ĐIỂM:

Họ và tên: __________________________________ ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT 2022

Lớp: 12 8,4 (THPT Lục Ngạn – Bắc Giang)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct:
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world’s population will live in cities, up from about 54 percent today. While
the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned
urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for
devastating spread of disease. These risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas
continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are governed. The increased
concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will
have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal development. Well
managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate
of transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and
diversity of people can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is
rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly
increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new
inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is
taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face of rapid and unplanned
urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best be
managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance.

1. Which is the most suitable title for the passage?

A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
2. The word “addressed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on
3. According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
4. The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. need B. start C. encourage D. design
5. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. urban expansion B. unsanitary conditions
C. disease D. socio-economic disparities
6. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
B. 54% of the world’s population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
7. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.
D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation:
8. A. wasted B. produced C. indicated D. arrested
9. A. remind B. children C. flight D. widen

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s):
10. What makes the problem worse is that Howard and Tina are not on the same wavelength about how to deal with it.
A. behave in the same way B. share their opinions
C. want the same wave D. have their length in common
11. My parents always disapproved of my smoking. They even told me once it would stop me growing taller.
 A. refused B. objected to C. supported D. denied

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions:
12. A. normal B. friendship C. humour D. attract
13. A. contractual B. addition C. candidate D. appointment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions:
14. He is a great sports _____. He rarely misses any sport games although he was busy.
A. player B. enthusiast C. energy D. programmer
15. While I _____ at the bus stop, three buses went by in the opposite direction.
A. was waiting B. waited C. had waited D. were waiting
16. All nations should _____ hands to work out a plan to solve the problem of global warming.
A. shake B. join C. lend D. hold
17. Your sister used to visit you quite often, _____?
A. didn’t she B. doesn’t she C. wouldn’t she D. hadn’t she
18. If we _____ the plans carefully, we would not have had so many serious mistakes.
A. study B. had studied C. studied D. were studying
19. Lionel Messi _____ as one of the best football players of all times.
A. regards B. is regarded C. has regarded D. regard
20. Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good _____ on job interviewers.
A. impressive B. impression C. impress D. impressively
21. _____ for 4 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at a cheap restaurant.
A. Having been walked B. Having walked C. Walking D. Walked
22. With greatly increased workloads, everyone is _____ pressure now.
A. upon B. out of C. above opinion D. under for
23. I’m looking for a _____ clock for my bedside table.
A. small white Swiss B. Swiss small white C. white small Swiss D. Swiss white small
24. She _____ her mother for many years up to the time of her death.
A. looked after B. start over C. set up D. go over
25. I had all the information at my _____ before attending the meeting.
A. fingertips B. thumbs C. hands D. fingers
26. I have been saving money _____ I would like to buy a new computer.
A. despite B. because of C. although D. because
27. The larger the apartment, _____ the rent is.
A. expensive B. the more expensive C. more expensively D. the most expensive
28. It is alleged that mothers and grandmothers spoil the children by _____ their mistakes.
A. neglecting B. overlooking C. avoiding D. passing

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s):
29. We are having a surprise party for Susan next Saturday, so don’t give the secret away by saying anything to her.
A. ask anyone to come B. tell her the secret C. go to the party D. find out the secret
30. There are many TV commercials distracting viewers from watching their favourite films.
A. economics B. businesses C. contests D. advertisements

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or:
The PBT is a pencil and paper test that is offered for two purposes. One purpose of the PBT is for placement and process evaluation.
(31) _____ colleges or institutions use the PBT to test their students. The scores are not valid outside of the place where they are
administered, but the college or institution accepts the PBT that they administered as an official store. This PBT is also (32) _____ an
Institution TOEFL. The main purpose of the PBT is to supplement the official Computer-Based TOEFL in areas where computer-based
testing is not possible. The scores are usually valid outside of the place where they are administered. This PBT is also called a
Supplement TOEFL.
The Paper-Based TOEFL has three parts: Listening Comprehension, Structure and Written Expression, and Reading. (33) _____,
the TEST of Written English (TWE) is an essay that is required to provide a writing score. The PBT is a (34) _____ test, which means
that everyone (35) _____ takes the TOEFL during the same administration will see and answer the same questions. The final score is
based on a scale of 310-677.

31. A. Each B. Every C. Many D. Much

32. A. called B. seemed C. considered D. appeared
33. A. In other words B. On the other hand C. Besides D. In addition
34. A. style B. form C. standard D. linear
35. A. who B. whom C. which D. where
Mark the letter A. B. C or D to indicate the word(s) that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions:
36. The last time she saw her elder sister was in 2019.
A. She didn’t see her elder sister from 2019. B. She has seen her elder sister since 2019.
C. It was not until 2019 that she saw her elder sister. D. She hasn’t seen her elder sister since 2019.
37. Perhaps Susan knows the name of every kid in the school.
A. Susan needn’t know the name of every kid in the school.
B. Susan may know the name of every kid in the school.
C. Susan should know the name of every kid in the school.
D. Susan mustn’t know the name of every kid in the school.
38. “I’m sorry I gave you the wrong number”, said Paul to Susan.
A. Paul apologized to Susan for having given the wrong number.
B. Paul denied giving Susan the wrong number.
C. Paul thanked to Susan for giving the wrong number.
D. Paul accused Susan of having given the wrong number.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges:
39. Harry is talking to Judy over the phone.
Harry: “Thank you for helping me prepare for my birthday party, Judy.” – Judy: “_____.”
A. You’re welcome. B. That’s out of this world.
C. Never mention me. D. Of course not.
40. Catherine and Laura are talking about their school rules.
– Catherine: “I think that all students must wear uniforms at school.”
– Laura: “_____. Wearing uniforms helps students feel equal in many ways.”
A. I’m sorry, but I disagree B. I refuse to believe that
C. I couldn’t agree more D. You must be kidding

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct:
Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water first thing, before doing
anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body temperature; neither too hot nor too cold.
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys. It prepares your stomach
for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from
our food. Water also helps us go to the bathroom more easily. Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 millilitres of water each day.
But don’t drink all of that water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It’s better to drink
more in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it’s better to drink between meals and not during meals. They think
water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion.
Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the colour of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are probably drinking enough. IF
your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A little more water each day could make you much healthier.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge I by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)

41. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The importance of water B. The advice of the doctors
C. How to drink water correctly? D. The best amount of water to drink
42. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. your body B. your kidney C. water D. your stomach
43. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. preserve B. remove C. absorb D. process
44. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.
B. You shouldn’t drink too much water at the same time.
C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.
D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.
45. According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT _____.
A. kidneys B. stomach C. intestines D. livers

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction:
46. In just a few weeks since its discovery, Omicron has turned out to be highly transmissible and less susceptible to vaccines than other
variations.
A. discovery B. transmissible C. susceptible D. variations
47. You can remember those words easily if you write it down in your notebook.
A. those B. easily C. write D. it
48. Many students takes part in the entrance examination at university every year.
A. students B. takes C. entrance D. every year

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines of each pair of sentences in the following questions:
49. He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
 A. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
B. If only he had been able to finish his book.
C. If his wife hadn’t helped him, he couldn’t have finished his book.
D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.
50. The Prime Minister set up a committee of financial experts. They were to help him discuss and formulate new policies.
A. The Prime Minister, who is a financial expert, set up a committee to discuss and formulate new policies.
B. A committee consisting of financial experts was set up by the Prime Minister to help him discuss and formulate new
policies.
C. The Prime Minister, who was helped by financial experts, set up a committee to discuss and formulate new policies.
D. A committee consisting of financial experts who were helped by the Prime Minister discussed and formulated new policies.

- THE END OF THE TEST -