1. (c) 1.

287 x 109 liters
Of the following name/symbol combinations of (d) 5.336 x 1010 liters
elements, which one is WRONG? (e) 4.870 x 109 liters
(a) uranium/U 9.
(b) sulfur/S Identify the INCORRECT statement.
(c) nitrogen/N (a) Helium in a balloon: an element
(d) potassium/K (b) Paint: a mixture
(e) iron/I (c) Tap water: a compound
2. (d) Mercury in a barometer; an element
Of the following symbol/name combinations of 10.
elements, which one is WRONG? An unused flashbulb contains magnesium and
(a) C/carbon oxygen. After use, the contents are changed to
(b) B/barium magnesium oxide but the total mass does not
(c) F/fluorine change. This observation can best be explained by
(d) N/nitrogen the
(e) U/uranium (a) Law of Constant Composition.
3. (b) Law of Multiple Proportions.
The chemical symbol for manganese is (c) Avogadro's Law.
(a) Mn (d) Law of Conservation of Mass.
(b) Mo 11.
(c) Ma Which answer includes all the following that
(d) Ga are chemical changes and not physical changes?
(e) Mg I. freezing of water
4. II. rusting of iron
The number 0.005436 has how many significant III. dropping a piece of iron into hydrochloric acid
figures? (H2 is produced)
(a) 7 IV. burning a piece of wood
(b) 3 V. emission of light by a kerosene oil lamp
(c) 4 (a) III and IV
(d) 5 (b) II and V
(e) 6 (c) I, II, III, IV, and V
5. (d) II, III, and V
The number 10.00 has how many significant (e) II, III, IV, and V
figures? 12.
(a) 1 Which response lists all of the following properties
(b) 2 of sulfur that are physical properties and not other
(c) 3 properties?
(d) 4 I. It reacts with hydrogen when heated.
(e) 5 II. It is a yellow solid at room temperature.
6. III. It is soluble in carbon disulfide.
What is the volume of a 2.50 gram block of metal IV. Its density is 2.97 g/cubic centimeter
whose density is 6.72 grams per cubic centimeter? V. It melts at 112 degrees C.
(a) 16.8 cubic centimeters (a) II, III, IV, and V
(b) 2.69 cubic centimeters (b) II, IV, and V
(c) 0.0595 cubic centimeters (c) I
(d) 0.372 cubic centimeters (d) II, III, and IV
(e) 1.60 cubic centimeters (e) III, IV, and V
7. 13.
A cube of 1.2 inches on the side has a mass of 36 The formula weight of the compound, Al2(SO4)3
grams. What is the density in g/cm3? 18H2O is:
(a) 21 (a) 394.4 g
(b) 2.2 (b) 666.4 g
(c) 30. (c) 110,900 g
(d) 1.3 (d) 466.8 g
(e) 14 (e) 561.2 g
8. 14.
Nitric acid is a very important industrial chemical: The weight of a millimole of (NH4)2HPO4 is:
1.612 x 1010 pounds of it were produced in 1992. If (a) 132 g
the density of nitric acid is 12.53 pounds/gallon, (b) 114 g
what volume would be occupied by this quantity? (c) 1.14 x 10-3 g
(1 gallon = 3.7854 liters) (d) 0.132 g
(a) 7.646 x 1011 liters (e) 6.02 x 1020 g
(b) 8.388 x 109 liters
15. 3. The percent by mass of each element in a
How many moles of alanine, C3H7NO2, are there in compound depends on the amount of element
159 g of alanine? present in the compound.
(a) 1.42 x 104 (a) 2 and 3
(b) 1.78 (b) 1 only
(c) 0.992 (c) 1 and 2
(d) 0.560 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(e) another combination
(e) 3.31 23.
16. Guanidin, HNC(NH2)2, is a fertilizer. To three
How many atoms are in one mole of CH3OH? significant figures, what is the percent by mass of
(a) 6 nitrogen in the fertilizer?
(b) 6.0 x 1023 (a) 45.2%
(c) 12.0 x 1023 (b) 49.4%
(d) 3.6 x 1024 (c) 54.8%
(e) 3 (d) 65.1%
17. (e) 71.1%
The mass in grams of 2.6 x 1022 chlorine atoms is: 24.
(a) 4.4 Calculate the percent, by weight, of carbon in 154
(b) 11 g of C4H8O3?
(c) 0.76 (a) 46%
(d) 1.5 (b) 31%
(e) 3.2 (c) 72%
18. (d) 27%
How many aluminum atoms are there in 3.50 (e) 55%
grams of Al2O3? 25.
(a) 4.13 x 1022 Analysis of a sample of a covalent compound
(b) 4.90 x 1022 showed that it contained 14.4% hydrogen and
(c) 2.07 x 1022 85.6% carbon by mass. What is the empirical
(d) 1.68 x 1022 formula for the compound?
(e) 2.45 x 1022 (a) CH
19. (b) CH2
Which one of the samples contains the (c) CH3
most atoms? (d) C2H3
(a) 1 mol of CO2(g) (e) none of these
(b) 1 mol of UF6(g) 26.
(c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l) An oxide of lead contains 90.65% Pb, by weight.
(d) 1 mol of He(g) The empirical formula is:
(e) all contain the same number of atoms (a) Pb
(b) PbO
20. (c) Pb3O4
Which one of the samples contains the (d) Pb2O3
most molecules? (e) PbO2
(a) 1 mol of CO2(g) 27.
(b) 1 mol of UF6(g) A 0.500 g sample of a compound containing only
(c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l) antimony and oxygen was found to contain 0.418 g
(d) 1 mol of He(g) of antimony and 0.082 g of oxygen. What is the
(e) all contain the same number of molecules simplest formula for the compound?
(a) SbO
21. (b) SbO2
Which one of the samples has the largest mass? (c) Sb3O4
(a) 1 mol of CO2(g) (d) Sb2O5
(b) 1 mol of UF6(g) (e) Sb2O3
(c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l) 28.
(d) 1 mol of He(g) A compound contains, by mass, 40.0% carbon,
(e) all have the same mass 6.71% hydrogen, and 53.3% oxygen. A 0.320 mole
22. sample of this compound weighs 28.8 g. The
Which of the following statements is(are) FALSE? molecular formula of this compound is:
1. The percent by mass of each element in a (a) C2H4O2
compound depends on the amount of the (b) C3H6O3
compound. (c) C2H4O
2. The mass of each element in a compound (d) CH2O
depends on the amount of the compound. (e) C4H7O2
29. (a) 0.210
What mass of cerussite, PbCO3, would contain 35.0 (b) 0.0732
grams of lead? (c) 0.0704
(a) 27.1 g (d) 0.220
(b) 45.1 g (e) 0.0233
(c) 42.4 g 35.
(d) 35.6 g Which of the following statements is FALSE for the
(e) 51.7 g chemical equation given below in which nitrogen
30. gas reacts with hydrogen gas to form ammonia gas
Balance the following equation with the smallest assuming the reaction goes to completion?
whole number coefficients. Choose the answer N2 + 3H2  2NH3
that is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced (a) The reaction of one mole of H2 will produce 2/3
equation. Do not forget coefficients of "one."  moles of NH3.
PtCl4 + XeF2   PtF6 + ClF + Xe (b) One mole of N2 will produce two moles of NH3.
(c) One molecule of nitrogen requires three
(a) 16 molecules of hydrogen for complete reaction.
(b) 22 (d) The reaction of 14 g of nitrogen produces 17 g
(c) 24 of ammonia.
(d) 26 (e) The reaction of three moles of hydrogen gas
(e) 32 will produce 17 g of ammonia.
31. 36.
Balance the following equation with the smallest Calcium carbide, CaC2, is an important preliminary
whole number coefficients. Choose the answer chemical for industries producing synthetic fabrics
that is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced and plastics. CaC2 may be produced by heating
equation. Do not forget coefficients of "one."  calcium oxide with coke:
Cr2(SO4)3 + RbOH   Cr(OH)3 + Rb2SO4 CaO + 3C   CaC2 + CO

(a) 10 What is the amount of CaC2 which can be

(b) 12 produced from the reaction of excess calcium
(c) 13 oxide and 10.2 g of carbon? (Assume 100%
(d) 14 efficiency of reaction for purposes of this
(e) 15 problem.)
32. (a) 18.1 g
Balance the following equation using minimum (b) 28.4 g
integral coefficients:  (c) 20.8 g
NH3 + O2   NO2 + H2O (d) 19.8 g
(e) 27.2 g
The stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen gas O2 is: 37.
(a) 1 Calculate the mass of hydrogen formed when 25
(b) 4 grams of aluminum reacts with excess hydrochloric
(c) 3 acid.
(d) 7 2Al + 6HCl   Al2Cl6 + 3H2
(e) 5
33. (a) 0.41 g
When iron pyrite (FeS2) is heated in air, the process (b) 1.2 g
known as "roasting" forms sulfur dioxide and (c) 1.8 g
iron(III) oxide. When the equation for this process (d) 2.8 g
is completed and balanced, using the smallest (e) 0.92 g
whole number coefficients, what is the coefficient 38.
for "O2"?  When 12 g of methanol (CH3OH) was treated with
___ FeS2 + ___ O2   ___ SO2 + ___ Fe2O3 excess oxidizing agent (MnO4-), 14 g of formic acid
(HCOOH) was obtained. Using the following
(a) 2 chemical equation, calculate the percent yield.
(b) 4 (The reaction is much more complex than this;
(c) 7 please ignore the fact that the charges do not
(d) 8 balance.)
(e) 11 3CH3OH + 4MnO4-   3HCOOH + 4MnO2
34. (a) 100%
How many moles of KBrO3 are required to prepare (b) 92%
0.0700 moles of Br2 according to the reaction:  (c) 82%
KBrO3 + 5KBr + 6HNO3   6KNO3 + 3Br2 + 3H2O (d) 70%
(e) 55%
 44.
39. How many grams of NH3 can be prepared from
A commercially valuable paint and adhesive 77.3 grams of N2 and 14.2 grams of H2? (Hint:
stripper, dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO), (CH3)2SO, can Write and balance the equation first.)
be prepared by the reaction of oxygen with (a) 93.9 g
dimethyl sulfide, (CH3)2S, using a ratio of one mole (b) 79.7 g
oxygen to two moles of the sulfide: (c) 47.0 g
O2 + 2(CH3)2S  2(CH3)2SO (d) 120.0 g
(e) 13.3 g
If this process is 83% efficient, how many grams of 45.
DMSO could be produced from 65 g of dimethyl Silicon carbide, an abrasive, is made by the
sulfide and excess O2? reaction of silicon dioxide with graphite.
(a) 68 g SiO2 +3C   SiC + 2CO
(b) 75 g If 100 g of SiO2 and 100 g of C are reacted as far as
(c) 83 g possible, which one of the following statements
(d) 51 g will be correct?
(e) 47 g (a) 111 g of SiO2 will be left over.
40. (b) 44 g of SiO2 will be left over.
The formation of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) by the (c) 82 g of C will be left over.
fermentation of glucose (C6H12O6) may be (d) 40 g of C will be left over.
represented by: (e) Both reactants will be consumed completely,
C6H12O6   2C2H5OH + 2CO2 with none of either left over.
If a particular glucose fermentation process is 46.
87.0% efficient, how many grams of glucose would Calculate the mass of 6.00% NiSO4 solution that
be required for the production of 51.0 g of ethyl contains 40.0 g of NiSO4?
alcohol (C2H5OH)? (a) 667 g
(a) 68.3 g (b) 540 g
(b) 75.1 g (c) 743 g
(c) 115 g (d) 329 g
(d) 229 g (e) none of these
(e) 167 g 47.
How many grams of water are contained in 75.0
41. grams of a 6.10% aqueous solution of K3PO4?
The limiting reagent in a chemical reaction is one (a) 75.0 g
that: (b) 73.2 g
(a) has the largest molar mass (formula weight). (c) 70.4 g
(b) has the smallest molar mass (formula weight). (d) 68.1 g
(c) has the smallest coefficient. (e) 62.8 g
(d) is consumed completely. 48.
(e) is in excess. The mass (in grams) of FeSO4 7H2O required for
42. preparation of 125 mL of 0.90 M solution is:
If 5.0 g of each reactant were used for the the (a) 16 g
following process, the limiting reactant would be: (b) 25 g
2KMnO4 +5Hg2Cl2 + 16HCl   10HgCl2 + 2MnCl2 + (c) 13 g
2KCl + 8H2O (d) 31 g
(e) 43 g
(a) KMnO4 49.
(b) HCl What is the molarity of phosphoric acid in a
(c) H2O solution labeled 20.0% phosphoric acid (H3PO4) by
(d) Hg2Cl2 weight with a density = 1.12 g/mL?
(e) HgCl2 (a) 0.98 M
43. (b) 2.3 M
What mass of ZnCl2 can be prepared from the (c) 2.7 M
reaction of 3.27 grams of zinc with 3.30 grams of (d) 3.0 M
HCl? (e) 3.6 M
Zn +2HCl   ZnCl2 + H2 50.
How many mL of 17 M NH3 must be diluted to
(a) 6.89 g 500.0 mL to make a 0.75 M solution?
(b) 6.82 g (a) 13 mL
(c) 6.46 g (b) 22 mL
(d) 6.17 g (c) 39 mL
(e) 6.02 g (d) 73 mL
 (e) none of these
51.
How many grams of Ag2CO3 are required to react 58.
with 28.5 mL of 1.00 M NaOH solution? Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
Ag2CO3 +2NaOH   Ag2O + Na2CO3 + H2O (a) One mole of any acid will ionize completely in
(a) 7.87 g aqueous solution to produce one mole of H+ ions.
(b) 3.93 g (b) Solutions of weak acids always have lower
(c) 15.7 g concentrations of H+ than solutions of strong acids.
(d) 10.8 g (c) There are several common acids that are
(e) 8.16 g insoluble.
52. (d) All of the IA and IIA metal hydroxides are
How many milliliters of 0.200 M NH4OH are soluble.
needed to react with 12.0 mL of 0.550 M FeCl3? (e) All weak acids are insoluble.
FeCl3 + 3NH4OH   Fe(OH)3 + 3NH4Cl 59.
Consider the following reaction:
(a) 99.0 mL NH3(g) + H2O(l)   NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq)
(b) 33.0 mL Which one of the following statements is false?
(c) 8.25 mL (a) The double arrows indicate that ammonia, NH3,
(d) 68.8 mL is only very slightly soluble in water.
(e) 132 mL (b) The reaction is reversible.
53. (c) When ammonia is added to water, NH4+ and
When 250. mL of a 0.15 M solution of ammonium OH- ions are produced in a 1:1 ratio.
sulfide (NH4)2S is poured into 120. mL of a 0.053 M (d) When solutions of NH4Cl and NaOH are mixed,
solution of cadmium sulfate CdSO4, how many some ammonia is produced.
grams of a yellow precipitate of cadmium sulfide (e) Ammonia is considered to be a weak base.
CdS are formed? The other product is (NH4)2SO4. 60.
(Hint: Write out and balance the equation. Is this a Which one of the following salts is insoluble?
limiting reagent problem? ) (a) NH4Cl
(a) 5.4 g (b) Ca(NO3)2
(b) 0.92 g (c) BaCO3
(c) 2.6 g (d) Na2S
(d) 1.9 g (e) Zn(CH3COO)2
(e) 530 g 61.
54. What salt is formed in the following acid/base
What alkaline earth metal is located in period 3? reaction?
(a) Li HClO3 + Ba(OH)2 
(b) Na (a) BaCl2
(c) Ca (b) ClOBa
(d) Mg (c) H2O
(e) Sr (d) BaClO3
55. (e) Ba(ClO3)2
Which of the following is classified as a metal? 62.
(a) Ge The precipitate formed when barium chloride is
(b) As treated with sulfuric acid is _______ .
(c) F (a) BaS2O4
(d) V (b) BaSO3
(e) Ar (c) BaSO2
56. (d) BaSO4
Which of the following is a weak acid? (e) BaS
(a) H2SO4 63.
(b) HClO3 The spectator ion(s) in the following reaction
(c) HF is/are:
(d) HCl
Na2CO3(aq) + Ba(NO3)2(aq)   BaCO3(s) +
(e) HNO3
2NaNO3(aq)
57.
(a) Na+ and Ba2+
Which one of the following is likely to be the most
(b) Ba2+ and CO32-
soluble base?
(c) CO32- and NO3-
(a) Ca(OH)2
(d) Na+ only
(b) Cu(OH)2
(e) Na+ and NO3-
(c) Ga(OH)3
(d) Zn(OH)2
(e) Zr(OH)3
 (d) This could be the net ionic equation for
HNO3 reacting with Cu(OH)2.
64. (e) This is classified as a neutralization reaction.
Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
(a) For the reaction of a strong acid with a strong 69.
soluble base, the net ionic equation is always Determine the oxidation number of carbon in
H+ + OH-   H2O K2CO3.
(b) "Spectator ions" appear in the total ionic (a) 0
equation for a reaction, but not in the net ionic (b) +2
equation. (c) +4
(c) HF, HCl, and HNO3 are all examples of strong (d) -2
acids. (e) some other value
(d) Titration is a process which can be used to 70.
determine the concentration of a solution. Which assignment of oxidation number
(e) In a neutralization reaction, an acid reacts with is INCORRECT for the blinking element?
base to produce a salt and H2O. (a) K2Cr2O7; +6
65. (b) NH3; +3
What is the net ionic equation for the acid-base (c) H2PO2-; +1
reaction that occurs when acetic acid and (d) SeO32-; +4
potassium hydroxide solutions are mixed? (e) Cu(NO3)2; +2
(a) H+(aq) + OH-(aq)   H2O(l) 71.
(b) H+(aq) + KOH(s)   K+(aq) + H2O(l) Consider the following reaction:
(c) CH3COOH(aq) + KOH(s)   KCH3COO(aq) + 4NH3 + 5O2   4NO + 6H2O
H2O(l) The element being oxidized and the oxidizing agent
are:
(d) CH3COO-(aq) + H+(aq) + K+(aq) + OH-(aq) 
(a) N and NH3
 K+(aq) + CH3COO-(aq) + H2O(l)
(b) N and O2
(e) CH3COOH(aq) + OH-(aq)   CH3COO-(aq) + (c) O and NH3
H2O(l) (d) O and O2
66. (e) H and NH3
What is the net ionic equation for the acid-base 72.
reaction that occurs when nitric acid is added to Given that the Activity Series is:
copper(II) hydroxide? Na>Mg>Cu>Ag>Au, which one of the following
(a) H+(aq) + OH-(aq)   H2O(l) answers represents the ions that would not be
+
(b) 2H (aq) + Cu(OH)2(s)   Cu2+(aq) + 2H2O(l) displaced from aqueous solution (reduced) by
(c) 2HNO3(aq) +Cu(OH)2(s)   Cu(NO3)2(s) + metallic magnesium?
2H2O(l) (a) Na+
(d) 2H+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + Cu2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq)  (b) Cu2+
 Cu(NO3)2(s) + 2H2O(l) (c) Cu2+ and Au+
(e) 2H+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + Cu2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq)  (d) Cu2+, Ag+ and Au+
 Cu2+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + 2H2O(l) (e) Na+, Cu2+, Ag+ and Au+
67. 73.
Which of the following statements is FALSE given Which name/formula combination is WRONG?
the following net ionic equation? (a) phosphorous acid / H3PO4
H3PO4(aq) + 3OH-(aq)   PO43-(aq) + 3H2O(l) (b) nitrogen oxide / NO
(a) If all the water evaporated away, the salt (c) acetate ion / CH3COO-
remaining could possibly be Na3PO4. (d) sodium chromate / Na2CrO4
(b) The acid, H3PO4, is a weak electrolyte. (e) calcium hypobromite / Ca(BrO)2
(c) The base involved must be a strong soluble 74.
base. Which name/formula combination is WRONG?
(d) This is classified as a neutralization reaction. (a) chlorous acid / HClO2
(e)This could be the net ionic equation for (b) dinitrogen tetroxide / N2O4
H3PO4 reacting with Al(OH)3. (c) ammonium nitrate / NH4NO3
68. (d) copper(II) periodate / CuIO4
Which of the following statements is FALSE given (e) potassium permanganate / KMnO4
the following net ionic equation? 75.
Which of the following has a positive charge?
2H+(aq) + Cu(OH)2(s)   Cu2+(aq) + 2H2O(l)
(a) proton
(a) If all the water evaporated away, the salt
(b) neutron
remaining could possibly be CuS.
(c) anion
(b) The acid involved must be a strong electrolyte.
(d) electron
(c) The base, Cu(OH)2, is an insoluble base.
(e) atom

76.
Rutherford carried out experiments in which a
beam of alpha particles was directed at a thin
piece of metal foil. From these experiments he
concluded that:
(a) electrons are massive particles.
(b) the positively charged parts of atoms are
moving about with a velocity approaching the
speed of light.
(c) the positively charged parts of atoms are
extremely small and extremely heavy particles.
(d) the diameter of an electron is approximately
equal to that of the nucleus.
(e) electrons travel in circular orbits around the
nucleus.
77.
Consider the species 72Zn, 75As and 74Ge. These
species have:
(a) the same number of electrons.
(b) the same number of protons.
(c) the same number of neutrons.
(d) the same number of protons and neutrons.
(e) the same mass number.
78.
The neutral atoms of all of the isotopes of the
same element have
(a) different numbers of protons.
(b) equal numbers of neutrons.
(c) the same number of electrons.
(d) the same mass numbers.
(e) the same masses.
79.
What is the atomic weight of a hypothetical
element consisting of two isotopes, one with mass
= 64.23 amu (26.0%), and one with mass = 65.32
amu?
(a) 65.3 amu
(b) 64.4 amu
(c) 64.9 amu
(d) 65.0 amu
(e) 64.8 amu
80.
Naturally occurring rubidium consists of just two
isotopes. One of the isotopes consists of atoms
having a mass of 84.912 amu; the other of 86.901
amu. What is the percent natural abundance of the
heavier isotope?
(a) 15%
(b) 28%
(c) 37%
(d) 72%
(e) 85%
81.
What is the frequency of light having a wavelength
of 4.50 x 10-6 cm?
(a) 2.84 x 10-12 s-1
(b) 2.10 x 104 s-1
(c) 4.29 x 1014 s-1
(d) 1.06 x 1022 s-1
(e) 6.67 x 1015 s-1
82.
The emission spectrum of gold shows a line of
wavelength 2.676 x 10-7 m. How much energy is
emitted as the excited electron falls to the lower
energy level?
(a) 7.43 x 10-19 J
(b) 5.30 x 10-20 J
(c) 6.05 x 10-19 J
(d) 3.60 x 10-20 J
(e) 5.16 x 10-20 J
83.
Which of the responses contains all the statements
that are consistent with the Bohr theory of the
atom (and no others)?
(1) An electron can remain in a particular orbit as
long as it continually absorbs radiation of a definite
frequency.
(2) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to
the nucleus.
(3) An electron can jump from the K shell (n = 1
major energy level) to the M shell (n = 3 major
energy level) by emitting radiation of a definite
frequency.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2
(e) 2,3
84.
The Heisenberg Principle states that…
(a) no two electrons in the same atom can have
the same set of four quantum numbers.
(b) two atoms of the same element must have the
same number of protons.
(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both
the position and momentum of an electron
simultaneously.
(d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter
energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly
before they pair up in any orbital of the set.
(e) charged atoms (ions) must generate a magnetic
field when they are in motion.
85.
Which statement about the four quantum
numbers which describe electrons in atoms
is incorrect?
(a) n = principal quantum number, n = 1, 2, 3, ......
(b) l = subsidiary (or azimuthal) quantum
number, l = 1, 2, 3, ... , (n+1)
(c) ml = magnetic quantum number, ml = (-l), .... , 0,
.... , (+l)
(d) ms = spin quantum number, ms = +1/2 or -1/2.
(e) The magnetic quantum number is related to
the orientation of atomic orbitals in space.
86.
Which atomic orbital is spherical in shape? (Note:
you should know and be able to recognize the
shapes of the s orbital, px, py, and pz orbitals, and
dxy, dyz, dxz, dx2-y2 and dz2 orbitals.)
 (a) 2s (e) 6
(b) 3p
(c) 3d
(d) 4f
(e) they are all spherical
87. 94.
The maximum number of electrons that can be A neutral atom of an element has 2 electrons in
accommodated in a sublevel for which l = 3 is: the first energy level, 8 in the second energy level
(a) 2 and 8 in the third energy level. This information
(b) 10 does not necessarily tell us:
(c) 6 (a) the atomic number of the element.
(d) 14 (b) anything about the element's chemical
(e) 8 properties.
88. (c) the total number of electrons in s orbitals.
The ground state electron configuration for arsenic (d) the total number of electrons in p orbitals.
is: (e) the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an
(a) [Ar] 4s2 4p13 atom of the element.
(b) [Kr] 4s2 4p1 95.
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d12 4s2 4p1 The atom having the valence-shell configuration
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8 4p5 4s2 4p5 would be in:
(e) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p3 (a) Group VIA and Period 5
(b) Group IVB and Period 4
89. (c) Group VIB and Period 7
Which of the following electron configurations is (d) Group VIIA and Period 4
correct for nickel? (e) Group VIIB and Period 4
(a) [Ar] 4s1 3d8 96.
(b) [Kr] 4s1 4d8 Select the term best describing the series of
(c) [Kr] 4s1 3d8 elements: Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu.
(d) [Kr] 4s2 3d8 (a) d-transition metals
(e) [Ar] 4s2 3d8 (b) representative elements
90. (c) metalloids
The outer electronic configuration (d) alkaline earth metals
ns2np4 corresponds to which one of the following (e) halogens
elements in its ground state? 97.
(a) As Which element has the largest atomic radius?
(b) Ca (a) Li
(c) Cr (b) Na
(d) Br (c) Rb
(e) S (d) F
91. (e) I
In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are 98.
_____ unpaired electrons and the atom is _____. Which of the following terms accurately describes
(a) 3, paramagnetic the energy associated with the process:
(b) 5, paramagnetic Li(g)   Li+(g) + e-
(c) 2, diamagnetic (a) electron affinity
(d) 0, diamagnetic (b) binding energy
(e) 2, paramagnetic (c) ionization energy
92. (d) electronegativity
Which one of the following sets of quantum (e) none of these
numbers could be those of the distinguishing (last) 99.
electron of Mo? The species that contains 24 protons, 26 neutrons
(a) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2 and 22 electrons would be represented by the
(b) n = 5, l = 1, ml = 9, ms = -1/2 symbol:
(c) n = 4, l = 2, ml = -1, ms = +1/2 (a) 50V3+
(d) n = 5, l = 2, ml = +2, ms = -1/2 (b) 26Cr2+
(e) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = +1/2 (c) 50Cr2+
93. (d) 50Mn2+
How many p electrons are there in an atom of (e) none of these
rubidium? 100.
(a) 12 Which element has the lowest first ionization
(b) 18 energy?
(c) 24 (a) He
(d) 9
 (b) Ne (e) Bi2O5
(c) Ar
(d) Kr
(e) Xe

101.
Which element has the highest first ionization
energy? (Note: this is an exception to the general
trend - see notes- you may be responsible for this.)
(a) Be
(b) B
(c) C
(d) N
(e) O
102.
Which of these isoelectronic species has
the smallest radius?
(a) Br-
(b) Sr2+
(c) Rb+
(d) Se2-
(e) They are all the same size because they have
the same number of electrons.
103.
Which of the following elements has the greatest
attraction for electrons in a covalent bond?
(a) Ge
(b) As
(c) Se
(d) Br
(e) Bi
104.
Which statement is wrong?
(a) The atomic weight of carbon is about 12.
(b) The most stable ion of lithium is Li+.
(c) A phosphorus atom is larger than an antimony
atom.
(d) The radius of a sodium atom is larger than that
of a sodium cation.
(e) Oxygen has a less negative electron affinity
than fluorine.
105.
All of the following properties of the alkaline earth
metals increase going down the group except
(a) atomic radius
(b) first ionization energy
(c) ionic radius
(d) atomic mass
(e) atomic volume
106.
Which of the following is an ionic hydride?
(a) PH3
(b) H2S
(c) HI
(d) KH
(e) CH4
107.
Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
(a) N2O3
(b) N2O5
(c) P4O6
(d) P4O10
ANSWER KEY 62. D
63. E
1. E 64. C
2. B 65. E
3. A 66. B
4. C 67. E
5. D 68. A
6. D 69. C
7. D 70. B
8. E 71. B
9. C 72. A
10. D 73. A
11. E 74. D
12. A 75. A
13. B 76. C
14. D 77. C
15. B 78. C
16. D 79. D
17. D 80. B
18. A 81. E
19. C 82. A
20. E 83. B
21. B 84. C
22. B 85. B
23. E 86. A
24. A 87. D
25. B 88. E
26. C 89. E
27. E 90. E
28. B 91. A
29. B 92. C
30. A 93. B
31. B 94. E
32. D 95. D
33. E 96. A
34. E 97. C
35. E 98. C
36. A 99. C
37. D 100. E
38. C 101. D
39. A 102. B
40. C 103. D
41. D 104. C
42. D 105. B
43. D/B 106. D
44. B 107. E
45. D
46. A
47. C
48. D
49. B
50. B
51. B
52. A
53. B
54. D
55. D
56. C
57. A
58. B
59. A
60. C
61. E