Pharmaceutical Biochemistry
The double bond character of the peptide
1. Isoelectric or pI is the pH midway between
pKa values on either side of isoelectric
species where amino acids exits as neutral
species. Lysine has three pK values. pK1 =2.2,
pK2 = 9.2 and pK3 =10.8. What is the pI of
lysine?
A. 5.7
B. 6.5
C. 10
D. 11.4
E. 9.2
2. Most amino acids do not absorb visible light
and thus are colorless. However, there are
some that can absorb light. Which of the
following groupings of amino acids
contribute to the ability of most proteins to
absorb high wavelength (250-290nm)
ultraviolet light?
A. Alanine, valine, leucine
B. Tryptophan, tyrosine and phenylalanine
C. Serine, cysteine, and thereonine
D. Arginine, lysine and arginine
E. Glutamate and aspartate
3. In protein nomenclature, if the name of the
peptide is phenyllalanyl-aspartyl-lysyl-
aspargine, which residue has its α-carboxyl
group not involved in the peptide bond
formation?
A. Phe
B. Asp
C. Lys
D. Asn
E. None
4. Which of the following pairs of amino acids
with the indicated side-chain is CORRECT?
A. Cyteine-sulfhydryl group
B. Valine-methyl group
C. Tryptopan-phenol group
D. Serine-guanido group
E. Methionine-hydroxymethyl
5. Which of the following statement/s is/are
TRUE about glutamine and asparagine?
I. Their amide chains can be protonated
II. They are uncharged at physiologic pH.
III. They are easily differentiated from
aspartate and glutamate by chemical
procedures since amides closely
resemble acids in the chemical
properties.
IV. They are structural analogs of
aspartate and glutamate with their
carboxylic side-chain groups aminated
A. I, II, III
B. I & III
C. II & IV
D. I, II, III & IV
6. configuration of the peptide bond
is more stable than the
configuration.
A. Syn; anti
B. Trans; cis
C. R; S
D. D; L
E. Erythro; threo
7. Evaluate the following statements.
1. The alpha carbonyl to nitrogen portion of
the peptide bond can rotate at physiologic
temperatures.
2.
bond makes the peptide bond planar.
A. only the first statement is correct.
B. only the second statement is correct.
C. Both the first statements is correct.
D. Both the first statements is incorrect.
8. Glutamic acid has 3pK values: . pK1 =2.2, pK2
= 4.3 and pK3 =9.7. Which of the following
ionic forms of glutamic acid will predominate
at a pH below its isoelectric point of 3.25?
A. COOH COOH
B. COO COOH
C. COO COO
D. COO COO
E. COO COOH
9. Most amino acids are buried away from
water solvent that interacts with the surface of
a soluble protein while most side
chains are on the surface of soluble globular
proteins.
A. Charged; hydrophobic
B. Hydrophobic; charged
C. Hydrophobic; apolar
D. Charged; polar
E. None of these
10. Which amino acids is antagonized by drugs of
abuse such as ketamine and phencyclidine
and is implicated in schizophrenia/
A. Glycine
B. Aspartate
C. Tryptophan
D. Glutamate
E. Tyrosine
11. Which amino acid is a major neurotransmitter
in the brain?
A. Tyrosine
B. Glutamate
C. Aspartate
D. Serine
E. Tryprophan
12. A 57 year old man with a long history of
alcohol abuse comes to the emergency room
with symptoms of confusion and
hepatomegaly on examination. The patient
also has a flapping tremor at the wrist
(asterixis). He is diagnosed with hepatic
encephalopathy, which can be partially treated
with a diet of branched-chain amino acids.
Which of the following sets of amino acids
would you suggest?
A. Tryptophan, phenylalanine, tyrosine
B. Aspartate, glutamine,
asparagines C. Valine, leucine,
isoleucine
D. Methionine, proline, cystein
E. Alanine, glycine
13. Which of the following amino acids is
inhibitory & antagonized by the rodenticide
strychnine, leading to muscle twitching
and spasm?
A. Glycine
B. Asparagines
C. Lysine
D. Tyrosine
E. Tryptophan
14. A man diagnosed of hartnup disease wherein
his urinalysis results showed significant
increase in the neutral amino acids. Which of
the following amino acids would have been
found in his urine sample?
 A. Histidine E. Nucleolus
B. Arginine 22. Site of lipid synthesis in cells
C. Phenylalanine A. Smooth endopasmic reticulum
D. Glutamate B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Lysine C. Golgi apparatus
15. The presence of which characteristic D. Mitochondrion
distinguishes a eukaryote from prokaryote E. Lysosomes
A. DNA 23. Primary reserve carbohydrate in plants
B. Well-defined nucleus A. Chitin
C. Cytoplasm B. Glycogen
D. Cell membrane C. Starch
E. Ribosome D. Chondroitin
16. An organelle is the portion of the cell enclosed E. Heparin
by a membrane. Based on this, which of the 24. Water has high hence it is good in
following is not strictly an organelle? minimizing temperature fluctuations.
A. Mitochondrion A. Polarity specific
B. Lysosome heat B. H-bond
C. Ribosome potential
D. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Acidity
E. None of these D. Nucleophilicity
17. Hydrogen bonding plays s role in the behavior 25. Molecules that are part hydrophilic and par
of water as a solvent. It is also a key to the hydrophobic.
specificity f transfer of genetic formation. A. Amphipathic
Which does not properly illustrate hydrogen B. Protophilic
bonding? C. Nucleophilic
A. O H ---O
D. Amphiphilic
E. Protogenic
H
26. When c1 of monosaccharides becomes chiral,
B. C H-----O H
it is now known as a(an):
A. Epimeric carbon
B. Enantiomeric carbon
C. N----- H N C. Assymetric carbon
D. Anomeric carbon
D. N H----- N E. Acetalic carbon
27. Two sugars that differ only in the configuration
E. None of the above of ne carbon atom other than the terminal
carbon atom the penultimate carbon atom are
called .
18. Which of the fllowing vitamins may cause
A. Anomers
CNS disturbances, liver and skin damage
when taken in excess? B. Epimers
C. Enantiomers
A. A
D. Erythro ismers
B. B3
E. Threo isomers
C. B6
28. The glycosidic linkage that binds glucose
D. D
and glucose to form maltose.
E. E
A. Beta-(1 2)
19. Which of the vitamins may cause extensive
B. Beta-(1 4)
vasoconstriction and elevated blood pressure
and calcinosis of soft tissues when taken in C. Alpha-(1 4)
excess? D. Alpha-(1 2)
A. Vitamin A E. Alpha-(4 1)
B. Vitamin B3 29. The glycosidic linkage that binds glucose
C. Vitamin and galactose to form lactose.
B6 D. Vitamin A. Beta- (1 2)
D B. Beta- (1 4)
E. Vitamin E C. Alpha-(1 4)
20. The organelle-free cell sap where many D. Alpha-(1 2)
reactions and metabolic pathways such as E. Alpha-(4 1)
glycolysis, glycogenesis and fatty acid 30. The component of starch that reacts with
synthesis occur is known as the . iodine to form a deep-blue colored complex
A. Mithochondrion A. Glycogen
B. Cystosol B. Achroodextrin
C. Nucleus C. Maltotriose
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. Amylose
E. Cell membrane E. Amylopectin
21. Part of the cell that contains the organelles 31. A sulfated polysaccharide found in Gelidium
that carry out functions essential t cell cartilagenium which can be used as culture
metabolism. media for growing microorganisms.
A. Cell A. Chitin
membrane B. B. Agar
Cytoplasm C. Pectin
C. Nucleus D. Hyaluronic acid
D. Cytskeletn E. Dextran
32. Amino sugar found in chondroitin D. Aldehydic bonds
A. N-acetylfructosamine E. H-bonds
B. N-acetylglucosamine 43. Amylose differs from amylopectin in that
C. N-acetylgalactsamine amylose contains alpha-1,4 linkages while
D. N-acetylmuramic acid amylpectin contains linkage/s:
E. N-acetylmannosamine I. Alpha-(1 2)
33. Dextran is primarily used as a(an): II. Alpha-(1 4)
A. Suspending agent III. Alpha-(1 6)
B. Culture medium
C. Glomerular filtration A. I, II & III
evaluation D. Plasma expander F. I & II
E. Sweetener G. II & III
34. An enzyme considered to be a “spreading” H. II only
factor to increase the absorption of solutions I. III only
administered by clysis. 44. The alcohol contained by glycosphingolipids
A. Sucrase A. Glycerol
B. Amylase phingosine B. Glycol
C. Hyaluronidase C. Fatty alcohols
D. Amylopectase D. Sterols
35. Heparin, a mucopolysaccharide is used as an 45. Phosphatidylcholine is also known as:
anticoagulant because: A. Lecithin
A. It inhibit platelet aggregation B. Cephalin
B. It dissolves blood clots C. Plasmalogen
C. It dissolves fibrin D. Cardiolipin
D. It activates antithrombin E. Sphingomyelin
E. It hydrolyzes prothrombin 46. Phosphatidyletnolamine is also known as:
36. Branching frequency of glycgen’s stucture: A. Lecithin
A. Every 4-6 glucose units B. Cephalin
B. Every 6-10 glucose units C. Plasmalogen
C. Every 12-14 glucose D. Cardiolipin
units E. Sphingomyelin
D. Every 2-6 glucose units 47. It is a formula used to describe the behavior of
E. Every 25-30 glucose units weak acids and buffers in solution:
37. The principal component of exoskeletons of A. Henderson-Haselbalch Equation
arthropods, lobster & crabs B. Vant Hoff Equation
A. Peptidoglycan C. Van’t Hoff Equation
B. Cellulose D. Hendersn-Hasselbalch Equation
C. Chondroitin E. Henderson-Hasselbach Equation
D. Chitin 48. Fructose intolerance can lead to:
E. Cell wall A. Diarrhea
38. It is the dietary precursor for arachidnic acid. B. Flatulence
A. Oleic acid C. Hypoglycemia
B. Timnodonic acid D. Constipation
C. Linoleic acid E. GIT spasm
D. Linolenic acid 49. Failure to metabolize galactose cause
E. Cervonic acid galactosemia and further:
39. Glucose and galactose are epimers at carbon A. Renal failure
number: B. Liver failure
A. 6 C. Cataracts
B. 3 D. Neuropathy
C. 4 E. Arthropathy
D. 5 50. Eicosapentaenic acid (EPA) found in fish
E. 2 preparations such as Omacor® is commonly
40. Which carbohydrate would not rotate palne known as?
polarized light? A. Palmitoleic acid
A. Erythrose B. Timnodonic acid
B. Lycerose C. Lenoleic acid
C. Dihydroxyacetone D. Cervonic acid
D. Fructose 51. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) found in fish oil
E. Glucose preparations such as Omacor® is commonly
41. Glucose mannose are epimers at carbn known as?
number: A. Palmitoleic acid
A. 6 B. Timnodonic acid
B. 3 C. Linoleic acid
C. 4 D. Linoleic acid
D. 5 E. Cervonic acid
E. 2 52. EPAand DHA belongs to what mega
42. Bonds that link fatty acids with glycerol in superfamily f fatty acids?
triglycerides. A. Omega-9
A. Ester bonds B. Omega-6
B. Amide bonds C. Omega-3
C. Ether bonds
 D. Omega-5 D. Thromboxane
E. Omega-7 E. Leukotriene
53. Which of the following monosaccharide is 63. The enzyme that coverts arachidnic acid to
found in wod gums and in vivo, in several leucotriene.
glycoproteins? A. Prostagalndin
A. Arabinose B. Arachidonic acid
B. Xylulose C. Prostacyclin
C. Xylose D. Thromboxane
D. Lyxose E. Leukotriene
E. Erythrose 64. It is the major surfactant found in the lungs of
54. A deoxy sugar found in the DNA molecule newborn babies and neonates that prevent
A. Fucose the adherence of inner lung surfaces together.
B. Deoxygalactose A. Lecithin
C. Deoxyribose B. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine
D. Dexyglucose C. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylethanlamine
E. Idose D. Cephalin
55. DNA differs from RNA in that the OH in C2 of E. Phosphatidylinositol
the monsaccharide found in the RNA is 65. These are the major liids of the mitochondria.
replaced by: A. Cardiolipin
A. Amino group B. Cephalin
B. Nitrogenous base C. Lecithin
C. Carboxyl carbon D. Inositrol
D. Hydrogen atom E. Phosphatidylserine
E. Carbonyl carbon 66. Secondary messenger that are biosynthesized
56. Monosaccharide found in cases of pentosuria by action of phospolipase C include
which is usually due to a genetic defiency of diacylglycerol and:
the reductase that reduce the A. Inositol 4,5 biphospate
monosaccharide to a non-reducing sugar B. Inositol -1,4,5triphospate
alcohol: C. Inositol 5-phospate
A. Arabinose D. Inositol 1,4,5,6 tetraphospate
B. Lyxose E. Inositol monophospate
C. Xylulose 67. These are molecules that resemblecephalin,
D. Xylose and are found in the brain and muscles the nly
E. Ribulose differences is that instead of an ester goup on
57. Molisch test is also known as: sn-1, an ether groupis present and the alkyl
A. Alpha-naphthol reaction group unsaturated.
B. Aminoguanidine reaction A. Sphingomyelin
C. Anthrone reaction B. Palsmalogen
D. Salkowski test C. Lysophospolipid
E. Liberman-buchard test D. Ceramide
58. Taubers test for ketoses is also known as: E. Sphingosine
A. Alpha-naphthol reaction 68. It is the basic unit of glycolipids.
B. Aminoguanidine A. Glycerol
reaction B. Sphingosine
C. Anthrone reaction C. Ceramide
D. Salkowski test D. Fatty acids
E. Liberman-buchard test E. Phosphatidate
59. What is the central nucleus to all sterls? 69. It isa the glycolipid found in neutral tissues.
A. Cyclopentanephenantrene A. Neutamide
B. Cycloperhydrophenanthrene B. Neurosylceramide
C. Cyclopentanophenanthrene C. Glucosylceramide
D. Cyclopentanoperhydrophenantrene D. Gluboside
E. Steroid Ring 70. A sample drug that inhibits cyclooxygenase
60. The acetic acid-sulfuric acid test for sterls is A. Zilueton
also known as: B. Montelukast
A. Alpha- naphthol reaction C. Zafirlukast
B. Aminoguanidine reaction D. Aspirin
C. Anthrone reaction E. Salicylic acid
D. Salkowski test 71. Pro-vitamin D2
E. Liberman-buchard test A. Ergosterol
61. The sulfuric acid test for sterols is also known B. 7-dehydrocholesterol
as: C. Sitosterol
A. Alpha-naphthol reaction D. Coprosterol
B. Aminoguanidine reaction E. 5-dehydrocholesterol
C. Anthrone reaction 72. Pro-vitamin D3
D. Salkowski test A. Ergsterol
E. Liberman-buchard test B. 7-dehydrocholesterol
62. Eicosanoid that is the major mediator of pain, C. Sitosterol
inflammation. D. Coprosterol
A. Prostaglandin E. 5-dehydrocholesterol
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Prostacyclin
73. Which of the fllowing completely committed step in the biosynthesis of
inhibits choleterl absorption? cholesterol?
A. Ergosterol A. Rosuvastin
B. 7-dehydrocholesterol B. Cilastatin
C. Sitosterol C. Nystatin
D. Coprosterol D. Clindamycin
E. 5-dehydrocholesterol E. Chloramphenicol
74. 5,8,11,14 20:4 corresponds to what fatty acids? 83. These are lipids with glucose or galactose
A. Palmitoleic acid combined with ceramide
B. Linoleic acid A. Cerebrosides
C. Leic B. Gangliosides
D. Linoleic acid C. Globosides
E. Arachidonic acid D. Cytolipins
75. C11H23COOHcorrespnds to what fatty acid? E. Cardiolipins
A. Myristic acid 84. What monosaccharide readily forms
B. Stearic acid osazones?
C. Lauric acid A. Galactose
D. Lauric acid B. Fructose
E. Palmitic acid C. Glucose
76. CH3(CH2)4CH=CHCH2=CH(CH2)7COOH D. Mannose
correspnds to what fatty acid? E. Ribose
A. Palmitoleic acid 85. Which of the following is considered to be the
B. Linolenic acid good cholesterol?
C. Arachidonic acid A. VLDL-C
D. Oleic acid B. LDL-C
E. Linoleic acid C. ISL-C
77. 9
16:1 correspond to what fatty acid? D. HDL-C
A. Palmitoleic acid E. TAGs
B. Linolenic acid 86. Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the
C. Arachidonic acid organism are called .
D. Oleic acid A. Nutrionally non-essential amino
E. Linoleic acid acids B. Nutrionally essential amino
78. What is the positive result for Molisch Test? acids
A. Green color C. Alpha amino acids
B. Violet ring at the junction two liquids D. Standar amino acids
C. Black pecipitate E. Nutrional amino acids
D. Sandy crystals 87. When trysinogen is converted into trypsin, the
E. Brick red precipitate enzyme is called?
79. Which of the following is used for A. Pepsin
determination or testing for the presence of B. Zymogen
ketoses? C. Amylase
I. Nynlander’s test D. Enterokinase
II. Tauber’s test E. Gastrin
III. Barfoed’s test 88. A malnutrition state that arises from chronic
IV. Seliwanoff’s test defieciency of calories even in the presence if
A. I, II & III adequate protein intake.
B. I & III A. Marasmus
C. II & IV B. Hemochromatosis
D. II & III C. Obesity
E. II, III & IV D. Kwashiorkor
80. What is the positive result for the E. Anorexia
aminoguanidine reaction? 89. Complementary base pairs in the DNA double
A. Red color helix are bonded by
B. Violet color A. H-bond
C. Black precipitate B. Ester bond
D. Bright red purple color C. Dipole-dipole forces
E. Purple color D. Vander waals forces
81. To which of the following test(s) will sucrose E. Glycosidic bond
give a negative result? 90. Which nitrogen base is not found in the DNA?
I. Fehling’s test A. Adenine
II. Barfoed’s test B. Guanine
III. Molisch test C. Cytosine
A. I, II & III
D. Uracil
B. I & II
E. Tymine
C. II & III
91. Pepsinogen is an example of:
D. I & III
A. Co-factor
E. I only
B. Co-substrate
82. Which of the following is a drug used for
C. Zymogen
hypercholesterolemia, owing to its ability of
D. Holoenzyme
inhibiting HMG-COA reductase, the first
E. Apoenzyme
92. Type of RNA which serves as template for the
amino acid sequence being synthesized:
 A. mRNA biological activity and in other biochemical
B. tRNA reaction that require methyl transfer?
C. rRNA A. Alalnine
D. dRNA B. Cysteine
E. None of the above C. Cystine
93. Which of the following is true about uricase? D. Methionine
I. Converts uric acid to water-soluble E. Leucine
allantoin 101. Which of the following is a purine
II. It is found only in higher primates analogue that inhibits xanthine oxidase, and is
III. rDNA derived uricase ate now being thereby useful in the management of gouty
employed for the management of artritis?
gouty arthritis. A. Colchicine
A. I only B. Naproxen
B. II only C. Febuxostat
C. I & II D. Allopurinol
D. I, II & III E. Probenecid
E. III only 102. Which of the following is not a purine
94. Which of the following is/are rDNA-derived analogue, bur is capable of inhibiting xanthine
uricase? oxidase?
I. Pegloticase A. Colchicine
II. Febuxosat B. Naproxen
III. Rasburicase C. Febuxostat
A. I & II D. Allopurinol
B. II & III E. Probenecid
C. I & III 103. The amino acid that is an important
D. I, II & III precursor of hemoglobin is
E. I only A. Alanine
95. The amino acid groups from amino acids B. Proline
obtained by protein metabolism are removed C. Leucine
in the form of: D. Glycine
A. Urate E. Cysteine
B. Urea 104. This test specifically detects the
C. Creatinine presence of indole ring:
D. Ornithine A. Molisch test
E. Ammonia B. Xanthroproteic test
96. Glutamine is represented by what letter in the C. Hopkins-cole test
amino acids “alphabet”? D. Buret test
A. K E. Na Nitroprusside test
B. Q 105. In the secondary structure of RNA
C. D A. Adenine will always pair with thymine
D. E B. Cytosine will always pair with thymine
E. Y C. Cytosine will always pair with uracil
97. Which of the following amino acids are
D. Adenosine will always pair with
uncharged and polar?
uracil
I. H
E. Guanine will always pair with uracil
II. N
106. The type of RNA molecule crings
III. S
amino acid to the site of protein synthesis is:
IV. D
A. mRNA
A. I & II
B. rRNA
B. I & III
C. I & I V C. tRNA
D. dRNA
D. II & III
E. hnRNA
E. II & IV
107. A nucleic acid is made up of:
98. Which of the following amino acids possese
A. sugar, nucleoside and base
an indole-ring?
B. proteins, sugar and amino acid
A. D
C. nitrogenous base, amino acid and sugar
B. Q
C. F
D. nitrogenous base, phosphate and
D. K
sugar
E. phosphate, proteins and nitrogenous base
E. W
108. Serotonin, a neurotransmitter is
99. Which acid that gives a positive result for
derived from the amino acid:
Sakaguchi reaction
A. Histidine
A. Gelatin B. Serine
B. Arginine C. Tryptophan
C. Alanine D. Phenylalanine
D. Tyrosine E. Tyrosine
E. Tryptophan
109. In the pineal gland, serotonin
100. Which of the following amino acids is is converted to melatonin by:
an important component of the activated co- I. N-acetylation
enzyme involved in the methylating
II. N-methylation
catecholamines for termination of their
III. Oxidation
IV. O-methylation
 A. I & II I. Cysteine residues are reduce to form
B. III & IV disulfide bonds
C. I & III II. Disulfide bonds can stabilize
D. II & IV tertiary atructure of proteins.
E. I & IV III. Cysteine is a polar, sulfur
110. A type of antibody that plays an containingamino acid
important role in allergic response which A. I, II & III
cause anaphylactic shock, hay fever and B. II & III
asthma. C. I & III
A. IgA D. I only
B. IgD E. III only
C. IgE 119. Which of the following amino
D. IgG acids contain/s basic side chains?
E. IgM I. Histidine
111. Which of the followingantibodies is II. Leucine
capable of opsonization? III. Argine
A. IgA A. I, II & III
B. IgD B. II & III
C. IgE C. I & III
D. IgG D. I only
E. IgM E. III only
112. This antibody is capable if crossing 120. Which of the following amino
the placenta: acids posess a hydroxyl droup which
A. IgA render/s it/them polar?
B. IgD I. Serine
C. IgE II. Threonine
D. IgG III. Tyrosine
E. IgM A. I, II & III
113. Lactose: galactose + glucose; B. II & III
Lactulose galactose + . C. I & III
A. Galactose D. I only
B. Mannose E. III only
C. Ribose 121. Which of the following amino acids are
D. Ribulose condidered to be the smallest and is found in
E. Fructose sharp protein folds?
114. Which of the A. Leucine
following homotrisaccharide? B. Isoleucine
A. Raffinose C. Valine
B. Melitose] D. Alanine
C. Melitriose E. Glycine
D. Gentianose 122. Which of the following amino
E. Maltotriose acids contained ny the peptide, GSH?
115. Which of the following is a I. Glycine
nucleoside? II. Cysteine
A. Asenine III. Glutamine
B. Cytosine A. I, II & III
C. Uridine B. II & III
D. Thymine C. I & III
E. Guanine D. I only
116. Which of the following base pairs is E. III only
bonded by double bond? 123. What stabilizes the primary structure
A. Adenine & Thymine of proteins?
B. Cytosine & Guanine A. Salt bridges
C. Adenine & Guanine B. Hydrophobic bonds
D. Cytosine & Thymine C. Disulfide bonds
E. Cytosine & Uracil D. Peptide bonds
117. Which of the following statement is/are E. Hydrophobic interactions
true regarding the secondary structure of 124. Which of the following amino
nucleic acids? acids contain a phenolic hydroxyl group?
I. Guanine forms base pairs with A. Ser
cytosine via hydrogen bonds B. Thr
II. The B form of the DNA is the most C. Trp
common in biological systems D. Tyr
III. The breaking of H-bonds caused by E. Phe
high temperature is called melting 125. In twi dimensional electrophoresis,
A. I, II & III proteins are purified by what methologies?
B. I & II I. Isoelectric focusing
C. II & III II. SDS-PSGE
D. I & III III. HPLC
E. II only A. I, II & III
118. Which of the following statement/s B. I & II
is/are true?
 C. I & III 134. This id heneral form for naturally
D. II & III occurring proteins that yield only alpha
E. III only amino acids or their derivatives on hydrolysis
126. In order to isolate an enzyme or a A. Simple proteins
proteinnaceous ligand, the most suitable B. Conjugated proteins
chromatographic procedure to be employed C. Primary-derived protein
is: D. Secondary-derived proteins
A. Partition chromatography E. Peptides
B. Absorption chromatography 135. Keratin in hair belongs to what type of
C. Ion-exchange chromatography simple proteins?
D. Hydrophobic interaction chromatography A. Glutelins
E. Affinity chromatography B. Glutenins
127. This method of protein purification is C. Histones
based on proteins’ Stokes Radius, if the
D. Protamines
diameter of sphere in space that they occupy
E. Albuminoids
when tumble in the solution:
136. Zein in corn is an example of:
A. Column chromatography
A. Prolamine
B. Size exclusion chromatography
B. Protamine
C. HPLC
C. Histone
D. SDS-PAGE
D. Albuminoid
E. Isoelectric focusing
E. Globuline
128. Which of the following gives an
137. Casein in milk and ovovitellin in egg
accurate estimate of pl?
yolk are example of what type of conjugated
A. pl= pK1=pk2
proteins?
B. pl= (pK1+pk2)/2
A. Phosphoproteins
C. pl= (pK1=pk2)x2
B. Nucleoproteins
D. pl= pK1>pk2
C. Lipoproteins
E. pl= pk2 > pK1
D. Chromoproteins
129. What process is involve in the
E. Glycoproteins
formation of the peptide bonds?
138. Nucleoproteins, lipoproteins &
A. Oxidation
glycoproteins belong to what class of protein?
B. Reduction
A. Simple
C. Hydrolysis
B. Conjugated
D. Dehydration C. Primary derived
130. Which of the following statement/s D. Secondary derived
is/are correct? E. Peptides
I. The C-N bond in the peptide linkage
139. Arrange the following secondary
has a partial double bond
derived proteins from highest to lowest
characteristic
number of molecular weight
II. Neither C-O or N-H in the peptide I. Peptides
bond can dissociate II. Peptones
III. Each amino acid in the peptide bonds III. Proteoses
is called a residue. A. I, II, III
A. I only B. III, I, II
B. I & II C. II, I, III
C. III only
D. III, II, I
D. II & III
E. II, III, I
E. I, II & III 140. Pauly Diazo test indicates the
131. This refers to partial arrangements of presence of:
amino acids close to one another nin the I. Tryptophan
linear sequence of polypeptide chains
II. Histidine
A. Primary structure
III. Tyrosine
B. Secondary structure A. I, II & III
C. Supersecondary structure
B. I & II
D. Tertiary structure
C. II & III
E. Quarternary structure
D. I & III
132. α-helix and β—pleated sheets belong
E. III only
to what structure?
141. Which of the following is not true
A. Primary structure
about protein structure determination?
B. Secondary structure
A. NMR is the primary means if determining
C. Supersecondary structure
protein structure
D. Tertiary structure
B. Proteins are difficult to crystallize, a
E. Quarternary structure
disadvantage of X-ray crystallography
133. Fibrous & globular proteins belong to
C. An advantage to the use of NMR is that
what protein structures?
proteins analyzed are in their natural state
A. Primary structure
D. Large & very complex proteins can only
B. Secondary structure
be analyze by x-ray crystallography
C. Supersecondary structure
E. None of the above
D. Tertiary structure 142. Which of the following is not true
E. Quarternary structure regarding the four enzyme complexes if the
electron transports chain?
 A. Complex I is known as NADH-CoQ A. Nucleotides
Oxidoreductase B. Purines
B. Complex II is known as Succinate-CoQ C. Pyrimidines
Oxidoreductase D. This is a misnopmer. Nucleic acids are not
C. Complex III is known as cytochrome actually acidic
Oxidase 151. Which of the following are purine
D. Complex IV is known as bases?
cytochrome Oxidase A. Adenine & Thymine
E. None of the above B. Guanine & cytosine
143. One important endogenous molecule C. Cytosine & uracil
for synthetic biotransformation of xeno biotics D. Adenine & guanine
is glucoronic acid. It is actually the most E. Cytosine & thymine
dominant conjugative biotransformation 152. Ninhydrin gives a blue coloration with
pathway due to the readily available source of I. Tyrosine
glucose. It is produced from glucose via: II. Phenylalanine
A. Oxidation at C1 III. Hydroxyproline
B. Oxidation at C2 IV. Histidine
C. Oxidation at C5 A. I & IV
D. Oxidation at C6 B. I,II & III
E. Oxidation at C1 and C6 C. I,II & IV
144. In an uncompetitive inhibition D. I & II
of enzymatic action: E. III & IV
A. The inhibitor binds to either the free 153. The DNA structure is a double helix
enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex containing chains which are
B. Lineweaver-Burk Plots of the enzyme complementary. Which of the following
alone (control) & the enzyme + inhibitor describes complementarily of the two
are parallel to each other strands of the DNA molecule?
C. The apparent Km is raised A. In the chains, each end of the helix
D. The Vmax is unaffected contains the 5’ end of one strand and the
E. The Vmax is raised 3’ end of the other
145. Which of the following statement is B. Adenine binds to thymine & cytosine
correct? binds to guanine
A. Adenine is a nucleoside C. Several codons may code for the same
B. Adenosine is a nucleotide amino acid
C. Nucleotides are nucleoside phosphates D. The primary structure is right-handed
D. Nucleosides are basic units of double helix
nucleic acids E. All of the above
E. All of the above 154. Which of the following statements
146. Which of the following is a nucleotide? provide the most accurate description of the
A. Guanine antiparallel nature of the DNA’s two strands?
B. Guanosine A. In the chains, each end of the helix
C. Guanosine monophosphate contains the 5’ end of one strand and the
D. Any of the above 3’ end of the other
E. None of the above B. Adenine binds to thymine & cytosine binds
147. The sugars that occur in the two major to guanine
forms of nucleic acid differ in the substituents C. Several codons may code for the same
at carbon . amino acid
A. 1 D. The primary structure is right-handed
B. 2 double helix
C. 3 E. All of the above
D. 4 155. Which of the following provide the
E. 5 most accurate description of genetic code
148. The ribose in RNA is converted to degeneracy?
deoxyribose in replacing the in RNA with A. In the chains, each end of the helix
. contains the 5’ end of one strand and the
A. OH, H 3’ end of the other
B. H, OH B. Adenine binds to thymine & cytosine binds
C. O2, H to guanine
D. OH, O2 C. Several codons may code for the same
E. H, O amino acid
149. Which of the following is true D. The primary structure is right-handed
regarding nucleic acids? double helix
A. DNA has thymine while RNA has uracil E. All of the above
B. Adenine & guanine are pyrimidines 156. This is the chemical bond that binds to
C. Uracil is a purine carbon 1 of the pentose sugar to the
D. Cytosine & thymine are non-standards nitrogenous base in nucleic acids:
purines A. H-bond
E. All of the above B. Covalent bond
150. What is responsible for the acidic C. Phosphodiester
character of nucleic acids? bond D. Glycosidic
Phosphate group bond
E. Ether bond
157. The most common form of DNA I. Electron transport chain
A. A-DNA II. B- oxidation of fatty acids
B. B-DNA III. Hexose of monophosphate shunt
C. Z-DNA A. I,II & III
D. C-DNA B. I & II
E. D-DNA C. I & III
158. Which of the following can bind D. II & III
microtubules & therefore interfere with their E. I only
assembly or disassembly? 166. Fatty acid oxidation is increased in
I. Colchicine which of the ff. scenarios?
II. Vinorelbine I. Poorly managed diabetes mellitus
III. Streptomycin II. Starvation
A. I,II & III III. Lipid rich diet
B. I & II A. I,II & III
C. II & III B. I & II
D. I &III C. I & III
E. III only D. II & III
159. When serum urate levels exceed E. I only
solubility limit, crystals of sodium urate 167. Glucose is stored in the liver as:
accumulate in soft tissues & joints causing an A. Galactose
inflammatory reaction known as: B. Starch
A. Osteomalacia C. Lactose
B. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Glycogen
C. Gouty arthritis E. Inulin
D. Osteoarthritis 168. Which of the ff. may cause pellagra,
E. Idiophatic arthritis despite of adequate intake of tryphtopan?
160. Which of the ff. is derived from I. Pheochromocytoma
tyrosine? II. Hartnup disease
I. Thyroid hormones III. Carcinoid syndrome
II. Melanin IV. Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome
III. Cathecolamines A. I & II
A. I,II & III B. I & III
B. I & II C. I & IV
C. I & III D. II & III
D. II & III E. II & IV
E. III only 169. The pentose phosphate pathway &
161. What is the positive result for glutathione peroxidase protects erythrocytes
Xanthoproteic test for Aromatic Amino Acids? from hemolysis. The former provides NADPH
A. Yellow color deeping into as reducing equivalents to convert oxidized
orange glutathione back to its reduced form while the
B. Violet color latter converts toxic hydrogen peroxide to non-
C. Bluish green toxic water with the aid of reduced glutathione.
D. Blue violet What amino acid is found in the active site of
E. Old rose glutathione peroxidases?
162. Which of the ff. are purine & A. Cysteine
pyrimidine analogs that are capable of B. Methionine
inhibiting enzymes of nucleic acid synthesis C. Glutamate
via counterfeit incorporation mechanisms? D. Selenocysteine
I. 5-fluorouracil E. Pyrrolysine
II. Zidovudine 170. An example of globular protein:
III. 6-mercaptopurine A. collagen
A. I,II & III B. fibrin
B. I & II C. keratin
C. I & III D. myoglobin
D. II & III E. silk
E. II only 171. which of the ff is a stop codon?
163. Which of the ff. is considered to be A. AUG
simplest monosaccharide? B. UAG
A. Glucose C. UGG
B. Glycerose D. UUA
C. Fructose E. AGU
D. Ribose 172. The ff. are phospholipids?
E. Erythrose A. Phosphatidylinositol
164. The inactive proproteins of enzymes B. Lecithin
are termed as: C. Cephalin
A. Zymogens D. Choline
B. Apoenzymes E. Phophatidylserine
C. Co-factor 173. Ascorbic acid, glucuronides and some
D. Holoenzymes drugs act as reducing agents. How would
E. Enzymes these substances affect benedicts test result?
165. Which of the ff. occurs in the A. They may give false negative results
mitochondria?
 B. They may give false positive results B. operon
C. They have no effect on the results C. Primer
D. They would enhance the sensitivity of the D. okazaki fragments
test E. nick
E. NOTA 182. increase in optical absorbance of
174. What is wobble? purine & pyrimidine bases during DNA
A. The ability of certain anticodons that denaturation is known as:
differ at the third base A. hypercoloration effect
B. An error in translation induced by B. hyperconjugation effect
streptomycin C. hyperillumination effect
C. A mechanism that allows for a peptide D. hyperabsorbance effect
extension in the 50s subunit of the E. heperchromicity effect
ribosome 183. mutations that result from insertion or
D. Thermal motions leading to local deletion of nucleosides in DNA that generates
denaturation of the DNA double helix altered mRNAs
E. NOTA A. frameshift
175. Glutathione is an antioxidant w/c gives B. silent
a disulfide bond (GSSG) on oxidation by C. nonsense
oxidant chemicals and drugs. It is reduced D. missense
back to 2GSH in the presence of NADPH. E. transitional
What clinical disorder causes decreased 184. which vitamin can be used to treat
NADPH thereby causing impairement in hyperlipidemia?
reduction to GSSG to 2GSH and further
A. Thiamine
causing hemolytic anemia?
B. Niacin
A. Aldolase deficiency
C. Riboflavin
B. Transketolase deficiency
D. Pantothenic acid
C. Alkaline phosphatase deficiency
E. Pyridoxine
D. Phosphofructokinase deficiency
185. This 3 carbon fatty acid derivatives
E. G6PD deficiency
arises from the catabolism of odd chained
176. Lipids containing ceramide, glucose or
fatty acids:
galactose with one or more molecules of A. Acetyl CoA
sialic acid specially neuraminic acid.
B. Acyl coA
A. Cephalin
C. Propionyl CoA
B. Ganglioside
D. Propyl coA
C. Cytolipins E. Butyryl CoA
D. Globosides
186. Whch of the ff. is an abnormal protein,
E. Lecithin found to be elevated in alzheimers diseases?
177. Fatty acids are oxidized to which can This protein is prone to aggregation due to
enter the citric acid cycle. conversion from its original soluble double
A. Pyruvate helix rich state to beta sheet rich state.
B. Acetoacetate A. Alpha amyloid
C. Acetyl coa B. Beta amyloid
D. Lactate C. Amyloid precursor protein
E. Fatty acetyl-CoA D. Amyloid related protein
178. This substance accumulates in E. Prion related protein
the muscle as a result of vigorous 187. Which of the ff. are ketone bodies
exercise generated during extensive fatty acid
A. Glycogen oxidation?
B. Amino I. Acetone
acid C. Lactic II. Gamma amino butyric acid
acid III. Acetoacetic acid
D. Glucose IV. Beta hydroxyl butyric acid
E. pyruvic acid A. I,II & III
179. this hormone elevates blood sugar B. I,II,III & IV
concentration by repressing glucokinase & C. I & II
inhibiting glycogen synthase D. III & IV
A. insulin E. I, III & IV
B. progesterone 188. A common intermediate of metabolism
C. estrogen of carbohydrates fatty acids amino acids
D. glucagon A. Glycerol
E. glucocorticoids B. Acetyl coA
180. fruity odor of urine is indicative of C. Acetoacetate
acetone bodies a diagnostic value in case of D. Oxaloacetate
acidosis in: E. Acetylcholine
A. diabetes insipidus
189. A patient with anti-A and Anti-B
B. porphyria
A. Can accept any blood type
C. cretinism
B. Can donate to any blood
D. diabetes mellitus
type
E. galactosemia
C. Has antigin a and antigen B in his serum
181. discontinuos stretches in which the
D. Has antigin A and antigen B in his RBC
lagging strand is initially synthesized
E. Universal recipient
during DNA replication
A. enhancer
190. Which of the ff. amino acids is results to the formation of precipitate. The
responsible for disrupting the alpha helix results of the tests confirm the presence of:
because of its imino group which is not A. Glucose
geometrically compatible with the right B. Fructose
handed spiral of the alpha helix? C. Raffinose
A. Pro D. Glycogen
B. Val E. Starch
C. Lle 198. Which of the ff. are ATP consuming
D. Leu stage in glycolysis?
E. Gly I. Irreversible phosphorylation og
191. Which of the ff. regarding glucose to glucose 6 phosphate
carbohydrates? II. Irreversible phosphorylation of
A. In fischer projections the sugar structure is fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1-6
written vertically with the lowest carbon biphosphate
being designated as carbon 1 III. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
B. If an OH projects to the right on the fischer A. I,II,III
structure , it will project upward in the B. I,II
Haworth projection C. II,III
C. The Haworth projection is applicable to all D. I only
monosaccharides E. II nly
D. D or L designations describes the 199. This enzyme catalyses the conversion
positions of the penultimate hydroxyl of fructose 6 phosphate 1,6- biphosphate
groups in monosaccharides A. Glucokinase
E. AOTA B. Hexokinase
192. The enzymes for glycolysis are C. Pyruvate kinase
located at the: D. Phosphofructokinase
A. Cytoplasm E. Glyceraldehyde
B. Nucleolus phosphate dehygrogenase
C. Nucleus 200. Which of the ff. enzymes catalyze
D. Mitochondrion irreversible steps in glycolysis?
I. Phosphotriose isomerase
193. Fibrin from fibrinogen & myosin are II. Hexokinase
examples of what type of primary derived III. Pyruvate kinase
proteins? IV. Enolase
A. Proteans A. I,II
B. Metaproteins B. I,III
C. Coagulated proteins C. II,III
D. Peptones D. II,IV
E. Peptides E. I,IV
194. Some serum enzymes are used in 201. Which of the ff. is/are ATP generating
clinical diagnosis.which of the ff,. enzymes stages of glycolysis?
may be used to diagnose myocardial I. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate to 3-
infarction?
phosphoglycerate
I. Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase
II. 2- phosphoglycerate to
II. AST or SGOT
phosphoenolpyruvate
III. Creatinine
III. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
phosphokinase IV.Lactate
A. I,II
dehydrogenase
B. I,III
A. I, II, III & IV
C. II,III
B. I,II & III
D. II,IV
C. II,III,& IV E. I,IV
D. I,II & IV
202. Which of the ff. is the central hub in
E. II & III
the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids &
195. Cheilosis glossitis seborrhea &
amino acids?
photophobia are manifestations of what A. Glycolysis
deficiency state? B. Pentose phosphate pathway
A. Thiamine C. Beta-oxidation
B. Riboflavin D. Cori cycle
C. Niacin E. Krebs cycle
D. Pantothenate 203. Which of the ff. is/are the control
E. Pyridoxine points in the TCA cycle?
196. Racemase and mutase are examples I. Citrate synthase reaction
of what type of enzymes? II. Isocitrate dehydrogenasereaction
A. Lyases III. a-ketoglutarate
B. Isomerases
dehydrogenase reaction
C. Oxidases A. I,II,III
D. Reductases B. I,II
E. Ligases
C. II,III
197. A reddish solution results after the D. I,III
addition of iodine ts to an unknown solution .
E. III only
subsequent addition of ammoniacal basic lead
acetate to a portion of the unknown solution
204. Which of the ff. is an allosteric inhibitor D. K
of citrate synthase? E. Fe
A. ADP 212. Aside from converting stored energy in
B. ATP glucose into ATP, which of the ff. are other
C. Acetyl coA key roles of glycolysis?
D. NADH I. Produce intermediates for triglyceride
E. Phosphatase synthesis
205. Which of the ff. is/are an allosteric II. Produce intermediates for
inhibitor(s) of a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase glycogenesis
complex? III. Produce pyruvates which can be
I. Succinyl coA oxidized further to lactate to produce
II. NADH more ATPs via Krebs cycle
III. ADP-induced kinase A. I,II,III
A. I,II,III B. I,II
B. I,II C. II,III
C. II,III D. I,III
D. I,III E. III only
E. III only 213. In which of the ff. metabolic pathways
206. Which of the ff. is/are NADH is G6P an intermediate?
generating steps of the krebs cycle? I. Glycogenolysis
I. Succinate dehydrogenase II. Gluconeogenesis
II. Isocitrate dehydrogenase III. Pentose phosphate pathway
III. Malate dehydrogenase A. I,II,III
A. I,II,III B. I,II
B. I,II C. II,III
C. II,III D. I,III
D. I,III E. I only
E. III only 214. Which of the ff. is the most potent
207. Which of the ff. is an allosteric inhibitor activator of the phosphofructokinase step in
of isocitrate dehydrogenase? glycolysis?
I. NADH A. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
II. Acetyl coA B. Glucose-6-phosphate
III. ATP C. Glucose-1-phosphate
A. I,II,III D. 1,2-bisphosphoglycerate
B. I,II E. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
C. II,III 215. Which of the ff. statements regarding
D. I,III pyruvate is/are true?
E. III only I. In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate is
208. Which of the ff. is/are FADH2 further oxidized to acetyl coA
generating steps of the krebs cycle? II. In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is
I. Succinate dehydrogenase reduced to lactase
II. Isocitrate dehydrogenase III. It may also be a precursor to
III. Malate dehydrogenase oxaloacetate which can be further
A. I,II,III converted back to glucose via krebs
B. I,II cycle
C. II,III A. I,II,III
D. I,III B. I,II
E. III only C. II,III
209. Which of the ff. is the only substrate D. I,III
level phosphorylation reaction of the krebs E. I only
cycle? 216. Glycolysis in erythrocytes always
A. Citrate synthase ends in lactate formation both in aerobic &
B. Aconithase anaerobic conditions. The primary reason
C. Isocitrate behind this is:
dehydrogenase D. A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is not found in
Succinate thiokinase erythrocytes
E. Fumarase B. Erythrocytes lack mitochondria and
210. The electron transport chain (ETC) is hence are incapable of further
the final common pathway by which electron oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA
derived from the different fuels of the body C. Erythrocytes predominantly express the
floew to oxygen. Where does ETC occurs? enzyme lactate dehydrogenase instead of
A. Outer mitochondrial membrane pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Cytosol D. Erythrocytes don’t utilize oxygen for
C. Ribosome oxidative metabolism. They only transport
D. Golgi complex it
E. Inner mitochondrial membrane E. Pyruvate is easily transported out of the
211. Which of the ff. is an important erythrocytes
inorganic co-factor in all phosphorylation 217. Which of the ff. is a feed-forward
reactions of the glycolytic pqathway? activator of pyruvate kinase?
A. Mg A. 2-phosphoglycerate
B. Ca B. 3-phosphoglycerate
C. Na
 C. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate E. III only
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 223. What is the significance of
E. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate phosphoglycerate kinase by-pass by
218. Which of the ff. inhibits hexokinase biphosphoglycerate phosphatase?
thereby slowing down glycolysis? A. The by-pass produces 3-
A. Fructose-6-phosphate phosphoglycerate allowing glycolysis
B. Glucose-6-phosphate to proceed
C. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate B. The by-pass produces 2-
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 3,biphosphoglycerate which can bind
E. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate to hemoglobin promoting oxygen
219. Which of the ff. statements is/are true release to cells and tissues during
regarding glucagon? hypoxic states
I. Glucagon includes cGMP formation
C. The by-pass producews 2-
which in turn activates cGMP
phosphoglycerate an
dependent-kinase that may inhibit
essential intermediate to
pyruvate kinase, slowing down
produce phosphoenolpyruvate
glycolysis D. The by-pass directly produces pyruvate
II. Glucagon inhibits E. The by-pass directly produces Acetyl coA
phosphofructokinase-2 thereby 224. What two enzymes are used to
inhibiting fructose-2,6- bypass thre pyruvate kinase reaction of
biphosphate synthesis, a potent glycolysis for gluconeogenesis?
activator of phosphorfructokinase- I. Pyruvate carboxylase
1 II. PEP carbokinase
III. Glucagon is release from the III. Fructose biphosphate
pancreas in response to IV. Glucose 6 phosphatase
hypoglycemia, which in return A. I,II,III
activates gluconeogenesis & B. I,III
glycogenolysis
C. I,IV
A. I,II,III
D. I,II
B. I,II
E. III,IV
C. II,III 225. Which of the ff. statements regarding
D. I,III the kreb cycle are true?
E. I only I. Pyruvate carboxylase is the major
220. Which of the ff. genetic disorder may anaplerotic replenishing reaction for
cause hemolytic anemia owing to a decrease the kreb cycle and it produces
production of ATP’s in erythrocytes since catalytic oxaloacetate by carboxylation
these cells are largely dependent on of pyruvate
glycolysis for their ATP source to maintain II. Acetyl CoA is an allosteric activator of
integrity of cellular structure & function? pyruvate carboxylase and an inhibitor
I. Aldolase deficiency of pyruvate dehydrogenase
II. Pyruvate kinase deficiency III. Lactate can enter the cycle by
III. Phosphofructokinase deficiency oxidation to pyruvate by lactate
A. I,II,III dehydrogenase which can be further
B. I,II carboxylated to catalytic oxaloacetate
C. II,III A. I,II,III
D. I,III B. I,III
E. III only C. I,IV
221. Which of the ff. enzymes is/are found D. I,II
to be genetically deficient in the skeletal E. III,IV
muscles of patients who experience a 226. Which of the ff. includes the main
decrease exercise tolerance specially after a goals of pentose phosphate pathway?
carbohydrate rich diet? I. Produce ribose 5 phosphate for
I. Aldolase nucleoside synthesis
II. Pyruvate kinase II. Produce NADPH and NADP for
III. Phosphofructokinase oxidoreductive biochemical
A. I,II,III synthesis
B. I,II III. To interconvert pentoses and hexoses
C. II,III
A. I,II,III
D. I,III
B. I,II
E. III only C. I,III
222. The ATP producing phosphoglycerate D. II,III
kinase step of glycolysis converts 1,3- E. III only
biphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate. 227. Which f the ff. is possible precursor for
This may be bypassed by what non-ATP glucose via gluconeogenesis?
generqating steps? I. Leucine
I. Biphosphoglycerate mutase II. Pyruvate
II. 1,3- Biphosphoglycerate mutase III. Glycerol
III. 2,3- Biphosphoglycerate mutase A. I,II,III
A. I,II,III B. I,II
B. I,II
C. I,III
C. II,III
D. II,III
D. I,III E. III only
228. The state of high serum & urinary 237. which of the ff. phospholipases can
levels of aceto acetic acid and B- convert or degrade phospholipids to their
hydroxybutyric acid is called: basic unit phosphatidic acid?
A. Ketonemia A. PLA2
B. Ketonuria B. PLA1
C. Ketosis C. PLC
D. Ketoacidosis D. PLD
E. C&D E. PLE
229. The salkowski test for cholesterol 238. Which of the ff. is capable of providing
utilizes what strong acid? a valuable information for diabetes
A. Nitric acid management since it gives the mean blood
B. Sulfuric acid glucose for the past 6-8 week of a particular
C. Hydrochloric acid patient?
D. Perchloric acid A. HbA1a
E. Acetic acid B. HbA2a
230. These are small circular duplex DNA C. HbA1c
molecules whose natural function is to confer D. HbA2c
antibiotic resistance to the host cell E. Hbs
A. Cosmids 239. Which of the ff. is not an
B. Bacteriophages endopeptidase?
C. Nucleolus A. Pepsin
D. Genes B. Aminopeptidase
E. Plasmids C. Trypsin
231. Which of the ff. amino acids is D. Chymotrypsin
considered to be the smallest? E. Elastase
A. L 240. Which of the ff. is secreted by
B. A intestinal mucosal cells?
C. V A. Carboxypeptidase
D. I B. Elastase
E. P C. Chymotrypsin
232. Aspartame an artificial sweetener is D. Trypsin
contraindicated in phnylketonurics E. Aminopeptidase
because? A. It contains phenylalanine 241. What are the components of
B. It contains tyrosine endogenous thymidine?
C. It Lacks tyrosine A. Methylated deoxyribose and uracil
D. It Lacks phenylalanine B. Ribose and thymine
E. B & D C. Deoxyribose and thymine
233. Which of the ff. amino acid has the D. Ribose thymine & phosphate
tendency to elevate in the blood and urine of E. Deoxyribose thymine phosphate
patients with maples syrup urine diseases? 242. Which of the ff. is a nucleotide?
A. P A. Adenylate
B. W B. Adenosine
C. Y C. Adenine
D. R D. Cytidine
E. L E. Uridine
234. The oxidative stage of the pentose 243. Which of the ff. is not found in the
phosphate pathway generates DNA?
A. FADH2 A. Deoxyadenylate
B. NADPH B. Deoxyguanylate
C. ATP C. Deoxycytidylate
D. ATP D. Deoxyuridylate
E. NADH E. Thymidylate
235. What is the major enzymes that carry 244. The heterocyclic nitrogenous base is
out the non oxidative phase of the pentose connected to the pentose sugar in nucleotides
phosphate pathway? via what covalent bond?
I. Transaminase A. Beta glycosidic bond
II. Transketolase B. Alpha glycosidic bond
III. Transaldolase C. Ether bond
A. I,II,III D. Beta N-glycosidic bond
B. I,II E. Alph N-glycosidic bond
C. I,II 245. Uracil differs from thymine in that the
D. II,III latter possesses a group at position of the
E. III only pyrimidine nuclueus
236. Which of the ff. intermediates A. Hydroxyl 5
seldomly accumulates in urea cycle? B. Amino 5
A. Citruline C. Methyl 5
B. Ornithine D. Amino
C. argininosuccinate E. Methyl 3
D. arginine 246. Among the major forms of purines
E. carbamoyl phosphate found in the DNA which does not possess an
oxo/ carbonyl group on the ring?
 A. Adenine C. 3 to 4
B. Cytosine D. 3 to 5
C. Guanine E. 3 to 1
D. Uracil 255. The DNA strand is always read from
E. Thymine the direction?
247. The phosphate group that makes A. 5 to 3
nucleotides acidic generally located at the B. 1 to 3
position of the pentose sugar when forming C. 3 to 4
nucleic acids? D. 3 to 5
A. 1 E. 3 to 1
B. 2 256. Which of the ff. statements regarding
C. 3 the central dogma of molecular biology are
D. 4 true?
E. 5 I. DNA replication occurs in a semi
248. Additional phosphate group are conservative manner
attached to monophosphorylated nucleotides II. The amino acid sequence of proteins
by what covalent bond? is directly dependent on the
A. Phosphoester bond nucleotides sequence of the DNA
B. Phosphodiester III. Reverse transcription is impossible
bond C. Acid anhydride A. I,II,III
bond B. I,II
D. Glycosidic bond C. II,III
E. Ether nond D. I,III
249. There are several biochemical catalyst E. I only
found inside and outside the cell. 257. It refers to the ability of the DNA to
Biomolecules with catalytic activity include: increase its absorbance of visible light when
A. Enzymes only denatured.
B. Enzymes and amides acids A. Hyperabsorbance effect
C. Enzymes and RNA B. Hyperchromicity effect
D. Enzymes and DNA C. Denaturing effect
E. AOTA D. TmDNA
250. The DNA strands is read from the 5 E. Color enhancing effect
end and to the 3 end. The 5 end possesses 258. Which of the ff. statements regarding
while the 3 end possesses DNA denaturation are not true?
A. Free hydroxyl group , free hydroxyl group I. The DNA double helix unwinds
B. Free phosphate group, free phosphate because H- bonds between base pairs
group and base kicking interactions are
C. Free hydroxyl group, free phosphate interrupted
group II. A-T base pairs are more resistant to
D. Free phosphate group, free denaturation
hydroxyl group III. The nitrogenous bases remains bound
E. 7-methylguanosine triphosphate cap and to the sugar phosphate backbone but
polyadenylate tail the sugar backbone is hydrolyzed
251. In the double stranded DNa the owing to the hydrolysis of the
genetic information resides on the strands phosphodiester bonds.
which the transcribed during nucleic acid A. I,II,III
synthesis and the strand is known as: B. I,II
A. Template strand C. II,III
B. Replicating strand D. I,III
C. Coding strand E. I only
D. Transcribing strand 259. DNA mutations are non- enzymatic
E. Synthetic strand transformations within the DNA molecules that
252. The opposing complementary DNA causes permanent changes in the genetic
strand to the template DNA strand is known information to expressed and one mechanism
as the? of mutation is deamination of nitrogenous
A. Template strand bases. Which of the ff. is therefore subject to
B. Replicating deamination ?
strand C. Coding I. Adenine
strand II. Guanine
D. Transcribing strand III. Thymine
E. Synthetic strand IV. Cytosine
253. Which of the ff. is not a form of DNA A. I,II
within cells? B. III,IV
A. A-DNA C. I,II,III
B. B-DNA D. I,II,IV
C. D-DNA E. I,III
D. C-DNA 260. Which of the ff. regarding DNA
E. F-DNA mutations are true?
254. The phosphodiester bonds in I. Deamination will automatically remove
nucleotides ran in the direction to form nucleic the bases from the sugar phosphate
acids? backbone
A. 5 to 3
B. 1 to 3
 II. Hydrolysis of glycosidic bonds will A. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate
cause destruction of phosphodiester B. Adenosine
bonds triphosphate C. S-
III. Glycosidic bond hydrolysis will cause
adenosylmethionine
interruption in H-bonding of base pairs
D. Uridine diphosphoglucuronic acid
A. I
E. Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate
B. II
268. Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome is a
C. III deficiency state of:
D. I,II A. Pantothenate
E. II,III B. Folate
261. Which types of RNA is considered to C. Riboflavin
be the most abundant? D. Thiamine
A. mRNA E. Biotin
B. tRNA 269. Which of the ff. is a functional part of
C. rRNA CoA and acyl carrier protein?
D. tRNA & mRNA A. Thiamine
E. rRNA & mRNA B. Riboflavin
262. in mRNA processing the 5 end is C. Niacin
attached with what nucleotide that serves as a D. Pantothenate
“cap” to render it stable against 5
E. Pyridoxine
exonucleases and for it to be recognized by
270. Which of the ff. is also known as
the translation machinery of the cell?
vitamin H?
A. 7-metyladenosine triphosphate
A. Biotin
B. 7-methylguanosine B. Cyanocobalamin
triphosphate C. Pyridoxine
C. 7-methylinosine triphosphate D. Folic acid
D. 1-methylguanosine triphosphate E. Niacin
E. 3-methylguanosine triphosphate 271. Which of the ff. is a more stable
263. The mRNA is not actually directly derivative of tetrahydrofolate making it
senthesized from the DNA. The precursor that suitable for pharmaceuticals and is found in
is being processed to form mRNA for export to the agent folinic acid?
cytoplasm is known as: A. 5,10-methylene THF
A. hnRNA B. 5,10- methyl THF
B. pRNA C. 5-formimino THF
C. preRNA D. 5-formyl THF
D. hRNA E. 10-formyl THF
E. nRNA 272. Vitamin k acts as co-factor for the
264. which of the ff. is oxidatively gamma carboxylation dependent activation of
catabolized to uric acid? clotting factors causing a pro- coagulant
A. Cytosine effect. What amino acid residue in clotting
B. Inosine factors is gamma carboxylated in the
C. Uracil presence of vitamin k?
D. Guanine A. Asp
E. Thymine B. Lys
265. Vitamins are essential and are C. glu
therefore required to be provided by the D. leu
diet.which of the ff. is not strictly vitamins E. met
since the body can synthesize this vitamins. 273. toxicity due to which of the ff. vitamins
I. Niacin are possible?
II. Cholecalcifol I. Pyridoxine
III. Pantothenate II. Niacin
A. I,II,III III. Retinol
B. I,II IV. Cholecalciferol
C. II,III A. I,II,III,IV
D. I,III B. I,II
E. I only C. III,IV
266. Which of the ff. statements is true D. I,III
regarding co0factors? E. II,IV
I. They are required by apoenzymes for 274. It is the step in a reaction mechanism
them to be converted to active with the highest energy transition state and is
holoenzymes usually subject to regulation and inhibition
II. They can be essentials ions and co- A. Intermediate step
enzymes B. Rate- limiting step
III. Co-enzymes can be co- substrates & C. Pre-transition state
prosthetic groups D. Regulatory state
A. I,II,III E. Key step
B. I,II 275. Which of the ff. statements regarding
C. II,III enzymes is/are true?
D. I,III I. Enzymes are catalytic proteins that
E. I only lower the activation energy
267. Which of the ff. is a metabolite
co-enzymes that functions in methyltransfer?
 II. Enzymes are capable of raising
reactants energy by bringing them
close together
III. Enzyme can also stabilized the
transition states thereby facilitating
the ease of product formation
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
276. Proteases are examples of what
general classifications of enzyme?
A. Oxidoreductases
B. Lyases
C. Ligases
D. Hydrolases
E. Transferasase
277. DOPA decarboxylase is a key enzyme
in cathecolamine biosynthesis and in the
activation of levodopa to dopamine for
parkinsons disease. This enzyme is an
example of what general classification of
enzyme?
A. Isomerases
B. Lyases
C. Ligases
D. Hydrolases
E. Oxidases
278. Nomenclature of enzyme are based
on the ff. except:
A. Nature of the general substrate
B. Name of the specific substrate
C. Type of reaction
D. Biosynthetic or catabolic nature
E. All of the above
279. In the Michaelis-Menten equation ,
Vo=Vmax[S]/Km+[S] the term Km is
essentially becomes equal to [S] if the [S] is
much more greater than the Km. hence:
A. Velocity becomes equal to [S]
B. Velocity becomes equal to Km
C. Velocity becomes equal to Vmax x [S]
D. Velocity becomes equal to Km+[S]
E. Velocity becomes equal to V max
280. In the Michaelis-Meten Equation
Vo=Vmax[S]/Km+[S] if the [S] is equal to Km,
the term Km +[S] becomes 2[S] hence;
A. Vo becomes equal to half of V max
B. Vo becomes equal to half of Km
C. Vo becomes equal to half of V max x [S]
D. Vo becomes equal to km
E. Vo becomes equal to v max
281. For the statement of the drugs ability
to bind and inhibit a particular enzyme. The
Michaelis Menten Equation can be rearranged
to:1/Vo=(Km/Vmax)1/[S]+1/Vmax Which of
the ff. statement regarding this is/are true?
I. The equation is known as lineweaver-
burk Equation
II. The equation is simply derived by
getting the reciprocals of
Michaelis Menten
III. The equation allows the mathehatical
determination of substrate
concentration at a given velocity
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
282. Which of the ff.statements regarding
competitive inhibitors of enzymatic activity
is/are true?
I. Such inhibitors are commonly uses as
drugs
II. The effect of inhibiton is irreversible
regardless if the substrate
concentration is increased
III. Such inhibitors decreased the number
of free enzyme that can bind the
substrate
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
283. In an enzyme kinetics experiment for
determining a drug’s mechanism of inhibition
of a particular enzyme, the lineweaver-burk
plot was created. Based on this plot which of
the ff. statement is/are true?
I. The drug is a competitive inhibitor of
an enzyme & its action is therefore
reversible by increasing substrate
concentration
II. The Vmax is unaffected. Further
supporting that the inhibition is
competitive in nature
III. The Km is decreased. Further
supporting that the inhibition
is competitive in nature
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
284. Given the Lineweaver-burk plot, it can
be concluded that:
A. The mechanism of inhibition
is uncompetitive
B. The Km is lowered and the Vmax is
unchanged
C. The inhibitor can either bind the
free enzymeor when the enzyme-
substrate complex has been
formed
D. The inhibitor can bind the enzyme after
the enzyme-substrate complex has been
formed since the inhibitor binds to a site of
the enzyme other than the active site
285. Given the Lineweaver-Burk plot below
, it can be concluded that;
A. Km is lowered & Vmax is increased. The
inhibition is uncompetitive
B. Vmax is lowered & Km is increased. The
inhibition is uncompetitive
C. Both Vmax & Km is increased, the
inhibition is uncompetitive
D. Both Vmax & Km is lowered, the
inhibition
E. The inhibitor can only bind & inhibit the
enzyme if it is free of the substrate. The
inhibition is uncompetitive
286. Which of the ff. serum enzymes for
clinical diagnosis is increased in the case of
liver disease?
A. LDH1
B. LDH2
C. LDH3
D. LDH4
E. LDH5
 287. Which of the ff. serum enzymes for D. II,III
clinical diagnosis is increased in the cases of E. III only
bone disorder & obstructive liver disease? 294. How many ATP’s are generated by
A. Creatinine kinase one molecule of FADH2 via oxidative
B. Lactate dehydrogenase phosphorylation?
C. Acid phosphatase A. 1
D. Alkaline phosphatase B. 2
E. Amylase C. 3
288. Which of the ff. serum enzymes for D. 4
clinical diagnosis is more specific indicator E. 5
for liver disease when elevated in the serum? 295. How many ATP’s are generated by
A. LDH4 one molecule of NADH via oxidative
B. LDH5 phosphorylation?
C. ASAT A. 1
D. SGOT B. 2
E. SGPT C. 3
289. Synthesis of ATP within the cell is D. 4
primarily by: E. 5
I. Reductive phosphorylation 296. How many ATP’s can one molecule of
II. Substrate level phosphorylation palmitic acid generate via beta-oxidation?
III. Oxidative phosphorylation A. 133
IV. Hydrolytic phosphorylation B. 132
A. I,II C. 130
B. I,III D. 129
C. I,IV E. 128
D. II,III 297. A given fatty acids is given 27 carbon
E. II,IV atoms. How many ATP’s can be produced
290. Which of the ff. enzymes for from this molecules via beta-oxidation alone?
gluconeogenesis bypass irreversible stepsof A. 196
glycolysis? B. 197
I. Pyruvate carboxylase C. 198
II. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate D. 199
III. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate E. 200
dehydrogenase 298. Which of the ff. amino acids are both
A. I,II,III ketogenic & glucogenic?
B. I,II I. Phe
C. II,III II. Lie
D. I,III III. Thr
E. I only IV. Tyr
291. The biochemical cycle is A. I,II,III,IV
essentially an interaction of fatty acid B. I,II,III
oxidation , gluconeogenesis & glycolysis. C. III,IV
a. Cori cycle D. II,III,IV
A. Urea cycle E. I,II,IV
B. Krebs cycle 299. Which of the ff. codons is not
C. Citric acid cycle translation stop signal during translation
D. Ketogenesis of mRNA into proteins?
292. Glycogen phosphorylase is a key A. UAG
enzyme in which of the ff. biochemical B. UAA
pathways? C. UGA
a.Glycogenolysis D. UGG
A. Glycogenesis E. NOTA
B. Glycolysis 300. In the termination of protein synthesis
C. Gluconeogenesis or mRNA translation which of the releasing
D. Pentose phosphate pathway factor does not recognize the codons for
293. Which of the ff. statement regarding translation stop signal and rather enhance the
Beta-oxidation of fatty acids is/are true? activity of other releasing factors with the aid
I. Fatty acids are activated first to fatty of GTP?
acyl coA via ATP & coA I. RF-1
II. Fatty acid coA is transported via L- II. RF-2
carnitine into the cytosol for the III. RF-3
degradation ia beta-oxidation A. I,II
III. The L-carnitine shuttle aids fatty acids B. I,III
oxidation by transporting fatty acyl coA C. II,III
to its destination in the cell for D. III only
degradation which explains why L- E. I only
carnitine can increase fatty acids
utilation
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. I,III