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NEW UET 20.11. QD


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. valuable B. variety C. environment D. impossible
Question 2: A. social B. common C. verbal D. polite
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
By adopting a few simple techniques, parents who read to their children can
considerably increase their children’s language development. It is surprising, but true. How
parents talk to their children makes a big difference in the children’s language development.
If a parent encourages the child to actively respond to what the parent is reading, the child’s
language skills increase.
A study was done with two or three-year-old children and their parents. Half of the
thirty children participants were in the experimental study; the other half acted as the control
group. In the experimental group, the parents were given a two-hour training session in
which they were taught to ask open-ended questions rather than yes-no questions. For
example, the parent should ask, “What is the doggy doing?” rather than, “Is the doggy
running away?” Experimental parents were also instructed how to expand on their
children’s answer, how to suggest alternative possibilities, and how to praise correct
answers.
At the beginning of the study, the children did not differ on levels of language
development, but at the end of one month, the children in the experimental group were 5.5
months ahead of the control group on a test of verbal expression and vocabulary. Nine
months later, the children in the experimental group still showed an advance of 6 months
over the children in the control group.
Question 3: Parents can give great help to their children’s language development by………
them.
A. reading to B. responding to C. adopting D. experimenting
Question 4: What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Participants B. Parents C. Questions D. Children
Question 5: During the training session, experimental parents were taught to ____.
A. study many experiments B. give correct answers
C. ask open-ended questions D. use yes-no questions
Question 6: What was the major difference between the control group and the experimental
one in the study?
A. The number of participants B. The age of the children
C. The training that parents received D. The books that were read
Question 7: What conclusion can be drawn from this passage?
A. Children’s language skills increase when they are required to respond actively.
B. Children who read actively always act six months earlier than those who don’t.
C. Two or three-year-old children can be taught to read actively.
D. The more children read, the more intelligent they become.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8. I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.
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A. bored B. scared C. free D. busy
Question 9: Workers are always advised to be cautious when entering and leaving the
place due to a recent fire.
A. factual B. unfriendly C. careless D. ambitious
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 10: Each of us must take for our own actions.
A. responsibility B. possibility C. probability D. ability
Question 11: Her fiancé is said from Harvard University five years ago.
A. to have graduated B. to be graduated C. being graduated D. having graduated
Question 12: I can’t think of any possible for his absence.
A. exploration B. explanation C. expedition D. expectation
Question 13: Housewives find it easier to do domestic chores thanks to invention of
labour- saving devices.
A. an B. some C. the D. a
Question 14: My supervisors is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work I _have done last
week.
A. should B. may C. need D. must
Question 15: Some films about violence have badly children and teenagers.
A. influenced B. aimed C. taken D. offered
Question 16: People should not have children unless they are to being responsible
parents.
A. promised B. involved C. allowed D. committed
Question 17: Ms. Brown asked me in my class.
A. were there how many students B. how many students there were
C. there were how many students D. how many students were there
Question 18: With greatly increased workloads, everyone is pressure now.
A. under B. out of C. above D. upon
Question 19: As there were too many participants at the seminar, the main speaker ……
them into four smaller groups for discussion.
A. divided B. submitted C. enrolled D. provided
Question 20: Hurry up or you the first lesson.
A. had missed B. miss C. have missed D. will miss
Question 21: Her first novel has been acclaimed as a masterpiece.
A. nation B. international C. internationally D. national
Question 22: I along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind .
A. am walking B. walk C. was walking D. walked
Question 23: The families houses were washed away by the tsunami were given
temporary shelter in the school yard.
A. whose B. where C. whom D. that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 24: A. through B. trouble C. couple D. double
Question 25: A. realized B. watched C. worked D. missed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSET in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
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Question 26: Since her parents’ death, she has been brought up by her uncle.
A. cried for B. died for C. lived with D. been in touch with
Question 27: The natives were angry when foreigners came to their country and took over
their land.
A. migrants B. tourists C. members D. locals
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 28: John and Alice are talking about going to the movie.
John: “I was wondering if you’d like to go to a movie tonight.”
Alice: “ What’s playing?”
A. Yes, I did. B. Sure, I’d love to! C. No, thanks. D. No, I don’t like it.
Question 29: This afternoon Hoa is visiting her home town.
Mark: “Don’t fail to send your family my regards.”
Hoa: “ .”
A. It’s my pleasure B. You’re welcome C. Good idea, thanks D. Thanks, I will
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution (30) _____is
as complicated as it is serious. It is complicated because much pollution is caused by
things that benefit people. (31)______, exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage
of air pollution. But the automobile provides transportation for millions of people. Factories
discharge much of the material that pollutes the air and water but factories give (32) to a
large number of people.
Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to
(33)_____using many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of
course. But pollution can be gradually reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can
work to find ways to lessen the amount of pollution that such things as automobiles and
factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws (34) _____require businesses and
traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.

Question 30: A. work B. event C. accident D. problem


Question 31: A. However B. As a result C. For example D. Therefore

Question 32: A. employed B. unemployment C. unemployed D. employment

Question 33: A. continue B. enjoy C. stop D. start

Question 34: A. who B. whom C. that D. whose


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins
each of the following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions.
Question 35: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame
each other.
A. Not only did the basketball team know they lost the match but they blamed to each
other as well.

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B. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
C. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to
blame each other.
D. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost
the match.
Question 36: Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect
from its neighbours.
A. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours.
B. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours.
C. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours.
D. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
corrections.
Question 37: To attract someone’s attention we can use either verbal and non-verbal forms
of communication.
A. To B. use C. and non-verbal D. communication
Question 38: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A. effects B. have been proved C. smoking D. on
Question 39: Dogs that are trained to lead the blind must be loyalty, intelligent and calm.
A. loyalty B. the C. trained D. Dogs that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning in the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 40: “No, it’s not true. I didn’t steal the money!” Jean said.
A. Jean admitted stealing the money. B. Jean refused to steal the money.
C. Jean did not intend to steal the money. D. Jean denied having stolen the money.
Question 41: It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting 18 years old that she is allowed to get
married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
C. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
D. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
Question 42: It is over twenty years since I last got in touch with them.
A. I can’t help keeping getting in touch with them for over 20 years.
B. I haven’t gotten in touch with them for over 20 years.
C. I used to get in touch with them for over 20 years.
D. I have been getting in touch with them for over 20 years.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The elements other than hydrogen and helium exist in such small quantities that it is
accurate to say that the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium by weight and
somewhat less than 75 percent hydrogen.
Astronomers have measured the abundance of helium throughout our galaxy and in
other galaxies as well. Helium has been found in old stars, in relatively young ones, in
interstellar gas, and in the distant objects known as quasars. Helium nuclei have also been
found to be constituents of cosmic rays that fall on the earth (cosmic rays are not really a
form of radiation; they consist of rapidly moving particles of numerous different kinds). It
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doesn’t seem to make very much difference where the helium is found. Its relative
abundance never seems to vary much. In some places, there may be slightly more of it; in
others, slightly less, but the ratio of helium to hydrogen nuclei always remains about the
same.
Helium is created in stars. In fact, nuclear reactions that convert hydrogen to helium
are responsible for most of the energy that stars produce. However, the amount of helium
that could have been produced in this manner can be calculated, and it turns out to be no
more than a few percent. The universe has not existed long enough for this figure to be
significant greater. Consequently, if the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium
now, then it must have been about 25 percent helium at a time near the beginning.
However, when the universe was less than one minute old, no helium could have
existed. Calculations indicate that before this time temperature were too high and particles
of matter were moving around much too rapidly. It was only after the one-minute point that
helium could exist. By this time, the universe had cooled so sufficiently that neutrons and
protons could stick together. But the nuclear reactions that led to the formations of helium
went on for only relatively short time. By the time the universe was a few minutes old,
helium production had effectively ceased.
Question 43: What does the passage mainly explain?
A. How stars produce energy
B. When most of the helium in the universe was formed
C. Why hydrogen is abundant
D. The difference between helium and hydrogen
Question 44: According to the passage, helium is
A. the most prevalent element in quasars
B. difficult to detect
C. the oldest element in the universe
D. the second-most abundant element in the universe
Question 45: The word "constituents" is closest in meaning to
A. causes B. components C. relatives D. targets
Question 46: Why does the author mention "cosmic rays"?
A. To explain the abundance of hydrogen in the universe
B. To explain how the universe began
C. As an example of an unsolved astronomical puzzle
D. As part of a list of things containing helium
Question 47: The word "they" refers to
A. particles B. cosmic rays C. constituents D. radiation
Question 48: The word "vary" is closest in meaning to
A. include B. mean C. stretch D. change
Question 49: The creation of helium within stars
A. produces hydrogen as a by-product
B. causes helium to be much more abundant in old stars than in young stars
C. produces energy
D. cannot be measured
Question 50: Most of the helium in the universe was formed
A. during the first minute of the universe's existence
B. in a very short time

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C. in interstellar space
D. before most of the hydrogen

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UET 20.12
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. – Bob: “Our team has just won the last football match.”
- Peter : “ __”
A. Yes, I guess it’s very good. B. Well, that’s very surprising!
C. Yes, it’s our pleasure. D. Good idea. Thanks for the news.
Question 2. This is the communicative exchange at an electric shop.
- The shop assistant. “This is my last portable CD player. I’ll let you have it for sixty
dollars.”
- Steven: “ ?”
A. Could you possibly give me fifty dollars B. Can you tell me your favourite type of
music
C. Could you give me a discount D. Could you give me your last CD
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following question.
Question 3. Solution to the problem of how to dispose of excess rubbish must find.
A. the problem B. how to dispose C. must find D. Solution
Question 4. A food additive is any chemical that food manufactures intentional add to their
products.
A. intentional B. additive C. any chemical D. products
Question 5. A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to
the same idea.
A. consists of B. sentences C. related to D. A paragraph
III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6. She was to wet behind the ears to be in charge of such demanding tasks.
A. lack of responsibility B. full of experience C. without money D.
full of sincerity Question 7. The storm was unexpected. No one was prepared for it so some
people couldn’t excape and got injured.
A. may be avoided B. should be followed C. can be predicted D. must be prevented
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8. By the end of last June, I English for five years.
A. studied B. was studying C. had studied D. has studied
Question 9. If she didn’t have to work today, she her children to zoo.
A. will take B. takes C. would have taken D. would take
Question 10. Tom regrets too much time computer games last night.
A. spending … to play B. spending … playing C. to spend …
playing D. spend … play
Question 11. You will have a good feeling about yourself and when you do voluntary work.
A. others B. the others C. other D. the other
Question 12. I’ll introduce to you the man support is very necessary for your project.
A. whose B. whom C. that D. who
Question 13. Only professionals can identify different of natural light.
A. expansions B. extensions C. intensities D. weights

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Question 14. If oil supplies run out in 2050 then we need to find energy sources soon.
A. alternating B. alternate C. altering D. alternative
Question 15. The man grew up in orphanage in United Kingdom.
A. the/ an B. an/ the C. an/ an D. the/ Ø
Question 16. These days more and more people are aware the importance of
protecting endangered species.
A. with B. on C. of D. up
Question 17. The in my neighborhood are well cared by the authorities.
A. disabilities B. unable C. disabled D. inability
Question 18. Solar energy is not widely used it is friendly to the environment.
A. despite B. because C. since D. although
Question 19. It was advisable that he there alone. It was too dangerous.
A. hadn’t gone B. didn’t go C. doesn’t go D. not go
Question 20. Everybody is tired of watching the same commercials on TV every night,
?
A. aren’t they B. haven’t they C. are they D. don’t they
Question 21. Michael got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He his lessons
very carefully.
A. can’t have revised B. should have revised C. needn’t have
revised D. must have revised
V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 22. I arrived at work. The assistant knocked at the door.
A. Hardly had I arrived at work then the assistant knocked at the door.
B. No sooner had I arrived at work than the assistant knocked at the door.
C. I hardly knew the assistant knocked at the door as I just arrived at work.
D. I had to arrived at work as the assistant knocked at the door.
Question 23. She didn’t take her father’s advice. That’s why she is bored with her work.
A. If she took her father’s advice, she wouldn’t be bored with her work.
B. If she had taken her father’s advice, she wouldn’t have been bored with her work.
C. If she had taken her father’s advice, she wouldn’t be bored with her work.
D. If she takes her father’s advice, she won’t be bored with her work.
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. The government decided to pull down the old building after asking for the
ideas from the local residents.
A. demolish B. renovate C. maintain D. purchase
Question 25. The adhesive qualities of this new substance far surpass those of all others of
its type.
A. dissolving B. sticky C. damaging D. disintegrating
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the position on primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 26. A. benefit B. argument C. vacancy D. apartment
Question 27. A. borrow B. explain C. discuss D. repair
VIII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is

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CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.


Question 28. It is said that the man was having business difficulties.
A. The man was having business difficulties is said.
B. The man is said to be having business difficulties.
C. People said that the man was having business difficulties.
D. The man is said to have been having business difficulties.
Question 29. “I would be grateful if you could send me further information about the job.”,
Lee said to me.
A. Lee thanked me for sending him further information about the job.
B. Lee felt great because further information about the job had been sent to him.
C. Lee politely asked me to send him further information about the job.
D. Lee flattered me because I sent him further information about the job.
Question 30. When he picked up my book he found that the cover had been torn.
A. Picked up, he saw that the cover of the book was torn.
B. The cover had been torn when his book is picked up.
C. Picking up his book, the cover had been torn.
D. On picking up the book, he saw that the cover had been torn.
IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of
communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of
oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign
language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the
mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words
are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or
unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A
nod signifies approval, while sharking the head indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of
nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the
fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also
guide, warn, and instruct people.
While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques
also express human thoughts and feelings.
Question 31. What is the best title for the passage?
A. The Many Forms of Communication B. The Importants of Sign Language
C. Ways of Expressing Feelings D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication
Question 32. The word “accomplished” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. attained B. meandered C. demoted D. translated
Question 33. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT .
A. verbalization is the most common form of communication
B. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication
C. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language
D. there are many forms of communication in existence today
Question 34. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among
blind people?
A. Signal flags B. Picture signs C. Braille D. Body language

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Question 35. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used
internationally EXCEPT for ______.
A. whole words B. expressions C. spelling D. ideas
X. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Thanks to our modern lifestyle, with more and more time spent sitting down in front of
computers than ever before, the (36) ____ of overweight people is at a new high. As
people frantically search for a solution to this problem, they often try some of popular fad
diet being offered. Many people see fad diet (37) harmless ways of losing weight, and
they are grateful to have them. Unfortunately, not only do fad diet usually fo the trick but
also they can actually be dangerous for your health.
Although permanent weight loss is the goal, few are able to achieve it. Expert estimate that
95 percent of dieters return to starting weight, or even (38) ___weight. While reckless
use of fad diets can bring some initial results, long-term results are very rare.
Nonetheless, people who are fed up with the difficulties of changing their eating habits often
turn to fad diets. (39)
__being moderate, fad diets involve extreme dictary changes. They
advise eating only one type of food, or they prohibit other types of foods entirely. This
results in a situation (40)
a person’s body doesn’t get all the vitamins and other things that it needs to stay healthy.
Question A. number B. range C. sum D. amount
36.
Question A. as B. like C. through D. by
37.
Question A. lose B. gain C. reduce D. put
38.
Question A. In spite of B. Rather than C. In addition to D. More
39.
Question A. what B. where C. which than
D. why
XI.
40. Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Amelia Earhart was born in Kansas in 1897. Thirty one years later, she received a phone
call that would change her life. She was invited to become the first woman passenger to
cross the Atlantic Ocean in a plane. The flight took more than 20 hours – about three times
longer than it routinely takes today to cross the Atlantic by plane. Earhart was twelve years
old before she ever saw an airplane, and she didn’t take her first flight until 1920. But she
was so thrilled by her first experience in a plane that she quickly began to take flying
lessons. She wrote, “As soon as I left the ground, I knew I myself had to fly.”
After that flight Earhart became a media sensation. She was given a ticker tape parade
down Broadway in New York and even president Coolidge called to congratulate her.
Because her record – breaking career and physical appearance were similar to pioneering
pilot and American hero Charles Lindbergh, she earned the nickname “Lady Lindy.” She
wrote a book about her flight across the Atlantic, called 20 Hrs, 40 Min.
Earhart continued to break records, and also polised her skills as a speaker and writer,
always advocating women’s achievements, especially in aviation. Her next goal was to
achieve a transatlantic crossing alone. In 1927 Charles Lindbergh became the first person to
make a solo nonstop flight across the Atlantic. Five years later, Earhart became the first
woman to repeat that feat. Her popularity grew even more and she was the undisputed

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queen of the air. She then wanted to fly around the world, and in June 1973 she left Miami
with Fred Noonan as her navigator. No one knows why she left behind important
communication and navigation instruments. Perhaps it was to make room for additional fuel
for the long flight. The pair made it to New Guinea in 21 days and then left for Howland
Island, a tiny island in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The last communication from
Earhart and Noonan was on July 2, 1937 with a nearby Coast Guard ship. The United
States Navy conducted a massive search for more than two week but no trace of the plane
or its passengers was ever found. Many people believe they got lost simply ran out of fuel
and died.
Question 41. With which of the following subject is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The history of aviation B. Achievements of early aviation pioneers.
C. The achievements of a pioneering aviatrix. D. The tragic death of the queen of air.
Question 42. According to the passage, which of the following statements about Earhart is
NOT true?
A. She wrote a book about her solo nonstop flight across the Atlantic, called 20 Hrs, 40
Min.
B. She was in her late twenties when she took her first flight.
C. She is regarded as the female Chare Lindbergh in aviation.
D. In her last adventure, she didn’t take communication and navigation instruments by
accident, and that led to the tragedy.
Question 43. According to the passage, when did Amelia Earhart began her first flight .
A. when she was 12 years old B. when she first saw an airplane
C. when she started to take flying lessons D. 1920
Question 44. The word “sensation” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. perception B. feeling C. excitement D. hit
Question 45. Amelia Earhart eas called “Lady Lindy” because .
A. She repeated Charles Lindbergh’s feat
B. she was the undisputed queen of the air
C. President Coolidge gave her the nickname
D. of her career and her phusical resemblance to Lindbergh
Question 46. The word “undisputed” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. undeceived B. dissipated C. undoubted D. contemporary
Question 47. The word “it” in the third paragraph refers to .
A. the reason B. communication C. plane D. aviation
Question 48. It may be inferred from the passage that Amelia Earhart .
A. would have continued to seek new adventures and records to break if she had not died
at the age of 39
B. would not have developed her love of flying if she had not been invited to become the
first woman passenger to cross the Atlantic in a plane
C. became too confident and took too many risks to be able to live to old age
D. did not want to return to the Unitted States
XII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
question.
Question 49. A. attempts B. conserves C. plays D. studies

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Question 50. A. preserved B. damaged C. reduced D. caused

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