FST 43

ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23
FULL SYLLABUS TEST-43

TEST-ID : 243
DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 03-05-2023 MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : Full Syllabus
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
All India Full Syllabus Test–43 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Series-A / 03-May-2023
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NLI / 2
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (Model)

SECTION-A -A
Attempt All 35 Questions 35

1. Three charges –q1, +q 2 and –q3 are placed as 1. –q1, +q2 –q3 –q 1
shown in the figure. The x-component of the force
x
on –q1 is proportional to :
q2 q2 q2 q2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
q2 q2 q2 q2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2. In the following four situations charged particles 2.

are at equal distance from the origin. Arrange
them the magnitude of the net electric field at
origin greatest first :
(1) i > ii > iii > iv (1) i > ii > iii > iv
(2) ii > i > iii > iv (2) ii > i > iii > iv
(3) i > iii > ii > iv (3) i > iii > ii > iv
(4) iv > iii > ii > i (4) iv > iii > ii > i
3. Two point charge Q and –3Q are placed at some 3. Q –3Q
distance apart. If the electric field at the location Q E –3Q
of Q is E then at the locality of –3Q, it is :
(1) –E (1) –E
(2) E/3 (2) E/3
(3) –3E (3) –3E
(4) –E/3 (4) –E/3
NLI / 3
4. The tracks of three charged particles in a uniform 4.
electrostatic field are shown in figure. Which
particle has highest charge to mass ratio :
(1) A
(1) A
(2) B (2) B
(3) C (3) C
(4) A and B. (4) A B.
5. An infinitely long wire is kept along z-axis from 5. z-

z=– to z = + having uniform linear charge z=– z=+
10 nC 10 nC
(6cm, 8 cm, 10 cm)
density . The electric field at point (6cm, 9 m
9 m
8 cm, 10 cm) will be :
V
V (1)
(1) m
m
V V
(2) 200kˆ (2) 200kˆ
m m
V V
(3) (3)
m m
V V
(4) (4)
m m
6. A charged particle of charge 'Q' is held fixed and 6. 'Q' 'q' 'm'
another charged particle of mass 'm' and charge 'r' 'q' 'Q' 'r'
'q' (of the same sign) is released from a distance 'q' 'Q' 2r
'r'. The impulse of the force exerted by the external

agent on the fixed charge by the time distance
(1)
between 'Q' and 'q' becomes 2r is :
(1) (2)
(2) (3)
(3) zero
(4) cannot determine. (4)
NLI / 4
7. A point charge 'Q' is placed at the centre of a 7. 'Q' 'a'
spherical cavity of radius 'b' carved inside a solid 'b'
conducting sphere of radius 'a'. Then total energy
1
1 : k = 4πε
of the system is : k = 4πε 0
0
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
8. The equivalent capacitance of three capacitors of 8. 12 C1

capacitance C1, C2 & C3 are connected in parallel
C2 C3 = 48 C1 C2 6
is 12 units &product C1 C2 C 3 = 48. When the
capacitors C1 & C2 are connected in parallel the
equivalent capacitance is 6 unit. Then
(1) 2, 3, 7
capacitances are :
(1) 2, 3, 7 (2) 1.5, 2.5, 8
(2) 1.5, 2.5, 8
(3) 1, 5, 6
(3) 1, 5, 6
(4) 4, 2, 6 (4) 4, 2, 6
9. In an experiment to measure the internal 9. 

resistance of a cell by potentiometer, it is found
that the balance point is at a length of 2 m when 10 
the cell is shunted by a 5 resistance; and is at a
length of 3 m when the cell is shunted by a 10 
resistance. The internal resistance of the cell is, (1) 1.5 
then :
(2) 10 
(1) 1.5 
(2) 10  (3) 15 
(3) 15 
(4) 1 
(4) 1 
10. Magnetic field at point 'P' due to given current 10. 'P'
distribution is :
0 0 
0 0  (1) 1 2  (2) 1 2 
(1) 1 2  (2) 1 2  2r 2r
2r 2r
0 0  0 0

1 2  1 2  (3) 1 2  (4) 1 2 
(3) (4) 4r 4 r
4 r 4 r
NLI / 5
11. A metallic wire is folded to form a square loop of 11.
side a. It carri es a current 'i' and is kept a 'i'
perpendicular to a uniform field. If the shape of
loop is charged from square to a circle without
changing the length of the wire and current the
amount of work done in doing so is :
(1) iBa2 ( + 2) (2) iBa2 ( – 2) (1) iBa2 ( + 2) (2) iBa2 ( – 2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
12. A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated about a 12. 4l AC O


point O in a uniform magnetic field B directed into
the paper. AO = I and OC = 3 l . Then: AO = I
OC = 3 l :
B l 2 7
(1) e A  eO  (2) eO  eC  Bl 2
2 2 B l 2 7
(1) e A  eO  (2) eO  eC  Bl 2
2 2
9
(3) e A  eC  4 Bl 2 (4) eC  eO  Bl 2 9
2 (3) e A  eC  4 B l 2 (4) eC  eO  Bl 2
2
   
13. Two vectors P and Q having resultant vector R   
13. P Q R P
 
which is perpen dicular to vector P then Angle 
  P Q
between P and Q is :
LM OP LM OP L | Q| O

L |P| O

cos–1 M  P cos–1 M  P
 
| Q|
(1) cos–1 
MN
|P| PQ (2) cos–1
MN
|P|

| Q| PQ
(1)
MN |P| PQ (2)
MN |Q| PQ
(3) 45o (4) 60o
(3) 45o (4) 60o
14. Which of the following having same dimension : 14.
(1) Energy, torque (1)
(2) Force, Pressure (2)
(3) Mass, density (3)
(4) Speed, distance (4)
15. The minimum number of vectors of unequal 15.

magnitude required to produce a zero resultant
is :
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) More than 4. (4) 4
NLI / 6
16. If force (F) work (W) and velocity (v) are taken as 16. (F), (W) (v)
fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula (T)
of time (T) is :
(1) [W–1F–1v–1]
(1) [W –1F–1v–1]
(2) [W –1F2v–1] (2) [W–1F2v–1]
(3) [W 1F1v–2] (3) [W1F1v–2]
(4) [W 1F1v1] (4) [W 1F1v1]
17. If a body starts from rest, the time in which it covers 17.
a particular displacement with uniform
acceleration is :
(1) inversely proportional to the square root of the (1)
displacement
(2) inversely proportional to the displacement (2)
(3) directly proportional to the displacement (3)
(4) directly proportional to the square root of the
displacement (4)
18. A ball projected vertically upwards direction with 18. 55 m/s

initial velocity 55 m/s. The distance travelled in 6th
(g = 10
6th second of motion will be (g = 10 m/s2) m/s2)
(1) 2.5 m (1) 2.5 m
(2) 1.25 m (2) 1.25 m
(3) Zero (3) Zero
(4) 6 m (4) 6 m
19. A particle is moving eastwards with a speed of 19. 5 m/s 10 s
5 m/s. In 10 s its velocity changes to 5 m/s
northwards. The average acceleration in this time
is:
(1) 1/ 2 m/s2
(1) 1/2 m/s2 N–W
(2) 1/ 2 m/s2
(2) 1/2 m/s2 N–E
(3) 1/2 m/s2 N (3) 1/ 2 m/s2
(4) zero (4)

20. A body A starts from rest with an accleration a1. 20. A a1
After 2 seconds, another body B starts from rest B a2
with an acceleration a 2 . If they travel equal A
distance in the 5th second, after the start of A, a1 : a2 :
then the ratio a1 : a2 is equal to :
(1) 5 : 9
(1) 5 : 9
(2) 5 : 7
(2) 5 : 7
(3) 9 : 5 (3) 9 : 5
(4) 9 : 7 (4) 9 : 7
21. A point initially at rest moves along x-axis. Its 21. x-

acceleration varies with time as a=(3t + 5)m/s . If 2 a = (3t + 5)m/s2
it starts from origin, the distance covered in 2 s is:
(1) 20 m (2) 14 m (1) 20 m (2) 14 m
(3) 16 m (4) 25 m (3) 16 m (4) 25 m
NLI / 7
22. The adjoining four fig. show some velocity (v) versus 22.
time (t) curves. But only some of these can be :
realised in parctice. These are :
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
(1) A,B,D
(1) A,B,D only
(2) A,B,C
(2) A,B,C only
(3) B, D only (3) B, D
(4) All (4)
23. Two masses mA and mB moving with velocities vA 23. mA mB vA vB

and vB in opposite directions collide elastically. mA mB vB vA
After that the masses mA and m B move with
mA
mA
velocity vB and vA respectively. Then the ratio mB
mB
is : v A  vB
(1)
v A  vB v A  vB
(1)
v A  vB mA  mB
(2)
mA  mB mA
(2)
mA
vA
(3)
vA vB
(3)
vB (4) 1
(4) 1.
24.
24. A man in a lift will weigh more when :
(1)
(1) the lift goes up with increasing velocity
(2) the lift is at rest (2)
(3) the lift is slowing down while ascending (3)
(4) the lift is descending freely (4)
25. The maximum static frictional force is : 25.
(1) Equal to twice the area of the surface in contact (1)

(2) Independent of the area of surface in contact
(2)
(3) Equal to the area of surface in contact
(3)
(4) None of above
(4)
NLI / 8
26. In an elastic collision of two billiard balls during 26.
the short time of collision of the balls (i.e. when
they are in contact) : (1)
(1) Total kinetic energy conserved
(2)
(2) Total kinetic energy not conserved
(3)
(3) Total momentum not conserved
(4)
(4) None of these
27. A block of mass m is pulled along a circular arc, 27. m
by means of a constant horizontal force F as F
shown. Work done by this force in pulling block A B
from A to B is :
FR FR
(1) (1)
2 2
(2) FR (2) FR
3 3
(3) FR (3) FR
2 2
(4) mgR. (4) mgR.
28. The ratio of magnitudes of angular velocity of the 28.
hour hand of a watch to that of earth’s rotation
about its own axis is :
(1) 1 : 1
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 3
(4) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
29. A weightless thread can bear tension upto 3.2 kg
29. 3.2
wt. A stone of mass 500 gms is tied to it and revolved
in a circular path of radius 4 m in a vertical plane. 500 4
–2
If g = 10 ms–2, then the maximum angular velocity g = 10 ,
of the stone will be.
(1) 4 radians/sec (1) 4 radians/sec

30. Two satellites of mass m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are 30. m1 m2 (m1 > m2)
going around the earth in orbit of radius r1 and r2 r1 r2 (r1 > r2)
(r1 > r2). Which one statement about their velocities
is correct:
v1 v2
v1 v2 (1)
(1) r1 = r2
r1 = r2
(2) v1 < v2
(2) v1 < v2
(3) v1 = v2
(3) v1 = v2
(4) v1 > v2 (4) v1 > v2
NLI / 9
31. A flat horizontal board moves up and down in SHM 31. a SHM
of amplitude a. Then the shortest permission time
period of the vibration such that an object placed
on the board may not loose contact with the board
is:
g a
g a (1) 2 (2) 2
(1) 2 (2) 2 a g
a g
1 g
1 g (3) 2 ga (4)
(3) 2 ga (4) 2 a
2 a
32. The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. 32. 16

is 16 J when it is in its mean position. If the 25
amplitude of oscillations is 25 cm and the mass of
the particle is 5.12 kg, the time period of its 5.12
oscillation is :

 (1) s
(1) s 5
5
(2) 2 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 20 s (3) 20 s
(4) 5 s (4) 5 s .
33. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of 33. R K1

thermal conductivity K 1 is surrounded by
cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius
2R made of a material of thermal conductivity K2. R 2R K2
The two ends of the combined system are
maintained at two different temperatures. There
is no loss of heat across the cylindrical surface
and system is in steady state. What is the effective
thermal conductivity of the system : (K1  3K2 )
(K1  3K2 ) (1)
(1) 4
4
(K1  3K2 ) (K1  3K2 )
(2)
(2) 4
4
(3K2  K1 ) (3K2  K1 )
(3) (3)
4 4
(3K2  K1 ) (3K2  K1 )
(4) (4)
2 2
34. At the same temperature,the mean kinetic 34.
energies of molecles of hydrogen and oxygen are :
in the ratio.
(1) 8 : 16
(1) 8 : 16
(2) 1 : 16
(2) 1 : 16
(3) 1:1 (3) 1 : 1
(4) 16 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
NLI / 10
35. A medium can carry a longitudinal wave because 35.
it has the property of :
(1) Mass (1)
(2) Elasticity & Density (2)
(3) Compressibility (3)
(4) None of these (4)
SECTION-B -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
15 15
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking. 10
36. Coherent sources are characterized by : 36. :

(1) Different phase and amplitude (1)
(2) Same wavelength and constant phase difference (2)
(3) Different wavelength and frequency (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) (3)
37. In a resonance tube experiment a tunning fork 37. 15.1 ,
resonates at lengths 15.1 cm, 45.6 cm. Then end 45.6
correction is :
(1) 0.3 cm (2) 0.15 cm (1) 0.3 cm (2) 0.15 cm
(3) 0 (4) 0.1 cm (3) 0 (4) 0.1 cm
38. A fluid of density d and viscosity  is flowing with 38. d   D
an average velocity  measured over the cross-
section of a pipe of dia D . The Reynold’s number
R is then given by :
2Dd Dd
(1) R  (2) R  2
2Dd Dd 
(1) R  (2) R  2

Dd 2D
Dd 2D (3) R  (4) R 
(3) R  (4) R   d
 d
39. The liquid flowing in streamline flow in a variable 39.
cross section as shown in figure. The graph which
represents the pressure P along the axis of tube :
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
NLI / 11
40. Two equal drops are falling through air with a 40. 5 cm/sec
steady velocity of 5 cm/sec. If the drops coalesce,
the new terminal velocity will be :
(1) 5 × 2 cm/sec (1) 5 × 2 cm/sec
(2) 5 × (2) 5 × 2 cm/sec

2 cm/sec
(3) 5 × (4)1/3 cm/sec (3) 5 × (4)1/3 cm/sec
5 5
(4) cm/sec (4) cm/sec
2 2
41. The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the 41. 3m

wall of a room is to be obtained on the opposite
wall 3m away by means of a large convex lens.
What is the maximum possible focal length of the
required for the purpose :
(1) 0.75 m (1) 0.75 m
(2) 1.0 m (2) 1.0 m
(3) 1.25 m (3) 1.25 m
(4) 1.75 m (4) 1.75 m
42. A plano-convex lens with focal length of 20cm in 42. 20cm

air is to be ground from optical glass whose index
of refraction is 1.5. Find the radius of curvature of
1.5
the curved surface :
(1) 5 cm
(1) 5 cm
(2) 10 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm (3) 15 cm
(4) 20 cm (4) 20 cm
43. In light of red colour, the focal length of a convex 43. 26 cm

lens is found to be 26 cm. However, using light of
violet (blue) colour, the focal length comes out to 25 cm
be 25 cm. What is the dispersive power of the
material of the lens:
(1) 0.0392 (1) 0.0392
(2) 0.0492 (2) 0.0492

(3) 0.0592 (3) 0.0592
(4) 0.0292 (4) 0.0292
44. In the Boolean algebra which of the following is 44. A

not equal to A :
(1) A . A (1) A . A
(2) A + A (2) A + A
(3) A . A (3) A . A
(4) None of these
(4)
NLI / 12
45. Particle of mass 'M' at rest breaks into two particles M
45. 'M'
M 2M 3
of masses and . Find the ratio of their 2M
3 3
de-Broglie wavelengths : 3
(1) 1 : 2
(1) 1:2
(2) 1 : 1
(2) 1:1
(3) 2 : 1
(3) 2:1
(4) 2 : 3 (4) 2:3
46. If  and  are the current gain in the CB and CE 46. CB CE
configuration respectively of the transistor circuit,
  (– )/ = ....
then (– )/ = ....
(1) zero (1)
(2) 1 (2) 1
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 0.5 (4) 0.5
47. In the given transistor circuit, the base current is 47. 32A Rs
32A. The Value of R s is (VBE is assumed to
negligible) (VBE )
(1) 100k (1) 100k
(2) 300k (2) 300k

(3) 200k (3) 200k
(4) 400k (4) 400k
48. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 48. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R)
(A)
Assertion (A)
The electron will be ejected from a hydrogen atom when 10.6eV
electron beam of kinetic energy 10.6eV falls on it.
Reason (R) (R)
The difference between energy level of n1 and n2 is n1 n2 10.2eV
10.2eV.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R)
correct explanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
NLI / 13
(R)
(A)
Assertion (A)

Speed of radioactive -rays is a characteristic property.
Reason (R) (R)
Speed of -rays depends upon the kind of the nucleus. 

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R)
correct explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
(R)
(A)
Assertion (A)
Soll particles inside water are freely placed but they
stick together when taken out of water.
Reason (R) (R)
Thin films formed creats pressure difference.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(1) (A) (R) (R)
correct explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
NLI / 14
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (MODEL)

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A -A
Attempt All 35 Questions 35
51. A sudden jump between first and second ionization 51.

energies of an atom would be associated with the
electronic configuration :
(1) 1s22s22p6
(1) 1s22s22p6
(2) 1s22s22p63s23p1
(2) 1s22s22p63s23p1
(3) 1s22s22p63s23p2 (3) 1s22s22p63s23p2
(4) 1s22s22p63s1 (4) 1s22s22p63s1
52. Which of the following is the increasing order of 52.

enthalpy of vaporization :
(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
(2) AsH3 < PH3 < NH3
(2) AsH3 < PH3 < NH3
(3) NH3 < AsH3 < PH3 (3) NH3 < AsH3 < PH3
(4) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 (4) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3
53. Which of this is used for smallest silicone polymer: 53.
(1) MeSiCl3
(1) MeSiCl3
(2) Me2SiCl2
(2) Me2SiCl2
(3) Me3SiCl (3) Me3SiCl
(4) PhSiCl3 (4) PhSiCl3
54. Ge (II) compounds are powerful reducing agents 54. Ge(II) Pb(IV)
whereas Pb(IV) compounds are strong oxidants. It
can be because (1) Pb, Ge
(1) Pb is more electropositive than Ge
(2) Ge
(2) ionisation potential of lead is less than that of Ge
(3) Pb+2 Pb+4 Ge2+ Ge+4
(3) ionic radii of Pb2+ and Pb4+ are larger than those of
Ge2+ and Ge4+
(4) Ge
(4) more pronounced inert pair effect in lead than Ge
55. CH3–CH2–CH2–OH (I) and CH3CH2CH2CH2–OH (II) 55. CH3–CH2–CH2–OH (I) CH3CH2CH2CH2–OH (II)
I and II structures are I II
(1) Chain isomers (1)

(2) Metamers (2)
(3) Functional isomers (3)
(4) Homologues (4)
NLI / 15
56. Which oxide is neutral : 56.
(1) N2O (1) N2O
(2) NO (2) NO
(3) CO (3) CO
(4) All of these (4)

57. Correct order of acidic strength of following is : 57.
(1) HF > HBr > HCl > HI (1) HF > HBr > HCl > HI
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
(3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(4) HCl < HBr < HF < HI (4) HCl < HBr < HF < HI
58. 58.
Compound A is A
(1) NaClO3 (1) NaClO3
(2) Na2O (2) Na2O
(3) NaOCl (3) NaOCl
(4) HCl (4) HCl
59. , 'B' is: 59. , 'B'
(1) NH3 (1) NH3
(2) H2 (2) H2
(3) N2 (3) N2
(4) NH4OH (4) NH4OH
60. Which is paramagnetic : 60.
(1) [Fe(CN)6]–3 (1) [Fe(CN)6]–3
(2) [Co(F)6]–3 (2) [Co(F)6]–3
(3) [NiCl4]–2 (3) [NiCl4]–2
61. How many unit cells are present in a cubeshaped 61. 1.00 NaCl (At. mass
ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g (At. mass Na=23, Na=23, Cl=35.5)
Cl=35.5)
(1) 5.14×1023
(1) 5.14×1023
(2) 1.28×1021
(2) 1.28×1021
(3) 1.71×1021
(3) 1.71×1021
(4) 2.57×1021 (4) 2.57×1021
NLI / 16
62. Van't Hoff factor for 0.1 M ideal solution is : 62. 0.1 M
(1) 0.1 (1) 0.1
(2) 1 (2) 1
(3) –0.01 (3) –0.01
63. The plot of log (x/m) (along Y-axis) versus log 63. log (x/m) (Y- ) log C (X-
C(along X-axis) in the Freundlich adsorption ) X-
isotherm is a horizontal line parallel to X-axis when:
(1) n=0 (1) n=0
(2) n=1 (2) n=1
(3) n= (3) n=
(4) such a plot is impossible (4)
64. Natural rubber has : 64. :
(1) All cis-configuration (1)
(2) All trans-configuration (2)
(3) Alternate cis - and trans-configuration (3)
(4) Random cis - and trans-configuration (4)
65. The work done during the expansion of a gas from 65. 4 dm3 6 dm3
a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm 3 under a constant 3 atm (1 L atm = 101.32 J) :
external pressure of 3 atm is (1 L atm = 101.32 J) :
(1) –6 J
(1) –6 J
(2) –608 J
(2) –608 J
(3) +304 J
(3) +304 J
(4) –103 kJ (4) –103 kJ
66. How many moles of KI are required to prouce 0.4 66. K2HgI4 0.4 KI
moles of K2HgI4 :
(1) 0.4 (1) 0.4
(2) 0.8 (2) 0.8
(3) 3.2 (3) 3.2
(4) 1.6 (4) 1.6
NLI / 17
67. Which of the following volume (V) – temperature 67. (V) – (T)
(T) plots represents the behaviour of one mole of
an ideal gas at one atmospheric pressure :
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
V(L)
V(L)
(3) (4) (22.4 L

(14.2 L
273 K)
373 K) (3) (4) (22.4 L
273 K)
(14.2 L
373 K)
T(K)
T(K)
68. The number of electrons required to balance the

68.
followng equation is :
NO3– + 4H+ + e–  2H2O + NO

NO3– + 4H+ + e–  2H2O + NO
(1) 5
(1) 5
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 2 (4) 2
69. What current is to be passed for 0.25 sec for 69.
deposition of certain weight of metal which is equal 0.25
to its electrochemical equivalent :
(1) 4 A
(1) 4 A
(2) 100 A
(2) 100 A
(3) 200 A
(3) 200 A
(4) 2 A
(4) 2 A
70. 273 K 76 cm Hg
70. The density of a gas is 1.964 g dm–3 at 273 K and 76 1.964 g dm–3
cm Hg. The gas is :
(1) Xe
(1) Xe
(2) CO2
(2) CO2
(3) C2H6
(3) C2H6
(4) CH4 (4) CH4
71. If combustion of 4 g of CH4 liberates 2.5 kcal of 71. 4 g CH4 2.5 kcal
heat, the heat of combustion of CH4 is : CH4
(1) –20 kcal (1) –20 kcal
(2) –10 kcal (2) –10 kcal
(3) 2.5 kcal (3) 2.5 kcal

(4) –5 kcal (4) –5 kcal
NLI / 18
72. The solubility product constant for the saturated 72. (Ag2CrO4)
solution of silver cromate(Ag2CrO4) is given by :
(1) Ksp=[2Ag+]2 [CrO42–] (1) Ksp=[2Ag+]2 [CrO42–]
(2) Ksp=[Ag+]2 [CrO42–] (2) Ksp=[Ag+]2 [CrO42–]
(3) Ksp=[Ag+] [CrO42–] (3) Ksp=[Ag+] [CrO42–]
(4) Ksp=[2Ag+]2 [CrO42–]2 (4) Ksp=[2Ag+]2 [CrO42–]2
73. One litre of water contains 10–7 mole H+ ions. 73. H+ 10–7
Degree of ionisation of water is :
(1) 1.8×10–7%
(1) 1.8×10–7%
(2) 1.8×10–9%
(2) 1.8×10–9%
(3) 3.6×10–7% (3) 3.6×10–7%
(4) 3.6×10–9% (4) 3.6×10–9%
74. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) 74. (k)
of a chemical reaction is written in terms of –E*/RT
Arrhenius equation, k = Ae–E*/RT. Activation energy k = Ae
*
(E*) of the reaction can be calculated by ploting: (E )
1 1
(1) log k vs (1) log k vs
T T
1 1
(2) log k vs (2) log k vs
log T log T
(3) k vs T (3) k vs T
1 1
(4) k vs
(4) k vs
log T log T
75. The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving cell 75. n=2
reaction with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25º C. 25 C 0
0.295 V
The equlibrium constant of the reaction would
be:
(1) 2.0×1011 (1) 2.0×1011
(2) 4.0 ×1012 (2) 4.0 ×1012
(3) 1.0 ×102 (3) 1.0 ×102
(4) 1.0×1010 (4) 1.0×1010

(Given : F = 96500 C mol–1; R= 8.314 JK mol–1) (Given : F = 96500 C mol–1; R= 8.314 JK mol–1)
76. Benzene can be obtained by heating either 76.
benzoic acid with X or phenol with Y. X and Y are
respectively: Y
(1) zinc dust and sodalime (1)
(2) sodalime and zinc dust (2)
(3) zinc dust and sodium hydroxide (3)
(4) sodalime and copper (4)
NLI / 19
77. The correct order of reactivity towards the 77.

electrophilie substitution of the compounds aniline
(I), benzene (II) and nitro-benzene (III) is:
(1) I > II > III
(1) I > II > III
(2) III > II > I
(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I (3) II > III > I
(4) I < II > III (4) I < II > III
78. Which is the chiral molecule :

78.
(1) CH3Cl
(1) CH3Cl
(2) CH2Cl2 (2) CH2Cl2
(3) CHBr3
(3) CHBr3
(4) CHClBrl
(4) CHClBrl
79. The number of possible structural isomers of C4H10O is: 79. C4H10O
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) 6 (2) 6
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 8 (4) 8
80. Indicate the wrongly named compound : 80.
(1) CH3 CH CH 2CH2 CHO (1) CH3 CH CH2 CH2CHO

| |
CH3 CH3
(4–Methyl–1–pentanal) )
(2) CH3 CH  C  C  COOH (2) CH3 CH  C  C  COOH

| |
CH3 CH3
(4–Methyl–2–pentyn–1–oic acid) )
(3) CH3 CH2 CH2  CH  COOH (3) CH3 CH 2CH2  CH  COOH

| |
CH3 CH3
(2–Methyl–1–pentanoic acid) )
O O
|| ||
(4) CH3 CH2  CH  CH  C  CH3 (4) CH3 CH2  CH  CH  C CH3
(3–Hexen–5–one) )
NLI / 20
81. Match the drugs in column I with the examples 81. -I -II
given in column II and mark the appropriate
choice.
Column I Column II
(A) Antibiotic (i) Codeine
(B) Antiseptic (ii) Phenelzine
(C) Analgesic (iii) Chloramphenicol
(D) Tranquilizer (iv) Chloroxylenol
(1) (A)  (i), (B)  (iii), (C)  (ii), (D)  (iv)
(1) (A)  (i), (B)  (iii), (C)  (ii), (D)  (iv)
(2) (A)  (iv), (B)  (ii), (C)  (iii), (D)  (i) (2) (A)  (iv), (B)  (ii), (C)  (iii), (D)  (i)
(3) (A)  (ii), (B)  (iv), (C)  (i), (D)  (iii) (3) (A)  (ii), (B)  (iv), (C)  (i), (D)  (iii)
(4) (A)  (iii), (B)  (iv), (C)  (i), (D)  (ii) (4) (A)  (iii), (B)  (iv), (C)  (i), (D)  (ii)
82. Which of the following biomolecule is insoluble 82.
in water:
(1)
(1) Adenine
(2)
(2) Haemeglobin
(3)
(3) Ribonuclease
(4) 
(4) -keratin
83. SN2
83. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to
substitution by SN2 mechanism because of :
(1) insolubility (1)
(2) instability (2)
(3) inductive effect (3)
(4) steric hindrance (4)
84. Picric acid is : 84.
(1) 2,4,6–Trinitrotoluene
(2) 2,4,6–Tribromoethanol
(3) 2,4,6 trinitrophenol
(4) 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene
85. An organic compound A reacts with methyl 85.

magnesium iodide to form an addition product
which on hydrolysis forms the compound B.
B B
Compound B gives blue colour salt in Victor Meyer’s
test. The compounds A and B are respectively : B
(1) Acetaldehyde, tertiary butyl alcohol (1) ,
(2) Acetaldehyde, ethyl alcohol (2) ,
(3) Acetaldehyde, isopropyl alcohol (3) ,
(4) Acetone, isopropyl alcohol (4) ,

NLI / 21
SECTION-B -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 15 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking. 10
86. Aldol condensation will not occur in : 86.
(1) HCHO (1) HCHO
(2) CH3CH2CHO (2) CH3CH2CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (3) CH3COCH3
(4) CH3CHO (4) CH3CHO
87. Acetaldehyde cannot exhibit : 87.
(1) Iodoform test (1)
(2) Lucas test (2)
(3) Benedict’s test (3)
(4) Tollen’s (4)
88. Two moles of acetic acid are heated with P2O5. 88. P2O5
The product formed is :
(1) 2 moles of ethyl alcohol (1)
(2) Formic anhydride (2)
(3) Acetic anhydride (3)
(4) 2 moles of methyl cyanide (4)
89. Among the following , the strongest base is : 89.
(1) C6H5NH2 (1) C6H5NH2
(2) p–NO2–C6H4NH2 (2) p–NO2–C6H4NH2
(3) m–NO2–C6H4NH2 (3) m–NO2–C6H4NH2
(4) C6H5CH2NH2 (4) C6H5CH2NH2
90. The only alcohol that can be prepared by the 90.

indirect hydration of alkene is :
(1) ethyl alcohol (1)
(2) propyl alcohol (2)

(3) isobutyl alcohol (3)
(4) methyl alcohol (4)
91. The spin magnetic moment for Co3+ ion is expected 91. Co3+
about :
(1) 3 B.M. (2) 2 6 B.M.
(1) 3 B.M. (2) 2 6 B.M.
(3) 12 B.M. (4) 24 B.M.
(3) 12 B.M. (4) 24 B.M.
NLI / 22
92. Choose the correct statement : 92.

a. Helium does not form clathrate compounds
with quinol. a.
b. Xenon does not form fluorides such as XeF, b. XeF, XeF3 XeF5
XeF3 or XeF5.
c.
c. Fluorine does not give fumes with moist air.
(1) a c (2) a, b c
(1) a and c (2) a, b and c
(3) a and b (4) None of these (3) a b (4)
93. The reagent used for testing ammonia is: 93.
(1) Alkaline solution of KMnO4
(1) KMnO4
(2) Alkaline solution of K2HgI4
(2) K2HgI4
(3) Alkaline solution Hg2ONH2I (3) Hg2ONH2I
(4) Alkaline solution KHgI4 (4) KHgI4
94. Which of the following is true statement : 94.
(1) ICl is more reactive than I2

(1) ICl , I
(2) OF 2 is used to removing plutonium as PuF6 from
(2) OF2
spent nuclear fuel.
PuF6
(3) ClF5 is used for the enrichment of U235 from its
(3) U235
isotopic mixture.
ClF5
95. Which of the following will show highest molar 95.
conductivity in aqueous solution :
(1) [CrCl3 (NH3)3] (1) [CrCl3 (NH3)3]

(2) [CrCl2(NH3)4]Cl (2) [CrCl2(NH3)4]Cl
(3) [CrCl(NH3)5]Cl2 (3) [CrCl(NH3)5]Cl2
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
96. In the compound, NaBH4 the ligand is : 96. NaBH4
(1) H+ (1) H+
(2) H (2) H
(3) H– (3) H–
97. A complex compound in which oxidation number 97.
of the metal is zero :
(1) K4 Fe(CN)6
(1) K4 Fe(CN)6
(2) K3Fe(CN)6
(2) K3Fe(CN)6
(3) Fe(CO)5 (3) Fe(CO)5
(4) K3[FeF6] (4) K3[FeF6]
NLI / 23
98. Heatings copper pyrites to remove sulphur is 98.
called:
(1) Liquation (1)
(2) Roasting (2)
(3) Concentration (3)
99.
99.
B
Compound B is :
(1) H3PO4
(1) H3PO4
(2) Cu3P2 (2) Cu3P2
(3) Cu2O (3) Cu2O

(4) PH3 (4) PH3
100. Which one of the alkalimetal forms only the normal 100.
oxide M2O on heating with excess air : M2O
(1) Rb (1) Rb
(2) Li (2) Li
(3) Na (3) Na
(4) K (4) K
NLI / 24
TOPIC : Full Syllabus (Model)
SECTION–A–(PART-1) SECTION–A–(PART-1)
101. Ligament connects 101. :

(1) Bone to bone
(1)
(2) Muscle to muscle
(2)
(3) Bone to muscle (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4)

102. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the
mitochondrial matrix except one, which is located
in inner mitochondrial membranes in the
eukaryotes and in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes.
The enzyme is :
(1) Lactate dehydrogenase (1)
(2) Isocitrate dehydrogenase (2)
(3) Malate dehydrogenase (3)

(4) Succinate dehydrogenase (4)
103. Which one of the following are the correct match 103.
(1) CAD – Atherosclerosis (1) CAD –

(2) –
(2) Angina – Acute chest pain
(3) –
(3) High blood pressure – Affect vital organ
(4) All
(4)
104. Which one of the following are the correct match
104.
(1) Protonephridia – Planaria (1) –
(2) Flame cells – Platyhelminthese (2) –
(3) Green glands – Prawn (3) –
(4) All (4)

105. Select the correct option for the given diagram: 105.
(1) Radial vascular bundle in root (1)

(2) Radial vascular bundle in stem (2)
(3) Radial vascular bundle in leaf (3)
(4) Conjoint vascular bundle in stem (4)
NLI / 25
106. Which hormone stimulate for repair of 106.
endometrium :
(1) LH (1) LH
(2) FSH (2) FSH
(3) Estrogen (3)
(4) Prolactin (4)

107. The membranous layer of uterus is 107.
(1) Endometrium (1)
(2) Myometrium (2)
(3) Perimetrium (3)
(4) Cervix (4)
108. In our heart two problem are creates first in heart 108.
stop beating and second is heart muscle is
suddenly damaged. This problem of heart are
respectively :
(1)
(1) Cardiac arrest, Heart attack
(2)
(2) Heart attack, Cardiac arrest
(3)
(3) Cardiac arrest, Heart fail
(4) Heart fail, Heart attack (4)
109. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is 109.

maximum during :
(1) systole of the left ventricle (1)
(2) diastole of the right atrium (2)
(3) systole of the left atrium (3)
(4) diastole of the right ventricle. (4)

110. A person is suffering from wheezing due to 110.
inflammation of bronchi and dyspnoea. His
complaints increase in dustly environment. He
may suffer from which disease
(1)
(1) Pancreatitis
(2) Jaundice (2)
(3) Asthma (3)
(4) Typhoid (4)

111. Plasma contains which of the following minerals 111.
(1) Sodium and calcium ions (1)
(2) Magnesium ions (2)
(3) Chloride ions (3)
NLI / 26
112. Ethylene discovery related with 112.
(1) C.Darwin (1)
(2) F.W. Went (2)
(3) E. Kurosawa (3)
(4) H.H. cousins (4) H.H.
113. Typical growth curve in plants is : 113.
(1) stair-steps shaped (1)
(2) parabolic (2)
(3) sigmoid (3)
(4) linear (4)
114. Which one of the following are the incorrect match 114.
with reference to in which form plants absorbed
mineral elements
(1) Boron – BO32+ or B4O72+ (1) – BO32+ or B4O72+
(2) Zinc – Zn+2 (2) – Zn+2

(3) Sulphur – SO4–2 (3) – SO4–2
(4) Calcium – Ca+2 (4) – Ca+2
115. How many matching are correct 115.
a. Guttation – Root pressure a. –
b. Cohesion –Tension – Water transports b. –
transpiration pull
c. –
model
c. Cools leaf surfaces – Transpiration
d. –
d. Guttation – Water loss
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 2 (4) 2
116. Given below are two statements 116.
Statement I:
-I:
Schwann proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of
animals and plants are composed of cells and product
of cells.
Statement II :
- II :
Rudolf virchow modified the cell theory.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
NLI / 27
117. Which one of the following structure are the 117.
minimum in number in Cockroach :
(1) Spiracles (1)
(2) Malpighian tubules (2)
(3) Hepatic ceaca (3)
(4) Heart (4)
118. In which of the following plants endosperm is 118.

formed (1)
(1) Pea
(2)
(2) Castor
(3)
(3) Beans
119. The generative cell and vegetative cell are occurs 119.
in which structure :
(1) Ovule (1)
(2) Pollen grain (2)
(3) Male gametophyte (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
120. Which one of the following is known as suicidal 120.

bag of cell
(1) Lysosome (1)
(2) Vacuole (2)
(3) Golgi apparatus (3)
(4) Plastid (4)

121. Death of tissues, particularly leaf tissue, is due to 121. Ca, Mg, Cu K
the deficiency of Ca, Mg, Cu and K is known as :
(1) Chlorosis (1)
(2) Necrosis (2)
(3) Stunted plant growth (3)
(4) Etiolation (4)

122. What is not true about plants with Hatch and Slack 122.
Pathway :
(1)
(1) They have special leaf anatomy
(2)
(2) They have high temperature optimum
(3)
(3) They have a process called photorespiration
(4) Basic pathway of sugar synthesis in plants with (4)
Hatch & Slack pathway is Calvin pathway
NLI / 28
123. What is the correct sequence regarding Z scheme: 123. Z
(1) P700  e acceptor  ETS  P680  e acceptor (1) P700 ® e ® ETS ® P680 ® e
(2) P680 PSI  e acceptor  ETS  P700 PSII (2) P680 PSI ® e ® ETS ® P700 PSII ® e
 e acceptor
(3) P700  H acceptor  ETS  P680  e acceptor (3) P700 ® H+ ® ETS ® P680 ® e
(4) P680 PSII  e acceptor  ETS  P700 PSI (4) P680 PSII ® e ® ETS ® P700 PSI
124. The given below diagram is 124.
(1) Aurelia (1)

(2) Diploblastic animal (2)
(3) Jelly fish (3)
(4) All (4)
125. Which one of the following are not a type of protein 125.
(1) Myoglobin (1)
(2) GLUT-4 (2) GLUT
(3)  -Lactalbumin (3) 
(4) Thymidine (4)
126. An ability to resist a pulling force. This property of 126.

water is
(1) Capillarity (1)
(2) Tensile strength (2)
(3) Surface tension (3)
(4) Adhesion (4)
127. Usually the source is understood to be that part of 127.

the plant which synthesises the food i.e., the leaf,
and sink the part that needs or stores the food but
the sources and sink may be reversed depending
:
on the :
(1) Plants needs (1)
(2) Height of plant (2)
(3) Age of plant (3)
(4) Size of leaf (4)
NLI / 29
128. In which type of natural selection more individuals 128.
acquire peripheral character value at both ends
of the distribution curve:
(1) Stabilisation (1)
(2) Directional (2)
(3) Disruptive (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
129. How many matching are correct with reference 129.

to brain
a. –
a. Hypothalamus – Fore brain
b. –
b. Association area – Fore brain
c. –
c. Hippocampus – Hind Brain
d. –
d. Corpora – Hind Brain
Quadrigemina
(1)
(1) Three
(2)
(2) Four
(3) Two (3)
(4) One (4)
130. Which one of the following is the incorrect match 130.

with reference to endocrine gland and their
hormone
(1) ACTH –
(1) ACTH – pituitary
(2) PRL –
(2) PRL – pituitary
(3) GH –
(3) GH – Thyroid
(4) FSH – pituitary (4) FSH –
131. Which statement is true for X linked recessive trait 131. X
i. shows inheritance from carrier female to male i.

progeny
ii. Haemophilia-A is an example of this type of

ii.
inheritance
iii. Haemophilia-A is a Y-linked disorder iii. Y-
iv. Possibility of a female becoming haemophilic iv.

is extremely rare.
(1) i ii
(1) i and ii only
(2) ii iii
(2) ii and iii only
(3) iii iv
(3) iii and iv only
(4) i, ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv only
NLI / 30
132. If a DNA sample containes 2000 nucleosomes then 132. 2000
what is the number of H 2 A, H 3, H 4 Histones H2A, H3, H4
respectively :
(1) 2000, 3000, 4000
(1) 2000, 3000, 4000
(2) 2000, 4000, 4000 (2) 2000, 4000, 4000
(3) 4000, 4000, 4000 (3) 4000, 4000, 4000
(4) 2000, 4000, 6000 (4) 2000, 4000, 6000
133. What is the similarity between syphilis and 133.
gonorrhea :
a.
a. Both are curable disease
b. RTI
b. Both are RTI
c. STIs
c. Both are STIs
d.
d. Both are non curable disease
(1) a, b, c (1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d (2) b, c, d
(3) Only c (3) c
(4) Only b, c (4) b, c

134. Assertion (A) : In Bacteria During Transcription 134. (A) :
splicing process not takes place.
Reason (R) : In Bacteria the mRNA does not (R) : mRNA
containes both introns and Exons.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
135. The given below diagram of animal belongs to 135.
(1) Annelida (1)

(2) Chordata (2)
(3) Echinodermata (3)
(4) Mollusca (4)
NLI / 31
SECTION–B–(PART-1) SECTION–B–(PART-1)
136. Which one of the following is the correct statement 136.
(1) Brood parasitism occurs in birds
(1)
(2) Cuscuta has large green leaves
(2)
(3) The blood sucking female mosquito is considered
(3)
a type of parasite
(4) Tick on dogs is the example of endoparasite (4)
137. Which one of the following is Incorrect match 137.
(1) Dodo – Extinct animal from (1) –
Australia
(2) Thylacine – Extinct Animal from

(2) –
Russia
(3) –
(3) Quagga – Extinct plant from
Africa
(4)
(4) All
138. How many are incorrect matching with reference 138.
to full form of words : (a) BOD - Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(a) BOD - Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(b) JFM - Joint forest Management
(b) JFM - Joint forest Management
(c) DU - Degree of unity
(c) DU - Degree of unity
(d) PAR- Photosynthetically Active radiation
(d) PAR- Photosynthetically Active radiation
(1) (2)
(1) Four (2) Two
(3) (4)
(3) One (4) Three
139. :
139. How many statements are incorrect :
(a) Kangaroo rat meets its water requirement by (a)
internal fat oxidation
(b) All adaptation are genetically fixed (b)
(c) Opuntia is a desert plant and have large green (c)

leaves
(d) Some species have ability to regulate internal (d)

environment over a limited range of
environmental conditions beyond which they
are conformers
(e) CAM
(e) CAM is a special respiratory pathway
(1) Four (2) Three (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) One (3) (4)
NLI / 32
140. Euro-III norms stipulate that sulphur be controlled 140. -III

in petrol at :
(1) 450 ppm (1) 450 ppm
(2) 350 ppm (2) 350 ppm

(3) 150 ppm (3) 150 ppm
(4) 50 ppm (4) 50 ppm
141. Which one of the following are maximum in
141.
number in India
(1)
(1) Wild life sanctuaries
(2)
(2) National park
(3) Biosphere reserves (3)
142. Fertiliser used in Slash and burn Agriculture 142.
(1) Chemical fertiliser (1)
(2) No need of fertilser (2)
(3) Plant burn (3)
(4) Agriculture is not possible (4)
143. The rate of formation of new organic matter by 143.

rabbit in a grassland, is called :
(1) net productivity (1)
(2) secondary productivity (2)
(3) net primary productivity (3)
(4) gross primary productivity (4)
144. In ecosystem energy are transferred from producer 144.

to consumer : :
In the given below diagram A and B are transferred A B

energy. What is A and B : A B :
(1) A – 10% , B – 5%
(1) A – 10% , B – 5%
(2) A – 50% , B – 50% (2) A – 50% , B – 50%
(3) A – 10% , B – 10% (3) A – 10% , B – 10%
(4) A – 90% , B – 90% (4) A – 90% , B – 90%
NLI / 33
145. What is known as Sere : 145.
(1) The entire sequence of communities that (1)
successively change in a given area
(2) The population that successively changes in a given

(2)
area
(3)
(3) Energy flow in ecosystem
(4)
(4) The entire sequence of a genus that successively
changes in a given area.
146. Given below are two statements : 146.
Statement I: I:
The ethical argument for conserving biodiversity
relates to what we owe to millions of plant, animal
and microbe species with whom we share this
planet.
II :
Statement II :
Philosphically or spiritually, we need to realise that
every species has an Intrinsic value, even if it may
not be of current or any economic value to us.
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II
147. Which one of the following are the Incorrect match 147.
(1) Mutation – Hugo devries
(1) –
(2) Mutation – Evening primrose
(2) –
(3) Natural selection – Darwin
(3) –
(4) Gene flow and – Do not affect the
(4) –
genetic drift Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium
148. Which one of the following is the correct match: 148.
(1) Kangaroo – True Placenta (1) –

(2) Koala – True Placenta (2) –
(3) Bobcat – True Placenta
(3) –
(4) Darwin finches – Convergent evolution
(4) –
NLI / 34
149. In which type of barriers under innate immunity 149.
do the tears from eyes belong:
(1) Cellular barriers (1)
(2) Physiological barriers (2)
(3) Physical barriers (3)
(4) Cytokine barriers (4)

Statement I: I:
Entamoeba histolytica is a bacterial parasite in the
large intestine of human.
Statement II :
II :
Entamoeba histolytica cause amoebic dysentery.
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) I II
SECTION–A–(PART-2) SECTION–A–(PART-2)
151. Transcription and translation can be coupled in : 151.

(1) Unicellular eukaryotes (1)
(2) Bacteria (Prokaryotes) (2)
(3) Multicellular eukaryotes (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
152. DNA is the genetic material in which virus 152. DNA
a. TMV a. TMV
b. QB bacteriophage b. QB
c. HIV c. HIV
d. Polio virus d.
(1) a, b, c, d (1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only a, b (2) a, b
(3) Only a, b, c (3) a, b, c
NLI / 35
153. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are 153. DNA
used to elongate :
(1)
(1) the lagging strand towards replication fork
(2) the leading strand away from replication fork (2)
(3) the lagging strand away from the replication fork (3)
(4) the leading strand towards replication fork. (4)
154. Spliceosomes are not found in cell of : 154.
(1) Protista (1)
(2) Protozoans (2)
(3) Monera (3)
(4) Animals (4)
155. Which one of the following is the correct match 155.

(1) VNTR - DNA fingerprinting (1) VNTR - DNA
(2) Autoradiography - DNA fingerprinting (2) DNA
(3) Blotting - DNA fingerprinting (3) DNA
156. How many matching are correct 156.
(a) Cyclosporin A - Bioactive (a) A
molecule
(b)
(b) Statins - Bioactive
molecule (c)
(c) Leprosy - Fungal disease (d)
(d) Whooping cough - Viral disease (1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 3
(3) 3
(4) 1 (4) 1
157. Which one of the following is the incorrect match 157.

(1) Chilli – Pusa Sadabahar (1) –
(2) Himgiri – Wheat (2) –
(3) Pusa sawani – Flat Bean (3) –
(4) Pusa Shubhra – Cauliflower (4) –
158. What is correct about Hind-II 158. II
(1) It is the first restriction endonuclease (1)
(2) Its functioning depends on a specific DNA (2)

nucleotide sequence
(3) It cuts DNA by identifying a specific sequence of (3)
six base pairs

NLI / 36
159. What is antisense technology : 159.
(1) When a piece of RNA that is complementary in (1) RNA

sequence is used to stop expression of a specific
gene
(2) RNA DNA
(2) RNA polymerase producing DNA
(3)
(3) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for
synthesis of antigens
(4)
(4) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue cultures
160.
160. The adenosine deaminase is crucial for the :
(1)
(1) Heart beating
(2)
(2) Hair fall
(3)
(3) Immune system
(4)
(4) Hearing
161.
161. Transposons used in
(1)
(1) Budding
(2) RNAi
(2) RNAi
(3)
(3) Pollen allergy
162. What is the meaning of B and R in pBR322 162. pBR322 B R
(1) Strain of bacteria (1)
(2) Species of bacteria (2)
(3) Scientist name (3)
(4) Species and strain of bacteria respectively (4)
163. The specific sequence recognized by restriction 163.

endonuclease is called-
(1) Parallel sequence (1)
(2) Palindromic nucleotide sequence (2)
(3) Polynucleotide sequence (3)
164. Process by which E. coli take up foreign DNA 164. DNA
(1) Transcription
(1)
(2) Translation
(2)
(3) Transformation (3)
(4) Transfer (4)
NLI / 37
165. Which of the following is not a component of 165.
downstream processing :
(1) Separation (1)

(2) Purification (2)
(3) Preservation (3)
(4) Expression (4)
166. How many varieties of rice have been estimated
166.
to be present in India?
(1) 2,000
(1) 2,000
(2) 20,000 (2) 20,000
(3) 200,000 (3) 200,000
(4) 2,000,000 (4) 2,000,000

167. In dihybrid experiment on garden peas worked 167. rryy
by mendel, what is the % of seed with rryy %
genotype :
(1) 12.5%
(1) 12.5%
(2) 25%
(2) 25%
(3) 6.25% (3) 6.25%
(4) 37.5% (4) 37.5%
168. If a genetic disease is transferred from a 168.

phenotypically normal but carrier female to only
some of the male progeny, the disease is :
(1) Autosomal dominant (1)
(2) Autosomal recessive (2)
(3) Sex-linked dominant (3)
(4) Sex-linked recessive (4)
Statement I :
-I:
Mutation is a phenomenon which results in alteration of
DNA
DNA sequences and consequently results in changes
in the genotype and the phenotype of an organism.
Statement II :
A classical example of point mutation is sickle cell II :
Anaemia Disease.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect (2) I II
NLI / 38
170. How many genotype and phenotype possible in 170.

human blood groups respectively : (1) 4, 6
(1) 4, 6
(2) 3, 6
(2) 3, 6
(3) 6, 6
(3) 6, 6
(4) 6, 4
(4) 6, 4
171.
171. Which one of the following bone are minimum in
number in Human
(1)
(1) True ribs
(2) cervical vertebrae (2)
(3) Floating ribs (3)
(4) thoracic vertebrae (4)
172. Which of the following statements about the 172.

mechanism of muscle contraction are correct
(I)
(I) Neurotransmitter is released when the neural
signal reaches the motor end plate
(II)
(II) Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent
by CNS via a motor neuron
(III)
(III) During muscle contraction, isotropic band gets
elongated
(IV)
(IV) Repeated activation of the muscles can lead
to lactic acid accumulation
(1) I, II IV
(1) I, II and IV
(2) Only I and IV (2) I IV
(3) II, III and IV (3) II, III IV
(4) Only II and IV (4) II IV
173. The flat skull bones which fuse end-to-end with 173.
the help of dense fibrous connective tissues in the
form of sutures, to form the cranium it is which
type of joint:
(1)
(1) Saddle joint
(2)
(2) Cartilaginous joints
(3)
(3) Fibrous joints
(4)
(4) Gliding joint
NLI / 39
174. What is the correct between IUI and IUT : 174. IUI IUT :
(a) Both are a type of ART (a) ART

(b) Both are applied upon male (b)
(c) In both sperm are taken for transfer (c)
(d) In both embryo are taken for transfer (d)
(1) Only a, d (1) a, d
(2) Only a (2) a
(3) a, c, d (3) a, c, d
(4) a, b (4) a, b
175. In the given below diagram which one has 175. :
maximum life span:
(1) A
(1) A
(2) B (2) B
(3) C (3) C
(4) D (4) D
176. Which secrete enzyme trypsinogen and nucleases: 176.
(1) Gastric gland (1)
(2) Intestinal gland (2)
(3) Pancreas (3)
(4) Liver (4)
177. In children kwashiorker and marasmus are 177.

produced due to :
(1) Low drinking of water (1)
(2) PEM (2) PEM
(3) Over eating (3)
(4) Constipation (4)
NLI / 40
178. Terminalization, synaptonemal complex, 178.
chiasmata, these terms are related to :
(1) Mitosis (1)
(2) Meiosis I (2) I
(3) Meiosis II (3) II
179. Synapsis occurs between: 179.
(1) Two non-homologous chromosome (1)
(2) mRNA and ribosomes (2)
(3) Spindle fibres and centromere (3)
(4) Two homologous chromosome
(4)
180. Which is the correct sequence in cell cycle : 180.
(1) S – G1 – G2 – M (1) S – G1 – G2 – M
(2) S – M – G1 – G2 (2) S – M – G1 – G2
(3) G1 – S – G2 – M (3) G1 – S – G2 – M
(4) M – G1 – G2 – S (4) M – G1 – G2 – S
181. Which of the following statement is incorrect 181.
(1) Equational division is usually restricted to the (1)
diploid cells
(2)
(2) In all social insects haploid cells divide by mitosis
(3) A very significant contribution of mitosis is cell (3)

repair

182. What is the glucosamine, N-acetyl galactosamine: 182.
(1) Chemically modified protein (1)
(2) Chemically modified lipids (2)
(3) Chemically modified sugars (3)
(4) A type of vitamin (4)
183. How many of the following fungus found in the 183.
class deuteromycetes :
Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus,
Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Neurosp ora,
Alternaria, Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago,
Morels, Truffles, Colletotrichum : :
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) 7
(2) 7
(3) 9 (3) 9
(4) 3 (4) 3
NLI / 41
184. Bladder wort, venus fly trap and Cuscuta are 184.
examples of
(1)
(1) A type of plants
(2) A type of parasitic fungi (2)
(3) A type of eukaryotic organism (3)
(4) More than one options are corrects (4)

185. Organism normally aerobic but becomes 185.
anaerobic in extreme conditions are called :
(1) Obligate aerobic (1)
(2) Facultative aerobic (2)
(3) Obligate anaerobic (3)
(4) Facultative anaerobic. (4)
SECTION–B–(PART-2) SECTION–B–(PART-2)
186. The chemical nature of matrix of connective 186.
tissue is:
(1)
(1) Lipid
(2) Modified polysaccharides (2)
(3) Phospholipids (3)

(4) Steroidal (4)
Statement I: -I:
The arrangement of ovule within the ovary is known as
Inflorescence
Statement II : - II :
If a fruit is formed without fertilisation of ovary. It is called
a Polyembryony.
below: (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) I II
188. The first movement of foetus and hairs on the head 188.
appears after
(1)
(1) One month
(2)
(2) Two month
(3) Three month (3)
(4) Five month (4)

189. The animal order, carnivora, includes which 189.
animals :
(1) (2)
(1) Lion (2) Leopard
(3) (4)
(3) Tiger (4) All
NLI / 42
190. Assertion (A) : Human skin colour inheritance are 190. (A) :
good example of Pleiotropy and codominance
Reason (R) : Human skin colour traits are
(R) :
controlled by three pair genes.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) (1) (A) (R) (R)
(A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (3) (A) (R)
191. Plants adapted to low light intensity have : 191.
(1) Larger photosynthetic unit size than the plants

(1)
growing in high light intensity
(2) Higher rate of CO2 fixation than the sun plants (2)
(3) More extended root system

(3)
(4) Leaves modified into spines (4)
192. Which of the following statements are correct with 192.
reference to figure :
(1) Diagram showing inflorescence (1)
(2) Diagram showing pinnately compound leaf (2)

(3) Diagram showing respiratory root (3)
(4) Diagram showing Palmately compound leaf (4)
193. In which of the following plants minimum number 193.

of Stamens present :
(1) Mustard (1)
(2) Indigofera (2)
(3) Petunia (3)
(4) Gloriosa (4)
NLI / 43
194. Select the correct option for the given diagram of 194.
cockroach
(1)
(1) Diagram showing male reproductive system
(2)
(2) Diagram showing female reproductive system
(3) Diagram showing open circulatory system (3)
(4) Diagram showing closed circulatory system (4)
195. Out of the four components of phloem which 195.

components are non living :
(1)
(1) Companion cell
(2)
(2) Seive tube element
(3)
(3) Phloem parenchyma
(4) Phloem fiber (4)
196. The hypodermis in dicot stem are made up of : 196.
(1) Collenchyma (1)
(2) Sclerenchyma (2)
(3) Parenchyma (3)
(4) Cuticle (4)

Statement I:
-I:
Artificial system of classfication was given by Bentham
and Hookar
Natural system of classification was given by G.N.
Ramachandaran.

below: (1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
NLI / 44
Statement I: -I:
Coralloid root of Pinus are example of obligate Relation.
Statement II :
Eukaryotic heterotrophic organism present in coralloid - II :
root
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
Statement I: -I:
In Pteridophytes Sporophytes are multicellular
autotrophic.
In Pteridophytes gametophytes are multicellular

autotrophic.
below: (1) I II
(3) I II
(4) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Statement I: -I:
The region of the stem where leaves are born are called
nodes while internode are the portion between two
nodes.
Statement II :
- II :
All stem perform the function of storage of food, support
protection and of vegetative propagation.
below:
(3) I II
NLI / 45
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• Regular Batch - 9th May

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ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

FULL SYLLABUS TEST-43

• The important points to note:

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

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TOPIC : Full Syllabus (Model)

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

2. In the following four situations charged particles 2.

(4) A and B. (4) A B.

5. An infinitely long wire is kept along z-axis from 5. z-

'r'. The impulse of the force exerted by the external

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

8. The equivalent capacitance of three capacitors of 8. 12 C1

9. In an experiment to measure the internal 9. 

0 0  0 0

(3) (4) (3) (4)

12. A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated about a 12. 4l AC O

14. Which of the following having same dimension : 14.

(1) Energy, torque (1)

(2) Force, Pressure (2)

(3) Mass, density (3)

(4) Speed, distance (4)

15. The minimum number of vectors of unequal 15.

18. A ball projected vertically upwards direction with 18. 55 m/s

(4) zero (4)

21. A point initially at rest moves along x-axis. Its 21. x-

(4) All (4)

23. Two masses mA and mB moving with velocities vA 23. mA mB vA vB

(3) the lift is slowing down while ascending (3)

(4) the lift is descending freely (4)

25. The maximum static frictional force is : 25.

(1) Equal to twice the area of the surface in contact (1)

(1) 4 radians/sec (1) 4 radians/sec

32. The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. 32. 16

(3) 20 s (3) 20 s

33. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of 33. R K1

36. Coherent sources are characterized by : 36. :

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(2) 5 × (2) 5 × 2 cm/sec

41. The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the 41. 3m

(2) 1.0 m (2) 1.0 m

(3) 1.25 m (3) 1.25 m

(4) 1.75 m (4) 1.75 m

42. A plano-convex lens with focal length of 20cm in 42. 20cm

43. In light of red colour, the focal length of a convex 43. 26 cm

(2) 0.0492 (2) 0.0492

44. In the Boolean algebra which of the following is 44. A

(1) 100k (1) 100k

(2) 300k (2) 300k

Speed of -rays depends upon the kind of the nucleus. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the

Thin films formed creats pressure difference.

TOPIC : Full Syllabus (MODEL)

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

51. A sudden jump between first and second ionization 51.