ALL INDIA IPL TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

IPL TEST-04
TEST-ID : 904
DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 07-02-2023 MARKS : 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Theory based Que. XI
Chemistry : Nature of compound, (Acid, Base, Amphoteric) Nomenclature of Element with atomic number Above
100, temperature, minimum, maximum, pressure.
Biology : Data, Term Bold Lattice Rule, Phenomenon (Process), Numerical

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• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:

• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.

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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023

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NLI / 2
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023

TOPIC : Theory based Que. XI

SECTION-A 5. When a stone is rotated with uniform speed in
horizontal plane by means of a string, the
1. Which of the following statements is/are correct
magnitude of the momentum is fixed but its
I. Unit should be of suitable size. direction changes.
II. Unit should not be easily reproducible.
III. Unit should not change with the changing
physical conditions like temperature,
pressure etc.
(1) Only I
(2) Both I and III
(3) Only II
(4) All of these
2. Statement I : Relative velocity of A with respect
  
to B can be written as v AB = v A  vB
A force is needed to cause this change in
 
Statement II : v AB = vBA momentum vector. This force is provided by

Choose the correct option for given statements. (1) Gravity

te
u
tit Our hand through the string
(1) Statement I is correct (2)
s
(2) Statement II is correct
t In (3) Both gravity and our hand through the string
(3) Both the statements are correct
igh (4) None of the above
(4) Both the statements are incorrect L
ew 6. Which of the following statements are incorrect
3. Nof mass
The centripetal acceleration of a particle
I. If there were no friction, work need to be
m moving with a velocity v in a circular orbit of
radius r is done to move a body up an inclined plane
is zero.
(1) v2 / r along the radius, towards the centre
II. If there were no friction, moving vehicles
(2) v2 / r along the radius, away from the centre
could not be stopped even by locking the
(3) mv2 / r along the radius, towards the centre brakes
(4) vr along the radius away from the centre
III. As the angle of inclination is increased, the
4. Statement I : Friction is the component of the normal reaction on the body placed on it
contact force parallel to the surface in contact increases.
which opposes the relative motion between the
two surfaces. (1) I and II (2) Only I

Statement II : Friction is the component of the (3) I and III (4) All of these
contact force perpendicular to the surface in 7. The motion of a boome rang is
contact which opposes the relative motion
between the two surfaces. (1) Pure translation
(1) Only Statement I is correct (2) Pure rotational
(2) Only Statement II is correct
(3) Translational plus rotational
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct
(4) None of the above
(4) None of the above
NLI / 3
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
8. The motion of a table fan (rotating and swinging 14. Beyond a limiting value, flow loses its steadiness
side ways) is ...A... . and becomes ...A... Here, A refers to
Here, A refers to (1) Streamline
(1) Rotational
(2) Turbulent
(2) Translational
(3) Compressible fluid
(3) Rotational plus translational
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) Precession
15. The pressure difference occured in dynamic lift
9. The velocity of the planet when it is closest to
teh Sun is due to spining is called

(1) Maximum (1) Magnus effect

(2) Minimum (2) Spark effect

(3) Can have any value (3) Photoelectric effect
(4) None of these (4) Electric field
10. The time period of the satellite is given by a
16. Water forms droplets on a lotus leaf with
relation
interfacial tension as
T 2 = K (R E + h)3
S la
Which of the given statement is true about this
relation?
(1)
u te 
(1) 2
The value of K is equal is 4  / GM E
stit S sa
Ssl

(2) The above relation is in accordance with the t I

n
kepler’s law of periods
g h S la

(3)
i
For a satellite very close to Earth, the r e la tiLon
2
becomes, T  K R 3
e w (2) 
E
N S sa
Ssl
(4) All of the above.
11. The time period of polar satellite is : S la

(1) 100 min (2) 120 min

(3) 
(3) 80 min (4) 40 min Ssl Ssa
12. The property of a body by virtue of which it tends
to regain its original size and shape of a body S la
when applied force is removed, is known as
....A.... and the deformation caused is known as (4) 
....B.... deformation. Here, A and B refer to : Ssl Ssa
(1) Plastic, elastic 17. Statement I : When a fluid flows out of a small
(2) Elasticity, elastic hole in the sides of a vessel, a backward force is
exerted on the vessel.
(3) Perfectly plastic, plastic
(4) Plastic, plasticity Statement II : The total energy if a given mass of
a fluid in motion is conserved.
13. 1 atm is equal to :
(1) Statement I is correct
(1) 4 × 104 Pa
(2) Statement II is correct
(2) 1,013 × 105 Pa
(3) 2.46 × 105 Pa (3) Both the statement are correct

(4) 3.26 × 105 Pa (4) Both the statements are incorrect.

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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
18. Thermal expansion is : 23. Choose the correct option.
(1) Expansion due to increase of temperature (1) The predicted values of molar specific heat
(2) Expansion due to absorption of moisture capacity for gases generally agree with
experimental values
(3) Expansion due to decrease of temperature
(2) Predicted values of molar specific heat capacity
(4) Expansion due to dissipation of heat in for solids is equal to 3R and for most substances
atmosphere. it agrees with the experimental values
19. During vaporisation
(3) The predicted values of molar specific heat
I. Change of state from liquid to vapour state capacity for solids at low temperature does not
occurs. agrees with the experimental values
II. Temperature remains constant. (4) All of the above.
III. Both liquid and vapour states coexist in 24. Match the following columns :
equilibrium.
Column–I Column–II
IV. Specific heat of substance increases
A. According to (i) is based on energy
Correct statement are :
second law, conservation
(1) I, II and IV (2) II, III and IV
heat rejected
(3) I, III and IV (4) I, II and III.
by engine
20. Which of the following statement (s) is/are B. According to (ii) can be zero
correct?
second law,
I. Gases are poor thermal conductors.
e
tSecond W for refrigerator
II. Liquids have conductivities intermediate
itu C. law (iii) Cannot be zero
between solids and gases. t
III.
nsD. First law (iv) Restrict first law
Heat conduction can be take plane from cold t I (1) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)
body to hot body.
igh (2) A - (iii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)
(1) Only I L
(2) Only II ew (3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (iii)
N (4) A - (ii), B - (ii), C - (ii), D - (ii).
(3) Only III
25. I. Free expansion of gas is an irreversible
(4) Both I and II.
process.
21. Heat is flowing steadily from A to B temperature
T at P, at distance x from A is such that : II. The combustion reaction of a mixture of
petrol and air ignited by a spark is
A P B irreversible.
III. The leaking of a gas from the kitchen cylinder
x cannot to reversed by itself.
(1) T decreases linearly with x IV. The transfer of heat from one heated part of
(2) T increases linearly with x a liquid to the other colder part is a
irreversible process.
(3) T decreases exponentially with x
V. By stirring a liquid we can increase the
(4) T increases with x as T  x 2 . internal energy of the liquid by doing some
22. In isobaric expansion, the expression of the first work, reverse is not possible.
law of thermodynamics should be written as:
Choose the correct statement regarding above
(1) Q  V statements :
(1) I, II and V are correct
(2) Q  U   V
(2) III, IV and V are correct
(3) Q  U
(3) II, III, IV and V are correct
(4) Q  U   V
(4) All the statements are correct
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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
26. Statement I : Pressure of an ideal gas is equal to 31. Which of the following statement is / are correct
2 about waves ?
1/ 3 nmv x
I. Waves are patterns of disturbance which
Statement II : Pressure of an ideal gas is equal move without the actual physical transfer or
to v 2 flow of matter as a whole.
II. Waves cannot transport energy.
Choose the correct option regarding the above
statements. III. The pattern of disturbance in the form of
waves carry information that propagate from
(1) Statement I is correct
one point to another.
(2) Statement II is correct
IV. All our communications essentially depend
(3) Both the statement are correct on transmission of signals through waves.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect Choose the correct option from those given
below.
27. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas, if its
(1) I and II (2) Only IV
(1) Pressure and temperature are both high
(3) I, II and III (4) I, III and IV
(2) Pressure and temperature are both low
32. Two points having same phase can be chosen to
(3) Pressure is high and temperature is low be
(4) Pressure is low and temperature is high (1) Crests
28. In simple harmonic motion, force is directly (2) Troughs
proportional to ...A... of the body from the mean
position. Here, A refers to (3)e (1) or (2)
Either
t
(1) Path length tituBoth (1) and (2)
(4)
33.nsThe speed of sound as per laplace correction is
(2) Displacement
ht I given by
(3) Square of displacement g
(4) None of the above
Li p 
ew (1)v

v (2)

29. Consider the following statements. N
The total energy of a particle executing simple p
harmonic motion depends on its (I) amplitude. (3) v (4) None of these

(II) period. (III) displacement. Of these statements
(1) I and II are correct 34. When two wave pulses travelling in opposite
direction overlap, the resultant displacement is
(2) II and III are correct
(1) The algebraic sum of the displacement due to
(3) I and III are correct each pulse
(4) I, II and III are correct.
(2) Always zero
30. The value of amplitude of the forced oscillation
(3) The vector in the direction of the displacement of
when damping is small and d is far away from
right travelling pulse
:
(4) Both (1) and (2)
d  Driving frequency..
35. A travelling wave is reflected from the boundary
  Natural frequency which is not rigid. The reflected pulse has

F0  Amplitude of applied periodic force. (1) Same phase

(2) Same amplitude if there is no energy dissipation
F0 F0 on reflections
(1) (2) m( 2  d2 )
m 2
(3) Same phase but different amplitude even though
there is no energy dissipation on reflection
F0
(3) db (4) None of these (4) Both (1) and (2)

NLI / 6
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
SECTION-B 39. Assertion: Every periodic motion is not simple
harmonic motion
36. Doppler’s effect holds good for
Reason: Only that periodic motion governed by
(1) Only sound waves the force law F = – kx is simple harmonic
(2) Only electromagnetic waves (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Both sound waves and electromagnetic waves
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(4) None of the above not the correct explanation of the assertion
37. In the experiment to determine the speed of (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
sound using a resonance column (4) It the assertion and reason both are false
(1) Prongs of the tuning fork are kept in a v e r t i c a l 40. Choose the correct statement from the following:
plane
I. In a mechanical wave, energy transfer takes
(2) Prongs of the tuning fork are kept in a horizontal place because of the coupling through elastic
plane forces between neighbouring oscillating part
of the medium
(3) In one of the two resonance observed, the length
II. In a harmonic progressive wave of a given
of the resonating air column is close to the
frequency, all particles have the same
wavelength of sound in air amplitude but different phases at a given
(4) In one of the two resonances observed, the length instant of time
of the resonating air column is close to half of III. In a stationary wave, all particles between two
the wavelength of sound in air nodes have the same phase at a given instant
38. Match the items in Column I with terms in Column
u te
but have same amplitudes
(1)itI and II
II and choose the correct options from the codes
s t
given below.
t In I and III
(2)
Column I Column II
g h (3) II and III
A. Constructive (i) Beats Li (4) I, II and III
interference of two ew 41. Choose the correct statement about average

waves of same
N kinetic energy of a molecules:
I. It is depend upon temperature of ideal gas
frequency and
II. It is depend upon pressure for ideal gas
amplitude
III. it is independent of volume of ideal gas
B. Destructive (ii) Nodes
IV. It is depend upon nature of ideal gas:
insterference of two
(1) I, III, IV
waves of same
(2) I, III
frequency and
(3) I, II
amplitude (4) I, II, III, IV
C. Interference of (iii) Anti-nodes 42. Choose incorrect statement
two waves of (1) The first law of thermodynamics is the principle of
nearly same conservation of energy

frequency and (2) The second law of thermodynamics gives a

fundamental limitation to the efficiency of a heat
equal amplitude engine and the co-efficient of performance of a
(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii) refrigerator

(2) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i) (3) No process is possible whose sole result is the
transfer of heat from a colder object to a hotter
(3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i) object
(4) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii) (4) All option are incorrect

NLI / 7
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper]
43. Given figure shows the phase diagram of water
P
(atm) A
C coincides with its centre of mass only. If the
O
B Statement –I
T(0 C)
Choose the incorrect option
(1) Sublimation curve (BO)
(2) Fusion curve (AO)
(3) Vaporisation curve (OA)
(4) Point O is triple point
44. Toricelli's theorem is used to find:
(1) The velocity of afflux through an orifice
(2) The velocity of flow of liquid through a pipe
(3) Terminal velocity
(4) Critical velocity
45. Match the column–I and Column–II
Column–I Column–II
A. Young's modulus i. Solids
B. Shear modulus ii. Liquid
C. Bulk modulus iii. gas
(1) A–i, B-i, C–ii, ii
(2) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, ii, iii
(3) A–i, B–i, C–i, ii, ii
(4) A–i, B–ii,iii; C–i, ii, iii
46. Statement–I : Force of attraction between a hollow
spherical shell of uniform density and a point mass
situated out-side is just as if the entire mass of the
shell is concentrated at the centre of the shell
Statement–II: The force of attraction due to a
hollow spherical shell of uniform density on a point
mass situated inside it is zero
(1) Statement–I is true, Statement –II is true;
Statement–II is a correct explanation of for
Statement –I
(2) Statement–I is true, Statem ent–II is true;
Statemetn–II is NOT a correct explanation
(3) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is false
(4) Statement–I is false, Statement–II is true
CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
47. Statement–I: The total torque on a system is
independent of the origin if the total external force
is zero
Statement–II; The centre of gravity of a body
gravitational field vary from one part of the body
to the other
(1) Statement–I is true, Statement –II is true;
Statement–II is a correct explanation fo for
(2) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statemetn-
II is NOT a correct explanation
(3) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is false
(4) Statement–I is false, Statement–II is true
48. In an inelastic collision
(1) momentum is not conserved
(2) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not
conserved
(3) Both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
(4) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved
te
49. Assertion: The specific heat of a gas at constant
u
s tit
pressure is greater than its specific heat at constant
volume.
t In Reason: At constant pressure, some heat is used
igh up in expanding the gas.
L
ew (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
N
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false
50. Which of the following graphs show variation of
kinetic energy with time for a projectile :
EK EK
(a) (b)
t t
EK
EK
(c) (d)
t
t
(1) graph a (2) graph b
(3) graph c (4) graph d
NLI / 8
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023

TOPIC : Nature of compound, (Acid, Base, Amphoteric) Nomenclature of Element with atomic number Above
100, temperature, minimum, maximum, pressure.
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207

SECTION-A 55. Given below are two statements :

51. What would be the IUPAC name and symbol for Statement I :
the element with atomic number 120:
Benzene diazonium chloride is prepared by the
(1) Unbiunnium, Ubu reaction of aniline with Nitrous acid at 283 – 288 K
(2) Unbinilium, Ubn Statement II :
(3) Unbitrium, Ubt Benzene diazonium fluoroborate is water insoluble and
stable at room temperature.
(4) Ununseptium, Uus
In the light of the above statements, choose the
52. Given below are two statements : correct answer from the options given below
Statement I : (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Haber's process for the manufacture of ammonia (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
P, T (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
N2(g)+ 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
Pressure (P) = 200 bar, Temperature(T) = 723 – 773K
56.
u te
On a ship sailing in pacific ocean where

tit
Statement II : temperature is 23.4oC, a balloon is filled with 2L
air. What will be the volume of the balloon when
s
Ostwald,s process for the manufacture of Nitric acid
t In the ship reaches Indian ocean, where temperature
is 26.1oC:
gh
3NO + H O  2HNO + NO
2(g) 2 (l) 3(aq) (g)

Temperature = 573 K, Platinised asbestos L i (1) 4.018 L

e
In the light of the above statements, choose
w the (2) 2.018 L
N
correct answer from the options given below (3) 6.02 L
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (4) 7.020 L
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 57. Which is the strongest acid in the following?
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (1) HClO3
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (2) HClO4
53. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and HF (3) H2SO3
are :
(4) H2SO4
– +
(1) OH and H2F , respectively
58. Identify the incorrect match.
(2) H3O+ and F–, respectively
Name IUPAC Official Name
(3) OH– and F–, respectively (1) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
+ +
(4) H3O and H2F , respectively (2) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
54. Which of the following fluoro compounds is most (3) Unnilhexium (iii)Seaboragium
likely to behave as a Lewis base :
(4) Unununnium (iv)Darmstadtium
(1) SiF4
(1) (3), (iii)
(2) BF3
(2) (4), (iv)
(3) PF3
(3) (1), (i)
(4) CF4
(4) (2), (ii)

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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
59. Match the following : 63. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid
Oxide Nature are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
(A) CO (i) Basic option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is
(B) BaO (ii) Neutral
(C) Al2O3 (iii)Acidic (1) 5.50

(D) Cl2O7 (iv)Amphoteric (2) 7.75

Which of the following is correct option : (3) 6.25
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(4) 8.50
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
64. Choose the correct option for graphical
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
representation of Boyle's law, which shows a
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) temperatures :
60. The following solutions were prepared by
dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of
water (P1), 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of
water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 (1)
ml of water (P 3 ). The right option for the
decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these
solutions is :
u te
(1) P1 > P2 > P3
stit
(2) P2 > P3 > P1
t In
(3) P3 > P1 > P2
igh (2)
(4) P2 > P1 > P3 L
61. The species H2O, HCO3–, HSO4– and NH3 can act ew
both as bronsted acids and bases. For each case N
give the corresponding conjugate acids is:
(1) OH–, H2CO3, H2SO4, NH4+
(2) H3O+, H2CO3, H2SO4, NH4+ (3)
+ –2 –2 –
(3) H3O , CO3 , SO4 , NH 2

(4) OH–, CO3–2, SO4–2, NH2–

62. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
H SO
CH3– CH2–OH 
2
413 K
4

 CH2= CH2 (4)

Statement II :
H SO
CH3– CH2–OH 2

443 K
4
C2H5–O–C2H5
65. The maximum temperature that can be achieved
In the light of the above statements, choose the
in blast furnace is :
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) upto 2200 K

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) upto 1900K

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) upto 5000 K

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) upto 1200 K

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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
66. Given below are two statements : 70. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Statement I :

Cr O or V O
n–Hexane 
2 3 2 5
 Benzene h
773K, 10  20 atm
+ 3 Cl2 
500 K
 Cyclohexane
Statement II :
Statement II :
Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence
of nickel catalyst to form carbonmonoxide and Re d hot iron tube
3CH  CH 
873 K

hydrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
71.
67. Choose the correct option for the total pressure
(in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined
in a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
When is deviation more in the behaviour of a gas
from the ideal gas equation PV = nRT?
(1) At high temperature and low pressure

[Given R= 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T=273 K]

u te
(2) At low temperature and high pressure

(1) 2.602
st(3)it At high temperature and high pressure
(2) 25.18 t In (4) At low temperature and low pressure
igh72. Given below are two statements :
(3) 26.02
L Statement I :
(4) 2.518 ew
N Official IUPAC name of meitnerium and IUPAC symbol
68. In which one of the following arrangements the is Md.
given sequence is not strictly according to the
properties indicated against it ? Statement II :

(1) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing pKa values
(2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing acidic
character
(3) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2: Increasing oxidizing
power
Official IUPAC name of Flerovium and IUPAC symbol
is Fl.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic
strength
69. Pressure remaining the same, the volume of a
given mass of an ideal gas increases for every
degree centigrade rise in temperature by definite
fraction of its volume at
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
73. van der Waals’ real gas, acts as an ideal gas, at
which conditions?

(1) 0°C (1) High temperature, low pressure

(2) its critical temperature (2) Low temperature, high pressure

(3) absolute zero (3) High temperature, high pressure

(4) its Boyle temperature. (4) Low temperature, low pressure

NLI / 11
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
74. Statement I : 78. Which one is the correct order of acidity :

Acid strength increases in the order given as (1) CH3–CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3–C=CH>CH  CH

HF << HCI << HBr << HI. (2) CH2=CH2 > CH3–CH–CH2>CH3–C=CH>CH  CH

Statement II : (3) CH  CH >CH3–C  CH>CH2=CH2 > CH3–CH3

As the size of the elements F, CI, Br, I increases (4) CH  CH >CH3–CH3 > CH3–C  CH > CH2 = CH2
down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCI, 79. Match the oxide given in column I with its
HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength property given in column II.
increases.
Column I Column II
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(i) Na2O A. Neutral
correct answer from the options given below.
(ii) Al2O3 B. Basic
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(iii) N2O C. Acidic
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(iv) Cl2O7 D. Amphoteric
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
Which of the following options has all correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. pairs?
75. Which of the following is dependent on (1) (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-C
temperature :
(2) (i)-C, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-D
(1) Weight percentage (3) (i)-A, (ii)-D, (iii)-B, (iv)-C
(2) Molality (4) (i)-B, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-C
u te
tit
(3) Molarity 80. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
s nature?
(4) Mole fraction
t In (1) MgO
76. Given below are two statements :
igh (2) BeO
Statement I : L
ew (3) BaO
Dinitrogen with hydrogen at about 773 K in the
presence of a catalyst to form ammonia.
N (4) CaO
81. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?
Statement II :
(1) SnO2
Dinitrogen combines with dioxygen only at very high
temperature to form nitric oxide. (2) CaO
(3) SiO2
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below (4) CO2

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 82. Given below are two statements :

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I :

573 K, 60  70 bar
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Xe(g)+ 3F2(g)   XeF6(s)

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct Statement II :

77. The element Z =114 has been discovered recently. 143 K

XeF4+ O2F2   XeF6  O 2
It will belowing to which of the following family
group and electronic configuration : In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f14, 6d107s2 7p6
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f14, 6d107s2 7p5
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f14, 6d107s2 7p2
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f14, 6d107s2 7p4 (4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
NLI / 12
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
83. Which of the following is the most basic oxide? 88. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as
Lewis acid decreases in the sequence
(1) SeO2
(1) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
(2) Al2O3
(2) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(3) Sb2O3
(3) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
(4) Bi2O3
(4) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
84. What is the correct relationship between the pH
of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide, Na2O (pH1), 89. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule
sodium sulphide, Na2S (pH2), sodium selenide
(1) contains replaceable H+ ion
Na2Se (pH3) and sodium telluride Na2Te (pH4) :
(2) gives up a proton
(1) pH1 > pH2 > pH3 > pH4
(3) accepts OH– from water releasing proton
(2) pH1 > pH2 = pH3 > pH4
(4) combines with proton from water, molecule.
(3) pH1 < pH2 < pH3 < pH4
90. The atomic number of the element unnilennium
(4) pH1 < pH2 < pH3 = pH4 is :
85. Among the following the correct order of acidity (1) 109
is :
(2) 102
(1) HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
(3) 108
(2) HClO4< HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
(4) 119
(3) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
91.
u teThe element with Z=120 (not yet discovered) will
(4) HClO < HClO < HClO < HClO
2 3 4
stit be an/a:

t In (1) transition metal

SECTION-B
igh (2) inner transition metal

86.
L
Equal volumes of two monatomic gases, A and B (3) alkaline earth metal
w
at same temperature and pressure areemixed.
N
The ratio of specific heats (CP /CV) of the mixture
(4) alkali metal

will be 92. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl

substituted amines in aqueous solution is :
(1) 0.83
(1) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
(2) 1.50
(2) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(3) 3.3
(3) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(4) 1.67 (4) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
87. In which of the following reactions, standard 93. Which of the following is an amphoteric
reaction entropy change (S°) is positive and hydroxide?
standard Gibbs energy change (G°) decreases
sharply with increasing temperature : (1) Be(OH)2
(2) Sr(OH)2
1
(1) C(graphite)  O2(g)  CO(g) (3) Ca(OH)2
2
(4) Mg(OH)2
1 94. Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4
(2) CO(g)  O2(g)  CO2(g)
2 at 80–1000C forms which one of the following
products :
1 (1) 1, 4-Dinitrobenzene
(3) Mg(g)  O2(g)  MgO(g)
2
(2) 1, 2, 4-Trinitrobenzene
1 1 1 (3) 1, 2-Dinitrobenzene
(4) C(graphite)  O2(g)  CO2(g)
2 2 2 (4) 1, 3-Dinitrobenzene
NLI / 13
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023

95. Which one has the lowest boiling point? 98. Which of the following statements is not valid for
oxoacids of phosphorus?
(1) NH3
(1) Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture
(2) PH3 of triple superphosphate.

(3) AsH3 (2) Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.

(3) All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated
(4) SbH3
phosphorus.
96. Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus (4) All oxoacids contain atleast one P=O unit and one
has strongest reducing property? P—OH group.
(1) H4P2O7 99. P2O5 is heated with water to give

(2) H3PO3 (1) hypophosphorous acid

(2) phosphorous acid
(3) H3PO2
(3) hypophosphoric acid
(4) H3PO4
(4) orthophosphoric acid.
97. Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
100. Reaction between benzaldehyde and
(1) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is
phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid. known as :
(1) Aldol condensation
(2) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic
acid is a monoprotic acid. (2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
u te
t(4)it Cross Aldol condensation
(3) Both are diprotic acids. (3) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
s
(4) Both are triprotic acids.
t In
igh
L
ew
N

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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023

TOPIC : Data, Term Bold Lattice Rule, Phenomenon (Process), Numerical

PART–1–[SECTION–A] 104. Given below are two statements :
101. Find the correct statement of the following with Statement I :
regard processes and classification
Angiosperm fertile flower bearing stamens called
a) All living organisms can be classified into different staminode
taxa. This process of classification is taxonomy. Statement II :
b) characterisation, identification, classification and During embryogenesis, zygote undergoes meiotic cell
nomenclature are the processes that are basic division and cell differentiation.
to taxonomy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
c) Artificial systems of classification of Linnaeus is correct answer from the options given below
based on androecium structure of flowering (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
plants.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) Process of double fertilization is unique event to
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
all angiosperm except monocotyledons.
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct
(1) a, b and d
105. Find the correct matching of the following
(2) b, c and d
a) Two flagella i) Cycas gametes
(3) Only a and d
b) Two unequal flagella ii) Porphyra
(4) a, b, and c
c) 2-8 equal flagella iii) Green algae
102. Find the correct in the following: d) Flagella absent iv) Fucus gametes
a) Bioluminescence is well-marked in ctenophores. e
e) tMulticiliated v) Anthrozoids
tu
b) Development of the zygotes into young embryos
sti a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(1)
take place within the female gametophytes. This
event is a precursor to the seed habit in all t In (2) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
pteridophytes.
igh (3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
c) Zygote produces multicellular sporophyte body L (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
w
Ne
with under going reduction division in bryophytes. 106. If number of diploid chromosomes in butterfly are
380, than find the number of chromosomes in
d) When gametophytic phase is represented by the meiocyte, gametes and secondary oocytes
single to few-celled haploid gametophyte this kind rspectively
of life cycle is termed as diplontic. (1) 190, 190, 380
(1) a, b and d (2) 380, 380, 190
(2) a, c and d (3) 380, 190, 380
(3) Only a and c (4) 380, 190, 190
107. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(4) a and d
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
103. Which is the correct for gymnosperms Reason (R)
(1) Multicellular megasporangium - two cell Assertion (A)
megaspore - multicellular female gametophyte - The pollen grains represent the male gametophytes.
2 or more archegonia. Reason (R)
(2) Multicellular megasporangium - one cell It develop from cells produced after meiosis of
megaspore - multicellular female gametophyte - microspore mother cells
2 or more archegonia. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below :
(3) Multicellular megasporangium - one cell (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
megaspore - one celled female gametophyte - 2 correct explanation of (A)
or more archegonia. (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) Multicellular megasporangium - one cell (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
megaspore - multicellular female gametophyte - (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
1 to 2 archegonia. explanation of (A)
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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
108. Match the following with respect to carpel in the 113. Find the correct option in the given following
following given membres
a) A flower having either only stamens or only
a) Many free i) Papaver carpels is unisexual.
b) Many fused ii) Michelia b) Androecium is epiphyllous when attached to the
c) One iii) Gloriosa perianth as in the flowers of lily.
d) Three iv) Pisum c) If a fruit is formed without fertilisation of the
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii ovary, it is called a parthenocarpic fruit.
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii d) The hilum is a scar on the seed coat
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (1) a, b and d
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (2) b, c and d
109. Number of meiosis require to produce 101 male (3) Only a and d
gametophytes, eggs and zygote respectively
(4) a, b, c and d
(1) 25, 25, 50
114. Find the correct matching of the following
(2) 26, 101, 101
a) Over 100 meter tall i) Bony fishes
(3) 25, 26, 202
b) 3 cells ii) Arthropoda
(4) 26, 101, 127
c) 8 nucleated iii) Embryo sac
110. Find the correct matching of the following
d) Over 2/3 species iv) Egg apparatus
a) 1.7-1.8 million i) Infectious living fluid
b) 1969 ii) Dmitri Ivanowsky e) 4 pairs gills v) Eucalyptus

c) Billion of year iii) Diatoms accumulates (1) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
d) 1892 iv) R.H. Whittekar e b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
a-iv,
t (2)
e) 1898 v) Species described
titu a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
(3)
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
Ins(4) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
ht A women have 5 child with extensive lactation,
115.
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
Lig than about how many menstrual cycle are absent
in their reproductive period
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
e w (1) 5
111. In the dihybrid cross round yellow andNwrinkled
green seeds are crossed, how many of them with (2) 15
recombinat phenotypes were seen (3) 75
(1) 1/16
(4) 140
(2) 3/16
116. The outside of the epidermis is often covered with
(3) 6/16 a waxy thick layer called the ......... which prevents
(4) 9/16 the loss of water
112. Find the correct option: (1) Cuticle
a) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside (2) Suberin
by two types of cells called male germ cells
(spermatogonia) and Leydig cells (3) Cork

b) Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin (4) Periderm

called uterus maetus. 117. Match the following with respect to stamen of the
c) After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become given members
embedded in the Sertoli cells a) Six, 2 small and i) Allium
d) Placenta produces human chorionic gonadotropin 4 long
(hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL),
estrogens, progestogens. b) Six in two Ring ii) Brassica
Choose ilie correct answer from the options given c) Five iii) Solanum
below: (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(1) (c) and (d) Only (2) (a) and (c) Only (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(3) (b) and (d) Only (4) (a) and (b) Only (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii

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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
118. Given below are two statements : 121. Match the following
Statement I : a) 15 nm by 20 nm i) Ribosomes size

Lactational amenorrhea is absence of menstruation b) 6.0 inches ii) Egg of an ostrich

and thus absence of implantation. c) 50s and 30s iii) Units of ribosomes

Statement II : d) 52 %, 40 % iv) Protein and lipid of cell

membrane
Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, transfer into (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
the uterus
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
correct answer from the options given below
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 122. How many type of genotypes of blood group are
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect possible for A, B, AB and O respectively

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (1) A, B, AB and O = one, two one, two respectively
(2) A, B, AB and O = one, one, two, two respectively
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct
(3) A, B, AB and O = two, one, two,one respectively
119. Find the correct matching with respect to various
(4) A, B, AB and O = two, two one, one respectively
structures numbers in cockroach
123. Match the following
a) 7th, 8th & 9th sterna i) Female gonopore
a) 1 to 19 carbons i) Nitrogenous bases
b) 9th and 10th terga ii) In males, genital b) 20 types ii) R group of a fatty acid
pouch
c) e Da
t800 iii) Types of amino acids
u
tit
c) 10th segment iii) a pair jointed anal in protein
cerci sd) 4 types iv) Molecular weights of
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i t In lipid do not exceed

(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii igh (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
L (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
ew (3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii N (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
120. Find the correct options: 124. A cross of a red-eyed female Drosophila with a
white-eyed male produces all red-eyed offspring.
a) Henking worked with the tiny fruit files, Drosophila
If the gene is sex linked, what should the recipro-
melanogaster cal cross (white-eyed female x red-eyed male)
b) Female heterogamety where females have one Z produce? (Assume that the red allele is dominant
to the white allele)
and one W chromosome,
(1) All white-eyed flies
c) Physical association of genes on a chromosome
(2) 3 red-eyed flies to 1 white-eyed
and the term recombination to describe the
generation of non-parental gene combinations (3) A 1:1 ratio of red and white eyes
(4) Red-eyed females and white-eyed males
d) Example of ABO blood grouping provides a good
example of polygenic inheritance? 125. Match the following
a) Every 24 hours i) Yeast completes its
Choose ilie correct answer from the options given cell cycle
below:
b) 23 hours ii) Typical eukaryotic
(1) (b) and (c) Only human cells divide
once
(2) (a) and (c) Only
c) 5% time iii) Time duration of
(3) (b) and (d) Only interphase
(4) (a) and (b) Only d) 90 minutes iv) Duration of M-phase
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iii, d-i
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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i (2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
126. The tangential as well as radial walls of the 131. Given below are two statements :
endodermal cells have a deposition of water
Statement I :
impermeable, waxy material-suberin-in the form
of There is a set of positively charged, basic proteins
(1) Casparian strips called histones in eukaryotes.
(2) Cuticle Statement II :
(3) Periderm
The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the
(4) Phelloderm
positively charged histone octamer to form a structure
127. Myotonic dystrophy is caused by a dominant gene called nucleosome
but only 10% of the people actually develop it,
what proportion of the children would be In the light of the above statements, choose the
expected to develop the disease if a heterozygous
correct answer from the options given below
man marries a homozygous normal woman
(1) 1 : 5 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) 1 : 10 (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) 1 : 15
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) 1 : 20.
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct
128. The flow of water upward through the xylem in
plants can achieve fairly high rates, up to 132. Match the following
(1) 15 metres/day u te
a)it 3-carbon i) Glucose
(2) 15 metres/minute. st
(3) 15 metres/hour. t In b) 4-carbon ii) Phosphoglyceric acid

(4) 15 metres/sec.
igh c) 5-carbon iii) Oxaloacetic acid
129. Given below are two statements : one is labelled L d) 6-carbon iv) Ribulose biphosphate
w
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled aseReason
(R) N (1) a-iv, b-iii, c- i, d-ii
Assertion (A) (2) a-ii, b-iii, c- iv, d-i
Ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine
and Cytosine are constant and equals one. (3) a-i, b-iii, c- ii, d-iv

Reason (R) (4) a-ii, b-i, c- iv, d-iii

Purines pairs with pyrimidine and vice versa
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
133. A couple believed that they have brought the fact
that genes are located on chromosomes wrong
baby home from the hospital. The wife is of blood
group O, her husband of group B and child of
group O. Could baby be theirs ?
(1) Chance are 50%

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (2) Chance are 25%
explanation of (A)
(3) Chance are 100%
130. Match the following with respect to element
a) > 60 i) Element found in (4) Chance are 75%
different plants. 134. Yeast poison themsleves to death when the
b) 105 ii) Element discovered so concentration of alcohol reaches about
for
c) 10-8 g/ mL iii) Concentrartion of (1) About 2%
element can detct in (2) About 5%
plant by techniques

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 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
(3) About 10% (3) (b) and (d) Only

(4) About 13% (4) (b) (c) and (d)

139. Match the following
135. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason a) pH 6.8 i) pH of pancreatic juice
(R) b) pH 7.8 ii) pH of Gastric juice
Assertion (A) c) pH 1.8 iii) pH of saliva is
Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition. (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
Reason (R) (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
Cell division become uncontrolled (3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
correct answer from the options given below :
140. If gene frequency between genes is b and c is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the 13% ; b and d 4% ; a and b 15%;. c and d 17% and
correct explanation of (A) a and d 19%, what will be the sequence between
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct a and c.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) 5%
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (2) 2%
explanation of (A) (3) 3%
PART–1–[SECTION–B] (4) 8%
136. Find the incorrect statement in the given following 141. Match the following with respect to partial
options pressures of of
(1) Cockroach is uricotelic. 159 a) i) pCO2 in Alveoli & &
te pO2 in tissue
(2) Melpighian tubules are yellow in colour u
(3) Cardiac muscles are contractile tissue in heart stit 104
b) ii) pO2 in Oxygenated
In c) 95
blood
(4) Adipose tissue present in the skin.
t iii) pO2 in Alveoli
137. Match the following
igh d) 40 iv) pO2 of atmpspheric Air
a) 30 %. i) About ...% of O isL
w
carried in a dissolved
e
2
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
N
state through the
plasma.
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
b) 3% ii) ...% CO2 of it is carried
as bicarbonate. (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

c) 70% iii) About ..% of O2 is 142. Find the correct option

transported by RBCs a) Inbreeding increase homozygosity
in the blood.
b) Inbreeding depression is due to continuous out
d) 97% iv) Starch digested by cross
ptyalin
c) Germplasm collection is the root of any breeding
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv programme
(2) a-iv, bi-, c-ii, d-iii d) Method of production of thousands of plants
(3) a-iv, bi-, c-iii, d-ii through tissue culture is called hydroponics

(4) a-iv, bii-, c-i, d-iii (1) (c) and (d) Only

138. Find the correct option (2) (a) and (c) Only
a) Typhoid fever caused by protozoan Salmonella (3) (b) and (d) Only
typhii (4) (b) (c) and (d)
b) Haemophilus injluenzae responsible for 143. The following size, number, height are associated
pneumonia with
c) Each antibody molecule consists of four peptide a) 25-50m i) Cryopreservation
chains,
b) 30 genera ii) Amorphophalus
d) Yellowish fluid colostrum, secreted by mother
c) 30 minutes iii) Wheat and rice
during initial days of lactation
d) 6 feet iv) Hydrophylly
(1) (c) and (d) Only 0
e) -196 C v) Pollen grains
(2) (a) and (c) Only
NLI / 19
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v (2) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii (3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
144. If the number of chromosomes at G1 phase are
148. How many pollen mother cells should undergo
four then what will be the number of
chromosomes at G2 phase and in spermatids, meiotic division to produce 32 pollen grains :
respectively
(1) 64
(1) Eight and four
(2) Eihgt and Two (2) 32
(3) Four and four
(3) 16
(4) Four and two
145. The following size, number, temperature are (4) 8
associated with
149. Find the correct option
a) 2-2.5 C0 i) Semen ejaculation
a) DNA fragments separated by a technique known
b) 1-3 ii) Mammary lobes
as morphogenesis.
c) 10-12 iii) Fallopian tubes
b) Making multiple identical copies of any template
d) 15-20 iv) Seminiferous tubules DNA is called cloning.
e) 200-300 million v) Scrotum c) The method known as micro-injection, where
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i recombinant DNA is directly injected into the
nucleus of an prokaryotic cell.
(2) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
e restriction endonuclease recognises a
tEach d)
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii u
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v stit specific
DNA.
palindromic nucleotide sequences in the

146. Find the correct option t In

g h (1) (c) and (d) Only

Li
a) Lactic acid bacteria grow in milk and convert it to
(2) (a) and (b) Only
curd
e w (3) (b) and (d) Only
treatment
N
b) Secondary treatment of sewage is biological
(4) (b) (c) and (d)
c) Anaerobic sludge digester is responsible for 150. Find the coorect option
producing biogas having methane
a) 32 i) Down’s syndrome
chloroflorocarbon, and ozone
b) 16 ii) Klienfelter’s
d) Biofertilizers are organism are poor in nutrient
syndromes
quality of the soil
c) 45 iii) Turner’s syndrome
(1) (c) and (d) Only
d) 47 (AA + XXY) iv) Drones
(2) (a) and (b) Only
(3) (b) and (d) Only e) 47 (AAA + XX) v) Worker bees

(4) (b) (c) and (d) (1) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii

147. Find the correct matching (2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii

a) First month i) Eye lids separates (3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i

b) Second month ii) Movement of foetus (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v

c) Third month end iii) Major organ system PART–2–[SECTION–A]

d) Fifth month iv) Limbs and digits 151 How many fragments of DNA are produces when
pBR322 are cut by BamH1 and Pvu I restriction
e) Sixth month v) Heart
endonucleases
(1) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(1) Two
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(2) Three

NLI / 20
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
(3) Four (1) (c) and (d) Only (2) (a) and (b) Only
(4) No fragments (3) (b) and (d) Only (4) (b) (c) and (d)
152. Match the following with respect to nucleic acid 156. If 20 individuals in a laboratory population of 40
fruitflies died during a specified time interval, say
a) 5’  3’ i) Different bases in RNA a week, the death rate will be __ individuals per
b) 3.4 nm ii) Polarity of DNA/RNA fruitfly per week.
c) 0.34 nm iii) Pitch of helix of DNA (1) 0.1
d) Two iv) Distance between bp (2) 0.2
e) Four v) Polynucleotide chain in (3) 0.5
DNA
(4) 0.4
(1) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
157. if a new habitat is just being colonised than which
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii of the following equation will be most appropriate
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v, e-i (1) I-30, E-10, M-12, N-7
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v (2) I-40, E-1, M-22, N-17
153. Find the correct option (3) I-30, E-100, M-2, N-17
a) A novel strategy was adopted to prevent (4) I-303, E-5, M-2, N-7
infestation which was based on the process of
DNA interference (DNAi). 158. Match the following with respect to evolution of
few ancestern organism
b) Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes
have been altered by manipulation are called a) 200 mya i) Man like primates
Genetically Modified Organisms. walked
u te in eastern Africa.
tit 65 mya
c) Chain A and chain C, of insulin are linked together
by disulphide bridges
sb) ii) Primates like
d) The toxin is coded by a gene named cry.
t In Dryopithecus and

gh
Ramapithecus were
(1) (c) and (d) Only (2) (a) and (b) Only
Li existed
(3) (b) and (d) Only (4) (b) (c) and (d)
154. Match the following ew c) 15 mya iii) Dinosaurs suddenly
disappeared on earth
N
a) 200-300 Adenylate i) Post transcrptional d) 3-4 mya iv) Reptiles of different
changes shape and size
b) 20 AA ii) Take part in protein dominated on earth
synthesis (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
c) 64 codons iii) Produced by
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
permutation
combination (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
6
d) 4.6 ×10 bp iv) E. coli (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
9
e) 6.6 × 10 bp v) Human diploid content
159. Given below are two statements :
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
Statement I :
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-v, e-iv
Vertical distribution of different species occupying
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-v, e-iv
different levels- is called stratification.
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
Statement II :
155. Find the incorrect option
Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses
a) The interaction where one species is benefitted
and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
called commensalism. In the light of the above statements, choose the
b) In mutulism both species are not benefited correct answer from the options given below
c) In amensalism one species is harmed whereas (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
the other is unaffected.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) In competition both species are not harmed

NLI / 21
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct (4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct

160. Match the following with respect to cranial 164. Match the following with various disease related
capacity of evolutionary human to human

a) 650-680 cc. i) Homo erectus a) 39° to 40°C i) Common cold

b) 900 cc. ii) Neanderthal man b) 3-7 days. ii) Typhoid fever

c) 1400 cc iii) Homo habilis c) 50 per cent iii) AIDS

d) 18,000 cc. iv) None d) 5-10 years iv) MALT

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
161. Given below are two statements : 165. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Statement I :
Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of Such sacred grove Khasi and Jaintia Hills found in
formation of new organic matter by consumers. Meghalaya.

Statement II : Statement II :

By the process of leaching, water soluble inorganic Species confined to the region and not found anywhere
else called endemism.
te
nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get
precipitated as unavailable salts. u
tit
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
In the light of the above statements, choose the s
correct answer from the options given below
t In (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect h
ig (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
L
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
w
Necorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct 166. Adequate food not meet to ....... people in the
162. 809Kg m–2 dry weight of producers supported top world.
consumer to produces their dry weight is about (1) Less than 840 million
in grass land biomass pyramid
(2) More than 840 billion
(1) 1.5 Kg m –2
(3) More than 840 million
(2) 11 Kg m–2
(4) 840 thousand
(3) 37 Kg m–2
167. Given below are two statements :
(4) 809 Kg m–2
Statement I :
163. Given below are two statements :
Electrostatic precipitator can remove over 99 per cent
Statement I : particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal
The entire sequence of communities that successively power plant.
change in a given area are called seral. Statement II :
Statement II : Presence of large amounts of nutrients in waters also
Amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, causes excessive growth of planktonic algae, called
phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in the soil at any an algal bloom .
given time, is referred to as the standing crop.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

NLI / 22
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-v, e-iii
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii, e-v
168. Match the following with respect to temperature 172. Match the followng with respect to total Species
and process products in India:
a) 420C i) Purified DNA ultimately a) 2.4 per cent. i) India share of the
precipitates out global
species diversity
b) Chilled ethanol ii) Heat shock method
b) 8.1 per cent. ii) India has only world's
c) 1 billion copies iii) Bioreactors, where
large volumes vessels land area
are used c) 12 mega diversity iii) India rank in
d) 100-1000 litres iv) PCR biodiversity
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii in World

(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv d) 22 per cent iv) May's global total
169. Given below are two statements : species have been.
Statement I : recorded
UV-B causes inflammation of cornea, called snow- (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
blindness, cataract.
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Statement II :
Ozone hole is the area above Antarctica. shown in (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
purple colour. e b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
ta-i, (4)
u
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below tit the following with respect to Amazonian
173. Match
s
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect t In rain forest biodiversity on earth
(2) igh
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
a) 378 i) Reptiles

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is w

L
correct
b) 427 ii) Birds & mammals

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are N

e
correct c) 1,300 & 3,000 iii) Fishes & birds
respectively
170. Population growth curve of last 100 year is .......
Gather from Government Census for India d) 40,000 iv) Plants
(1) J shaped v) Amphibians,
(2) S shaped mammals
(3) Pyramidal vi) Birds & fishes
(4) Z shaped respectively
171. Match the following height, times and number (1) a-ii, b-v, c- vi, d- iv
based options
(2) a-i, b-ii, c- vi, d- iv
a) >3,500m Height i) Siberian cranes at
Bharatpur wetlands in (3) a-i, b-iv, c- v, d- iii
any year (4) a-i, b-v, c- vi, d- iv
b) > 100 times ii) Partheniun 174. Match the following with respect to protected area
c) < 10 iii) Pressure at great in India
depths in the ocean a) 14 i) National parks
d) 200 iv) Altitude sickness b) 90 ii) Wildlife sanctuaries
e) Millions of v) Chlamydomonas in a c) 448 iii) Biosphere reserves
pond
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(1) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i, e-ii (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i

NLI / 23
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023

(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (3) Toxins Abrin, Ricin

(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (4) Lectins Concanavalin A

175. Which of the following matching is incorrect 181. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme
is the inhibition of
(1) Over 99 per cent - Particulate matter
remove (1) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
by Electrostatic (2) cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
precipitator
(3) hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
(2) 2.5 micrometers - Particulate size
responsible for (4) carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide.
causing 182. X-shaped structures of chromosome are called
the greatest harm to chiasmata, observed at
human health.
(1) Zygotene
(3) 150 dB - Sound generated by
(2) Pachytene
take off of a jet plane or
rocket (3) Dipoltene
(4) 0.01 per cent - impurities make (4) Diakinesis
domestic sewage unfit 183. The bolus is then conveyed into the pharynx and
176. Biologists developed a series of ....... connected then into the oesophagus by
marshes over ............ hectares of marsh land. (1) Deglutition
(1) Four and 60
(2) Peristalsis
(2) Six and 60
u te (3) Digestion
(3) Eight and 60
t
(4)it Egestion
s
(4) Six and 40
In Egestion of faeces to the outside through the anal
184.
177. Without green house effect the average ht opening is called defaecation. It is a
i
temperature at surface of earth would have beeng
L (1) Voluntary process
a w
(1) Chilly -18°C Ne (2) Mass peristaltic movement
(3) Both are correct
(2) Average of 15°C
(4) Involuntary process
(3) Hot 15°C
185. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates at
(4) 45°C
(1) Low Po2 in tissues
178. The chloroplast contain pigment
(2) High Po2 in tissues
(1) Chlorophyll and phycobillins
(3) Equal Po2
(2) Carotinoids and phycobillins
(4) All times irrespective of Po2
(3) Chlorophyll and carotenoids
PART–2–[SECTION–B]
(4) Chlorophyll and anthocyanin
186. Pace maker is
179. Axoneme of flagella consists of
(1) SA node
(1) Nine pair of doublets
(2) AV node
(2) Nine pairs of triplets
(3) Bundle of His
(3) Two microtubules
(4) Purkinje fibres
(4) One microtubule
187. P - wave in graph ECG represents
180. Match the incorrect secondary metabolites
(1) Depolarisation of the atria.
(1) Alkaloids Vinablastin, Curcumin
(2) Depolarisation of the ventricles
(2) Terpenoides Monoterpenes, Diterpenes
NLI / 24
 All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023

(3) Repolarisation of atria (3) Formed by pre-synaptic membrane, post-synaptic

membrane only
(4) Repolarisation of ventricle
(4) Synaptic cleft and neurotransmitter.
188. First step in urine formation is 195. The region of the brain, which are responsible
(1) Tubular secretion for complex functions like memory and commu-
nication is the
(2) Tubular reabsorption
(1) Hypothalamus
(3) Ultrafiltration
(2) Cerebral cortx
(4) Selective secretion.
(3) Association area of cortex
189. Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is
(4) Inner parts of cerebral hemispheres.
(1) Vasoconstrictor
196. Which of the following is correct sequence of
(2) Vasodialator
decomposition processes in an ecosystem
(3) Osmoreceptors
(1) Fragmentation - Leaching- Humification -
(4) Osmoregulator Mineralization
190. Fascia is (2) Cataboloism - Humification - Mineralization -
(1) Collagenous connective tissue layer. Leaching

(2) Elastic connective tissue layer. (3) Fragmentation - Humification - Leaching-

Mineralization
(3) Fibrous connective tissue layer.
(4) Mineralization - Leaching - Humification -
(4) Elastic and fibrous connective tissue layer. Fragmentation
191. Sternum bone of human is
te
197. The function of eustachian tube is
u
(1) Cylindrical
stit It connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx.
(1)
(2) Slender
t In (2) It equalising the pressures on either sides of the
(3) Flat bone
g h ear drum.
(4) Loose Li (3) It help in balancing the body is static condition
192. Choose the type of nervous system and type of ew (4) Help in transpotation of substances
muscle supplying visceral organs N 198. Which of the following is correct
(1) Sympathetic nervous system, voluntary a) Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of our body.
(2) Sympathetic nervous system, involun-tary b) Vasopressin stimulates resorption of water and
electrolytes by the distal tubules.
(3) Parasympathetic nervous system, involuntary
c) GH results in stunted growth resulting in critin
(4) Both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous dwarfism.
systems" involuntary.
d) TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
193. Match the following regarding neuron and their parathyroid hormones.
occurance (1) a and b
a) Multipolar i) Embryonic stage (2) a and c
b) Bipolar ii) Cerebral cortex (3) a, b and c
c) Unipolar iii) Retina of eye (4) a, b c and d.
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii 199. If in a pond there are 20 lotus plants last year and.
through reproduction 8 new plants are added.
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i taking the current population to 28. calculate the
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii birth rate
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (1) 0.4
194. A synapses is (2) 160

(1) A croos of two homologous chromosomes. (3) 2.5

(4) None
(2) Formed by the membranes of a pre-synaptic
neuron and a post-synaptic neuron and synaptic 200. Thymosin production decreases
cleft. (1) With advancing the age
(2) Above 50 years age
NLI / 25
(3) Just after birth
 NEW LIG H T INSTITUTE TEST AND INFO RM ATIO N C ENTRES
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2 n d FL OOR C H ITR AH AR B U IL D IN G,
8317018795,
1 L U C KN OW N AW AL KISH OR E R OAD , H AZR ATGAN J,
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L U C KN OW- 2 2 6 0 0 1
N E W L IGH T IN STITU TE
2 VAR AN ASI B-2 6 /9 3 -A N EAR BL OC K N O. 1 3 K AB EER N AGAR 8810783726
D U R GAKU N D VAR AN ASI.
3 9 /7 /4 0 , C H U R C H L AN E (OPP. H OL Y TR IN ITY SC H OOL ) 9415646604,
PR AYAGR AJ
PR AYAG R AJ 9335145683
SH ASW AT C AR E ER IN STITU TE
8528299723,
4 FAIZABAD , AYOD H YA SH AN K AR GAR H BAZAR , D EVK AL I B YPASS
9565140705
AMBED KAR N AGAR R OAD , FAIZABAD
A-2 8 , R AJEN D R A N AGAR ,
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GE N IU S IN S TITU TE, R AH U L C H AU R AH A,
6 SU L TAN PU R N ABIPU R R OAD N EAR PE TR OL PU MP. 7860121717
SU L TAN PU R
N E W L IGH T IN STITU TE
8810783723
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8810783724
BOBIN A R OAD , GOR AKH P U R
N E ET/JEE IN STITU TE
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N E AR Y.D . C OL L EGE , L AK H IMP U R KH E R I 7398400822
OP P. OPD GATE N O.2
8004242662,
10 BAN D A R AJKEYA AL L OP ATH IC ME D IC AL C OL L E GE,
8299486837
N AR AIN I R OAD , BAN D A-2 1 0 0 0 1
GAYATR I C L ASS ES
11 MEE R U T N E AR K AC H EH R I, OP P. S AGAR C OMPU TEX 9319965050
PL -SH AR MA R OAD MEER U T
SAC H IN C OAC H IN G C L AS SES
12 MOR AD ABAD 9258164797
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H OU SE N O. 1 4 9
8574955958,
15 JAU N PU R IN FR ON T OF R OAD W AYS BU S STAN D ,
9452061465
KAC H E H AR I R OAD , JAU N PU R -2 2 2 0 0 2
SAN SH IKSH A AC AD E MY, 2 N D FL OOR ,
7705002074,
16 R AE BAR EL I ZAMEE R C OMPOU N D ABOVE SBI C ITY B R AN C H FL OOR ,
7705002075
C AN AL R OAD , R AEBAR EL I
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17 ETAW AH
IN FR ON T OF R E L IAN C E S MAR T POIN T ETAW AH -2 0 6 0 0 1 8126670494
IS L AMIA IN TER C OL L EGE JAL E SAR R OAD
18 FIR OZAB AD 9219148213
FIR OZABAD -2 8 3 2 0 3
N E W L IGH T IN STITU TE
19 AGR A 7011186515
N E AR B H AGWAN TAL KIES PETR OL PU MP AGR A
N E W TOPPE R S AC AD EMY
9540591160
20 D EL H I A-1 /1 7 FIR S T FL OOR JAN AKPU R I W EST N EAR AK ASH
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C OAC H IN G, N EW D E L H I 1 1 0 0 5 8
GL OBAL IN S TITU TE OF C OMMER C E
21 KOTA R AJSTH AN C -1 0 0 S U W AL AL KAC H OR I L AN E TAL W AN D I 8852916556
KOTA 3 2 4 0 0 5
VIS ION KOTA C L ASSE S B AZAR SAMITI S AKETPU R I, 7903420077
22 PATN A B IH AR N E AR N MC H R AIL W AY C R OSS IN G, PATN A 8 0 0 0 1 6 7549783828
All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023

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All India IPL Test–04 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / 07-Feb.-2023

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