ANSWER KEY AT THE END

NURS101 – Final Exam Prep Questions (Including Math)

WEEK 2 READINGS: Potter & Perry, Ch. 17, 33, 37

1. A nurse hears her patient crying. Upon entering the room, the patient quickly changes
their demeanour and starts engaging with the nurse in a positive and bubbly tone. The
nurse enquires about the patient’s mood as she heard crying earlier. What is she
engaging in:
a. Perceptual bias
b. Perception
c. Therapeutic communication
d. Curiosity

2. Verbal interviewing and history taking is considered what part of therapeutic

communication?
a. Nursing diagnosis
b. Planning
c. Assessment
d. Intervention

3. Validating health care needs and priorities through verbal discussion with the patient is
what part of therapeutic communication?
a. Nursing diagnosis
b. Planning
c. Assessment
d. Intervention

4. Delegation and verbal discussion with the healthcare team is what part of therapeutic
communication?
a. Planning
b. Evaluation
c. Intervention
d. Implementation

5. Being aware of your own patterns of communication and response to communication is

considered:
a. Therapeutic touch
b. Reflexivity
c. Decision making
d. Active listening

6. Intrapersonal communication is when:

a. One’s own thinking; inner self-talk
b. One-to-one interaction; takes place within a social context
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

c. Occurs within one’s spiritual domain

d. Occurs in a small group setting

7. The use of spoken or written words is known as:

a. Therapeutic communication
b. Denotative communication
c. Verbal communication
d. Baseline communication

8. Using all five sense in communication that do not involve spoken or written word is
known as:
a. Therapeutic communication
b. Denotative communication
c. Verbal communication
d. Non-verbal communication

9. Select the forms of self-expression (select all that apply)

a. Posture and gait
b. Personal appearance
c. Facial expression
d. Eye contact
e. Gestures
f. Sighs, moans, groans and sobs
g. Ability to see ghosts

10. Select all factors that influence communication: (select all that apply)
a. Hunger
b. Euphoria
c. Age
d. Level of trust between participants
e. Balance of power between participants
f. Privacy level
g. Noise level
h. Distraction level
i. Media influences
j. Comfort and safety

11. The nurse is having difficulty communicating with an older patient. What method should
she try?
a. Choose a dimly lit environment and minimize visual/auditory distractions
b. Allow time for the patient to respond
c. Speak loudly and use “elderspeak”
d. Use “elderspeak” when communicating with older patients.
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

12. What are the two purposes of infection control? (Select two)
a. Protect patients from acquiring infections
b. Limit the spread of disease by wearing N95
c. Protecting healthcare workers from becoming infected
d. Ration the use of PPE

13. What is the correct way to remove soiled gloves?

a. Loosen the fingertips first by pulling on them
b. Pinch the inside of the palm with the other hand and pull away from you
c. Pinch the dorsa of the hand and pull towards you
d. Slip one finger in the inside of glove at the wrist and pull

14. What is included in the chain of infection? (Select all that apply).
a. Pathogen
b. PPE
c. Reservoir
d. Portal of exit from the reservoir
e. Mode of transmission
f. Portal of entry to a host
g. Susceptible host

15. Bacteria, viruses fungi and protozoa are known as:

a. Infections
b. Reservoirs
c. Hosts
d. Microorganisms

16. Microorganisms on the skin are known as:

a. Resident/Transient flora
b. Gut flora
c. Infectious agents
d. Reservoirs

17. Which reservoir can Hepatitis A be found?

a. Wood ticks
b. Feces
c. Blood
d. Genital tract

18. Which reservoir can Tuberculosis (mycobacterium tuberculosis) be present in?

a. Rectum
b. Droplet nuclei from lungs
c. Oropharynx
d. Colon
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

19. Which reservoir can Herpes Simplex virus (Type 1) be found in?
a. Lesions of mouth, skin, saliva, feces
b. Lesions in adult genitalia only
c. Blood, semen, vaginal secretions
d. Lesions of mouth, skin, saliva, genitalia

20. What is the ideal pH level for most microorganisms to survive in?
a. pH of 10
b. pH of 3-5
c. pH of 5-8
d. pH 1

21. Tuberculosis (mycobacterium tuberculosis) can be killed under UV light.

a. True
b. False

22. What constitutes as a portal of entry/exit? Select all that apply.

a. Mouth
b. Urethral openings
c. Breaks in skin
d. Nose
e. Eyes
f. Stomach

23. What is the mode of transmission for varicella-zoster virus (chicken pox)?
a. Airborne
b. Direct
c. Droplet
d. Vectorborne

24. What is the mode of transmission for salmonella?

a. Airborne
b. Vehicle
c. Droplet
d. Contact

25. What is the mode of transmission for MRSA (methicillin resistant staphylococcus
aureus)?
a. Direct
b. Droplet
c. Vehicle
d. Vectorborne

26. What is the mode of transmission for West Nile virus?

 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

a. Direct
b. Droplet
c. Vehicle
d. Vectorborne

27. What is edema?

a. Arthritic inflammation
b. Accumulated fluid and localized swelling
c. Local vasodilation
d. Pain with breathing

28. What is purulent?

a. Swelling
b. Pus-filled drainage
c. Damaged cells
d. Vomit

29. What is a health-care associated infection (HAI)? Select all that apply.
a. Nosocomial infection
b. An infection common to healthcare workers
c. Iatrogenic infection
d. An infection you get after eating hospital food

30. What is an example of a nosocomial infection?

a. C. difficile
b. Influenza
c. COVID19
d. Omicron variant

31. What is asepsis?

a. Tissue damage
b. Keeping away disease-producing microorganisms
c. Organ failure
d. A condition of the gums

32. Steam under pressure, ethylene oxide gas, hydrogen peroxide plasma are commonly
used for:
a. Surgical instruments
b. Sterilization
c. Catheters
d. Patient discharge plans

33. What is the most important and basic technique in preventing transmission of
infections?
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

a. Wearing gloves
b. Disinfecting equipment with sterile saline solutions
c. Hand hygiene
d. Teeth brushing

34. What precautions should the nurse take when treating a patient who is under airborne
precautions?
a. Ensure patient is in a private room, use of N95 mask
b. Surgical mask worn within 2m of the patient
c. Private room with open door, gloves and gown upon entry
d. No precautions necessary

35. What precautions should the nurse take when treating a patient who is under contact
precautions?
a. Ensure patient is in a private room, use of N95 mask
b. Surgical mask worn within 2m of the patient
c. Private room, gloves and gown upon entry
d. No precautions necessary

36. Talking should be kept to a minimum to reduce respiratory airflow for patients who are
under precautions.
a. True
b. False

37. If an infection can be transmitted from one person to another, it is a:

a. Communicable disease
b. Portal of entry to a host
c. Portal of exit from a reservoir
d. Susceptible host

38. What is the minimum handwashing time with soap and water necessary to remove most
transient microorganisms?
a. 10 seconds
b. 150 seconds
c. 40-60 seconds
d. 3 minutes

39. A patient is on isolation precautions for pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse notes that
the patient seems to be angry but knows this is a normal response to isolation. The
nurse’s best intervention is to:
a. Provide a dark, quiet room to calm the patient
b. Explain the isolation procedures and provide meaningful stimulation
c. Reduce the level of precautions to keep the patient from becoming angry
d. Limit family and other caregiver visits to reduce the risk of spreading infection
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

40. A gown should be worn when:

a. The patient’s hygiene is poor
b. Patient has AIDS or hepatitis
c. The nurse is assisting with medication administration
d. Blood or body fluids may get on the nurse’s clothing from a task the nurse plans
to preform

41. When performing surgical hand hygiene, the nurse’s hands must be kept:
a. Above the elbows
b. Below the elbows
c. At a 45-degree angle
d. In a comfortable position

42. What are the three types of patient safety incidents (adverse events)? Select all that
apply.
a. Harmful incident
b. Near miss
c. No-harm incident
d. Code Red incident

43. What is this WHIMIS label?

a. Corrosive
b. Flammable
c. Fire hazard
d. Oxidizing material

44. What is this WHIMIS label?

a. Compressed gas
b. Corrosive material
c. Dangerously reactive
d. Poisonous and infectious
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

45. What is this WHIMIS label?

a. Poisonous and infectious material: other toxic effects

b. Dangerously reactive material
c. Poisonous and infectious material: biohazardous and infectious material
d. Poisonous and infectious material: immediate and serious toxic effects

46. Falls account up to ____% of all reported incidents in hospitals.

a. 40
b. 60
c. 75
d. 90

47. In older adults, what is the most serious fall-related injury?

a. Balance and mobility problems
b. Hip fracture
c. Broken bones
d. Concussion

48. What are procedure-related accidents? Select all that apply.

a. Medication and fluid administration errors
b. Improper application of external devices
c. Referring to a patient by the wrong name
d. Surgical procedure error

49. A restraint should be used only when:

a. A patient is violent and a risk towards staff, themselves, and others on the floor
b. Physician requested and after unsuccessful use of alternative methods
c. The patient hits the nurse
d. The patient cannot remain still

50. What is imperative to remember about restraints?

a. They must be checked every 3 hours.
b. They must be quick release in case of an emergency
c. They must fit tightly around the patient’s arms and feet
d. The patient must provide written consent to be held in restraints

51. Adolescents are at greater risk for injury from:

a. Poisoning, drowning, motor vehicle accidents
b. Motor vehicle accidents, suicide, substance abuse
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

c. Home accidents, motor vehicle accidents, fire

d. Falls, suicide, drowning

52. Which of the following statements about restraints is NOT true?

a. Restraints are used only after other alternatives have been tried
b. The least restrictive method of restraint should be used
c. Restraints are considered a long-term intervention
d. If a restraint is used, it must be part of the patient’s medical treatment

53. When teaching parents about responding to poisoning in children, the nurse should
instruct them to:
a. Give oral fluids
b. Induce vomiting
c. Call the local poison control centre
d. Drive the child to the emergency department

MATH PRACTICE

54. Convert into grams: 8933mg

a. 89.33g
b. 8.933g
c. 8.9g
d. 0.8933g

55. Convert into milligrams: 3.75g

a. 375mg
b. 3750mg
c. 37.5g
d. 37500mg

56. Convert into micrograms: 12.035g

a. 12,035,000 mcg
b. 1203.5 mcg
c. 1.2035 mcg
d. 120.35 mcg

57. Covert into micrograms: 0.56g

a. 56,000 mcg
b. 560,000 mcg
c. 5600 mcg
d. 560mcg

58. Convert to kilograms: 485,000mcg

 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

a. 0.0485 kg
b. 0.00485 kg
c. 0.000485 kg
d. 0.0000485 kg

59. Convert into litres: 13092mL

a. 1.3092 L
b. 0.13092 L
c. 130.92 L
d. 13.092 L

60. Convert into millilitres: 2500cc

a. 25 mL
b. 250 mL
c. 2.5 mL
d. 2500 mL

61. Convert to grams: 6.2kg

a. 6200 g
b. 62 g
c. 620 g
d. 62,000 g

62. Convert to milligrams: 0.008g

a. 8 mg
b. 0.08 mg
c. 0.8 mg
d. 80mg

63. Convert into a percentage: 49/232

a. 2.1%
b. 12.1%
c. 21.1%
d. 0.49%

64. Convert into a fraction: 75%

a. ¾
b. ½
c. ¼
d. 6/8

65. Convert the following into military time: 10:35pm

a. 10:35 hr
b. 1035 hr
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

c. 2235 hr
d. 2135 hr

66. What is 21 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit?

a. 37.8 F
b. 104 F
c. 69.8 F
d. 88 F

67. What is 92 degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius?

a. 33.8 C
b. 30. 8 C
c. 27. 6 C
d. 36. 2 C

WEEK 3 READINGS: Potter & Perry: Chapter 15

68. This type of electronic documentation keeps a lifetime record of all healthcare
encounters for an individual patient:
a. EMR
b. EHR
c. EPR
d. PHS

69. This type of electronic documentation is the legal record that describes a single
encounter/visit created in hospitals and outpatient healthcare settings that is the source
of data for the HER:
a. EMR
b. EPR
c. PHS
d. CHI

70. What is PIPEDA?

a. Private Information Protection and Evaluation Database Act
b. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
c. Patient Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
d. Private Information Protection and Electronic Database Act

71. Organize the following with respect to SOAP:

1. Asking multiple questions about how post-operative pain will be addressed
2. Explain routine postoperative analgesic plain of care
3. “I’m worried about the surgery. Last time I had lots of pain.”
4. Anxiety R/T perceived threat of postoperative pain AEB statement of prior
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

experience with uncontrolled postoperative pain

a. 1-3-2-4
b. 3-2-1-4
c. 4-3-1-2
d. None of the above

72. When a health care provider gives a therapeutic order over the phone to a nurse is
known as:
a. Short notice order
b. Verbal order
c. Telephone order
d. Secondary order

73. Organize the following with respect to SBAR.

1. Briefly state the problem.
2. Provide most recent vital signs/changes in assessment
3. Ask for recommendation
4. Provide background information as necessary
a. 1-3-4-2
b. 1-2-4-3
c. 1-4-2-3
d. 1-4-3-2

WEEK 4 READINGS: Jarvis: Chapter 10, 11

74. What is “Gestalt”?

a. Gestation period
b. Overall impression of a patient
c. Gastrointestinal pain
d. Obstruction in gait

75. What areas should you consider when taking a general survey of the patient? Select all
that apply.
a. Physical appearance
b. Facial expression
c. Body structure
d. Mobility
e. Behaviour
f. Level of consciousness
g. Range of motion

76. The patient seems older than they’ve stated. What could this be an indicator of:
a. Patient is lying
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

b. Chronic illness/chronic alcoholism/drug abuse

c. Delayed puberty
d. Precocious puberty

77. In a healthy patient, facial features should be:

a. Immobile
b. Masklike
c. Symmetrical with movement
d. Drooping

78. A patient who has an exceptionally wide base and is staggering and stumbling upon
ambulation would have:
a. Problems with gait
b. Shortened limbs
c. Cushing’s disease
d. Problems with posture

79. A patient experiencing paralysis on the left side would likely have:
a. Problems with posture
b. Tics
c. Limited range of motion/absence of movement
d. Tremors

80. A patient’s BMI of 18.2 indicates they are:

a. Underweight
b. Overweight
c. Normal weight
d. Obese

81. A patient’s BMI of 39.8 indicates they are:

a. Overweight
b. Obese (Class 1)
c. Obese (Class 2)
d. Obese (Class 3)

82. A patient’s BMI of 40 indicates they are:

a. Overweight
b. Obese (Class 1)
c. Obese (Class 2)
d. Obese (Class 3)

83. How long should you wait to take oral temperature if the patient just drank hot tea?
a. 20 mins
b. 10 mins
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

c. 30 mins
d. 1 hour

84. How long should you wait to take oral temperature if the patient had just smoked?
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 2 minutes
d. 20 mins

85. When taking an adult’s rectal temperature, how far into the rectum should the
thermometer be inserted?
a. 1 cm
b. 1 inch
c. 5 cm
d. 0.5 inch

86. The nurse is assessing an Olympic athlete’s heart rate at rest. She notes the heart rate is
48 bpm. What is this an indication of:
a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. This is normal for the patient
d. Bradypnea

87. The patient has a weak and thready pulse. How would this pulse force be recorded on a
three-point scale?
a. 3+
b. 2+
c. 1+
d. 0

88. How long should you count abnormal respirations for?

a. 60 seconds
b. 30 seconds x 2
c. 15 seconds x 4
d. 2 minutes

89. A 13 month old comes into the clinic with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute.
What is the best response from the nurse?
a. Assess for 2 full minutes to confirm the breathing rate
b. This is a normal finding
c. Document that the baby is experiencing hyperventilation
d. Advise the parent to take the baby to the hospital as this can be life threatening.
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

90. A newborns head measure about 38 cm and is larger than the chest circumference. This
is a(n):
a. Normal finding
b. Abnormal finding

91. At 2 years old, the child’s chest circumference is twice that of the cranium. This is a(n):
a. Normal finding
b. Abnormal finding

92. At 3 years old, the chest circumference is the same size as the head circumference. This
is a(n):
a. Normal finding
b. Abnormal finding

93. When should you use the Doppler technique? Select all that apply.
a. To locate the peripheral pulse sites
b. For BP measurements
c. To evaluate sounds that are hard to hear with a stethoscope
d. During ultrasounds

94. Thigh pressure is higher than pressure in the arm.

a. True
b. False

95. Excessive secretion of growth hormone by the anterior pituitary results in:
a. Gigantism
b. Dwarfism
c. Acromegaly
d. Normal response to growth and development

96. What is the second phase of nociception?

a. Transduction
b. Perception
c. Moduation
d. Transmission

97. At what point does the individual become aware of a painful sensation?
a. Transduction
b. Perception
c. Modulation
d. Transmission

98. This type of pain is derived from skin surface and subcutaneous tissue:
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

a. Nociceptive pain
b. Somatic pain
c. Visceral pain
d. Neuropathic pain

99. Mrs. Smithers is experiencing pain in her hip. What type of pain is this?
a. Visceral pain
b. Somatic pain
c. Neuropathic pain
d. Deep somatic pain

100. Jacob is experiencing pancreatitis. What type of pain is this?

a. Nociceptive pain
b. Visceral pain
c. Neuropathic pain
d. Deep somatic pain

101. Melanie has a pinched nerve and experiencing burning and tingling along her left
arm, specifically in her hand. What type of pain is this?
a. Nociceptive pain
b. Deep somatic pain
c. Somatic pain
d. Neuropathic pain

102. A patient has been experiencing pain for 3 months. What type of pain is this
classified as:
a. Acute pain
b. Chronic pain
c. Persistent pain
d. Non-malignant pain

103. Men are 2x more likely to experience migraines with aura, fibromyalgia, IBS, and
rheumatoid arthritis.
a. True
b. False

104. Pain is:

a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Derivative
d. Whatever the family member says it is

105. Equianalgesia is:

 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

a. When one dose of opioid’s pain-relieving effects are equivalent to another dose
b. When two dose of opioids are used to balance the side effects of another opioid
c. When one dose of stronger opioid is used instead of one of lower strength
d. To provide the patient with two doses of opioids that are of equal strength

106. What is NOT a nonpharmacological treatment for pain?

a. Physiotherapy
b. TENS kit
c. NSAIDs
d. Heat/Ice

WEEK 5 READINGS: Potter & Perry: Chapter 36, 45, 37

107. What is one way a nurse can reduce her risk of injury?
a. Lift/move patients manually
b. Use a slider sheet/slide board or transfer board when assisting patients to move
manually
c. Get help from the patient’s family to move the patient during exercise
d. Keep the bed low to the ground when performing bed baths

108. Fractures caused by weakened bone tissue is known as:

a. Stress fracture
b. Pathological fracture
c. Visceral fracture
d. Deep somatic fracture

109. Shiny, flexible bands of fibrous tissue that support the skeletal system are known
as:
a. Fibrous joints
b. Synovial joints
c. Ligaments
d. Syndesmodial joint

110. Posture is regulated by:

a. Nervous system
b. Bones
c. Muscle groups
d. Joints

111. What is atelectasis?

a. Inflammation of the lung from stasis or pooling of secretion
b. Collapse of alveoli
c. Collapse of the soft tissue
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

d. Bacterial growth in the trachea

112. Turning of a body part away from the midline is known as:
a. Hyperextension
b. Inversion
c. Eversion
d. Supination

113. Movement of extremities away from the midline of the body is known as:
a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Pronation
d. Supination

114. What does the body need to repair injured tissue?

a. Creatine
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Protein

115. When the patient is lying chest down, they are in the:
a. Supine position
b. Fowler’s position
c. Semi fowler’s position
d. Prone position

116. An older person has limited mobility as a result of a total knee replacement.
During assessment, the nurse notes that the patient has difficulty breathing while lying
flat. Which of the following assessment data support a possible pulmonary problem
related to impaired mobility? Select all that apply.
a. BP is 128/84
b. Respirations are 26/min on RA
c. HR is 114 bpm
d. Crackles over lower lobes heard on auscultation
e. Pain reported as 3 on scale of 0-10 after medication

117. The nurse is caring for a patient whose calcium intake must increase because of
high risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following menus should the nurse
recommend?
a. Cream of broccoli soup with whole-wheat crackers, cheese, tapioca
b. Hot dog on whole-wheat bun, side salad, apple
c. Low fat turkey chili with sour cream, side salad, fresh pairs
d. Turkey salad on toast with tomato and lettuce, honey bun
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

118. Which of the following are physiological outcomes of immobility?

a. Increased metabolism
b. Reduced cardiac workload
c. Decreased lung expansion
d. Decreased oxygen demand

119. What is something a nurse should REFRAIN from doing while providing a bed
bath?
a. Provide privacy
b. Keep side rails up while they are away from patient’s bedside
c. Keep room warm/control drafts
d. Discourage the patient from participating in bathing activities on their own

120. When caring for a patient’s feet during bath time, what must the nurse
remember?
a. Do not apply lotion between toes, as excessive moisture can result in infection
b. Apply excess amounts of lotion onto areas that are dry and cracked
c. Cut corns and calluses using commercial removers
d. Allow the patient to walk barefoot

121. How often should mouth care be performed for an unconscious patient?
a. Every day
b. Every hour
c. At least every 2 hours
d. Not necessary as they can swallow saliva themselves

122. What is important for the nurse to remember when caring for a patient with
dentures?
a. Dentures must be worn at night
b. Dentures must be removed at night
c. Dentures must be cleaned using saline
d. Dentures must be brushed using a firm bristled brush twice a day

123. How should the nurse provide care for the patient’s eyes?
a. Wipe from the outer canthus to the inner canthus
b. Wipe form the inner canthus to the outer canthus
c. Use the same section of the washcloth for both eyes
d. Lather the soap on the washcloth before wiping the eye

124. A thorough skin assessment is very important because the skin can provide
information about which of the following?
a. Support system
b. Circulatory status
c. Psychological wellness
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

d. Fundamental skills

125. When assessing for inflammation in a darkly pigmented patient, the nurse should
do which of the following?
a. Assess the skin for swelling
b. Palpate the skin for edema and increased warmth
c. Assess the oral mucosa for cyanosis
d. Palpate the skin for tenderness

126. When providing hair care for a patient, which of the following is NOT an
important consideration?
a. Caregiver preferences
b. Family preferences
c. Cultural preference
d. Patient preferences

WEEK 6: Potter & Perry: Chapter 42, 40

127. What are the classifications of food? Select all that apply.
a. Functional
b. Nutritional
c. Organic
d. Novel

128. What is an example of functional foods?

a. Probiotic yogurt
b. Ice cream cake
c. Banana milkshake
d. Candy canes

129. What is an example of fortified foods?

a. White chocolate
b. Espresso
c. Fruit juice with calcium
d. Pasta

130. What is an example of novel foods?

a. GM soybeans
b. Pizza
c. Milk
d. Eggs
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

131. Infants have the greatest percentage of total body water, and older adults have
the least.
a. True
b. False

132. Which vitamins have antioxidant properties?

a. Vitamin C, Vitamin D, and Vitamin K
b. Vitamin C, Beta-carotene, Vitamin A, Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D, Vitamin A, Beta-carotene
d. Vitamin E, Beta-carotene only

133. Which vitamins are fat soluble?

a. Vitamins A, B, C
b. Vitamins A, D, K
c. Vitamins A, D, E, K
d. Vitamin B12, D, K

134. What can result from receiving megadoses of fat-soluble vitamins?

a. Hyperpigmentation
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Hyperventilation
d. Hypervitaminosis

135. Adults aged 65+ have a decreased need for energy because the metabolic rate
slows with age; vitamin and mineral requirements remain unchanged.
a. True
b. False

136. Milk is not an efficient food for older adults to protect against osteoporosis.
a. True
b. False

137. What is a pesco-vegetarian?

a. Only consume vegetables and dairy
b. Only consume vegetables and eggs
c. Only consume vegetables and fish
d. Only consumes vegetables, eggs, and fish

138. The Canadian Nutritional Screening Tool only asks two questions related to:
a. Age and weight
b. Exercise and fluid intake
c. Age and weight loss
d. Weight loss and fluid intake
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

139. Two “YES” answers on the Canadian Nutritional Screening Tool indicates:
a. Increased nutritional risk
b. Decreased nutritional risk

140. What type of teaspoon is best to use for patients with bite reflexes?
a. Plastic spoon
b. Metal spoon
c. Rubber spoon
d. Wooden spoon

141. What should the nurse consider when feeding a patient with dysphagia? Select
all that apply.
a. Allow 5-10 seconds or longer for each bite/sip
b. Allow for 2 completed swallows between mouthfuls
c. If food is still present, offer an empty spoonful to stimulate swallowing
d. Provide sips of water in between each bite of solid food.

142. A patient asks if he should take vitamin pills to get the nutrients his body needs.
You tell him that essential nutrients:
a. Are made by the body
b. Generally must be supplied by food
c. Include herbal teas and alcohol
d. Are best obtained through taking vitamin pills

143. What are the determinants of healthy eating? Select all that apply.
a. Educational level
b. Income
c. Food preferences
d. Vitamin supplementation
e. Availability and accessibility of fresh produce
f. Policies that increase taxation of high-energy, low nutrient dense foods

144. A nutrient content claim of light means:

a. The food may be light in colour
b. The food has no added sugar or salt
c. The food is reduced in calories or fat by 10%
d. The levels of saturated and trans fatty acids are restricted.

145. Intracellular fluid consists of ___% of the body’s fluid

a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

146. What is the average adult’s fluid intake per day?

a. 200-900mL
b. 2200-2700mL
c. 1L-3L
d. 2000-2200mL

147. One of the most common electrolyte imbalances is:

a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hyponatremia
d. Hypocalcaemia

148. The patient most at risk for fluid volume deficit is a(n):
a. Older person
b. Young to middle adult
c. Child
d. Infant

149. One reason that older people experience fluid and electrolyte imbalance and
acid-base imbalances is that they:
a. Eat poor-quality food
b. Have decreased thirst sensation
c. Have a more severe stress response
d. Have an overly active thirst response

150. A patient drinks 200mL of tea in the morning with 250mL oatmeal, has 100mL of
water at lunch with a turkey sandwich, and 300mL of milk with pasta at night. They
voided 400mL of urine throughout the day. What is the total amount of intake?
a. 600mL
b. 850mL
c. 450mL
d. 200mL

151. 15 minutes after blood administration, your patient develops dyspnea, a cough,
and a rapid heart rate. You suspect:
a. Sepsis
b. Anaphylaxis
c. Acute hemolytic reaction
d. Circulatory overload

WEEK 8 and 9: Jarvis: Chapter 24, 25

152. Muscles account for ____ % of the body’s weight.

 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

a. 40-50
b. 60
c. 20
d. 35

153. The temporomandibular joint allows for which functions? Select all that apply.
a. Gliding
b. Open and close
c. Side-to-side
d. Circumduction

154. How many connecting bones are in the vertebrae?

a. 23
b. 33
c. 43
d. 53

155. What are the three bony articulations of the elbow? Select all that apply
a. Forearm
b. Ulna
c. Humerus
d. Radius

156. More than half of the bones in our body are located in our hands and feet.
a. True
b. False

157. Where is the tibiotalar joint located?

a. Arm
b. Hip
c. Ankle
d. Shoulder

158. What is the most common cause of childhood Musculo-skeletal pain?

a. Fibromyalgia
b. Early-stage rheumatoid arthritis
c. Growing pains
d. Growth spurt

159. The most characteristic change in pregnant women is:

a. Kyphosis
b. Lordosis
c. Increase in corticosteroids
d. Increased mobility in the sacroiliac joint
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

160. Why are more women affected by osteoporosis than men?

a. Sharp decrease in the hormone prolactin
b. Lack of estrogen after menopause
c. Hormone imbalance
d. Women naturally are less active than men

161. At what age does rheumatoid arthritis usually appear?

a. 40-60
b. 50+
c. 70+
d. 65+

162. What is the preferred test for meniscal tears?

a. Romberg Test
b. Bloomberg Test
c. McMurray Test
d. Ortolani maneuver

163. What signifies a positive result on the McMurray test?

a. A click
b. Friction in the ball joint
c. A murmur
d. A smooth gliding motion

164. What test is used for checking for hip dislocation in babies?
a. Ortolani maneuver
b. Romberg Test
c. Allis Test
d. Bloomberg Test

165. What is a positive Allis sign?

a. One knee is lower than the other
b. One arm is longer than the other
c. One thumb is shorter than the other
d. One clavicle is more elongated than the other

166. A parent brings their 11 month old to the clinic to be assessed. The nurse notes
that the child has genu varum. What is the appropriate intervention?
a. Have the parent teach the child a series of lower leg exercises to build strength
b. This is a normal finding and will resolve on its own
c. The child may need surgical intervention before the age of 5
d. Aqua fit classes are the most appropriate to fix genu varum in children.
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

167. A 2 year old patient is positive for rickets and has a waddling gait as a result of
knock knees. What is this condition known as?
a. Genu varum
b. Genu valgum
c. Pes Planus
d. This is a normal gait for 2 year olds.

168. What is the best test to inspect for scoliosis?

a. Lateral bend test
b. Osgoode test
c. Forward bend test
d. Backward bend test

169. Which lobe is concerned with personality, behaviour, emotions and intellectual
functions?
a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Temporal lobe

170. Which lobe is the primary visual receptor centre?

a. Frontal
b. Parietal
c. Occipital
d. Temporal

171. Which area of the brain is associated with language comprehension?

a. Frontal
b. Precentral gyrus
c. Wernicke’s area
d. Broca’s area

172. Which area of the brain is associated with motor speech?

a. Frontal
b. Precentral gyrus
c. Wernicke’s area
d. Broca’s area

173. What is NOT a reflex arc?

a. Deep tendon
b. Neurological
c. Superficial
d. Visceral
e. Pathological
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

174. The patient is seemingly healthy with no significant subjective findings. What
type of neurological exam should the nurse perform?
a. Screening
b. Complete
c. Neurological recheck
d. Partial

175. The patient is complaining of a headache and loss of coordination. What type of
neurological exam should the nurse perform?
a. Screening
b. Complete
c. Neurological recheck
d. Partial

176. The patient demonstrates neurological deficits and require periodic assessments.
What type of neurological exam should the nurse perform?
a. Screening
b. Complete
c. Neurological recheck
d. Partial

177. What cranial nerve is associated with anosmia?

a. CN I
b. CN II
c. CN IV
d. CN VI

178. Which cranial nerve is used to test for nystagmus?

a. Optic Nerve
b. CN II
c. CN III, IV, VI
d. CN V

179. Which cranial nerve is used to assess the masseter muscles?

a. CN VI
b. CN VII
c. CN VIII
d. CN V

180. Which cranial nerve is responsible for sense of taste and facial expression?
a. CN VI
b. CN VIII
c. CN VI
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

d. CN XI

181. Which cranial nerve is responsible for determining the patient’s ability to hear?
a. CN VI
b. CN VII
c. CN VIII
d. CN X

182. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the movement of the tonsillar pilars?
a. CN IX and X
b. CN V
c. CN XII
d. CN VIII

183. Shrugging shoulders indicates that this cranial nerve is intact:

a. CN X
b. CN XI
c. CN XII
d. CN VI

184. When a patient can say the phrase “light, tight, dynamite” clearly and distinctly,
this means that cranial nerve _____ is intact:
a. CN X
b. CN XI
c. CN XII
d. CN VI

185. How long should a patient stand during a Romberg test?

a. 1 minute
b. 30 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 10 seconds

186. Very slight swaying in a Romberg test indicates:

a. Negative result
b. Positive result

187. Slow, clumsy and sloppy response to rapid alternating movements is known as:
a. Dysdiadochokinesia
b. Cerebellar disease
c. Hypovolemia
d. Rothberg’s Response

188. What is the inability to identify objects correctly when placed in their hand?
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

a. Stereognosis
b. Astereognosis
c. Tactile discrimination
d. Kinaesthesia

189. This is known as the ability to read a number by having it traced on the skin:
a. Stereognosis
b. Kinaesthesia
c. Graphaesthesia
d. Dysdiadochokinesia

190. When a baby can raise their head and arch their back, similar to a swan dive, is
known as:
a. Landau reflex
b. Babinski reflex
c. Sensory reflex
d. Osgoode reflex

191. What is PERRLA?

a. Pupils Equal, Reflective, Reactive to Light, Accommodate
b. Pupils Evaluated, Reactive, Responsive, Lethargic, Accommodate
c. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, Accommodate
d. Pupils Equal, Refractive, Resistive to Light, Accommodate

WEEK 10: Jarvis: Chapter 19, 20, 21

192. What are the anterior thoracic landmarks? Select all that apply.
a. Suprasternal Notch
b. Sternum
c. Sternal Angle
d. Costal Angle

193. How many lobes in the Right lung?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4

194. A decrease of oxygen in the blood is known as:

a. Hypercapnia
b. Hypocapnia
c. Hypoxia
d. Hyperventilation
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

195. What is third-hand smoke?

a. Smoke emitted from a cigarette/vape that is inhaled by pets
b. Smoke that lingers in the air, even after the smoker has put out the cigarette
c. Smoke that only comes from vapes
d. Smoke that is breathed in immediately after passing a smoker on the street

196. Women incur greater lung damage from exposure to environmental tobacco
smoke than men do.
a. True
b. False

197. How should a nurse position her hand when evaluating for tactile fremitus?
a. Use the dorsa of the hand
b. Use two fingers
c. Use the palmar base of fingers or ulnar edge of the hand
d. Use both hands, palms down

198. The patient has a hairy chest, and the nurse knows that movement of hairs
under a stethoscope sounds like crackles. How should she minimize this false
adventitious sound when auscultating?
a. Ask the patient to shave
b. Auscultate over clothes
c. Wet the hair with a damp cloth
d. Avoid auscultating that area

199. What is the normal range on a pulse oximeter for a healthy adult with no lung
disease or anemia?
a. SPO2 of 95
b. SPO2 of 96
c. SPO2 of 98
d. SPO2 of 91

200. A 6MWT is administered for a patient with no health deficits. What is a normal
finding under these conditions?
a. Patient ambulates more than 300m in six minutes
b. Patient ambulates without the need of assistive devices
c. Patient maintains a respiratory rate between 16-20 breaths per minute
d. Patients pulse oximeter reads 95+ after six minutes

201. What is the first heart sound known as?

a. M1
b. T1
c. S1
d. S2
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

202. Which artery can be found between the trachea and the sternomastoid muscle?
a. Radial
b. Facial
c. Carotid
d. Apical

203. Which valve can be found at the fifth intercostal psace at the left lower sternal
border?
a. Aortic
b. Pulmonic
c. Erbs
d. Tricuspid

204. A heart murmur with a great of 6 is best described as:

a. Faint, but audible
b. Loud, associated with a palpable thrill on the chest wall
c. Very loud, heard with one corner of the stethoscope lifted off the chest wall
d. Loudest, heard with entire stethoscope lifted just off the chest wall

205. What is the normal heart rate for a neonate?

a. 100-180 bpm
b. 120-140 bpm
c. 60-100 bpm
d. 40-60 bpm

206. Tachycardia in older infants is considered:

a. 100 bpm +
b. 60 bpm +
c. 150 bpm +
d. 200 bpm +

207. A child is brought into your clinic and upon assessment, you note that the child
has a venous hum. This is:
a. An abnormal finding
b. A normal finding

208. What is not an artery in the leg?

a. Femoral
b. Popliteal
c. Posterior tibial
d. Ulnar

209. Why are veins known as capacitance vessels?

a. Because they carry a large capacity of blood
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

b. Because they have the ability to stretch

c. Because they spread all over the body
d. Because they have a lower venous pressure

210. This condition is known as a silent cardiovascular disease?

a. Peripheral arterial disease
b. Heart attack
c. Stroke
d. Seizure

211. A capillary refill time of more than 2 seconds indicates:

a. Low respiratory rate
b. Hyperventilation
c. Hypovolemia
d. Diabetes

212. A turbulent blood flow is known as:

a. Adventitious
b. Bruit
c. Souffle
d. Occlusion

WEEK 11: Jarvis: Chapter 22

213. What can be found in the LUQ?

a. Pancreas
b. Stomach
c. Descending colon
d. Appendix

214. What can be found in the RLQ?

a. Sigmoid colon
b. Spleen
c. Cecum
d. Duodenum

215. An individual with this inherited condition has an 87% change of developing
colon cancer by age 45.
a. IBD
b. Colorectal cancer
c. Abdominal adhesions
d. Familial adenomatous polyposis

216. What is the correct order to do a health assessment for the abdomen?
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

a. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation

b. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion
c. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
d. Inspection, Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation

217. A patient is laying on the bed in supine position and you notice their abdomen is
caving inwards towards the internal organs. What would you describe the contour as?
a. Flat
b. Scaphoid
c. Rounded
d. Protuberant

218. A patient is admitted with striae along their abdomen. You notice majority of the
striae is pink and blue. What does this indicate?
a. Striae is old
b. Striae is newly developed
c. Striae is associated with Cushing’s syndrome
d. Striae is caused by prolonged stretching

219. When auscultating for bowel sounds, which quadrant should you start in?
a. RLQ
b. RUQ
c. LLQ
d. LUQ

220. The nurse is assessing for rebound tenderness when the patient is reporting
abdominal pain. He holds his hand 90 degrees to the abdomen at a spot away from the
area of pain and lifts up quickly. The patient does not report any pain on release. What
is this test called, and is this a positive or negative result?
a. Babinksi Test, negative
b. Blumberg’s Sign, positive
c. Blumberg’s Sign, negative
d. Rothberg’s Exam, negative
 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

ANSWER KEY ON NEXT PAGE

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 ANSWER KEY AT THE END

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