is of female ascaris which is the
sponge. It is bisexual animal Ostia and osculum members of aschelminthes.

are charcter of sponge. Aschelminthes = Pseudocoelomate

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162. (4) [NCERT-I-52] 162.172.(2)
(4) [NCERT-I-52]
[NCERT-I-58]
Ancylostome – Hook worm –
Heart is usually three-chambered, but four-
163. (4) chambered in crocodiles. [NCERT-I-53]
163. (4) [NCERT-I-53]
Given diagram is of Octopus which is the members 173.(4) [NCERT-I-58, 59]
of mollusca. 164. (4) The characteristic features of Aves [NCERT-I-54]
(birds) are the
164. (4) [NCERT-I-54] presence of feathers and most of them can fly
• except flightless birds• (e.g., Ostrich). They possess
Pila, Pinctada, Octopus, Dentalium, Aplysia -
mollusca • beak (Figure 4.23). The• forelimbs are modified into
wings. The hind limbs generally have scales. Air
Locusta - arthropoda. •
sacs connected to lungs supplement respiration.
165.(1) [NCERT-I-56] 165.(1) [NCERT-I-56]
174.(1) [NCERT-I-57]
In Amphibia Body is divisible into head and trunk.
Tail may be present in some. The amphibian skin
is moist (without scales). The eyes have eyelids.
A tympanum represents the ear.
175.(2) [NCERT-I-56-60]
In superclass tetrapoda Included four class fishes,
amphibia, reptilia, mammals.

te Incolumn
cyclostomata cartilaginous cranium and vertebral

i tu occurs.
166.(4) [NCERT-I-55]
s t
166.(4) [NCERT-I-55]
Examples: Urochordata – Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum; In
167.(3) [NCERT-I-52]h
t ht
g g
Hirudinaria - blood sucking leech. Li •
Li
168.(2) w
[NCERT-I-56-57]
e •
e w
Electric organs – Torpedo N • N
Poison sting – Trygon
167. (3) [NCERT-I-52]
Trygon – Sting ray
Claspers – Saw fish
Hag fish – Myxine 168.(2) [NCERT-I-56-57]
176. (3) [NCERT-I-153]
169.(2) [NCERT-I-56] –
Identify, whether the given conditions are anabolic
In Cyclostomata, Cranium and vertebral column are 169.(2) or catabolic [NCERT-I-56]
cartilaginous.
Glucose  Lactic acid = Catabolic
170.(4) [NCERT-I-58]
The class name refers to their creeping or crawling Amino acids  Proteins = Anabolic
170.(4) [NCERT-I-58]
mode of locomotion (Latin, repere or reptum, to Catabolic = complex molecule  simple
creep or crawl). They are mostly terrestrial animals molecule
and their body is covered by dry and cornified skin, Anabolic = simple molecule  complex molecule
epidermal scales or scutes.
177. (4) [NCERT-I-144]
171.(1) [NCERT-I-58, 59] 171.(1) [NCERT-I-58, 59]
Classification of amino acids are done on the basis
All birds and mammals are homeothermous.
of Nature of R group
In jaw of mammals tooth are present.
Only some mammals are oviparous, remaining are  R group is variable in different amino acids
viviparous. Birds are oviparous. 178. (4) [NCERT-I-156]
Muscular diaphragms, mammary gland, body hair
E+S ES EP E+P
are unique feature of mammals.

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179. (2) [NCERT-I-147] 179.189.
(2) (4) [NCERT-I-265]
[NCERT-I-147]

Water - 70-90 During the digestion - of 70-90

fats a verty small protei
coated fat globule are formed, which are transported
Proteins - 10-15 -
into the lymph vessels 10-15
(Lacteals) i the villi. This
Carbohydrates - 3 protein coated fat globule
- 3 is Chylomicrons.
Lipids - 2 190. (1) [NCERT-I-262]
- 2
Nucleic acid - 5-7 Bile contains no enzyme but help in digestion.
- 5-7
180. (1) [NCERT-l-156] • Bile salts help in emulsification of fats i.e., break-
180. (1) [NCERT-l-156]
ing down of the fats into very small micelles. Bile
The difference in average energy content of ‘S’ from into very small micelles. Bile also activates lipase.
that of this transition state is called ‘activation Hence bile help in digestion of fats.
energy’.
181.191.
(2) (2) [NCERT-l-144, 145]
[NCERT-II-279]
181. (2) [NCERT-l-144, 145]
The graveyards of erythrocytes is spleen.
Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine and
182.192.
(3) (4) [NCERT-I-145]
[NCERT-I-281]
cytidine are nucleosides. Adenylic acid, thymidylic
acid, guanylic acid, uridylic acid and cytidylic acid X - Thrombin
are nucleotides.
Y - Thrombokinase
182. (3) [NCERT-I-145] 183. (4) [NCERT-I-149, 150]
193. (4) [NCERT-I-290, 291]
The number of glycerol molecule is present in mono,
Di and Triglycerides respectively 1, 1, 1. te Uricotelic = Reptiles, Birds, land snails
194. u
•it (3) [NCERT-I-293]
183. (4) [NCERT-I-149, 150]
s t
Type of amino acid and number of amino acid are In •
The malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of nephron
same among primary, secondary, tertiary,h
t • are situated in the cortical region of the kidney t
h
ig whereas the loop of henle dips into medulla. ig
Quaternary structure of protein. L • L
[NCERT-I-278, w 195. (3) w
[NCERT-I-291]
Ne e
184. (1) 279]
184. (1) [NCERT-I-278,N 279]
Fibrinogen – Blood clotting Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory
–
structures in Platyhelminthes (Flatworms, e.g.,
Phagocytic cells – Monocytes
Planaria), rotifers,
– some annelids and the
Basophils – Inflammatory reactions cephalochordate – Amphioxus.
–
Albumins – Osmotic balance 196. (4) [NCERT-I-274]
–
185. (3) [NCERT-I-287] On binding of O2 with haemoglobin. In the alveoli,
185. (3) where there is high pO 2, low [NCERT-I-287]
pCO 2, lesser H+
A special coronary system of blood vessels is
present in our body exclusively for the circulation concentration and lower temperature, the factors
of blood to and from the cardiac musculature. are all f avourable f or the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin,
SECTION–B
197. (1) SECTION–B [NCERT-I-275]
186. (1) [NCERT-I-264]
Another centre present in the pons region of the
186. (1) brain called pneumotaxic centre[NCERT-I-264]
can moderate the
Calorific value of different nutrient in ascending order
Carbohydrates < Protein < Fats. functions of the respiratory rhythm centre

187. (4) [NCERT-I-264] 198. (1) < < [NCERT-I-268,269,272]

187. (4) Fish – [NCERT-I-264]
Branchial respiration
In human alimentary canal no significant digestive
activity occurs in the Large intestine Biologically usefull – ATP
188. (1) [NCERT-I-339] energy
188. (1) [NCERT-I-339]
CCK hormones are responsible for secretion of bile 104 mm Hg – Alveolar air Po2
juice from gall bladder CCK
Vocal cords – Larynx

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199. (4) [NCERT-I-269, 270] 199. (4) [NCERT-I-269, 270]
Trachea is a straight tube extending upto the mid
thoracic cavity
Pleural fluid is present between two pleura
Thoracic chamber is dorsally formed by thoracic
vertebrae
We can not directly alter the pulmonary volume
200. (2) [NCERT-I-320,321] 200. (2) [NCERT-I-320,321]

Another very important part of the brain called u te

hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus. The
stit
hypothalamus contains a number of centres which
t In
control body temperature, urge for eating and
gh g ht
drinking.
L i •
Li
• Corpus callosum is unique character of
mammalian brain. ew ew
N N

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u te
stit
t In
igh
L
ew
N

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