REVIEW QUESTIONS (LECTURE) positive.
Which of the following organisms is the
1. What is the principal virulence factor of S.
aureus?
a. Catalase
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Beta-lactamase
d. Coagulase
2. Test that differentiates coagulase-negative
staphylococci?
a. Bacitracin susceptibility test
b. Novobiocin sensitivity test
c. PYR test
d. Voges-Proskauer test
3. Responsible for the subsurface hemolysis on
BAP
a. α-hemolysin
b. Streptolysin O
c. Streptolysin S
d. β-hemolysin
4. Gram positive coccus that both resistant to
bacitracin and SXT
a. S. agalactiae
b. S. pyogenes
c. S. equi
d. S. dysgalactiae
5. S. aureus is a normal ora of the nose.
a. True
b. False
6. Culture of the purulent material from the lesion
is grown aerobically on blood agar plates.
Only one colony type grew on the plate, and
those colonies are beta hemolytic and produce
a gold pigment. The colonies are gram-
positive cocci in clumps
and are catalase positive and
coagulase positive. Which of the following
organisms is the mostly likely cause of this
patient’s infection?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Propionibacterium acne
7. A 35-year old man complains that his left hip
is painful after being punctured by a tool
when he was a work 4 days ago. After cleaning
the wound quickly, he went on about his work.
The wound now has pus in it, and it is
erythematous and swollen. Physical
examination reveals a purulent and
relatively deep skin lesion with an erythematous
swollen region around the puncture that
extends up to 2 cm from the wound, similar to
that shown in the gure below. A sample of the
purulent material obtained from the lesion is
cultured on a blood agar plate and
Gram stained. The resulting colonies are gram-
positive cocci in clusters that are beta
hemolytic, catalase positive, and coagulase
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most likely cause of this patient’s infection?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Staphylococcus aureu
d. Corynebacterium sp.
e. Clostridium perfringens
8. If a culture of the patient’s lesion contains many
 gram-positive, catalase-negative, beta-
hemolytic, and bacitracin-sensitive cocci, which
of the following is the most likely cause of this
patient’s infection?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Enterococcus faecalis
e. Neisseria meningitidis
The most common causes of impetigo are
Staphylococcus aureus and
Streptococcus pyogenes. Choices C, D, and E
(Streptococcus pneumoniae, Enterococcus
faecalis, and Neisseria meningitidis,
respectively) do not cause impetigo.
The laboratory results indicate that S. aureus
can be excluded since it is catalase negative.
9. Which of the following organisms should be
swabbed
from the vagina and rectum of a patient when s
he is at gestation week 35 to see if she is
colonized with this common cause of neonatal
disease?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Herpes simplex virus 2
d. Treponema pallidum
e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
10. A 5-year-old boy was taken to the pediatrician
because of fever and runny nose. His parents
mentioned that he had a cold about 2 weeks
ago. Other than the runny nose, he seemed to
be ne until about 2 days ago when he
developed a fever and complained of pain just
below his right eye.   His   vital   signs   are  
temperature   38.9C,   pulse 110/min, blood
pressure 110/80 mm Hg, and respirations 21/
min. Physical examination reveals pain when
pressure
is applied over the right maxillary sinus.
The nasal passages are both in amed. The
right nasal passage contains purulent material
that is draining from a partially blocked
nasal ostium. Which of the following
organisms is the most likely cause of this
patient’s current condition?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Escherichia coli
e. Aspergillus niger
Page 1 of 9
 11. A Gram stain of some of the cerebrospinal  uid
is performed,
and appears similar to that shown in the gure
below. Which of the
following organisms is the most likely cause of
this patient’s infection?
a. Neisseria meningitidis
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Enterococcus faecalis
12. A 31-year-old woman goes to the clinic because
of fever and joint pain. She
states that over the past 2 weeks
her ankles have been swollen and painful, and
she is now experiencing similar
pain and swelling in her knees.
She mentions that just before the fever and joint
pain began that she had a sore throat.
Further questioning reveals that she has not ha
d sexual relations with anyone for the past 5
months; however, she states that she did
perform oral sex on her husband recently.
Her vital signs are temperature 37.8°C, pulse
90/min, blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, and
respirations 18/min. Physical examination
reveals several lesions on her feet and ankles
and both knees are swollen and red, similar to
that shown in the gure below. Passive range of
motion testing is painful for the patient. Synovial
uid is removed from both knees,
Gram stained, and cultured. Which of the
following media would be most helpful in
isolating the causative agent from the synovial
uid?
a. Blood agar plates
b. Campy medium
c. MacConkey agar plates
d. Thayer-Martin plates
e. Bordet-Gengou agar plates
The only media that allows for growth of Neisseria
gonorrhoeae is Thayer-Martin agar plates.
13. A 29-year-old pregnant woman at 35 weeks’
gestation arrives for a routine prenatal visit. The
physician examines the patient to see if she is
colonized by microbes that could cause her or
her child signi cant problems. Samples of the
vaginal and cervical mucosa are placed on
blood agar plates and incubated at 37°C. Many
  gram-positive, aerobic   catalase-negative   and would be an excessive use of antibiotics in this
bacterial colonies are observed on the plates.  case. Therefore, the appropriate treatment is to
Results of the CAMP (Christie, Atkinson,
Munch, Peterson) test are positive. Which of
the following organisms is currently colonizing
the patient’s vaginal mucosa?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Enterococcus faecalis
d. Streptococcus agalactiae
e. Candida albicans
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A CAMP (Christie, Atkinson, Munch, Peterson) test
is used to determine if the woman is colonized by
group B streptococci, also known as
Streptococcus agalactiae. An arrow-head
shape will appear in the agar when group B strepto
cocci are streaked in a direction
perpendicular to a streak of beta hemolytic
Staphylococcus aureus.
14. A 29-year-old pregnant woman at 35 weeks’
gestation arrives for a routine prenatal visit. The
physician examines the patient to see if she is
colonized by microbes that could cause her or
her child signi cant problems. Samples of the
vaginal and cervical mucosa are placed on
blood agar plates and incubated at 37°C. Many
gram-positive, aerobic catalase-negative
bacterial colonies are observed on the plates. 
Results of the CAMP (Christie, Atkinson,
Munch, Peterson) test are positive.
Which of the following would be the most
appropriate treatment for the bacterial
colonization of this patient?
a. Immediately give her penicillin to elimina
te the organism colonizing her vaginal
mucosa
b. Encourage her to have a caesarian secti
on when she goes into labor
c. Give her penicillin immediately and
during labor and delivery
d. Give her penicillin only during labor and
delivery
e. Do nothing since colonization with this
microorganism is harmless to the
mother and her infant
Streptococcus agalactiae is a common cause of
sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis in neonates who
acquire the organism from their mother’s vaginal
mucosa during delivery. Doing nothing is not an
appropriate option. Performing a cesarean
section is more likely to
result in more serious complications than simply
giving the patient penicillin during labor and
delivery. Giving penicillin at 35 weeks’
gestation will eliminate the organism from the
vaginal mucosa but only for a short period of time,
because many women are recolonized by the time
they deliver the infant. Giving the mother an
antibiotic at 35 weeks’
gestation and during labor and delivery
does not provide any more protection to the infant
give the woman penicillin during labor and delivery.
15. The PYR hydrolysis test is a presumptive test
for which streptococci?
a. Group A & D streptococci
b. Group A & B beta-hemolytic streptococci
c. Non-group A and B Beta-hemolytic
streptococci
d. S. pneumoniae and Group D
streptococci
Page 2 of 9
 16. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a 22. Which organism is not a normal inhabitant of
wound were found to be penicillin resistant. the respiratory tract?
Given the ff results, what is the most likely a. M. catarrhalis
identi cation? b. N. meningitidis
Bile esculin (+) c. N. mucosa
6.5% salt (+) d. N. gonorrhoeae
PYR (+)
Bile solubility: 0 23. Identify the virulence factor of the pathogenic
SXT: R Neisseria species that is responsible for the
initial attachment of the organism to host
a. Enterococcus faecalis tissues.
b. S. pneumoniae a. Pili
c. S. bovis b. Endotoxin
d. Group B streptococci c. Cell membrane proteins
d. Peptidoglycan
17. A gram-positive coccus isolated from blood
culture has the ff characteristics: 24. Which of the following media is not acceptable
Optochin susceptibility: Negative for primary growth of N. gonorrhoeae?
Bacitracin (0.04U) susceptibility: Negative a. Chocolate
Bile esculin hydrolysis: Negative b. Thayer-Martin
Hippurate hydrolysis: Positive c. Blood
Catalase: Negative d. Martin-Lewis
a. S. aureus
b. S. pneumoniae 25. Pathogenic M. catarrhalis grows best under
c. S. pyogenes (Group A) which conditions?
d. S. agalactiae (Group B) a. Anaerobic atmosphere
b. 42°C
18. Modi ed Thayer-Martin media is used primarily c. Increased CO2
for the selective recovery of which organism d. 25°C
from genital specimens?
a. N. gonorrhoeae 26. N. gonorrhoeae can be differentiated from N.
b. N. lactamica meningitidis by:
c. N. sicca a. Glucose fermentation
d. N. avescens b. Maltose fermentation
c. Lactose fermentation
d. Nitrate reduction
19. The superoxol test is used as a presumptive
test for: 27. Most Neisseria species are
a. N. gonorrhoeae a. Oxidase-positive, gram-positive
b. N. lactamica diplococci
c. N. meningitidis b. Oxidase-positive, gram-negative
d. M. catarrhalis diplococci
c. Oxidase-negative, gram-negative
20. Culture on Modi ed Thayer-Martin medium on a diplococci
vaginal swab produced several colonies of d. Oxidase-negative, gram-positive
gram-negative diplococci that were catalase & diplococci
oxidase positive and superoxol negative. Given
the ff carbohydrate reactions, select the most 28. All of the following are advantages of using
likely identi cation: ampli ed testing over nonampli ed testing
Glucose (+) except:
Maltose (+) a. It is more sensitive.
Sucrose: 0 b. It is suitable for large screening
Fructose: 0 programs.
Lactose (+) c. It is admissible in medicolegal cases.
a. N. gonorrhoeae d. It allows testing for Chlamydia
b. N. sicca trachomatis at the same time.
c. N. avescens
d. N. lactamica 29. Yellow pigmented Neisseria spp that is
asaccharolytic, has the ability to grow on SBA
21. Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by: or chocolate agar at 22’C
a. S. pneumoniae a. N. lactamica
b. M. pneumoniae b. N. avescens
c. K. pneumoniae c. N. cinerea
d. M. tuberculosis d. N. sicca

Page 3 of 9
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 30. Which organism is an opportunistic pathogen 38. Cervical lymphadenitis in children is most
associated with otitis media and sinusitis in associated with
children? a. M. marinum
a. N. lactamica b. M. kansasii
b. N. meningitidis c. M. scrofulaceum
c. N. sicca d. M. ulcerans
d. M. catarrhalis
39. The de nition of extensively drug-resistant
31. What is the optimal specimen to collect for the (XDR) tuberculosis includes
diagnosis of gonorrhea by culture in male a. Resistance to isoniazid
patients? b. Resistance to a uoroquinolone
a. Pharyngeal swab c. Resistance to capreomycin, amikacin, or
b. Rectal swab kanamycin
c. Urethral swab d. Resistance to rifampin
d. Urine e. All of the above

32. Which of the following is (are) uorescent 40. A newly characterized rapidly growing
stain(s) used in the detection of the Mycobacterium that has emerged as an
mycobacteria? important cause of central venous catheter
a. Auramine-rhodamine asso- ciated infections is
b. Kinyoun’s a. M. phlei
c. Ziehl-Neelsen b. M. mucogenicum
d. Both b and c c. M. xenopi
d. M.smegmatis
33. A nonpigmented mycobacterium is isolated that e. M. terrae
reduces nitrate to nitrite and is niacin-positive.
You should suspect: 41. All of the following organisms are rapidly
a. M. kansasii growing mycobacteria except
b. M. xenopi a. M.fortuitum
c. M. tuberculosis b. M. abscessus
d. M. avium complex c. M. mucogenicum
d. M.nonchromogenicum
34. The causative agent of Hansen disease: e. M. chelonae
a. Is highly contagious
b. Readily grows on most mycobacterial 42. M. abscessus most often causes pulmonary
media disease among which group of individuals?
c. Grows best at core body temperature a. Young children exposed to dirt
(37°C) b. African American smokers
d. None of the above c. Elderly, nonsmoking white females
d. Hispanic men who work outdoors
35. The skin test for tuberculosis: e. Persons living in the Northwestern
a. Detects antibodies to mycobacterial United States
antigens
b. Detects a cell-mediated immune 43. The species of Mycobacterium that would be
response to mycobacterial antigens most commonly associated with contamination
c. Uses the bacillus of Calmette-Guérin of the hot water system in large institutions
strain as the antigen source such as hospitals is
d. Both a and b a. M. haemophilum
b. M. marinum
36. If sputum or bronchial washings are cultured c. M. ulcerans
during the primary tuberculosis infection, the d. M. xenopi
positivity rate is
a. 45-55%
b. 25-30% 44. Which of the following is not characteristic of
c. 70-80% Mycobacterium kansasii?
d. 15-20% a. Slow growing
b. Obligate aerobe
37. Long, thin, beaded bacilli resembling Nocardia c. Nonchromogenic
spp. may be seen in the young cultures of d. Infections Usually Acquired By
a. M. kansasii respiratory route
b. M. intracellulare
c. M. tuberculosis
d. M .bovis

Page 4 of 9
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 45. Which of the following Mycobacterium is most c. Streptolysin S
noted for being associated with patients with e. β-hemolysin
acquired immunode ciency syndrome?
a. M. avium-intracellulare complex 4) Gram positive coccus that both resistant to
b. M. marinum bacitracin and SXT
c. M. kansasii a. S. agalactiae
d. M. bovis b. S. pyogenes
c. S. equi
46. Which of the following is associated with d. S. dysgalactiae
livestock and causes zoonosis?
a. M. bovis 5) S. aureus is a normal ora of the nose.
b. M.fortuitum a. True
c. M. gordonae b. False
d. M. xenopi
6) Culture of the purulent material from the lesion
47. Which one of the following drugs is not is grown aerobically on blood agar plates.
considered as primary antimycobacterial Only one colony type grew on the plate, and
therapy? those colonies are beta hemolytic and produce
a. Isoniazid a gold pigment. The colonies are gram-
b. Kanamycin positive cocci in clumps
c. Rifampin and are catalase positive and
d. Pyrazinamide coagulase positive. Which of the following
organisms is the mostly likely cause of this
48. The Mycobacterium that is the etiologic agent of patient’s infection?
"swimming pool granuloma" is: 218 a. Streptococcus pyogenes
a. M.fortuitum b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. M. kansasii c. Staphylococcus aureus
c. M. marinum d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. M. xenopi e. Propionibacterium acne

49. Which of the following media would not be 7) A 35-year old man complains that his left hip
routinely used to culture Mycobacterium spp.? is painful after being punctured by a tool
a. Lowenstein-Jensen-Gruft when he was a work 4 days ago. After cleaning
b. Lowenstein-Jensen the wound quickly, he went on about his work.
c. Middlebrook 7H11 The wound now has pus in it, and it is
d. Chocolate agar erythematous and swollen. Physical
examination reveals a purulent and
50. Which of the following is not true of relatively deep skin lesion with an erythematous
Mycobacterium leprae? swollen region around the puncture that
a. Causes Hansen disease extends up to 2 cm from the wound, similar to
b. Dif cult to grow in vitro that shown in the gure below. A sample of the
c. Easily transmitted from person to person purulent material obtained from the lesion is
d. Usually grows in peripheral limbs of cultured on a blood agar plate and
infected patients Gram stained. The resulting colonies are gram-
positive cocci in clusters that are beta
ANSWERS WITH DISCUSSON (LECTURE) hemolytic, catalase positive, and coagulase
positive. Which of the following organisms is the
1. What is the principal virulence factor of S. most likely cause of this patient’s infection?
aureus? a. Streptococcus pyogenes
e. Catalase b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
f. Hyaluronidase c. Staphylococcus aureus
g. Beta-lactamase d. Corynebacterium sp.
h. Coagulase e. Clostridium perfringens
- The cause of this patient’s cellulitis is
2) Test that differentiates coagulase-negative Staphylococcus aureus.  Corynebacterium
staphylococci? and Clostridium are gram-positive rods.
a. Bacitracin susceptibility test Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase
b. Novobiocin sensitivity test negative, and Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. PYR test is coagulase negative.
d. Voges-Proskauer test

3) Responsible for the subsurface hemolysis on

BAP
a. α-hemolysin
b. Streptolysin O
Page 5 of 9
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 8) If a culture of the patient’s lesion contains many
 gram-positive, catalase-negative, beta-
hemolytic, and bacitracin-sensitive cocci, which
of the following is the most likely cause of this
patient’s infection?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Enterococcus faecalis
e. Neisseria meningitidis
- The most common causes of impetigo are
Staphylococcus aureus and
Streptococcus pyogenes. Choices C, D,
and E
(Streptococcus pneumoniae, Enterococcus
faecalis, and Neisseria meningitidis,
respectively) do not cause impetigo.
The laboratory results indicate that S. aureus
can be excluded since it is catalase negative.
9) Which of the following organisms should be
swabbed
from the vagina and rectum of a patient when s
he is at gestation week 35 to see if she is
colonized with this common cause of neonatal
disease?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Herpes simplex virus 2
d. Treponema pallidum
e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- Group B Streptococcus agalactiae is a
common infection of neonates that causes
pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis.
Laboratory examination of samples from a
pregnant patient to determine if she is
colonized can alert the physician to institute
treatment during labor and delivery.
Antibiotic treatment with
penicillin has been shown to signi cantly
reduce the rate of intrapartum transmission.
10) A 5-year-old boy was taken to the pediatrician
because of fever and runny nose. His parents
mentioned that he had a cold about 2 weeks
ago. Other than the runny nose, he seemed to
be ne until about 2 days ago when he
developed a fever and complained of pain just
below his right eye.   His   vital   signs   are   blood agar plates and incubated at 37°C. Many
temperature   38.9C,   pulse 110/min, blood
pressure 110/80 mm Hg, and respirations 21/
min. Physical examination reveals pain when
pressure
is applied over the right maxillary sinus.
The nasal passages are both in amed. The
right nasal passage contains purulent material
that is draining from a partially blocked
nasal ostium. Which of the following
organisms is the most likely cause of this
patient’s current condition?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Escherichia coli
e. Aspergillus niger
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11) A Gram stain of some of the cerebrospinal  uid
is performed,
and appears similar to that shown in the gure
below. Which of the
following organisms is the most likely cause of
this patient’s infection?
a. Neisseria meningitidis
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Enterococcus faecalis
12) A 31-year-old woman goes to the clinic because
of fever and joint pain. She
states that over the past 2 weeks
her ankles have been swollen and painful, and
she is now experiencing similar
pain and swelling in her knees.
She mentions that just before the fever and joint
pain began that she had a sore throat.
Further questioning reveals that she has not ha
d sexual relations with anyone for the past 5
months; however, she states that she did
perform oral sex on her husband recently.
Her vital signs are temperature 37.8°C, pulse
90/min, blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, and
respirations 18/min. Physical examination
reveals several lesions on her feet and ankles
and both knees are swollen and red, similar to
that shown in the gure below. Passive range of
motion testing is painful for the patient. Synovial
uid is removed from both knees,
Gram stained, and cultured. Which of the
following media would be most helpful in
isolating the causative agent from the synovial
uid?
a. Blood agar plates
b. Campy medium
c. MacConkey agar plates
d. Thayer-Martin plates
e. Bordet-Gengou agar plates
13) A 29-year-old pregnant woman at 35 weeks’
gestation arrives for a routine prenatal visit. The
physician examines the patient to see if she is
colonized by microbes that could cause her or
her child signi cant problems. Samples of the
vaginal and cervical mucosa are placed on
gram-positive, aerobic   catalase-negative
bacterial colonies are observed on the plates. 
Results of the CAMP (Christie, Atkinson,
Munch, Peterson) test are positive. Which of
the following organisms is currently colonizing
the patient’s vaginal mucosa?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Enterococcus faecalis
d. Streptococcus agalactiae
e. Candida albicans
- A CAMP (Christie, Atkinson, Munch,
Peterson) test is used to determine if the
woman is colonized by group B
streptococci, also known as Streptococcus
Page 6 of 9
 agalactiae. An arrow-head 16) Alpha-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a
shape will appear in the agar when group B  wound were found to be penicillin resistant.
streptococci are streaked in a direction Given the ff results, what is the most likely
perpendicular to a streak of beta hemolytic identi cation?
Staphylococcus aureus. Bile esculin (+)
6.5% salt (+)
14) A 29-year-old pregnant woman at 35 weeks’ PYR (+)
gestation arrives for a routine prenatal visit. The Bile solubility: 0
physician examines the patient to see if she is SXT: R
colonized by microbes that could cause her or a. Enterococcus faecalis
her child signi cant problems. Samples of the b. S. pneumoniae
vaginal and cervical mucosa are placed on c. S. bovis
blood agar plates and incubated at 37°C. Many d. Group B streptococci
gram-positive, aerobic catalase-negative
bacterial colonies are observed on the plates. 
Results of the CAMP (Christie, Atkinson, 17) A gram-positive coccus isolated from blood
Munch, Peterson) test are positive. culture has the ff characteristics:
Which of the following would be the most Optochin susceptibility: Negative
appropriate treatment for the bacterial Bacitracin (0.04U) susceptibility: Negative
colonization of this patient? Bile esculin hydrolysis: Negative
a. Immediately give her penicillin to elimina Hippurate hydrolysis: Positive
te the organism colonizing her vaginal Catalase: Negative
mucosa a. S. aureus
b. Encourage her to have a caesarian secti b. S. pneumoniae
on when she goes into labor c. S. pyogenes (Group A)
c. Give her penicillin immediately and d. S. agalactiae (Group B)
during labor and delivery
d. Give her penicillin only during labor 18) Modi ed Thayer-Martin media is used primarily
and delivery for the selective recovery of which organism
e. Do nothing since colonization with this from genital specimens?
microorganism is harmless to the a. N. gonorrhoeae
mother and her infant b. N. lactamica
- Streptococcus agalactiae is a common c. N. sicca
cause of sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis d. N. avescens
in neonates who acquire the organism from
their mother’s vaginal mucosa during 19) The superoxol test is used as a presumptive
delivery. Doing nothing is not an test for:
appropriate option. Performing a cesarean a. N. gonorrhoeae
section is more likely to b. N. lactamica
result in more serious complications than c. N. meningitidis
simply giving the patient penicillin during d. M. catarrhalis
labor and delivery.
Giving penicillin at 35 weeks’ 20) Culture on Modi ed Thayer-Martin medium on a
gestation will eliminate the organism from vaginal swab produced several colonies of
the vaginal mucosa but only for a short gram-negative diplococci that were catalase &
period of time, because many women are oxidase positive and superoxol negative. Given
recolonized by the time they deliver the the ff carbohydrate reactions, select the most
infant. Giving the mother an antibiotic at 35 likely identi cation:
weeks’ Glucose (+)
gestation and during labor and delivery Maltose (+)
does not provide any more protection to the Sucrose: 0
infant and would be an excessive use of Fructose: 0
antibiotics in this case. Therefore, the Lactose (+)
appropriate treatment is to give the woman a. N. gonorrhoeae
penicillin during labor and delivery. b. N. sicca
c. N. avescens
15) The PYR hydrolysis test is a presumptive test d. N. lactamica
for which streptococci?
a. Group A & D streptococci 21) Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by:
b. Group A & B beta-hemolytic streptococci a. S. pneumoniae
c. Non-group A and B Beta-hemolytic b. M. pneumoniae
streptococci c. K. pneumoniae
d. S. pneumoniae and Group D d. M. tuberculosis
streptococci

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 22) Which organism is not a normal inhabitant of 30) Which organism is an opportunistic pathogen
the respiratory tract? associated with otitis media and sinusitis in
a. M. catarrhalis children?
b. N. meningitidis a. N. lactamica
c. N. mucosa b. N. meningitidis
d. N. gonorrhoeae c. N. sicca
d. M. catarrhalis
23) Identify the virulence factor of the pathogenic
Neisseria species that is responsible for the 31) What is the optimal specimen to collect for the
initial attachment of the organism to host diagnosis of gonorrhea by culture in male
tissues. patients?
a. Pili a. Pharyngeal swab
b. Endotoxin b. Rectal swab
c. Cell membrane proteins c. Urethral swab
d. Peptidoglycan d. Urine

24) Which of the following media is not acceptable 32) Which of the following is (are) uorescent
for primary growth of N. gonorrhoeae? stain(s) used in the detection of the
a. Chocolate mycobacteria?
b. Thayer-Martin a. Auramine-rhodamine
c. Blood b. Kinyoun’s
d. Martin-Lewis c. Ziehl-Neelsen
d. Both b and c
25) Pathogenic M. catarrhalis grows best under
which conditions? 33) A nonpigmented mycobacterium is isolated that
a. Anaerobic atmosphere reduces nitrate to nitrite and is niacin-positive.
b. 42°C You should suspect:
c. Increased CO2 a. M. kansasii
d. 25°C b. M. xenopi
c. M. tuberculosis
26) N. gonorrhoeae can be differentiated from N. d. M. avium complex
meningitidis by:
a. Glucose fermentation 34) The causative agent of Hansen disease:
b. Maltose fermentation a. Is highly contagious
c. Lactose fermentation b. Readily grows on most mycobacterial
d. Nitrate reduction media
c. Grows best at core body temperature
27) Most Neisseria species are (37°C)
a. Oxidase-positive, gram-positive d. None of the above
diplococci
b. Oxidase-positive, gram-negative 35) The skin test for tuberculosis:
diplococci a. Detects antibodies to mycobacterial
c. Oxidase-negative, gram-negative antigens
diplococci b. Detects a cell-mediated immune
d. Oxidase-negative, gram-positive response to mycobacterial antigens
diplococci c. Uses the bacillus of Calmette-Guérin
strain as the antigen source
28) All of the following are advantages of using d. Both a and b
ampli ed testing over nonampli ed testing
except: 36) If sputum or bronchial washings are cultured
a. It is more sensitive. during the primary tuberculosis infection, the
b. It is suitable for large screening positivity rate is
programs. a. 45-55%
c. It is admissible in medicolegal cases. b. 25-30%
d. It allows testing for Chlamydia c. 70-80%
trachomatis at the same time. d. 15-20%

29) Yellow pigmented Neisseria spp that is 37) Long, thin, beaded bacilli resembling Nocardia
asaccharolytic, has the ability to grow on SBA spp. may be seen in the young cultures of
or chocolate agar at 22’C a. M. kansasii
a. N. lactamica b. M. intracellulare
b. N. avescens c. M. tuberculosis
c. N. cinerea d. M .bovis
d. N. sicca

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 38) Cervical lymphadenitis in children is most 45) Which of the following Mycobacterium is most
associated with noted for being associated with patients with
a. M. marinum acquired immunode ciency syndrome?
b. M. kansasii a. M. avium-intracellulare complex
c. M. scrofulaceum b. M. marinum
d. M. ulcerans c. M. kansasii
d. M. bovis
39) The de nition of extensively drug-resistant
(XDR) tuberculosis includes 46) Which of the following is associated with
a. Resistance to isoniazid livestock and causes zoonosis?
b. Resistance to a uoroquinolone a. M. bovis
c. Resistance to capreomycin, amikacin, or b. M.fortuitum
kanamycin c. M. gordonae
d. Resistance to rifampin d. M. xenopi
e. All of the above
47) Which one of the following drugs is not
40) A newly characterized rapidly growing considered as primary antimycobacterial
Mycobacterium that has emerged as an therapy?
important cause of central venous catheter a. Isoniazid
associated infections is b. Kanamycin
a. M. phlei c. Rifampin
b. M. mucogenicum d. Pyrazinamide
c. M. xenopi
d. M.smegmatis 48) The Mycobacterium that is the etiologic agent of
e. M. terrae "swimming pool granuloma" is:
a. M.fortuitum
41) All of the following organisms are rapidly b. M. kansasii
growing mycobacteria except c. M. marinum
a. M.fortuitum d. M. xenopi
b. M. abscessus
c. M. mucogenicum 49) Which of the following media would not be
d. M.nonchromogenicum routinely used to culture Mycobacterium spp.?
e. M. chelonae a. Lowenstein-Jensen-Gruft
b. Lowenstein-Jensen
42) M. abscessus most often causes pulmonary c. Middlebrook 7H11
disease among which group of individuals? d. Chocolate agar
a. Young children exposed to dirt
b. African American smokers
c. Elderly, nonsmoking white females 50) Which of the following is not true of
d. Hispanic men who work outdoors Mycobacterium leprae?
e. Persons living in the Northwestern a. Causes Hansen disease
United States b. Dif cult to grow in vitro
c. Easily transmitted from person to
43) The species of Mycobacterium that would be person
most commonly associated with contamination d. Usually grows in peripheral limbs of
of the hot water system in large institutions infected patients
such as hospitals is
a. M. haemophilum REFERENCES
b. M. marinum Tille, P. (2014). Bailey & Scott’s Diagnostic
c. M. ulcerans Microbiology, 13th Ed
d. M. xenopi
Mahon, C., Lehman, D., Manuselis, G. (2015)
44) Which of the following is not characteristic of Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, 5th Ed.
Mycobacterium kansasii?
a. Slow growing Ciulla, A., Lehman, D. Success in Clinical
b. Obligate aerobe Laboratory Science, 4th Ed
c. Nonchromogenic
d. Infections Usually Acquired By
respiratory route
- M. kansasii is a slow growing
photochromogen

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