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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

AHA
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

S W
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

AT
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

H
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

P
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

O M
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 2. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization
Q.no 3. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 4. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

AHA
B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

W
C : RU policy (Recurrently use

S
D : Optimal page replacement policy

AT
Q.no 5. which of the following is not a type of translator?

P H
A : assembler

O M
B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 6. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 7. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure


Q.no 8. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 9. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

A
B : blocking I/O

AH
C : asynchronous I/O

S W
D : synchronous I/O

T
Q.no 10. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

H A
A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

M P
B : round robin scheduling algorithm

O
C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 11. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 12. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill
Q.no 13. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 14. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

A
B : Myfile.yy.c

AH
C : Myfile.lex

S W
D : Myfile.obj

T
Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of

A
3

P H
A : Identifier

O M
B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 16. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 17. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers


Q.no 18. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 19. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

AHA
B : currently running process

W
C : parent process

S
D : init process

AT
Q.no 20. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

P H
A : pass 1 of assembler

O M
B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 21. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 22.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant
Q.no 23. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 24. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

AHA
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

W
C : Rightmost derivation

S
D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

AT
Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

P H
A : magnetic disks

O M
B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 26. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 27. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority
Q.no 28. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

A
B : file identifier

AH
C :  file name

S W
D : none of the mentioned

T
Q.no 30. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that

A
dispatches processes is concerned with

P H
A : assigning ready processes to CPU

O M
B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process
D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 34. Operating system is

A
A : system software

AH
B : application software

S W
C : both 1 & 2

T
D : not a software

H A
Q.no 35. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

M P
A : greater than segment limit

O
B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 36. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 37. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift
D : Both A and B

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 39. Which one is a lexer Generator

AHA
A : YACC

W
B : BISON

S
C : FLEX

AT
D : Iburg

P H
Q.no 40. System programmer needs

O M
A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 42. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant
D : data dependant

Q.no 43. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

A
Q.no 44. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

AH
A : compilation

S W
B : execution

T
C : loading

H A
D : linking

M P
Q.no 45. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

O
A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 46. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal


C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

A
Q.no 49. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page

AH
replacement algorithms because

W
A : Segments are better than pages

S
B : Pages are better than segments

AT
C : Segments have variable sizes

P H
D : Segments have fixed sizes

O M
Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 52. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs


C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

AHA
Q.no 54. YACC stands for

W
A : yet accept compiler constructs

S
B : yet accept compiler compiler

AT
C : yet another compiler constructs

P H
D : yet another compiler compiler

O M
Q.no 55. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 56. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '
A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 58. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

AHA
C : physical memory size

W
D : number of processes in memory

S
Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space

T
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

H A
A : page fault occurs

M P
B : fatal error occurs

O
C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 1. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell
Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

A
B : swapping

AH
C : pure demand paging

S W
D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

T
Q.no 4. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is

A
called as

P H
A : Polling

O M
B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 6. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command


Q.no 7. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 8. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

A
B : Mnenonics

AH
C : ASCII code

S W
D : C Language

T
Q.no 9. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the

A
track is known as

P H
A : seek time

O M
B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 10. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 11. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs
from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore
D : Scheduler

Q.no 12. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 13. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

AHA
A : wait queue

W
B : ready queue

S
C : cpu

AT
D : secondary storage

P H
Q.no 14. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

O M
A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 15. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 16. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 17. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

AHA
A : demand paging

W
B : virtual memory

S
C : auxiliary memory

AT
D : secondary memory

P H
Q.no 19. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to

M
create,edit and print document  ?

O
A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 20. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 21. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]


C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 22. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

A
Q.no 23. System softwares are used to

AH
A : bridge gap between different applications

S W
B : bridge gap between different users

T
C : bridge gap between programmer and system

H A
D : bridge gap between different systems

M P
Q.no 24. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters

O
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging
C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

AHA
Q.no 28. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

S W
A : procedure

T
B : subroutine

H A
C : macro

M P
D : none of the mentioned

O
Q.no 29. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 30. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 31. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes
B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 32. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

A
D : high level language

AH
Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

S W
A : Identifiers

T
B : Constants

H A
C : Keywords

M P
D : context free grammar

O
Q.no 34. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 35. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 36. Input of Lex is ?


A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 37. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

AHA
C : . Semantic analysis

W
D : Structure analysis

S
Q.no 38. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a

T
reserved word,it _________

H A
A : overwrites the word

M P
B : overwrites the functionality

O
C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 39. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 40. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer


D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 41. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 42. The linker is

A
A : is same as the loader

AH
B : is required to create a load module

S W
C : is always used before programs are executed

T
D : translator

H A
Q.no 43. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its

P
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

O M
A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 46. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

AHA
D : A program that accepts a program written in
high level language and produces an object
program

S W
Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

AT
A : Lex

P H
B : Yacc

M
C : Iburg

O
D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 50. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 51. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

A
B : multiprogramming systems

AH
C : multiprocessor systems

S W
D : operating systems

T
Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a

A
reserved portion of the disk.

P H
A : Bit tables

O M
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 54. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind
D : add-front

Q.no 55. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

A
Q.no 56. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is

AH
called

W
A : Ambiguous

S
B : Unambiguous

AT
C : Regular

P H
D : None of these

O M
Q.no 57. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 59. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state


B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

A
D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

AH
Q.no 1. A macro is

S W
A : a small program inside a program

T
B : set of special instructions

H A
C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

M P
D : same as function

O
Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 3. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 4. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS
B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 5. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

AHA
D : DMA

W
Q.no 6. LR stands for

S
A : Left to right

AT
B : Left to right reduction

P H
C : Right to left

O M
D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 7. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 8. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 9. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit
B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 10. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

A
D : entire process

AH
Q.no 11. process is trash

S W
A : it spends more time paging than executing

T
B : it spends less time paging than executing

H A
C : page fault occurs

M P
D : swapping can not take place

O
Q.no 12. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 13. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 14. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call


B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 15. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

A
D : synchronous I/O

AH
Q.no 16. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of

W
completion is termed as

S
A : waiting time

AT
B : turnaround time

P H
C : response time

O M
D : throughput

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop
B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 20. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

A
D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

AH
Q.no 21. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated

W
page

S
A : is in the TLB

AT
B : has data in it

P H
C : is in the process’s logical address space

O M
D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 22. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 24. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that


A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is
unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

AHA
B : SCAN

W
C : C-SCAN

S
D : C-LOOK

AT
Q.no 26. Which one is a lexer Generator

P H
A : YACC

O M
B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 27. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 28. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand


D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 29. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

AHA
A : positioning time

W
B : random access time

S
C : seek time

AT
D : rotational latency

P H
Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,

M
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

O
A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 33. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free


C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 34.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

A
Q.no 35. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

AH
A : instruction format

S W
B : addressing modes

T
C : both 1 & 2

H A
D : function

M P
Q.no 36. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

O
A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 37. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language


C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 39. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

AHA
Q.no 40. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

W
A : Non-preemptive scheduling

S
B : Preemptive scheduling

AT
C : All of the mentioned

P H
D : processes are classified into groups

O M
Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 43. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent


B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 44. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

A
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

AH
Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

W
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

S
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

T
A : Bit tables

H A
B : Chained Free Portions

M P
C : Indexing

O
D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 47. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes


Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

AHA
B : LRU

W
C : FIFO

S
D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

AT
Q.no 50. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

P H
A : PL domain and storage domain

O M
B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 51. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 52. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading
D : linking

Q.no 53. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 54. YACC stands for

A
A : yet accept compiler constructs

AH
B : yet accept compiler compiler

S W
C : yet another compiler constructs

T
D : yet another compiler compiler

H A
Q.no 55. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

M P
A : the page is not legal

O
B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 56. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword
D : operator

Q.no 58. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

A
Q.no 59. An imperative statement

AH
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

S W
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

T
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

H A
D : allocate space for literals

M P
Q.no 60. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

O
A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 1. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly


occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 2. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition
C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

A
Q.no 4. LRU stands for?

AH
A : Less Recently used

S W
B : Least Recurrently used

T
C : Least Randomly used

H A
D : Least Recently used

M P
Q.no 5. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs

O
from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 6. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 7. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input


C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 8. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

A
Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

AH
A : Interrupts

S W
B : Memory mapping

T
C : Program-controlled I/O

H A
D : DMA

M P
Q.no 10. SJF can be

O
A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 11. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 12. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API
C : library

D : shell

Q.no 13. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

A
Q.no 14. Expansion time variables are used

AH
A : Before expansion of macro calls

S W
B : only during expansion of macro calls

T
C : After expansion of macro calls

H A
D : Any one of the above

M P
Q.no 15. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

O
A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 16. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 17. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation
C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 18. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

A
Q.no 19. The function of OS

AH
A : Resource allocator

S W
B : control program

T
C : create user friendly env.

H A
D : All

M P
Q.no 20. In memory-mapped I/O

O
A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 21. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 22. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter
C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 23. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

A
Q.no 24. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

AH
A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

S W
B : classification of ready queue is permanent

T
C : processes are not classified into groups

H A
D : processes are classified into groups

M P
Q.no 25. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

O
A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 26. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system

Q.no 27. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping
B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 28. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

A
D : none of the mentioned

AH
Q.no 29. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,

W
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

S
A : procedure

AT
B : subroutine

P H
C : macro

O M
D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for
it at the time of its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 31. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else
Q.no 32. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 33.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

AHA
B : value

W
C : bit value

S
D : constant

AT
Q.no 34. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

P H
A : initialising macro

O M
B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 35. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation
D : Swapping

Q.no 37. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 38. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A
A : greater than segment limit

AH
B : between 0 and segment limit

S W
C : between 0 and the segment number

T
D : greater than the segment number

H A
Q.no 39. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow

P
time?

O M
A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 40. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 41. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END
C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

A
Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

AH
A : Virtual page number

S W
B : Page frame number

T
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

H A
D : Access right information

M P
Q.no 44. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to

O
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 45. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 46. The linker is

A : is same as the loader


B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 47. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

A
D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

AH
Q.no 48. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a

W
reserved portion of the disk.

S
A : Bit tables

AT
B : Chained Free Portions

P H
C : Indexing

O M
D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 50. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems
Q.no 51. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A
A : write ahead

AH
B : read ahead

S W
C : free-behind

T
D : add-front

H A
Q.no 53. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

M P
A : Static Linking library

O
B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 54. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 55. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well


D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 56. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

AHA
A : A program that places programs into
memory an prepares them for execution

S W
B : A program that appears to execute a source
program as if it were machine language

AT
C : A program that automate the translation of

H
assembly language into machine language

M P
D : A program that accepts a program written in
high level language and produces an object

O
program

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler
Q.no 60. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 1. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

A
B : Myfile.yy.c

AH
C : Myfile.lex

S W
D : Myfile.obj

T
Q.no 2. The output of a lexical analyzer is

H A
A : Machine code

M P
B : Intermediate code

O
C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 3. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 4. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter
Q.no 5. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 6. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A
A : first-come, first-served scheduling

AH
B : shortest job scheduling

S W
C : priority scheduling

T
D : Round Robin

H A
Q.no 7. Time sharing system is implemented using

M P
A : FCFS

O
B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 8. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 9. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call


D : inherited macro call

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a

A
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

AH
A : Assembler

S W
B : Linking loader

T
C : Cross compiler

H A
D : Load and Go

M P
Q.no 12. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing

O
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 13. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 14. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser
C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 15. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

AHA
Q.no 16. Examples of system program includes

W
A : Ticket booking system

S
B : Banking software

AT
C : Online shopping program

P H
D : Operating System

O M
Q.no 17. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 18. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 19. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization
C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 20. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

A
Q.no 21. Process are classified into different groups in

AH
A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

S W
B : classification of ready queue is permanent

T
C : processes are not classified into groups

H A
D : processes are classified into groups

M P
Q.no 22. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

O
A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 23. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 24. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm
B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 25. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

AHA
D : specifies start of symbol table

W
Q.no 26.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

S
A : a segment number & offset

AT
B : an offset & value

P H
C : a value & segment number

O M
D : a key & value

Q.no 27. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 28. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software
B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

A
D : swapping can not take place

AH
Q.no 31. What is FIFO algorithm?

S W
A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

T
B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

H A
C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

M P
D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

O
Q.no 32. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error
B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 35. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

A
D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

AH
Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

S W
A : FCFS – First come First served

T
B : SJF – Shortest Job First

H A
C : RR – Round Robin

M P
D : priority

O
Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 38. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 39. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.
A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 40. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

A
C : seek time

AH
D : rotational latency

S W
Q.no 41. An assembler is

T
A : programming language dependent

H A
B : syntax dependant

M P
C : machine dependant

O
D : data dependant

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs
Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

AHA
B : execution

W
C : loading

S
D : linking

AT
Q.no 46. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the

H
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

M P
A : resources currently available

O
B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed


D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 50. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

AHA
A : Second pass

W
B : First pass

S
C : Zeroth pass

AT
D : Not done by assembler

P H
Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from

M
Belady’s Anomaly?

O
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 53. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs


C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

A
D : Free Block List

AH
Q.no 55. YACC stands for

S W
A : yet accept compiler constructs

T
B : yet accept compiler compiler

H A
C : yet another compiler constructs

M P
D : yet another compiler compiler

O
Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is
A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 59. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

AHA
C : operating system

W
D : resources

S
Q.no 60. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

AT
A : Static Linking library

P H
B : Dynamic linking library

O M
C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 1. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer
Q.no 3. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 4. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

AHA
B : variables from code

W
C : instruction

S
D : Opcodes

AT
Q.no 5. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

P H
A : Star BUS structure

O M
B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 6. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 7. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority
Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

AHA
B : File system

W
C : Directory management

S
D : Scheduling and control

AT
Q.no 10. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

P H
A : Text editor

O M
B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 11. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 12. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time
D : throughput

Q.no 13. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 14. which of the following is not a type of translator?

AHA
A : assembler

W
B : compiler

S
C : loader

AT
D : interpreter

P H
Q.no 15. SJF can be

O M
A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 16. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 17. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of
3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator
C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 18. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

A
Q.no 19. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely

AH
in memory is called

W
A : demand paging

S
B : virtual memory

AT
C : auxiliary memory

P H
D : secondary memory

O M
Q.no 20. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread


C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 23. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

A
Q.no 24. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

AH
A : Attributes

S W
B : Protocol

T
C : Location

H A
D : Ownership

M P
Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

O
A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer
C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 28. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

AHA
Q.no 29. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

S W
A : Last in first out

T
B : Shortest service time first

H A
C : Priority by process

M P
D : Random scheduling

O
Q.no 30. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 31. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 32. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC
B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 33. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

A
D : Both A and B

AH
Q.no 34. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be

W
temporarily suspended is called

S
A : Non preemptive scheduling

AT
B : Preemptive scheduling

P H
C : Shortest job first

O M
D : First come First served

Q.no 35. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 36. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 37. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis


B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 38. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

A
D : none of the mentioned

AH
Q.no 39. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing

W
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

S
A : Leftmost derivation

AT
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

P H
C : Rightmost derivation

O M
D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 40. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 41. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 42. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as
A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 43. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 44. The linker is

AT
A : is same as the loader

P H
B : is required to create a load module

O M
C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information


Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 48. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

A
B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

AH
C : Relocation and Load Directory

S W
D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

T
Q.no 49. An assembler is

H A
A : programming language dependent

M P
B : syntax dependant

O
C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 50. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 51. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list


Q.no 52. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

AHA
B : Yacc

W
C : Iburg

S
D : both 1 & 3

AT
Q.no 54. An interpreter is

P H
A : A program that places programs into

M
memory an prepares them for execution

O
B : A program that appears to execute a source
program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal


B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

AHA
D : Registers

W
Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is

S
called

T
A : Ambiguous

H A
B : Unambiguous

M P
C : Regular

O
D : None of these

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes


Q.no 1. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 2. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

A
B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

AH
C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

S W
D : To list the locations of all the registers used

T
Q.no 3. Expansion time variables are used

H A
A : Before expansion of macro calls

M P
B : only during expansion of macro calls

O
C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 4. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 5. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD
Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

A
B : first page of a process

AH
C : individual page of a process

S W
D : entire process

T
Q.no 8. Assembly language programs are written using

H A
A : Hex code

M P
B : Mnenonics

O
C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 9. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 10. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU
Q.no 11. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 12. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

AHA
B : ready queue

W
C : cpu

S
D : secondary storage

AT
Q.no 13. Effective access time is directly proportional to

P H
A : memory access time

O M
B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 14. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 15. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue
D : process queue

Q.no 16. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 17. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a

A
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

AH
A : Assembler

S W
B : Linking loader

T
C : Cross compiler

H A
D : Load and Go

M P
Q.no 18. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which

O
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 19. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 20. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler
C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 21. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

A
Q.no 22.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

AH
A : key

S W
B : value

T
C : bit value

H A
D : constant

M P
Q.no 23. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

O
A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 24. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 25. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 26. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

A
Q.no 27. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

AH
A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

S W
B : classification of ready queue is permanent

T
C : processes are not classified into groups

H A
D : processes are classified into groups

M P
Q.no 28. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,

O
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word


B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

A
D : priority

AH
Q.no 32. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page

W
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

S
A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

AT
B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address

H
space of a process

M P
C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

O
D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 33. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 34.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 35. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called
A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 36. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

A
C : restriction on page visibility

AH
D : protection bit with each page

S W
Q.no 37. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

T
A : initialising macro

H A
B : initialising string macro

M P
C : defining a string macro

O
D : defining a macro

Q.no 38. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 39. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware
Q.no 40. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system

Q.no 41. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

AHA
A : Static Linking library

W
B : Dynamic linking library

S
C : load time linking library

AT
D : Both 1 & 2

P H
Q.no 42. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

O M
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 43. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 44. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU
C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 45. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

A
Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token

AH
category of 'var1 '

W
A : Identifier

S
B : Number

AT
C : Keyword

P H
D : operator

O M
Q.no 47. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 48. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 49. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START
B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 50. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

A
D : Not done by assembler

AH
Q.no 51. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a

W
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

S
A : the instruction set architecture

AT
B : page size

P H
C : physical memory size

O M
D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 55. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

A
B : assembler

AH
C : loader

S W
D : interpreter

T
Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the

A
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

P H
A : resources currently available

O M
B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 58. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 60. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A
A : then a deadlock does not exist

AH
B : then a deadlock exists

S W
C : then the system is in a safe state

T
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

H A
Q.no 1. Which statement declare the name of macro.

M P
A : macro prototype

O
B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 2. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 3. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call


D : inherited macro call

Q.no 4. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 5. Literal table stores

A
A : Numbers from code

AH
B : variables from code

S W
C : instruction

T
D : Opcodes

H A
Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the

P
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

O M
A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of
3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm


C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

A
Q.no 10. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready

AH
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

W
A : all process

S
B : currently running process

AT
C : parent process

P H
D : init process

O M
Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 12. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory


C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

A
Q.no 15. LRU stands for?

AH
A : Less Recently used

S W
B : Least Recurrently used

T
C : Least Randomly used

H A
D : Least Recently used

M P
Q.no 16. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

O
A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 17. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees
C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 19. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

A
Q.no 20. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

AH
A : SJF-P

S W
B : FCFS

T
C : RR

H A
D : Priority

M P
Q.no 21. File type can be represented by

O
A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 23. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion


C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 24. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

A
D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

AH
Q.no 25. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the

W
secondary memory according to the requirement.

S
A : Paging

AT
B : Demand paging

P H
C : Segmentation

O M
D : Swapping

Q.no 26. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 27. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 28. Lexemes can be referred to as


A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

A
C : both 1 & 2

AH
D : not a software

S W
Q.no 30. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

AT
A : is in the TLB

P H
B : has data in it

O M
C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 31. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 32. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents


Q.no 33. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 34. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

AHA
A : LOOK

W
B : SCAN

S
C : C-SCAN

AT
D : C-LOOK

P H
Q.no 35. Input to code generator is

O M
A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 37. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift
D : Both A and B

Q.no 38. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 39. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

AHA
A : kernel level thread

W
B : user level thread

S
C : process

AT
D : priority Process

P H
Q.no 40. START pseudo code is used for

O M
A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 41. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 42. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions


C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

A
D : Indexed Sequential files

AH
Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is

W
performed by

S
A : Absolute Loader

AT
B : Loader

P H
C : Linker

O M
D : Assembler

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because
A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 48. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

AHA
C : free-behind

W
D : add-front

S
Q.no 49. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

AT
A : Redirection and Load Directory

P H
B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

O M
C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. An interpreter is


A : A program that places programs into
memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can

A
be implemented in hardware?

AH
A : Counters

S W
B : RAM & Registers

T
C : Stack & Counters

H A
D : Registers

M P
Q.no 54. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

O
A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 55. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 56. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number


C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

A
Q.no 58. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type

AH
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

S W
A : minimum

T
B : average

H A
C : maximum

M P
D : approximate

O
Q.no 59. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 60. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 1. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as
A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

A
C : after initialisation of program

AH
D : anywhere in a program

S W
Q.no 3. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

AT
A : first-come, first-served scheduling

P H
B : shortest job scheduling

O M
C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 4. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 5. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell
Q.no 6. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

AHA
B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

W
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

S
D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

AT
Q.no 8. Virtual memory is

P H
A : An extremely large main memory

O M
B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 9. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 10. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command


Q.no 11. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

A
B : code generation

AH
C : syntax analysis

S W
D : code optimization

T
Q.no 13. Examples of system program includes

H A
A : Ticket booking system

M P
B : Banking software

O
C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 14. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 15. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O
Q.no 16. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 17. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

A
B : page-fault rate

AH
C : hit ratio

S W
D : none of the mentioned

T
Q.no 18. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

H A
A : Myfile.e

M P
B : Myfile.yy.c

O
C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 19. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing
D : Unix

Q.no 21. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 22. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A
A : synthesizing code

AH
B : gathering information

S W
C : processing macro

T
D : expanding macro

H A
Q.no 23. Linking is process of binding

M P
A : Internal part of a program

O
B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN
D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 26. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 27. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A
A : Compiler

AH
B : Interpreter

S W
C : Assembler

T
D : Loader

H A
Q.no 28. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

M P
A : it is too good an algorithm

O
B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP
D : ORG

Q.no 31. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

A
Q.no 32. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With

AH
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

S W
A : special support from hardware is required

T
B : special support from operating system is essential

H A
C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

M P
D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system

O
Q.no 33. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 34. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression


B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 36. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

AHA
D : none of the mentioned

W
Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences

S
the jobs.

T
A : earliest due date

H A
B : slack time remaining

M P
C : first come, first served

O
D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 39. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 40. What is FIFO algorithm?


A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 41. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

AHA
C : resources currently allocated to each process

W
D : future requests and releases of each process

S
Q.no 42. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a

T
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

H A
A : the instruction set architecture

M P
B : page size

O
C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 43. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs
Q.no 45. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

AHA
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

W
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

S
D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

AT
Q.no 47. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from

H
Belady’s Anomaly?

M P
A : Optimal replacement

O
B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 48. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 49. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state


D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 50. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A
A : Static Linking library

AH
B : Dynamic linking library

S W
C : load time linking library

T
D : Both 1 & 2

H A
Q.no 52. An imperative statement

M P
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

O
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions


C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

A
Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

AH
A : compilation

S W
B : execution

T
C : loading

H A
D : linking

M P
Q.no 57. An assembler is

O
A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 58. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 59. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

AHA
Q.no 1. Time sharing system is implemented using

W
A : FCFS

S
B : SJF

AT
C : RR

P H
D : priority

O M
Q.no 2. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 3. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 4. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program
C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 5. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

A
Q.no 6. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

AH
A : PS

S W
B : TOP

T
C : fork

H A
D : kill

M P
Q.no 7. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the

O
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 8. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 9. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority


B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 10. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

A
D : interpreter

AH
Q.no 11. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which

W
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

S
A : Exceptions

AT
B : Signal handling

P H
C : Interrupts

O M
D : DMA

Q.no 12. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs
from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 13. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 14. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,


A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

A
C : RR

AH
D : Priority

S W
Q.no 16. It is used as an index into the page table.

T
A : frame bit

H A
B : page number

M P
C : page offset

O
D : frame offset

Q.no 17. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 18. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 19. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?
A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

A
C : MEND

AH
D : ENDD

S W
Q.no 21. in which Swap space exists

T
A : cpu

H A
B : primary memory

M P
C : secondary memory

O
D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 24. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of


A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 25. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

A
C : both 1 & 2

AH
D : function

S W
Q.no 26. Input to code generator is

T
A : Source code

H A
B : Intermediate code

M P
C : Target code

O
D : tokens

Q.no 27. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 28.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 29.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as
A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 30. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

A
C : restriction on page visibility

AH
D : protection bit with each page

S W
Q.no 31. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

T
A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is

A
unavailable the object program

P H
B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

O M
C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 32. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 34. Loader is a program that


A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

AHA
C : generates an error

W
D : something else

S
Q.no 36. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

AT
A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

H
algorithm

M P
B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

O
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first


D : First come First served

Q.no 39. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. A self relocating program in one which

A
A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for

AH
it at the time of its coding or translation

W
B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

S
C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

AT
D : Both 1 & 2

P H
Q.no 41. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

O M
A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 44. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

A
D : translator

AH
Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where

W
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a

S
time.

T
A : Indexed files

H A
B : Direct files

M P
C : Sequential files

O
D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 47. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers
Q.no 48. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

A
B : Page frame number

AH
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

S W
D : Access right information

T
Q.no 50. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page

A
replacement algorithms because

P H
A : Segments are better than pages

O M
B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 51. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 52. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous
B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 53. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

AHA
D : add-front

W
Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is

S
performed by

T
A : Absolute Loader

H A
B : Loader

M P
C : Linker

O
D : Assembler

Q.no 55. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for


A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

A
C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

AH
D : none of the mentioned

S W
Q.no 59. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

T
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

H A
A : Bit tables

M P
B : Chained Free Portions

O
C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

A
Answer for Question No 5. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 6. is d

AT S
Answer for Question No 7. is c

P H
Answer for Question No 8. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

A
Answer for Question No 21. is b

AH
Answer for Question No 22. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 23. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 24. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 38. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 39. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 40. is c

M P
O
Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 54. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 55. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 56. is c

M P
O
Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a


Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 10. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 11. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 12. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b


Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 26. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 27. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 28. is c

M P
O
Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a


Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 42. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 43. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 44. is a

M P
O
Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 58. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 59. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 60. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is d


Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 14. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 15. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 16. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d


Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 30. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 31. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 32. is c

M P
O
Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b


Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 46. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 47. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 48. is a

M P
O
Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b


Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 2. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 3. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 4. is d

M P
O
Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a


Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 18. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 19. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 20. is a

M P
O
Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c


Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 34. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 35. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 36. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a


Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 50. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 51. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 52. is c

M P
O
Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 7. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 8. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 23. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 24. is a

M P
O
Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 38. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 39. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 40. is d

M P
O
Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 54. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 55. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 56. is c

M P
O
Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a


Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 10. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 11. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 12. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a


Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 26. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 27. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 28. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a


Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 42. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 43. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 44. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 58. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 59. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 60. is c

M P
O
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b


Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 14. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 15. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 16. is a

M P
O
Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c


Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 30. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 31. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 32. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d


Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 46. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 47. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 48. is c

M P
O
Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a


Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 2. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 3. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 4. is a

M P
O
Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c


Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 18. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 19. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 20. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b


Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 34. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 35. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 36. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c


Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 50. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 51. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 52. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 7. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 8. is c

M P
O
Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 23. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 24. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 38. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 39. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 40. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 54. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 55. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 56. is a

M P
O
Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d


Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 10. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 11. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 12. is a

M P
O
Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c


Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 26. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 27. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 28. is a

M P
O
Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a


Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 42. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 43. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 44. is b

M P
O
Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 58. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 59. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 60. is a

M P
O
Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

AHA
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

S W
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

AT
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

H
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

P
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

O M
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process
Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 4. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

A
B : Banking software

AH
C : Online shopping program

S W
D : Operating System

T
Q.no 5. LRU stands for?

H A
A : Less Recently used

M P
B : Least Recurrently used

O
C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly


occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU
Q.no 8. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of
3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 9. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

AHA
B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

W
C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

S
D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

AT
Q.no 10. It is used as an index into the page table.

P H
A : frame bit

O M
B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language
Q.no 13. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 14. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

A
B : Code optimization

AH
C : Code generator

S W
D : Lexical analyser

T
Q.no 15. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to

A
create,edit and print document  ?

P H
A : word proccessor

O M
B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 16. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority
Q.no 18. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 19. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A
A : seek time

AH
B : rotational delay

S W
C : access time

T
D : Transfer time

H A
Q.no 20. Effective access time is directly proportional to

M P
A : memory access time

O
B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 21. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for
it at the time of its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 22. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand


D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 23. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 24. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A
A : greater than segment limit

AH
B : between 0 and segment limit

S W
C : between 0 and the segment number

T
D : greater than the segment number

H A
Q.no 25. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that

P
dispatches processes is concerned with

O M
A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 26. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups


D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 28. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 29. Format of macro call is

A
A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

AH
B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

S W
C : <macro name>

T
D : <call macro>

H A
Q.no 30. System programmer needs

M P
A : knowledge of only system

O
B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 31. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 32.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid
D : access

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 34. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

AHA
A : Leftmost derivation

W
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

S
C : Rightmost derivation

AT
D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

P H
Q.no 35. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

O M
A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 36. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing


C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

A
Q.no 39. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With

AH
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

S W
A : special support from hardware is required

T
B : special support from operating system is essential

H A
C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

M P
D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from

O
hardware or operating system

Q.no 40. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. If the wait for graph contains a cycle


A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

A
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

AH
D : Access right information

S W
Q.no 44. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

AT
A : resource allocation state

P H
B : system storage state

O M
C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

AHA
B : page size

W
C : physical memory size

S
D : number of processes in memory

AT
Q.no 49. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from

H
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

M P
A : write ahead

O
B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 50. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 51. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list
D : Double linked list

Q.no 52. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

AHA
A : resources currently available

W
B : processes that have previously been in the system

S
C : resources currently allocated to each process

AT
D : future requests and releases of each process

P H
Q.no 54. An interpreter is

O M
A : A program that places programs into
memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 56. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for


A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 57. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

A
C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

AH
D : none of the mentioned

S W
Q.no 58. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

AT
A : Semantic analysis

P H
B : Syntax analysis

O M
C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 59. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 60. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these
Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

AHA
B : blocking I/O

W
C : asynchronous I/O

S
D : synchronous I/O

AT
Q.no 3. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

P H
A : Interrupts

O M
B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 4. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 5. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler
D : interpreter

Q.no 6. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 7. process is trash

A
A : it spends more time paging than executing

AH
B : it spends less time paging than executing

S W
C : page fault occurs

T
D : swapping can not take place

H A
Q.no 8. In memory-mapped I/O

M P
A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

O
B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 9. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction
D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 12. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A
A : assembler

AH
B : compiler

S W
C : loader

T
D : interpreter

H A
Q.no 13. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

M P
A : Lexical analyser

O
B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 15. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces


D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 16. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 17. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A
A : END

AH
B : ENDS

S W
C : MEND

T
D : ENDD

H A
Q.no 18. Relocatable programs

M P
A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

O
B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 19. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 20. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive


D : sequential

Q.no 21. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

A
Q.no 22. Lexemes can be referred to as

AH
A : elements of lexicography

S W
B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

T
C : lexical errors

H A
D : none of the mentioned

M P
Q.no 23. START pseudo code is used for

O
A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 24. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 25. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information
C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 26. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

AHA
Q.no 27. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

S W
A : procedure

T
B : subroutine

H A
C : macro

M P
D : none of the mentioned

O
Q.no 28. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 29. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 30. File type can be represented by

A : file extension
B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

AHA
D : First come First served

W
Q.no 32. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

S
A : Macro Name table

AT
B : Actual Parameter Table

P H
C : Parameter Default table

O M
D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 33. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 34. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 35. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by
A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 36. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

A
C : FLEX

AH
D : Iburg

S W
Q.no 37. The file name is generally split into two parts :

T
A : name & identifier

H A
B : identifier & type

M P
C : extension & name

O
D : type & extension

Q.no 38. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 39. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 40. Loader is a program that


A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 42. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token

T
category of 'var1 '

H A
A : Identifier

M P
B : Number

O
C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 43. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 44. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading
D : linking

Q.no 45. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 46. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

AHA
A : Second pass

W
B : First pass

S
C : Zeroth pass

AT
D : Not done by assembler

P H
Q.no 47. The linker is

O M
A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 48. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 49. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU
C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

A
Q.no 51. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address

AH
specification.

W
A : START

S
B : END

AT
C : ORIGIN

P H
D : Both START and ORIGIN

O M
Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

A
D : Free Block List

AH
Q.no 56. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can

W
be implemented in hardware?

S
A : Counters

AT
B : RAM & Registers

P H
C : Stack & Counters

O M
D : Registers

Q.no 57. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 58. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 59. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?


A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

A
C : PL domain and execution domain

AH
D : PL domain only

S W
Q.no 1. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

AT
A : FIFO

P H
B : LRU

O M
C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 2. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 3. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of
3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator
Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

A
B : only during expansion of macro calls

AH
C : After expansion of macro calls

S W
D : Any one of the above

T
Q.no 6. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

H A
A : Myfile.e

M P
B : Myfile.yy.c

O
C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 7. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 8. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above


Q.no 9. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 10. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

AHA
B : An extremely large secondary memory

W
C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

S
D : A type of memory used in super computers

AT
Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

P H
A : macro prototype

O M
B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader
Q.no 14. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 15. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

A
B : size of pages is reduced

AH
C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

S W
D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

T
Q.no 16. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

H A
A : Star BUS structure

M P
B : Multiple BUS structure

O
C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 17. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used


Q.no 19. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 20. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A
A : wait queue

AH
B : ready queue

S W
C : cpu

T
D : secondary storage

H A
Q.no 21. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

M P
A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is

O
unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 22. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 23. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system


D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 24. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 25. Input to code generator is

AHA
A : Source code

W
B : Intermediate code

S
C : Target code

AT
D : tokens

P H
Q.no 26.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

O M
A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups


D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 29. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

A
Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a

AH
reserved word,it _________

W
A : overwrites the word

S
B : overwrites the functionality

AT
C : generates an error

P H
D : something else

O M
Q.no 31. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 32. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 33. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser
B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 34. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

AHA
D : critical ratio

W
Q.no 35. Process are classified into different groups in

S
A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

AT
B : classification of ready queue is permanent

P H
C : processes are not classified into groups

O M
D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 36. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 37. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 38. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by


A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 39. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

A
C : DROP

AH
D : ORG

S W
Q.no 40. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

T
A : Attributes

H A
B : Protocol

M P
C : Location

O
D : Ownership

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 42. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these
Q.no 43. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

AHA
B : then a deadlock exists

W
C : then the system is in a safe state

S
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

AT
Q.no 45. Using a pager

P H
A : increases the swap time

O M
B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 46. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 47. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list
D : Double linked list

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

AHA
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

W
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

S
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

AT
D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

P H
Q.no 50. An interpreter is

O M
A : A program that places programs into
memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources
Q.no 52. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

AHA
B : assembler

W
C : loader

S
D : interpreter

AT
Q.no 54. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

P H
A : time sharing systems

O M
B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 55. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size


D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

AHA
A : write ahead

W
B : read ahead

S
C : free-behind

AT
D : add-front

P H
Q.no 59. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

M
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

O
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 1. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm


B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 2. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

AHA
D : Transfer time

W
Q.no 3. LR stands for

S
A : Left to right

AT
B : Left to right reduction

P H
C : Right to left

O M
D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 4. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 5. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 6. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?
A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 7. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

A
C : fork

AH
D : kill

S W
Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm

T
A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

H A
B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

M P
C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

O
D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 9. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 10. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 11. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called
A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 12. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

A
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

AH
D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

S W
Q.no 13. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

AT
A : Directory Management

P H
B : Logical I/O

O M
C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 14. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 15. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin
Q.no 16. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 17. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

A
B : Read by controller to get input

AH
C : Written by host to send output

S W
D : Written by host to start a command

T
Q.no 18. The last statement of the source program should be

H A
A : Stop

M P
B : Return

O
C : OP

D : End

Q.no 19. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 20. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA
Q.no 21. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 22. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

A
B : making proper use of processor

AH
C : all of the mentioned

S W
D : none of the mentioned

T
Q.no 23. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing

A
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

P H
A : Leftmost derivation

O M
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for
it at the time of its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro
D : expanding macro

Q.no 26. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 27. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A
A : kernel level thread

AH
B : user level thread

S W
C : process

T
D : priority Process

H A
Q.no 28. A process is thrashing if

M P
A : it is spending more time paging than executing

O
B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 29. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 30. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First


D : Longest Job First

Q.no 31. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 32. File type can be represented by

AHA
A : file extension

W
B : file identifier

S
C :  file name

AT
D : none of the mentioned

P H
Q.no 33. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated

M
page

O
A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 34. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 35. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis
C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 36. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

A
Q.no 37. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the

AH
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

W
A : Last in first out

S
B : Shortest service time first

AT
C : SCAN

P H
D : Circular SCAN

O M
Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 40. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK
B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 41. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

A
D : data dependant

AH
Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

S W
A : Redirection and Load Directory

T
B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

H A
C : Relocation and Load Directory

M P
D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

O
Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

A
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

AH
D : allocate space for literals

S W
Q.no 47. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

T
A : Second pass

H A
B : First pass

M P
C : Zeroth pass

O
D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 48. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 49. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files


Q.no 50. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

A
B : doesnt work well

AH
C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

S W
D : none of the mentioned

T
Q.no 52. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type

A
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm

H
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

M P
A : minimum

O
B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 53. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 54. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed


D : translator

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can

A
be implemented in hardware?

AH
A : Counters

S W
B : RAM & Registers

T
C : Stack & Counters

H A
D : Registers

M P
Q.no 57. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

O
A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 58. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 59. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc
C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 60. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

AHA
Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

S W
A : Double buffer

T
B : Single buffer

H A
C : Linear buffer

M P
D : Circular buffer

O
Q.no 2. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 3. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 4. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program
B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

A
D : Prefix notation

AH
Q.no 6. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a

W
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

S
A : Assembler

AT
B : Linking loader

P H
C : Cross compiler

O M
D : Load and Go

Q.no 7. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 8. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.
A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

AHA
C : auxiliary memory

W
D : secondary memory

S
Q.no 11. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

AT
A : The former offers faster transfer of data

P H
B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

O M
C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 12. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions


Q.no 14. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 15. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

A
B : Intermediate code

AH
C : A stream of tokens

S W
D : A parse tree

T
Q.no 16. Examples of system program includes

H A
A : Ticket booking system

M P
B : Banking software

O
C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 17. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 18. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call
Q.no 19. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 20. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs
from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

AHA
B : Spooling

W
C : Semaphore

S
D : Scheduler

AT
Q.no 21. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be

H
temporarily suspended is called

M P
A : Non preemptive scheduling

O
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 22. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation
D : Variable allocation

Q.no 24. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A
A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

AH
B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

S W
C : <macro name>

T
D : <call macro>

H A
Q.no 26. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

M P
A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

O
B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 27. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 28. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation
D : Demand paging

Q.no 29. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 30. System softwares are used to

A
A : bridge gap between different applications

AH
B : bridge gap between different users

S W
C : bridge gap between programmer and system

T
D : bridge gap between different systems

H A
Q.no 31. Assembler processes

M P
A : any language

O
B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 32. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 33.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value
D : constant

Q.no 34. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 35. Which one is a lexer Generator

A
A : YACC

AH
B : BISON

S W
C : FLEX

T
D : Iburg

H A
Q.no 36. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a

P
reserved word,it _________

O M
A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 37. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 38. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining


C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 39. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

A
Q.no 40. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

AH
A : Indexed files

S W
B : Direct files

T
C : Sequential files

H A
D : Indexed Sequential files

M P
Q.no 41. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the

O
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 42. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs


B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 44. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

AHA
D : add-front

W
Q.no 45. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token

S
category of 'var1 '

T
A : Identifier

H A
B : Number

M P
C : Keyword

O
D : operator

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 47. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 48. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -


A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 49. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

AHA
C : ORIGIN

W
D : Both START and ORIGIN

S
Q.no 50. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

AT
A : the page is not legal

P H
B : the page is illegal

O M
C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 51. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 52. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 53. If the wait for graph contains a cycle


A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

AHA
C : Regular analysis

W
D : General analysis

S
Q.no 55. An interpreter is

AT
A : A program that places programs into

H
memory an prepares them for execution

M P
B : A program that appears to execute a source

O
program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 57. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture


B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 58. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

A
D : PL domain only

AH
Q.no 59. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

S W
A : Lex

T
B : Yacc

H A
C : Iburg

M P
D : both 1 & 3

O
Q.no 60. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs
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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

A
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

AH
5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

S W
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

T
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

H A
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

P
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

M
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

O
Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 3. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

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A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 4. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

A
C : MEND

AH
D : ENDD

W
Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

T S
A : To indicate the purpose of the code

H A
B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

P
C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

O M
D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 8. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

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A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

A
C : library

AH
D : shell

W
Q.no 10. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

T S
A : Myfile.e

H A
B : Myfile.yy.c

P
C : Myfile.lex

O M
D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 11. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 12. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 13. Which statement declare the name of macro.

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A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

A
C : Online shopping program

AH
D : Operating System

W
Q.no 15. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a

S
form suitable for execution ?

AT
A : Assembler

P H
B : Linking loader

M
C : Cross compiler

O
D : Load and Go

Q.no 16. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 17. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

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A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

A
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

AH
D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

W
Q.no 20. The data-in register of I/O port is

T S
A : Read by host to get input

H A
B : Read by controller to get input

P
C : Written by host to send output

O M
D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

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B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

A
D : rotational latency

AH
Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

W
A : kernel level thread

T S
B : user level thread

H A
C : process

P
D : priority Process

O M
Q.no 26. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

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C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 29. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

A
Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?

AH
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

S W
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

AT
C : Rightmost derivation

P H
D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

M
Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

O
A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

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B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

A
D : swapping can not take place

AH
Q.no 35. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

W
A : Compiler

T S
B : Interpreter

H A
C : Assembler

P
D : Loader

O M
Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 38. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

A
D : high level language

AH
Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

W
A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the

S
object program

AT
B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

P H
C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

M
D : Both 1 & 2

O
Q.no 41. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 44. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

A
C : maximum

AH
D : approximate

W
Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records

S
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

AT
A : Indexed files

P H
B : Direct files

M
C : Sequential files

O
D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

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A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

A
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

AH
D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

W
Q.no 50. Using a pager

T S
A : increases the swap time

H A
B : decreases the swap time

P
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

O M
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 51. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

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B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 54. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

AHA
D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms

W
because

T S
A : Segments are better than pages

H A
B : Pages are better than segments

P
C : Segments have variable sizes

O M
D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 56. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

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A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

A
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

AH
D : Access right information

W
Q.no 60. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

T S
A : Stack

H A
B : Queue

P
C : Linked list

O M
D : Double linked list

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

A
Answer for Question No 5. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 6. is d

AT S
Answer for Question No 7. is c

P H
Answer for Question No 8. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 23. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 24. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 25. is b

O
Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

A
Answer for Question No 38. is c

AH
Answer for Question No 39. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 40. is d

P H A
Answer for Question No 41. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 55. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 56. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 57. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 58. is c

O
Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

AHA
A : Star BUS structure

W
B : Multiple BUS structure

T S
C : Single BUS structure

A
D : Node to Node BUS structure

P H
Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

O M
A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority
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Q.no 6. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 7. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

A
B : swapping

AH
C : pure demand paging

S W
D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

AT
Q.no 8. process is trash

P H
A : it spends more time paging than executing

M
B : it spends less time paging than executing

O
C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as
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A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

A
C : Least Randomly used

AH
D : Least Recently used

S W
Q.no 13. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU

T
first?

A
A : first-come, first-served scheduling

P H
B : shortest job scheduling

O M
C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 16. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the


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A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 17. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

A
C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

AH
D : A type of memory used in super computers

S W
Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm

AT
A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

P H
B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

M
C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

O
D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 21. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

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A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 22. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

AHA
D : Both A and B

W
Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

T S
A : positioning time

H A
B : random access time

P
C : seek time

M
D : rotational latency

O
Q.no 24. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 25. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 26. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

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B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

A
D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

AH
Q.no 28. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

S W
A : Attributes

AT
B : Protocol

P H
C : Location

M
D : Ownership

O
Q.no 29. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

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B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

AHA
Q.no 33. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

W
A : protection algorithm with each page

T S
B : restricted access rights to users

H A
C : restriction on page visibility

P
D : protection bit with each page

O M
Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 36. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion


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C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 37. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

A
Q.no 38. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each

AH
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

W
A : Chained allocation

S
B : Indexed allocation

AT
C : Contiguous allocation

P H
D : Variable allocation

M
Q.no 39. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

O
A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 40. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


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program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

A
C : Zeroth pass

AH
D : Not done by assembler

W
Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

T S
A : compilation

H A
B : execution

P
C : loading

O M
D : linking

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal


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B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

AHA
Q.no 48. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

S W
B : Dynamic linking library

AT
C : load time linking library

P H
D : Both 1 & 2

M
Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a

O
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well


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C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

A
Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

AH
A : START

W
B : END

T S
C : ORIGIN

H A
D : Both START and ORIGIN

P
Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is

M
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the

O
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc
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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis
D : General analysis

A
Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

AH
A : Ambiguous

W
B : Unambiguous

T S
C : Regular

H A
D : None of these

P
Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

O M
A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 7. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 8. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 9. is c

O
Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

A
Answer for Question No 22. is d

AH
Answer for Question No 23. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 24. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 25. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 26. is a

O
Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

A
Answer for Question No 39. is b

AH
Answer for Question No 40. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 41. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 42. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c


Answer for Question No 56. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 57. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 58. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 59. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are

A
kept on a list called

AH
A : job queue

S W
B : ready queue

AT
C : execution queue

H
D : process queue

P
Q.no 3. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

O M
A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 4. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code
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D : C Language

Q.no 6. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

AHA
B : macro definition

W
C : macro identification

S
D : macro call

AT
Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

P H
A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

M
B : size of pages is reduced

O
C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. Time sharing system is implemented using


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A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 12. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

AHA
C : Semaphore

W
D : Scheduler

T S
Q.no 13. The last statement of the source program should be

H A
A : Stop

P
B : Return

O M
C : OP

D : End

Q.no 14. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 15. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 16. Effective access time is directly proportional to

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A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 17. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

AHA
D : No advantage as such
Q.no 18. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

S W
A : Lexical analyser

AT
B : Syntactic Analyser

P H
C : Semantic Analyser

M
D : None of the mentioned

O
Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB
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B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 22. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

AHA
Q.no 23. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

W
A : magnetic disks

T S
B : electrical disks

H A
C : assemblies

P
D : cylinders

O M
Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 26. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor


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C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

A
Q.no 28. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

AH
A : First come First served

W
B : Shortest Job First

T S
C : Earliest Deadline First

H A
D : Longest Job First

P
Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

O M
A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

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D : ORG

Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Assembler processes


A : any language

AHA
B : assembly language

C : c language

S W
D : high level language

AT
Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

P H
A : it is spending more time paging than executing

M
B : it is spending less time paging than executing

O
C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 36. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?


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A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications


B : bridge gap between different users

A
C : bridge gap between programmer and system

AH
D : bridge gap between different systems

W
Q.no 39. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

T S
A : it is too good an algorithm

H A
B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

P
C : it is too complex to understand

O M
D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain


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B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack
B : Queue

C : Linked list

A
D : Double linked list

AH
Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

S W
A : page fault occurs

AT
B : fatal error occurs

P H
C : segmentation fault occurs

M
D : no error occurs

O
Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 47. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

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B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 48. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement
B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

AHA
Q.no 49. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

W
A : Bit tables

T S
B : Chained Free Portions

H A
C : Indexing

P
D : Free Block List

O M
Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant
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C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because
A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

A
Q.no 54. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system

AH
will never enter a deadlock state.

W
A : minimum

T S
B : average

H A
C : maximum

P
D : approximate

O M
Q.no 55. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '
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A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword
D : operator

Q.no 58. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

AHA
C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

S W
Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

AT
A : compiler

P H
B : assembler

M
C : loader

O
D : interpreter

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is d

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

A
Answer for Question No 22. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 23. is a

AT S
Answer for Question No 24. is d

P H
Answer for Question No 25. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b


Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a


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Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

A
Answer for Question No 39. is b

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is c

AT S
Answer for Question No 41. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 42. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 56. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 57. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 58. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 59. is a

O
Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

A
D : init process

AH
Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the

W
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

S
A : Double buffer

AT
B : Single buffer

P H
: Linear buffer D

O M
: Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

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B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

A
D : throughput

AH
Q.no 7. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

S W
A : System call

AT
B : API

P H
C : library

M
D : shell

O
Q.no 8. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 9. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 10. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O
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C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known

A
as

AH
A : seek time

S W
B : rotational delay

T
C : access time

H A
D : Transfer time

P
Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

O M
A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 15. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex
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D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. LR stands for

A : Left to right

AHA
B : Left to right reduction
C : Right to left

S W
D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

AT
Q.no 18. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

P H
A : PS

M
B : TOP

O
C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 19. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 20. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 21. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
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translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 22. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

AHA
C : processes are not classified into groups

W
D : processes are classified into groups

T S
Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

H A
A : greater than segment limit

P
B : between 0 and segment limit

O M
C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK
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Q.no 26. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu
B : primary memory

AHA
C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

S W
Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

AT
A : Fixed location given by proframmer

P H
B : Any location which is free

M
C : Fixed location given by assembler

O
D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

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A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 32. File type can be represented by

A : file extension
B : file identifier

C : file name

AHA
D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

S W
A : Non-preemptive scheduling

AT
B : Preemptive scheduling

P H
C : All of the mentioned

M
D : processes are classified into groups

O
Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

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B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START
B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

A
D : none of the mentioned

AH
Q.no 38. Shell is the exclusive feature of

W
A : Dos

T S
B : Unix

H A
C : System software

P
D : Application software

O M
Q.no 39. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 40. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

A
Q.no 43. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

AH
A : time sharing systems

W
B : multiprogramming systems

T S
C : multiprocessor systems

H A
D : operating systems

P
Q.no 44. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

O M
A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

A
Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

AH
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

W
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

T S
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

H A
D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

P
Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a

M
circular wait condition can never exist.

O
A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library


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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

AH
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

W
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

T S
D : allocate space for literals

H A
Q.no 54. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a

P
contiguous group of free blocks.

M
A : Bit tables

O
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader
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D : interpreter

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

AHA
B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

S W
D : None of these

AT
Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

P H
A : Stack

M
B : Queue

O
C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 60. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

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Answer for Question No 1. is b


Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

A
Answer for Question No 22. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 23. is b

AT S
Answer for Question No 24. is c

P H
Answer for Question No 25. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b

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Answer for Question No 34. is a


Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

A
Answer for Question No 39. is d

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is a

AT S
Answer for Question No 41. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 42. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 56. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 57. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 58. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 59. is c

O
Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A
A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

AH
B : size of pages is reduced

S W
C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

AT
D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

P H
Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

M
A : END

O
B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

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D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A
A : Exceptions

AH
B : Signal handling

W
C : Interrupts

T S
D : DMA

H A
Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

P
A : Stop

O M
B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 10. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

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Q.no 11. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

AHA
C : Written by host to send output

W
D : Written by host to start a command

T S
Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at

H A
A : beginning of a program

P
B : end of a program

O M
C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 15. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 16. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

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A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 17. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

AHA
D : none of the mentioned
Q.no 18. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

S W
A : Identifier

AT
B : Assignment operator

P H
C : Integer Literal

M
D : Addition Operator

O
Q.no 19. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 20. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 21. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor


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C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 22. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 23. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

AHA
A : Attributes

B : Protocol

S W
C : Location

AT
D : Ownership

P H
Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

O M
A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 26. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

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C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 27. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

A
Q.no 28. Which one is a lexer Generator

AH
A : YACC

W
B : BISON

T S
C : FLEX

H A
D : Iburg

P
Q.no 29. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

O M
A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 30. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 31. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

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D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 32. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


Q.no 33. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A
A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

AH
B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

S W
C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

AT
D : Both 1 & 2

P H
Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

M
A : Identifiers

O
B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 35. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 36. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function
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Q.no 37. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 38. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

A
B : SJF – Shortest Job First

AH
C : RR – Round Robin

W
D : priority

T S
Q.no 39. Input to code generator is

H A
A : Source code

P
B : Intermediate code

O M
C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for


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A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory


Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

A
C : loading

AH
D : linking

W
Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms

S
because

AT
A : Segments are better than pages

P H
B : Pages are better than segments

M
C : Segments have variable sizes

O
D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

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A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 48. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

AHA
C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

S W
Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

AT
A : works well

P H
B : doesnt work well

M
C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

O
D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

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Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language
C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

AHA
A : then a deadlock does not exist

W
B : then a deadlock exists

T S
C : then the system is in a safe state

H A
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

P
Q.no 54. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

O M
A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs


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D : no error occurs

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex
B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

AHA
B : LRU

C : FIFO

S W
D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

AT
Q.no 59. YACC stands for

P H
A : yet accept compiler constructs

M
B : yet accept compiler compiler

O
C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is c

A
Answer for Question No 8. is d

P H
Answer for Question No 9. is d

O M
Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 24. is d

AT
Answer for Question No 25. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 26. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is d

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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 40. is a

W
Answer for Question No 41. is c

AT S
Answer for Question No 42. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 43. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 57. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 58. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 59. is d

M P
Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

A
Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

AH
A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

W
B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

T S
C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

H A
D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

P
Q.no 3. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the

M
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

O
A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens
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D : A parse tree

Q.no 6. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A
A : assembler

AH
B : compiler

W
C : loader

T S
D : interpreter

H A
Q.no 8. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU

P
first?

M
A : first-come, first-served scheduling

O
B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 10. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

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D : secondary storage

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A
A : job queue

AH
B : ready queue

W
C : execution queue

T S
D : process queue

H A
Q.no 13. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

P
A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

O M
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

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Q.no 16. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code


B : variables from code

AHA
C : instruction

D : Opcodes

S W
Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is

T
called

H A
A : demand paging

P
B : virtual memory

O M
C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 19. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 20. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.
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A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis
B : Syntax analysis

A
C : . Semantic analysis

AH
D : Structure analysis

W
Q.no 23. Loader is a program that

T S
A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

H A
B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

P
C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

O M
D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 24. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software
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B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served


B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

AHA
Q.no 28. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

W
A : Last in first out

T S
B : Shortest service time first

H A
C : Priority by process

P
D : Random scheduling

O M
Q.no 29. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

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C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access
B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

A
Q.no 33. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

AH
A : Leftmost derivation

S W
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

AT
C : Rightmost derivation

P H
D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

M
Q.no 34. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

O
A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 35. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

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C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because
A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

A
Q.no 38. The file name is generally split into two parts :

AH
A : name & identifier

W
B : identifier & type

T S
C : extension & name

H A
D : type & extension

P
Q.no 39. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the

M
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is

O
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

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C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals


Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

A
Q.no 43. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

AH
A : Static Linking library

W
B : Dynamic linking library

T S
C : load time linking library

H A
D : Both 1 & 2

P
Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

O M
A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 46. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system
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D : resources

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M

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Q.no 47. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 48. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

A
B : decreases the swap time

AH
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

W
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

T S
Q.no 49. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

H A
A : compiler

P
B : assembler

O M
C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

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Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A
A : Bit tables

AH
B : Chained Free Portions

W
C : Indexing

T S
D : Free Block List

H A
Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

P
A : Absolute Loader

O M
B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

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D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A
A : works well

AH
B : doesnt work well

W
C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

T S
D : none of the mentioned

H A
Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

P
A : then a deadlock does not exist

O M
B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d


Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 24. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 25. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

A
Answer for Question No 39. is b

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is c

AT S
Answer for Question No 41. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 42. is d

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a


Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

A
Answer for Question No 56. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 57. is a

AT S
Answer for Question No 58. is a

P H
Answer for Question No 59. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser
B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

AHA
C : access time

D : Transfer time

S W
Q.no 3. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

AT
A : Polling

P H
B : Inspection

M
C : Reviewing

O
D : Echoing

Q.no 4. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 5. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 6. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

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A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use
B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 7. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

AHA
D : All

Q.no 8. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

S W
A : referential macro call

AT
B : nested macro call

P H
C : inbuilt macro call

M
D : inherited macro call

O
Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return
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C : OP

D : End

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

A
Q.no 13. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

AH
A : END

W
B : ENDS

T S
C : MEND

H A
D : ENDD

P
Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

O M
A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

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C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

A
Q.no 18. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be

AH
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

S W
B : File system

AT
C : Directory management

P H
D : Scheduling and control

M
Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

O
A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

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C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

A
Q.no 23. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

AH
A : Compiler

W
B : Interpreter

T S
C : Assembler

H A
D : Loader

P
Q.no 24. Process are classified into different groups in

O M
A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 25. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 26. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

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D : priority Process

Q.no 27. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 28. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A
A : key

AH
B : value

W
C : bit value

T S
D : constant

H A
Q.no 29. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

P
A : protection algorithm with each page

O M
B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

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Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

A
B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

AH
C : lexical errors

W
D : none of the mentioned

T S
Q.no 34. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

H A
A : Indexed files

P
B : Direct files

O M
C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 35. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

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Q.no 37. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 38. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

A
B : Actual Parameter Table

AH
C : Parameter Default table

W
D : Exapansion time variable Table

T S
Q.no 39. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

H A
A : is in the TLB

P
B : has data in it

O M
C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

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D : approximate

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 43. The linker is

A
A : is same as the loader

AH
B : is required to create a load module

W
C : is always used before programs are executed

T S
D : translator

H A
Q.no 44. An imperative statement

P
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

O M
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

A
B : Page frame number

AH
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

W
D : Access right information

T S
Q.no 49. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

H A
A : compilation

P
B : execution

O M
C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

AHA
A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

S W
C : Sequential files

AT
D : Indexed Sequential files

P H
Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

O M
A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

AHA
Q.no 58. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

S W
B : END

AT
C : ORIGIN

P H
D : Both START and ORIGIN

M
Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms

O
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 7. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 8. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 9. is d

O
Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is d


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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c


Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 24. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 25. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 26. is b

O
Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

A
Answer for Question No 39. is c

AH
Answer for Question No 40. is d

T S W
Answer for Question No 41. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 42. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 57. is c

T S W
Answer for Question No 58. is d

P H A
Answer for Question No 59. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code
B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

A
B : Single buffer

AH
C : Linear buffer

W
D : Circular buffer

T S
Q.no 3. Effective access time is directly proportional to

H A
A : memory access time

P
B : page-fault rate

O M
C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 4. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 5. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 6. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

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A : Appending an extra bit of the address
B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 7. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

AHA
D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

S W
A : Postfix notation

AT
B : Syntax trees

P H
C : Three address codes

M
D : Prefix notation

O
Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics
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C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

A
Q.no 13. process is trash

AH
A : it spends more time paging than executing

W
B : it spends less time paging than executing

T S
C : page fault occurs

H A
D : swapping can not take place

P
Q.no 14. Literal table stores

O M
A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 15. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 16. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

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D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 17. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 18. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is

A
termed as

AH
A : waiting time

W
B : turnaround time

T S
C : response time

H A
D : throughput

P
Q.no 19. SJF can be

O M
A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

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C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 22. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

A
Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is

AH
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

S W
B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

AT
C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

P H
D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

M
Q.no 24. System softwares are used to

O
A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 25. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

A
Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

AH
A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

S W
B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

AT
C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

P H
D : Both 1 & 2

M
Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

O
A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 31. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

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B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 32. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

A
D : something else

AH
Q.no 33. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

S W
A : Reduce - Reduce

AT
B : Shift - Reduce

P H
C : Shift - Shift

M
D : Both A and B

O
Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

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B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

A
D : none of the mentioned

AH
Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

W
A : it is too good an algorithm

T S
B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

H A
C : it is too complex to understand

P
D : it is too complex to implement

O M
Q.no 39. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 40. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

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B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

A
D : data dependant

AH
Q.no 43. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

W
A : compiler

T S
B : assembler

H A
C : loader

P
D : interpreter

O M
Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

A
Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a

AH
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

S W
B : Chained Free Portions

AT
C : Indexing

P H
D : Free Block List

M
Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

O
A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

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B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

A
D : Not done by assembler

AH
Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

W
A : Stack

T S
B : Queue

H A
C : Linked list

P
D : Double linked list

O M
Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

A
C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

AH
D : A program that accepts a program written in

W
high level language and produces an object

S
program

AT
Q.no 58. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

P H
A : the page is not legal

M
B : the page is illegal

O
C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

A
Answer for Question No 5. is d

W AH
Answer for Question No 6. is d

AT S
Answer for Question No 7. is c

P H
Answer for Question No 8. is d

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 23. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 24. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 25. is b

O
Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is d

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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 39. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 40. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 41. is d

M P
Answer for Question No 42. is c

O
Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 56. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 57. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 58. is c
Answer for Question No 59. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 2. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

A
B : first page of a process

AH
C : individual page of a process

W
D : entire process

T S
Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

H A
A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

P
B : LIFO (Last in First out)

O M
C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 5. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

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Q.no 6. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A
A : word proccessor

AH
B : spreadsheet

W
C : desktop publishing

T S
D : Unix

H A
Q.no 8. The data-in register of I/O port is

P
A : Read by host to get input

O M
B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 9. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 10. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

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D : Round Robin

Q.no 11. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A
A : semantic analysis

AH
B : code generation

W
C : syntax analysis

T S
D : code optimization

H A
Q.no 13. Expansion time variables are used

P
A : Before expansion of macro calls

O M
B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 15. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

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Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

AHA
B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

S W
D : Myfile.obj

AT
Q.no 18. The output of a lexical analyzer is

P H
A : Machine code

M
B : Intermediate code

O
C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

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Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 22. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

A
B : SJF – Shortest Job First

AH
C : RR – Round Robin

W
D : priority

T S
Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

H A
A : positioning time

P
B : random access time

O M
C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

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Q.no 26. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

AHA
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

S W
D : First come First served

AT
Q.no 28. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

P H
A : kernel level thread

M
B : user level thread

O
C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

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Q.no 31. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 32. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

A
B : Shortest Job First

AH
C : Earliest Deadline First

W
D : Longest Job First

T S
Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a

A
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

P H
A : special support from hardware is required

M
B : special support from operating system is essential

O
C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 34. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

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Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

A
B : slack time remaining

AH
C : first come, first served

W
D : critical ratio

T S
Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

H A
A : positioning time

P
B : random access time

O M
C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

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Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A
A : Virtual page number

AH
B : Page frame number

W
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

T S
D : Access right information

H A
Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

P
A : Redirection and Load Directory

O M
B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 44. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

AHA
B : Yacc

C : Iburg

S W
D : both 1 & 3

AT
Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

P H
A : time sharing systems

M
B : multiprogramming systems

O
C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Q.no 51. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 52. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A
A : write ahead

AH
B : read ahead

W
C : free-behind

T S
D : add-front

H A
Q.no 53. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in

P
physical memory, then what occurs

M
A : page fault occurs

O
B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 54. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

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D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request

A
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

AH
A : resources currently available

W
B : processes that have previously been in the system

T S
C : resources currently allocated to each process

H A
D : future requests and releases of each process

P
Q.no 58. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

O M
A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

A
Answer for Question No 5. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 6. is c

AT S
Answer for Question No 7. is a

P H
Answer for Question No 8. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 23. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 24. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 25. is b

O
Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 39. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 40. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 41. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

A
Answer for Question No 55. is d

W AH
Answer for Question No 56. is c

AT S
Answer for Question No 57. is a

P H
Answer for Question No 58. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

A
B : Single buffer

AH
C : Linear buffer

S W
D : Circular buffer

AT
Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

H
A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

M P
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

O
C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 5. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

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Q.no 6. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 7. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

AHA
C : LFU

W
D : NRU

T S
Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

H A
A : object code

P
B : intermediate code

O M
C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.


D : All

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O
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B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

AHA
Q.no 13. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

S W
A : Physical organization

AT
B : File system

H
C : Directory management

M P
D : Scheduling and control

O
Q.no 14. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 15. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork
D : kill

Q.no 16. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

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C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 17. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 18. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory

A
of computer system

AH
A : Swapping

S W
B : Spooling

AT
C : Semaphore

H
D : Scheduler

M P
Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

O
A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 21. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

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C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

A
Q.no 23. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

AH
A : Fixed location given by proframmer

S W
B : Any location which is free

AT
C : Fixed location given by assembler

H
D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

M P
Q.no 24. What is Scheduling?

O
A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data
D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

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D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

AHA
B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

W
C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

T S
D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

A
Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

P H
A : greater than segment limit

O M
B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 31. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 32. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
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memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

AHA
C : System software

W
D : Application software

T S
Q.no 34. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

H A
A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

P
B : classification of ready queue is permanent

O M
C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 37. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

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A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 38. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

AHA
D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

W
Q.no 39. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?

S
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

AT
A : Leftmost derivation

H
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

M P
C : Rightmost derivation

O
D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


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B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

AHA
Q.no 44. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the

W
length of the first portion.

T S
A : Bit tables

A
B : Chained Free Portions

P H
C : Indexing

O M
D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

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A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

AHA
D : interpreter

W
Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

T S
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

H A
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

P
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

O M
D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

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B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

A
D : Double linked list

AH
Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

S W
A : Static Linking library

AT
B : Dynamic linking library

P H
C : load time linking library

M
D : Both 1 & 2

O
Q.no 55. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number


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B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of

A
assembly language into machine language

AH
D : A program that accepts a program written in

W
high level language and produces an object

S
program

T
Q.no 59. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

H A
A : PL domain and storage domain

M P
B : execution domain and syntax domain

O
C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them


B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b


Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is c

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 23. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 24. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 25. is a

O
Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b


Answer for Question No 38. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 39. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 40. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 41. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 42. is c

O
Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

A
Answer for Question No 55. is d

AH
Answer for Question No 56. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 57. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 58. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 2. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

A
B : FCFS

AH
C : RR

S W
D : Priority

AT
Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

H
A : Parser

M P
B : Code optimization

O
C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management
B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

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Q.no 6. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

AHA
C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

W
D : sequential

T S
Q.no 8. process is trash

H A
A : it spends more time paging than executing

P
B : it spends less time paging than executing

O M
C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor
B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of
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A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

A
C : syntax analysis

AH
D : code optimization

S W
Q.no 13. Examples of system program includes

AT
A : Ticket booking system

P H
B : Banking software

M
C : Online shopping program

O
D : Operating System

Q.no 14. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 15. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread
B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 16. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time
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B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 17. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

AHA
D : secondary storage

W
Q.no 18. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

T S
A : Text editor

A
B : Assembler

P H
C : Linker

O M
D : Loader

Q.no 19. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use


B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language


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C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

AHA
Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

W
A : YACC

T S
B : BISON

A
C : FLEX

P H
D : Iburg

O M
Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro
B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords
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D : context free grammar

Q.no 27. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 28. System programmer needs

A
A : knowledge of only system

AH
B : knowledge of only programming

S W
C : knowledge of both system and application programming

AT
D : knowledge of hardware

H
Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

M P
A : Lexical analysis

O
B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

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Q.no 32. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 33. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

A
B : Preemptive scheduling

AH
C : Shortest job first

S W
D : First come First served

AT
Q.no 34. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

H
A : positioning time

M P
B : random access time

O
C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if


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A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

A
C : Code optimization

AH
D : code generation

S W
Q.no 39. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

AT
A : Indexed files

P H
B : Direct files

M
C : Sequential files

O
D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure
B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement
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B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

A
D : resources

AH
Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms

W
because

T S
A : Segments are better than pages

A
B : Pages are better than segments

P H
C : Segments have variable sizes

O M
D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs


B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 47. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists


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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

A
Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

AH
A : time sharing systems

S W
B : multiprogramming systems

AT
C : multiprocessor systems

H
D : operating systems

M P
Q.no 50. The linker is

O
A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


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C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

A
Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records

AH
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

W
A : Indexed files

T S
B : Direct files

A
C : Sequential files

P H
D : Indexed Sequential files

M
Q.no 55. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

O
A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain


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D : PL domain only

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A
A : compiler

AH
B : assembler

S W
C : loader

AT
D : interpreter

H
Q.no 60. An assembler is

P
A : programming language dependent

O M
B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 5. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 6. is c

AT
Answer for Question No 7. is c

P H
M
Answer for Question No 8. is a

O
Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a


Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 23. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 24. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

A
Answer for Question No 38. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 39. is b

AT S
Answer for Question No 40. is c

P H
Answer for Question No 41. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a


Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

A
Answer for Question No 55. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 56. is a

AT S
Answer for Question No 57. is c

P H
Answer for Question No 58. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

A
B : Syntax trees

AH
C : Three address codes

S W
D : Prefix notation

AT
Q.no 3. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

H
A : PS

M P
B : TOP

O
C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 4. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 5. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls


B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 6. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

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A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 7. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

A
C : scheduler

AH
D : interpreter

S W
Q.no 8. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

AT
A : Myfile.e

H
B : Myfile.yy.c

M P
C : Myfile.lex

O
D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 9. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called
A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

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A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

AHA
D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

W
Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

T S
A : segmentation

H A
B : swapping

P
C : pure demand paging

O M
D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 15. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system
A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions
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B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

A
D : synchronous I/O

AH
Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

S W
A : Less Recently used

AT
B : Least Recurrently used

P H
C : Least Randomly used

M
D : Least Recently used

O
Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.


A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging
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C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

AHA
A : Macro Name table

W
B : Actual Parameter Table

T S
C : Parameter Default table

H A
D : Exapansion time variable Table

P
Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

O M
A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that


A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 26. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP
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D : ORG

Q.no 27. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

AHA
B : primary memory

W
C : secondary memory

T S
D : none of the mentioned

H A
Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

P
A : file extension

O M
B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from


A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In segmentation, each address is specified by


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A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

A
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

AH
D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

S W
Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

AT
A : bridge gap between different applications

P H
B : bridge gap between different users

M
C : bridge gap between programmer and system

O
D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served


B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 37. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

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A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

AHA
D : high level language

W
Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

T S
A : Internal part of a program

H A
B : external functional call

P
C : External reference to the correct link time address

O M
D : None of the above

Q.no 40. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading
A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.
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A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source

A
program as if it were machine language

AH
C : A program that automate the translation of

W
assembly language into machine language

T S
D : A program that accepts a program written in

A
high level language and produces an object
program

P H
Q.no 44. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a

M
virtual memory environment is determined by

O
A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size
C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

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D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 47. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 48. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

AHA
A : Bit tables

W
B : Chained Free Portions

T S
C : Indexing

A
D : Free Block List

P H
Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

O M
A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library


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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A
A : Ambiguous

AH
B : Unambiguous

S W
C : Regular

AT
D : None of these

H
Q.no 54. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

M P
A : works well

O
B : doesnt work well
C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 58. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

AHA
C : Zeroth pass

W
D : Not done by assembler

T S
Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

H A
A : then a deadlock does not exist

P
B : then a deadlock exists

O M
C : then the system is in a safe state
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

A
Answer for Question No 5. is b

AH
Answer for Question No 6. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 23. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 24. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 25. is d

O
Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

A
Answer for Question No 38. is b

AH
Answer for Question No 39. is c

T S W
Answer for Question No 40. is d

P H A
Answer for Question No 41. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 55. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 56. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 57. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 58. is a

O
Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 2. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

AHA
C : priority scheduling algorithm

W
D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

T S
Q.no 3. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a

A
form suitable for execution ?

H
A : Assembler

M P
B : Linking loader

O
C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space


D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

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A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

AHA
D : interpreter

W
Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

T S
A : object code

H A
B : intermediate code

P
C : assembly language code

O M
D : machine code

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place


Q.no 10. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 11. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices


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C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 12. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 13. The function of OS

AHA
A : Resource allocator

W
B : control program

T S
C : create user friendly env.

H A
D : All

P
Q.no 14. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is

M
termed as

O
A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

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C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute

A
are kept on a list called

AH
A : job queue

S W
B : ready queue

AT
C : execution queue

H
D : process queue

M P
Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

O
A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies
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D : cylinders

Q.no 22. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 23. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A
A : Last in first out

AH
B : Shortest service time first

S W
C : Priority by process

AT
D : Random scheduling

H
Q.no 24. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

M P
A : positioning time

O
B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 25. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

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Q.no 27. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 28. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

AHA
C : specifies start of literal table

W
D : specifies start of symbol table

T S
Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each

A
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

H
A : Chained allocation

M P
B : Indexed allocation

O
C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 30. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
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used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

AHA
C : processes are not classified into groups

W
D : processes are classified into groups

T S
Q.no 34. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

H A
A : error

P
B : protection

M
C : valid – invalid

O
D : access

Q.no 35. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 36. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

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A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

AHA
D : it is too complex to implement

W
Q.no 39. What is FIFO algorithm?

T S
A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

H A
B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

P
C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

O M
D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
Q.no 40. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 41. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

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A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

AHA
C : maximum

W
D : approximate

T S
Q.no 44. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

P H
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

O M
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?


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A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

A
C : loader

AH
D : interpreter

S W
Q.no 49. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon

T
as the next page is requested.

A
A : write ahead

P H
B : read ahead

O M
C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 50. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for


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A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

A
C : Linker

AH
D : Assembler

S W
Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records

T
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A
A : Indexed files

P H
B : Direct files

O M
C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as
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A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 58. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

A
C : machine dependant

AH
D : data dependant

S W
Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms

T
because

A
A : Segments are better than pages

P H
B : Pages are better than segments

O M
C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

A
Answer for Question No 5. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 6. is d

T S
Answer for Question No 7. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is c
Answer for Question No 23. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 24. is d

P H A
Answer for Question No 25. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 39. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 40. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 41. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 42. is c

O
Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

A
Answer for Question No 55. is a

AH
Answer for Question No 56. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 57. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 58. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 59. is c

O
Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Q.no 1. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 2. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

AHA
C : RU policy (Recurrently use

W
D : Optimal page replacement policy

T S
Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

H A
A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

P
B : LIFO (Last in First out)

O M
C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O
D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called
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A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 7. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

A
C : RR

AH
D : priority

S W
Q.no 8. A macro can be defined at

AT
A : beginning of a program

P H
B : end of a program

M
C : after initialisation of program

O
D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O
D : DMA

Q.no 10. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 11. LR stands for

A : Left to right
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B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

A
D : Written by host to start a command

AH
Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

S W
A : FIFO

AT
B : LRU

P H
C : LFU

M
D : NRU

O
Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation
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C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 18. Which statement declare the name of macro.

AHA
A : macro prototype

W
B : macro definition

T S
C : macro identification

H A
D : macro call

P
Q.no 19. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

O M
A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

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D : tokens

Q.no 22. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 23. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A
A : synthesizing code

AH
B : gathering information

S W
C : processing macro

AT
D : expanding macro

H
Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

M P
A : Lexical analysis

O
B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
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Q.no 27. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

AHA
B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

W
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

T S
D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

A
Q.no 29. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily

H
suspended is called

M P
A : Non preemptive scheduling

O
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served


Q.no 30. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping
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Q.no 32. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

AHA
B : Chained Free Portion

W
C : Indexing

T S
D : Free Block List

A
Q.no 34. Assembler processes

P H
A : any language

O M
B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 35. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging
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Q.no 37. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 38. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

AHA
C : all of the mentioned

W
D : none of the mentioned

T S
Q.no 39. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

H A
A : Macro Name table

P
B : Actual Parameter Table

O M
C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 40. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 41. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.
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A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

A
C : Relocation and Load Directory

AH
D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

S W
Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

AT
A : Static Linking library

P H
B : Dynamic linking library

M
C : load time linking library

O
D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous
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B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

AHA
Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

W
A : Virtual page number

T S
B : Page frame number

H A
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

P
D : Access right information

O M
Q.no 50. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
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physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 53. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

AHA
C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

W
D : none of the mentioned

T S
Q.no 54. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

H A
A : then a deadlock does not exist

P
B : then a deadlock exists

O M
C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
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no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

A
B : Loader

AH
C : Linker

S W
D : Assembler

AT
Q.no 59. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

H
A : Lex

P
B : Yacc

O M
C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 60. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is d

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is b


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

A
Answer for Question No 22. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 23. is b

AT S
Answer for Question No 24. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 25. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a


Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

A
Answer for Question No 39. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is c

AT S
Answer for Question No 41. is c

P H
Answer for Question No 42. is d

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 56. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 57. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 58. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 59. is b

O
Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

AHA
C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

W
D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

T S
Q.no 3. Output of pass 1 assembler is

H A
A : object code

P
B : intermediate code

O M
C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 4. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e
B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program


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B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 7. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

AHA
Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

W
A : memory access time

T S
B : page-fault rate

H A
C : hit ratio

P
D : none of the mentioned

O M
Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code
C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 11. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

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C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

AHA
A : System call

W
B : API

T S
C : library

H A
D : shell

P
Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm

O M
A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 15. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 16. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

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D : Operating System

Q.no 17. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 18. SJF can be

A
A : preemptive only

AH
B : nonpreemptive only

S W
C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

AT
D : sequential

H
Q.no 19. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is

P
called

O M
A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

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D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

AHA
B : has data in it

W
C : is in the process’s logical address space

S
D : is the system’s physical address space

H AT
Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

P
A : protection algorithm with each page

O M
B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility


D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 26. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value


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Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 28. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

AHA
C : Assembler

W
D : Loader

T S
Q.no 29. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

H A
A : instruction format

P
B : addressing modes

O M
C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 30. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 31. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 32. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with
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A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 33. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

A
C : secondary memory

AH
D : none of the mentioned

S W
Q.no 34. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the

T
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is

A
reversed and servicing continues.

H
A : LOOK

M P
B : SCAN

O
C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 35. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 36. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

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Q.no 37. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 38. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

A
B : Direct files

AH
C : Sequential files

S W
D : Indexed Sequential files

AT
Q.no 39. Operating system is

H
A : system software

M P
B : application software

O
C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 41. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 42. Using a pager

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A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

A
C : Segments have variable sizes

AH
D : Segments have fixed sizes

S W
Q.no 44. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure

T
becomes known is termed as

A
A : Semantic analysis

P H
B : Syntax analysis

O M
C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 45. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

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A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

AHA
D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

W
Q.no 49. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe

S
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system

T
will never enter a deadlock state.

A
A : minimum

P H
B : average

O M
C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. An assembler is


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A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

A
C : is always used before programs are executed

AH
D : translator

S W
Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

AT
A : PL domain and storage domain

P H
B : execution domain and syntax domain
C : PL domain and execution domain

O M
D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.
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A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

AT
A : Optimal replacement

P H
B : LRU

M
C : FIFO

O
D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

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Answer for Question No 1. is b
Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 7. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 8. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 9. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 24. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 25. is d

M P
Answer for Question No 26. is a

O
Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 40. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 41. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 42. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 43. is c

O
Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d


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Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

A
Answer for Question No 56. is a

AH
Answer for Question No 57. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 58. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 59. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

AHA
C : Three address codes

W
D : Prefix notation

T S
Q.no 3. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the

A
details of actually controlling the device.

H
A : Directory Management

M P
B : Logical I/O

O
C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier
B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,


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A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

AHA
C : Interrupts

W
D : DMA

T S
Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

A
A : Stop

P H
B : Return

O M
C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions


B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 11. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

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A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

A
C : access time

AH
D : Transfer time

S W
Q.no 13. The function of OS

AT
A : Resource allocator

H
B : control program

M P
C : create user friendly env.

O
D : All

Q.no 14. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing


B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 15. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 16. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

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B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 17. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

AHA
Q.no 18. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

S W
A : Assembler

AT
B : Linking loader

H
C : Cross compiler

M P
D : Load and Go

O
Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right
B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis
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C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

A
Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

AH
A : greater than segment limit

S W
B : between 0 and segment limit

AT
C : between 0 and the segment number

H
D : greater than the segment number

M P
Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

O
A : positioning time
B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 26. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

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D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

AHA
B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

W
C : <macro name>

T S
D : <call macro>

H A
Q.no 29. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

M P
A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

O
B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 30. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse


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Q.no 32. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

AHA
B : Chained Free Portion

W
C : Indexing

T S
D : Free Block List

A
Q.no 34. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

P H
A : synthesizing code

M
B : gathering information

O
C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 35. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 36. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

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Q.no 37. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

AHA
C : valid – invalid

W
D : access

T S
Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file

A
management system must enforce discipline. This is

H
A : Simultaneous access

P
B : Compaction

O M
C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?


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A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 43. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

AHA
C : segmentation fault occurs

W
D : no error occurs

T S
Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A
A : Absolute Loader

P H
B : Loader

M
C : Linker

O
D : Assembler

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '
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A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

A
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

AH
D : allocate space for literals

S W
Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

AT
A : Stack

H
B : Queue

P
C : Linked list

O M
D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 52. YACC stands for

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A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 53. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

AHA
C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

S W
D : A program that accepts a program written in
high level language and produces an object

T
program

A
Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

P H
A : the page is not legal

O M
B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system


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Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

A
B : LRU

AH
C : FIFO

S W
D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

T
Q.no 59. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

H A
A : Second pass

P
B : First pass

O M
C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 60. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is c

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is c

A
Answer for Question No 8. is d

P H
Answer for Question No 9. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is c

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 24. is c

H A
Answer for Question No 25. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 26. is b

O
Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

A
Answer for Question No 39. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is a

S
Answer for Question No 41. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 42. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 43. is a

O
Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b


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Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

A
Answer for Question No 56. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 57. is c

T S
Answer for Question No 58. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 59. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 2. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

A
B : shortest job scheduling

AH
C : priority scheduling

S W
D : Round Robin

AT
Q.no 3. In memory-mapped I/O

H
A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

M P
B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

O
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation
Q.no 4. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 5. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
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as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

AHA
C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

W
D : No advantage as such

T S
Q.no 8. Virtual memory is

H A
A : An extremely large main memory

P
B : An extremely large secondary memory

O M
C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 11. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called
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A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 12. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

A
C : Single BUS structure

AH
D : Node to Node BUS structure

S W
Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

AT
A : semantic analysis

P H
B : code generation

M
C : syntax analysis

O
D : code optimization
Q.no 14. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 15. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 16. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

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B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

AHA
Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

W
A : object code

T S
B : intermediate code

H A
C : assembly language code

P
D : machine code

O M
Q.no 19. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a
A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 21. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


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D : a key & value

Q.no 22. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A
A : Dos

AH
B : Unix

S W
C : System software

AT
D : Application software

H
Q.no 24. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

P
A : key

O M
B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 25. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

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Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

AHA
C : MACRO

W
D : none of the mentioned

T S
Q.no 29. System programmer needs

H A
A : knowledge of only system

P
B : knowledge of only programming

M
C : knowledge of both system and application programming

O
D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
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B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

AHA
Q.no 34. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

W
A : protection algorithm with each page

T S
B : restricted access rights to users

H A
C : restriction on page visibility

P
D : protection bit with each page

O M
Q.no 35. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

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C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 39. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

AHA
A : First come First served

W
B : Shortest Job First

T S
C : Earliest Deadline First

A
D : Longest Job First

P H
Q.no 40. Input of Lex is ?

M
A : set to regular expression

O
B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

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D : add-front

Q.no 43. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

AHA
B : Loader

W
C : Linker

S
D : Assembler

AT
Q.no 45. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

P H
A : Virtual page number

M
B : Page frame number

O
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 48. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
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requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 49. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

A
B : END

AH
C : ORIGIN

W
D : Both START and ORIGIN

T S
Q.no 50. The linker is

H A
A : is same as the loader

P
B : is required to create a load module

O M
C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

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Q.no 53. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 54. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

A
B : Unambiguous

AH
C : Regular

S W
D : None of these

AT
Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in

H
physical memory, then what occurs

P
A : page fault occurs

O M
B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

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Q.no 58. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 59. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

A
B : system storage state

AH
C : operating system

S W
D : resources

AT
Q.no 60. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

P H
A : compiler

M
B : assembler

O
C : loader

D : interpreter

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 5. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 6. is b

AT
Answer for Question No 7. is c

P H
M
Answer for Question No 8. is c

O
Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c


Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 23. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 24. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

A
Answer for Question No 38. is d

W AH
Answer for Question No 39. is b

AT S
Answer for Question No 40. is a

P H
Answer for Question No 41. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a


Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

A
Answer for Question No 55. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 56. is b

AT S
Answer for Question No 57. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 58. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

A
B : swapping

AH
C : pure demand paging

S W
D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

AT
Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm

H
A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

M P
B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

O
C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
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compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 7. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

AHA
C : Myfile.lex

W
D : Myfile.obj

T S
Q.no 8. process is trash

H A
A : it spends more time paging than executing

P
B : it spends less time paging than executing

O M
C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with
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A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

A
C : do not need a linker

AH
D : can be loaded only at one specific location

S W
Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

AT
A : FIFO

P H
B : LRU

M
C : LFU

O
D : NRU

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 16. which of the following is not a type of translator?

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A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 17. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

AHA
D : Operating System

W
Q.no 18. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

T S
A : SJF-P

H A
B : FCFS

P
C : RR

O M
D : Priority

Q.no 19. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above


Q.no 20. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 21. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis


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C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 22. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

A
Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is

AH
concerned with

W
A : assigning ready processes to CPU

T S
B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

A
C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

P H
D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

O M
Q.no 24. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 25. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 26. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time
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D : rotational latency

Q.no 27. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A
A : Fixed location given by proframmer

AH
B : Any location which is free

S W
C : Fixed location given by assembler

AT
D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

H
Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each

P
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

O M
A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 30. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 31. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

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D : Demand paging

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for

A
translating virtual address to physical address because

AH
A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

S W
B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

AT
C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

H
D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

M P
Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

O
A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system


D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 36. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

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C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 37. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

A
Q.no 38. START pseudo code is used for

AH
A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

S W
B : Specifying start of a Register Table

AT
C : specifies start of literal table

H
D : specifies start of symbol table

M P
Q.no 39. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces

O
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer
C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


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program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

AHA
C : Sequential files

W
D : Indexed Sequential files

S
Q.no 43. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a

T
contiguous group of free blocks.

H A
A : Bit tables

M P
B : Chained Free Portions

O
C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


Q.no 44. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

AHA
C : Zeroth pass

W
D : Not done by assembler

T S
Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

H A
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

P
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

O M
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system


Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

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A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 52. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

A
C : Regular analysis

AH
D : General analysis

S W
Q.no 53. An imperative statement

AT
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

H
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

M P
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

O
D : allocate space for literals
Q.no 54. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 55. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available


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B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

A
D : both 1 & 3

AH
Q.no 58. The linker is

S W
A : is same as the loader

AT
B : is required to create a load module

P H
C : is always used before programs are executed

M
D : translator

O
Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b


Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 24. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 25. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 39. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 40. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 41. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 42. is b

O
Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 56. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 57. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 58. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 59. is b

O
Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

A
B : Multiple BUS structure

AH
C : Single BUS structure

S W
D : Node to Node BUS structure

AT
Q.no 3. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

P H
A : demand paging

O M
B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory
D : secondary memory

Q.no 4. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
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specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

AHA
C : access time

W
D : Transfer time

T S
Q.no 8. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

H A
A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

P
B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

O M
C : RU policy (Recurrently use
D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 9. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 10. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 11. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

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A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 12. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

AHA
D : anywhere in a program

W
Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

T S
A : Text editor

H A
B : Assembler

P
C : Linker

O M
D : Loader

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 16. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

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B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 17. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

AHA
Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

W
A : Less Recently used

T S
B : Least Recurrently used

H A
C : Least Randomly used

P
D : Least Recently used

O M
Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro


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C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. What is FIFO algorithm?

AHA
A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

W
B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

T S
C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

H A
D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

P
Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

M
A : Indexed files

O
B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 26. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 27. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 28. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

AHA
B : classification of ready queue is permanent

W
C : processes are not classified into groups

T S
D : processes are classified into groups

H A
Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

P
A : greater than segment limit

O M
B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

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Q.no 32. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 33. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

AHA
C : FLEX

W
D : Iburg

T S
Q.no 34. What is Scheduling?

A
A : allowing a job to use the processor

P H
B : making proper use of processor

M
C : all of the mentioned

O
D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 37. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

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A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

AHA
D : high level language

W
Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

S
A : Compiler

AT
B : Interpreter

P H
C : Assembler

M
D : Loader

O
Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

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A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

A
C : Indexing

AH
D : Free Block List

W
Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

T S
A : PL domain and storage domain

H A
B : execution domain and syntax domain

P
C : PL domain and execution domain

O M
D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous
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B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

AHA
Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

W
A : resource allocation state

T S
B : system storage state

H A
C : operating system

P
D : resources

O M
Q.no 50. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 51. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 52. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files
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C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 53. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

A
Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

AH
A : Absolute Loader

W
B : Loader

T S
C : Linker

H A
D : Assembler

P
Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

O M
A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

A
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

AH
Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in

W
physical memory, then what occurs

T S
A : page fault occurs

H A
B : fatal error occurs

P
C : segmentation fault occurs

O M
D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a


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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

A
Answer for Question No 22. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 23. is b

AT S
Answer for Question No 24. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 25. is a

M
Answer for Question No 26. is d

O
Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

A
Answer for Question No 39. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is b

AT S
Answer for Question No 41. is c

P H
Answer for Question No 42. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 56. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 57. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 58. is b

P
Answer for Question No 59. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

AHA
C : inbuilt macro call

W
D : inherited macro call

T S
Q.no 3. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

H A
A : Postfix notation

P
B : Syntax trees

O M
C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 5. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
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as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

AHA
C : Online shopping program

W
D : Operating System

T S
Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

H A
A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

P
B : round robin scheduling algorithm

O M
C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 11. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is


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A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

AHA
C : execution queue

W
D : process queue

T S
Q.no 13. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A
A : To indicate the purpose of the code

P H
B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

M
C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

O
D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 14. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread
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B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 17. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

A
D : Both 1 & 3

AH
Q.no 18. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

S W
A : semantic analysis

AT
B : code generation

P H
C : syntax analysis

M
D : code optimization

O
Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 21. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

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B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 22. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

A
D : Loader

AH
Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary

W
memory according to the requirement.

T S
A : Paging

A
B : Demand paging

P H
C : Segmentation

M
D : Swapping

O
Q.no 24. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 25. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 26. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

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B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

A
D : First come First served

AH
Q.no 28. Input to code generator is

S W
A : Source code

AT
B : Intermediate code

H
C : Target code

P
D : tokens

O M
Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 31. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

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C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 32. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a

A
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

AH
A : special support from hardware is required

S W
B : special support from operating system is essential

T
C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

H A
D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or

P
operating system

M
Q.no 34. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

O
A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP
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D : ORG

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A
A : assigning ready processes to CPU

AH
B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

W
C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

T S
D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

H A
Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

P
A : Internal part of a program

O M
B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 40. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

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D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

AHA
B : Page frame number

W
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

T S
D : Access right information

H A
Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a

P
contiguous group of free blocks.

M
A : Bit tables

O
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant
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Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

AHA
C : Iburg

W
D : both 1 & 3

T S
Q.no 49. YACC stands for

H A
A : yet accept compiler constructs

P
B : yet accept compiler compiler

O M
C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
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virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

AHA
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

W
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

T S
Q.no 54. The linker is

H A
A : is same as the loader

P
B : is required to create a load module

O M
C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process


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Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 58. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

A
B : assembler

AH
C : loader

W
D : interpreter

T S
Q.no 59. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion

A
of the disk.

P H
A : Bit tables

M
B : Chained Free Portions

O
C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 5. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 6. is b

AT
Answer for Question No 7. is d

P H
M
Answer for Question No 8. is b

O
Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

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Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

A
Answer for Question No 20. is d

AH
Answer for Question No 21. is d

T S W
Answer for Question No 22. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 23. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

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Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 37. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 38. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 39. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 40. is b

O
Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


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Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

A
Answer for Question No 53. is c

AH
Answer for Question No 54. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 55. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 56. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 2. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

A
B : Linking loader

AH
C : Cross compiler

S W
D : Load and Go

AT
Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

H
A : END

P
B : ENDS

O M
C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 6. Virtual memory is


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A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

A
C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

AH
D : sequential

S W
Q.no 8. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

AT
A : Lexical analyser

H
B : Syntactic Analyser

P
C : Semantic Analyser

O M
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 11. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

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B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 12. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

AHA
Q.no 13. In memory-mapped I/O

W
A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

T S
B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

H A
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

P
D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

O M
Q.no 14. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling
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C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 18. Expansion time variables are used

AHA
A : Before expansion of macro calls

W
B : only during expansion of macro calls

S
C : After expansion of macro calls

AT
D : Any one of the above

P H
Q.no 19. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

M
A : non-blocking I/O

O
B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 20. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro
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Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 23. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

A
B : random access time

AH
C : seek time

W
D : rotational latency

T S
Q.no 24. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

H A
A : instruction format

P
B : addressing modes

O M
C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 27. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

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A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

AHA
D : none of the mentioned

W
Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

T S
A : First come First served

H A
B : Shortest Job First

P
C : Earliest Deadline First

O M
D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page


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B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 33. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

AHA
Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

S W
B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

AT
C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

P H
D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

M
Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

O
A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 37. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name


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D : type & extension

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 39. Operating system is

A
A : system software

AH
B : application software

W
C : both 1 & 2

T S
D : not a software

H A
Q.no 40. System programmer needs

P
A : knowledge of only system

O M
B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

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Q.no 43. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files


Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

AHA
B : Loader

C : Linker

S W
D : Assembler

AT
Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

P H
A : works well

M
B : doesnt work well

O
C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.
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A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -


A : Stack

B : Queue

A
C : Linked list

AH
D : Double linked list

W
Q.no 50. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

T S
A : then a deadlock does not exist

H A
B : then a deadlock exists

P
C : then the system is in a safe state

O M
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because
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A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 54. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

A
B : A program that appears to execute a source

AH
program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of

W
assembly language into machine language

T S
D : A program that accepts a program written in

A
high level language and produces an object

H
program

P
Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

O M
A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading
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D : linking

Q.no 58. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 59. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system

A
will never enter a deadlock state.

AH
A : minimum

W
B : average

T S
C : maximum

H A
D : approximate

P
Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

O M
A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d


Answer for Question No 5. is a

A
Answer for Question No 6. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 7. is c

AT S
Answer for Question No 8. is a

P H
Answer for Question No 9. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 24. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 25. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 26. is a

O
Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c


Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 40. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 41. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 42. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 43. is b

O
Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

A
Answer for Question No 56. is c

AH
Answer for Question No 57. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 58. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 59. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. It is used as an index into the page table.

A
A : frame bit

AH
B : page number

S W
C : page offset

AT
D : frame offset

H
Q.no 3. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

M P
A : SJF-P

O
B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 4. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 5. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes
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Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

AHA
B : spreadsheet

W
C : desktop publishing

T S
D : Unix

A
Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

P H
A : memory access time

M
B : page-fault rate

O
C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. A macro is


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A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

AHA
C : execution queue

W
D : process queue

T S
Q.no 13. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A
A : PS

P H
B : TOP

M
C : fork

O
D : kill

Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. LR stands for


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A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

A
C : page fault occurs

AH
D : swapping can not take place

S W
Q.no 18. The data-in register of I/O port is

AT
A : Read by host to get input

H
B : Read by controller to get input

P
C : Written by host to send output

O M
D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation
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B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 22. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

A
D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or

AH
operating system

W
Q.no 23. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

S
A : Reduce - Reduce

AT
B : Shift - Reduce

P H
C : Shift - Shift

M
D : Both A and B

O
Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 26. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

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B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

A
D : First come First served

AH
Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

W
A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

T S
B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

H A
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

P
D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

O M
Q.no 29. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 30. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

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C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

A
Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of

AH
A : Dos

W
B : Unix

T S
C : System software

H A
D : Application software

P
Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

O M
A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

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D : rotational latency

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

AHA
B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

S W
D : it is too complex to implement

AT
Q.no 39. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

P H
A : error

M
B : protection

O
C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 40. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


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Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by
A : the instruction set architecture

AHA
B : page size

C : physical memory size

S W
D : number of processes in memory

AT
Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

P H
A : Static Linking library

M
B : Dynamic linking library

O
C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The linker is


A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

AHA
C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

S W
Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request

T
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

H A
A : resources currently available

P
B : processes that have previously been in the system

O M
C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 51. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 52. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

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A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 53. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are
A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

AHA
D : Access right information

Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

S W
A : the page is not legal

AT
B : the page is illegal

P H
C : the page is in memory

M
D : the page is not in memory

O
Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex
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B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for


A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

AHA
Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

W
A : page fault occurs

T S
B : fatal error occurs

H A
C : segmentation fault occurs

P
D : no error occurs

O M
Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 5. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 6. is c

AT
Answer for Question No 7. is a

P H
M
Answer for Question No 8. is b

O
Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d


Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is d

T S W
Answer for Question No 23. is d

P H A
Answer for Question No 24. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

A
Answer for Question No 38. is b

W AH
Answer for Question No 39. is c

AT S
Answer for Question No 40. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 41. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a


Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c


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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

A
Answer for Question No 55. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 56. is a

AT S
Answer for Question No 57. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 58. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Q.no 1. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

A
A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

AH
B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

S W
C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

AT
D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

H
Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

P
A : segmentation

O M
B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 4. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

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Q.no 6. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 7. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

A
B : shortest job scheduling

AH
C : priority scheduling

S W
D : Round Robin

AT
Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

H
A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

P
B : size of pages is reduced

O M
C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 11. Output of pass 1 assembler is


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A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 12. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

A
C : inbuilt macro call

AH
D : inherited macro call

S W
Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at

T
A : beginning of a program

H A
B : end of a program

P
C : after initialisation of program

O M
D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 15. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 16. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END
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B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

AHA
Q.no 18. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.
A : Myfile.e

S W
B : Myfile.yy.c

AT
C : Myfile.lex

P H
D : Myfile.obj

M
Q.no 19. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is

O
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 20. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 21. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

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C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 22. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 23. Assembler processes

AHA
A : any language

B : assembly language

S W
C : c language

AT
D : high level language

P H
Q.no 24. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

M
A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the

O
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

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D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 27. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A
A : Simultaneous access

AH
B : Compaction

W
C : External Fragmentation

T S
D : Division

H A
Q.no 29. Operating system is

P
A : system software

O M
B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping
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Q.no 32. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of
A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

AHA
C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

S W
Q.no 34. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

AT
A : positioning time

P H
B : random access time

M
C : seek time

O
D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue


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B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. A self relocating program in one which


A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

A
D : Both 1 & 2

AH
Q.no 39. What is Scheduling?

W
A : allowing a job to use the processor

T S
B : making proper use of processor

H A
C : all of the mentioned

P
D : none of the mentioned

O M
Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

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B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

A
C : Indexing

AH
D : Free Block List

W
Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

T S
A : PL domain and storage domain

H A
B : execution domain and syntax domain

P
C : PL domain and execution domain

O M
D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

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A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system
D : resources

Q.no 48. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

AHA
D : None of these

Q.no 49. An imperative statement

S W
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

AT
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

P H
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

M
D : allocate space for literals

O
Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass
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C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler


Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 54. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

AHA
A : compilation

B : execution

S W
C : loading

AT
D : linking

P H
Q.no 55. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

O M
A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

A
D : A program that accepts a program written in
high level language and produces an object

AH
program

W
Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

T S
A : Optimal replacement

H A
B : LRU

P
C : FIFO

O M
D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

A
Answer for Question No 5. is d

AH
Answer for Question No 6. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is d

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 22. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 23. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 24. is d

M P
Answer for Question No 25. is a

O
Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

A
Answer for Question No 38. is c

AH
Answer for Question No 39. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 40. is d

P H A
Answer for Question No 41. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 55. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 56. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 57. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 58. is b

O
Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 2. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

AHA
A : Swapping
B : Spooling

S W
C : Semaphore

AT
D : Scheduler

P H
Q.no 3. LRU stands for?

M
A : Less Recently used

O
B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 4. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 5. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset
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Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

A
B : Single buffer

AH
C : Linear buffer

W
D : Circular buffer

T S
Q.no 8. In memory-mapped I/O

H A
A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

P
B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

O M
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?
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A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 12. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype
B : macro definition

A
C : macro identification

AH
D : macro call

W
Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

T S
A : semantic analysis

H A
B : code generation

P
C : syntax analysis

O M
D : code optimization

Q.no 14. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 15. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 16. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue
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B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 17. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling
B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

AHA
Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

S W
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

AT
C : removes comments and white spaces

P H
D : Both 1 & 3

M
Q.no 19. The pager concerns with the

O
A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 20. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

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C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

AHA
A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

S W
C : restriction on page visibility

AT
D : protection bit with each page

P H
Q.no 24. Lexemes can be referred to as

M
A : elements of lexicography

O
B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First


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Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 28. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

A
B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

AH
C : it is too complex to understand

W
D : it is too complex to implement

T S
Q.no 29. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

H A
A : is in the TLB

P
B : has data in it

O M
C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 32. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

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A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 33. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

A
C : specifies start of literal table

AH
D : specifies start of symbol table

W
Q.no 34. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

T S
A : Lexical analysis

H A
B : Syntax analysis

P
C : . Semantic analysis

O M
D : Structure analysis

Q.no 35. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 36. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 37. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

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B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 38. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

A
D : swapping can not take place

AH
Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

W
A : Compiler

T S
B : Interpreter

H A
C : Assembler

P
D : Loader

O M
Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

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C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN


Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 44. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

AHA
A : Identifier

B : Number

S W
C : Keyword

AT
D : operator

P H
Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

M
A : Lex

O
B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

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D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

AHA
A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

S W
C : segmentation fault occurs

AT
D : no error occurs

P H
Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

O M
A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 52. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

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D : the page is not in memory
Q.no 53. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A
A : compiler

AH
B : assembler

W
C : loader

T S
D : interpreter

H A
Q.no 55. YACC stands for

P
A : yet accept compiler constructs

O M
B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 57. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A
A : Stack

AH
B : Queue

W
C : Linked list

T S
D : Double linked list

H A
Q.no 60. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is

P
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

O M
A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 7. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 8. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 9. is b

O
Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a


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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

A
Answer for Question No 22. is b

AH
Answer for Question No 23. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 24. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 25. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 26. is b

O
Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

A
Answer for Question No 39. is c

AH
Answer for Question No 40. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 41. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 42. is d

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d


Answer for Question No 56. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 57. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 58. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 59. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 2. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A
A : assembler

AH
B : compiler

S W
C : loader

AT
D : interpreter

P H
Q.no 3. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

O M
A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

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D : Loader

Q.no 6. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 7. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

AHA
B : set of special instructions

W
C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

S
D : same as function

AT
Q.no 8. Assembly language programs are written using

P H
A : Hex code

M
B : Mnenonics

O
C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 11. A macro can be defined at


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A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 12. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

AHA
D : priority
Q.no 13. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

S W
A : SJF-P

AT
B : FCFS

P H
C : RR

M
D : Priority

O
Q.no 14. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 15. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 16. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure


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C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm

AHA
A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

S W
C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

AT
D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

P H
Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

M
A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

O
B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

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D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of


A : Dos

AHA
B : Unix

C : System software

S W
D : Application software

AT
Q.no 24. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

P H
A : Fixed location given by proframmer

M
B : Any location which is free

O
C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system
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Q.no 27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?


A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

A
B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

AH
C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

W
D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

T S
Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

H A
A : Identifiers

P
B : Constants

O M
C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?
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A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 33. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be


A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

A
C : between 0 and the segment number

AH
D : greater than the segment number

W
Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the

S
disk arm from its current position is

AT
A : Last in first out

P H
B : Shortest service time first

M
C : Priority by process

O
D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 36. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 37. What is Scheduling?

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A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. in which Swap space exists


A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

AHA
D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

S W
A : any language

AT
B : assembly language

P H
C : c language

M
D : high level language

O
Q.no 40. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
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Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters


D : Registers

Q.no 43. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

AHA
B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

S W
D : PL domain only

AT
Q.no 44. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

P H
A : Ambiguous

M
B : Unambiguous

O
C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files


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Q.no 47. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well


D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 48. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

A
B : then a deadlock exists

AH
C : then the system is in a safe state

W
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

T S
Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a

A
circular wait condition can never exist.

P H
A : resource allocation state

M
B : system storage state

O
C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking
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Q.no 52. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 53. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

A
B : First pass

AH
C : Zeroth pass

W
D : Not done by assembler

T S
Q.no 54. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms

A
because

P H
A : Segments are better than pages

M
B : Pages are better than segments

O
C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 55. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. The linker is


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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is d

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is c


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

A
Answer for Question No 22. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 23. is b

AT S
Answer for Question No 24. is a

P H
Answer for Question No 25. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b


Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

A
Answer for Question No 39. is b

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is c

AT S
Answer for Question No 41. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 42. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 56. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 57. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 58. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 59. is a

O
Answer for Question No 60. is a

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A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module


C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

A
C : Linker

AH
D : Assembler

W
Q.no 59. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

T S
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

H A
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

P
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

O M
D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 60. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 1. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

AHA
B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices
C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

S W
D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

AT
Q.no 3. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

P H
A : seek time

M
B : rotational delay

O
C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
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specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

AHA
C : In both the passes

W
D : at the time of synthesis

T S
Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

H A
A : memory access time

P
B : page-fault rate

O M
C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a


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A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 12. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

AHA
C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

S W
Q.no 13. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

AT
A : Parser

P H
B : Code optimization

M
C : Code generator

O
D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 14. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system
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A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 17. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

AHA
C : create user friendly env.

D : All

S W
Q.no 18. Literal table stores

AT
A : Numbers from code

P H
B : variables from code

M
C : instruction

O
D : Opcodes

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 21. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications


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B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 22. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization
D : code generation

AHA
Q.no 23. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

W
A : Last in first out

T S
B : Shortest service time first

H A
C : SCAN

P
D : Circular SCAN

O M
Q.no 24. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

AHA
A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

W
B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

T S
C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

H A
D : Both 1 & 2

P
Q.no 29. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a

M
contiguous group of free blocks.

O
A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 30. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 31. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data
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D : ASCII data

Q.no 32. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 33. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

AHA
A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

S W
C : Contiguous allocation

AT
D : Variable allocation

P H
Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

M
A : Source code

O
B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

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D : priority

Q.no 37. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 38. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

AHA
A : Paging

B : Demand paging

S W
C : Segmentation

AT
D : Swapping

P H
Q.no 39. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

O M
A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
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D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. An assembler is

A
A : programming language dependent

AH
B : syntax dependant

S W
C : machine dependant

AT
D : data dependant

P H
Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

M
A : Stack

O
B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


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assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
Q.no 47. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

A
D : future requests and releases of each process

AH
Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

W
A : compiler

T S
B : assembler

H A
C : loader

P
D : interpreter

O M
Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 50. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number
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C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

AHA
Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

S W
B : decreases the swap time

AT
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

P H
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

M
Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure

O
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 56. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

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C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

A
Q.no 58. YACC stands for

AH
A : yet accept compiler constructs

W
B : yet accept compiler compiler

T S
C : yet another compiler constructs

H A
D : yet another compiler compiler

P
Q.no 59. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

O M
A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 60. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

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Answer for Question No 1. is b
Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 7. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 8. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 9. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is d

S W
Answer for Question No 24. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 25. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 26. is d

O
Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

AHA
Answer for Question No 40. is c

S W
Answer for Question No 41. is d

H AT
Answer for Question No 42. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 43. is c

O
Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

A
Answer for Question No 56. is b

AH
Answer for Question No 57. is c

T S W
Answer for Question No 58. is d

P H A
Answer for Question No 59. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 2. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A
A : System call

AH
B : API

W
C : library

T S
D : shell

H A
Q.no 3. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

P
A : FIFO

O M
B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter
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Q.no 6. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.


A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

AHA
C : macro identification

D : macro call

S W
Q.no 8. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

AT
A : Star BUS structure

P H
B : Multiple BUS structure

M
C : Single BUS structure

O
D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 9. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority


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B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 12. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?
A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

A
D : DMA

AH
Q.no 13. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

W
A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

T S
B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

H A
C : RU policy (Recurrently use

P
D : Optimal page replacement policy

O M
Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 16. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

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B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 17. process is trash


A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

AHA
Q.no 18. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

S W
B : set of special instructions

AT
C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

P H
D : same as function

M
Q.no 19. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and

O
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called
A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

AHA
A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

S W
C : is in the process’s logical address space

AT
D : is the system’s physical address space

P H
Q.no 24. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

O M
A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

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D : Loader

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if


A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

AHA
B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

S W
D : defining a macro

AT
Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

P H
A : synthesizing code

M
B : gathering information

O
C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
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disk arm from its current position is
A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

AHA
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

S W
Q.no 34. The file name is generally split into two parts :

AT
A : name & identifier

P H
B : identifier & type

M
C : extension & name

O
D : type & extension

Q.no 35. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 37. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system


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B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

A
D : it is too complex to implement

AH
Q.no 39. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

W
A : START

T S
B : BEGIN

H A
C : MACRO

P
D : none of the mentioned

O M
Q.no 40. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

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B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 43. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

A
D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

AH
Q.no 44. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

S W
A : Counters

AT
B : RAM & Registers

P H
C : Stack & Counters

M
D : Registers

O
Q.no 45. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

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B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

AHA
D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

S W
A : Second pass

AT
B : First pass

P H
C : Zeroth pass

M
D : Not done by assembler

O
Q.no 50. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

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B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

AHA
D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is

W
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the

S
length of the first portion.

AT
A : Bit tables

P H
B : Chained Free Portions

M
C : Indexing

O
D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 57. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system

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will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 58. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

AHA
B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

S W
D : Segments have fixed sizes

AT
Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

P H
A : Absolute Loader

M
B : Loader

O
C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is c

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is a

A
Answer for Question No 8. is c

P H
Answer for Question No 9. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is c

T S W
Answer for Question No 24. is c

H A
Answer for Question No 25. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 26. is c

O
Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

A
Answer for Question No 39. is c

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is a

S
Answer for Question No 41. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 42. is c

M P
Answer for Question No 43. is c

O
Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

A
Answer for Question No 56. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 57. is c

T S
Answer for Question No 58. is c

P H A
Answer for Question No 59. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage
Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A
A : beginning of a program

AH
B : end of a program

S W
C : after initialisation of program

AT
D : anywhere in a program

P H
Q.no 3. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

M
A : Lexical analyser

O
B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 4. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned


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Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

AHA
A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

S W
C : auxiliary memory

AT
D : secondary memory

P H
Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

O M
A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 9. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 10. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

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D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 11. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location


Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

AHA
B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

S W
D : No advantage as such

AT
Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

P H
A : segmentation

M
B : swapping

O
C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

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Q.no 16. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader
Q.no 17. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

AHA
C : RR

D : Priority

S W
Q.no 18. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

AT
A : pass 1 of assembler

P H
B : pass 2 of assembler

M
C : In both the passes

O
D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 21. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

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A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse


Q.no 22. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

AHA
D : Application software

Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary

W
memory according to the requirement.

T S
A : Paging

H A
B : Demand paging

P
C : Segmentation

O M
D : Swapping

Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 26. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

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B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders
Q.no 27. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

AHA
Q.no 28. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

W
A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

T S
B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

H A
C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

P
D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

O M
Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


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C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

A
D : Division

AH
Q.no 33. Format of macro call is

W
A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

T S
B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

H A
C : <macro name>

P
D : <call macro>

O M
Q.no 34. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 35. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 36. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word


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B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 37. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

AHA
D : priority Process

Q.no 38. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

S W
A : Non-preemptive scheduling

AT
B : Preemptive scheduling

P H
C : All of the mentioned

M
D : processes are classified into groups

O
Q.no 39. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 40. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 41. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis
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B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis
D : General analysis

Q.no 42. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

AHA
Q.no 43. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

S W
B : yet accept compiler compiler

AT
C : yet another compiler constructs

P H
D : yet another compiler compiler

M
Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

O
A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number


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D : Access right information

Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A
A : Identifier

AH
B : Number

W
C : Keyword

T S
D : operator

H A
Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request

P
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

M
A : resources currently available

O
B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

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D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in

A
high level language and produces an object
program

AH
Q.no 53. An assembler is

S W
A : programming language dependent

AT
B : syntax dependant

P H
C : machine dependant

M
D : data dependant

O
Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 55. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc
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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

AHA
Q.no 58. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

S W
A : Bit tables

AT
B : Chained Free Portions

P H
C : Indexing

M
D : Free Block List

O
Q.no 59. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 60. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a


Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is b

T S W
Answer for Question No 24. is d

P H A
Answer for Question No 25. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d


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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

A
Answer for Question No 39. is b

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is a

AT S
Answer for Question No 41. is a

P H
Answer for Question No 42. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b


Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

A
Answer for Question No 56. is b

W AH
Answer for Question No 57. is a

AT S
Answer for Question No 58. is b

P H
Answer for Question No 59. is b

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Q.no 1. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code
B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 2. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A
A : Dispatcher

AH
B : interrupt

S W
C : scheduler

AT
D : interpreter

P H
Q.no 3. which of the following is not a type of translator?

M
A : assembler

O
B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code
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Q.no 6. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler
B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 7. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

A
B : only during expansion of macro calls

AH
C : After expansion of macro calls

W
D : Any one of the above

T S
Q.no 8. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are

A
kept on a list called

P H
A : job queue

M
B : ready queue

O
C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 9. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix
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Q.no 11. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.
A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

A
B : rotational delay

AH
C : access time

W
D : Transfer time

T S
Q.no 13. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory

A
of computer system

P H
A : Swapping

M
B : Spooling

O
C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?


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A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 17. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

A
C : Written by host to send output

AH
D : Written by host to start a command

W
Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

T S
A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

H A
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

P
C : removes comments and white spaces

O M
D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 20. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

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B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

A
D : defining a macro

AH
Q.no 23. File type can be represented by

W
A : file extension

T S
B : file identifier

H A
C : file name

P
D : none of the mentioned

O M
Q.no 24. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

A
D : specifies start of symbol table

AH
Q.no 28. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

W
A : positioning time

T S
B : random access time

H A
C : seek time

P
D : rotational latency

O M
Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 31. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

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C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 32. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

A
Q.no 33. What is Scheduling?

AH
A : allowing a job to use the processor

W
B : making proper use of processor

T S
C : all of the mentioned

H A
D : none of the mentioned

P
Q.no 34. What is FIFO algorithm?

O M
A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 35. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

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D : access

Q.no 37. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 38. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A
A : greater than segment limit

AH
B : between 0 and segment limit

W
C : between 0 and the segment number

T S
D : greater than the segment number

H A
Q.no 39. A process is thrashing if

P
A : it is spending more time paging than executing

O M
B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 40. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

AHA
A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

S W
C : Segments have variable sizes

AT
D : Segments have fixed sizes

P H
Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

M
A : then a deadlock does not exist

O
B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

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D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

AHA
A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

S W
C : Regular analysis

AT
D : General analysis

P H
Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

M
A : Second pass

O
B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

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C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

AHA
Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

S W
B : END

AT
C : ORIGIN

P H
D : Both START and ORIGIN

M
Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

O
A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

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C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

AHA
Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

S W
B : Unambiguous

AT
C : Regular

P H
D : None of these

M
Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

O
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 7. is b

H AT
Answer for Question No 8. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 9. is a

O
Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a


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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c


Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

AHA
Answer for Question No 23. is a

S W
Answer for Question No 24. is c

H AT
Answer for Question No 25. is a

M P
Answer for Question No 26. is c

O
Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

A
Answer for Question No 39. is a

AH
Answer for Question No 40. is c

T S W
Answer for Question No 41. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 42. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 57. is c

T S W
Answer for Question No 58. is a

P H A
Answer for Question No 59. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 2. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A
A : END

AH
B : ENDS

W
C : MEND

T S
D : ENDD

H A
Q.no 3. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

P
A : referential macro call

O M
B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 4. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 5. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

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Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging


D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

AHA
C : RR

D : Priority

S W
Q.no 8. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

AT
A : To indicate the purpose of the code

P H
B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

M
C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

O
D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype
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B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 12. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

A
D : Echoing

AH
Q.no 13. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

S W
A : Exceptions

AT
B : Signal handling

P H
C : Interrupts

M
D : DMA

O
Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 16. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program
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C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 17. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

AHA
Q.no 18. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

S W
B : An extremely large secondary memory

AT
C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

P H
D : A type of memory used in super computers

M
Q.no 19. Literal table stores

O
A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 20. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords
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D : context free grammar
Q.no 22. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A
A : assigning ready processes to CPU

AH
B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

W
C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

T S
D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

H A
Q.no 24. Input of Lex is ?

P
A : set to regular expression

O M
B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

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D : Loader

Q.no 27. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 28. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A
A : Lexical analysis

AH
B : Syntax analysis

W
C : . Semantic analysis

T S
D : Structure analysis

H A
Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

P
A : First come First served

O M
B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 31. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

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D : Loader

Q.no 32. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 33. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A
A : Fixed location given by proframmer

AH
B : Any location which is free

W
C : Fixed location given by assembler

T S
D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

H A
Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

P
A : is in the TLB

O M
B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority
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Q.no 37. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 38. Operating system is

A : system software

A
B : application software

AH
C : both 1 & 2

W
D : not a software

T S
Q.no 39. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a

A
contiguous group of free blocks.

P H
A : Bit table

M
B : Chained Free Portion

O
C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 40. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

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Q.no 42. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 43. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

A
B : Number

AH
C : Keyword

W
D : operator

T S
Q.no 44. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request

A
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

P H
A : resources currently available

M
B : processes that have previously been in the system

O
C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

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D : Access right information

Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A
A : the page is not legal

AH
B : the page is illegal

W
C : the page is in memory

T S
D : the page is not in memory

H A
Q.no 49. Using a pager

P
A : increases the swap time

O M
B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 51. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

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Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

AHA
B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

S W
D : data dependant

AT
Q.no 54. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

P H
A : Lex

M
B : Yacc

O
C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

A
C : segmentation fault occurs

AH
D : no error occurs

W
Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

T S
A : time sharing systems

H A
B : multiprogramming systems

P
C : multiprocessor systems

O M
D : operating systems

Q.no 59. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 6. is a

T S W
Answer for Question No 7. is b

P H A
Answer for Question No 8. is c

O M
Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b


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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

A
Answer for Question No 22. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 23. is a

AT S
Answer for Question No 24. is a

P H
Answer for Question No 25. is b

M
Answer for Question No 26. is c

O
Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

A
Answer for Question No 39. is a

W AH
Answer for Question No 40. is b

AT S
Answer for Question No 41. is a

P H
Answer for Question No 42. is a

O M
Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

AHA
Answer for Question No 56. is b

S W
Answer for Question No 57. is a

H AT
Answer for Question No 58. is b

M P
Answer for Question No 59. is a

O
Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

AHA
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

S W
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

AT
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

H
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

P
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

O M
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process
Q.no 3. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 4. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

A
B : size of pages is reduced

AH
C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

S W
D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

T
Q.no 5. which of the following is not a type of translator?

H A
A : assembler

M P
B : compiler

O
C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 6. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 7. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of
3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal
D : Addition Operator

Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 9. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A
A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

AH
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

S W
C : removes comments and white spaces

T
D : Both 1 & 3

H A
Q.no 10. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

M P
A : semantic analysis

O
B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 11. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 12. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP
D : End

Q.no 13. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 14. Time sharing system is implemented using

A
A : FCFS

AH
B : SJF

S W
C : RR

T
D : priority

H A
Q.no 15. It is used as an index into the page table.

M P
A : frame bit

O
B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 16. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 17. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code
D : C Language

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

AHA
A : Exceptions

W
B : Signal handling

S
C : Interrupts

AT
D : DMA

P H
Q.no 20. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and

M
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

O
A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 21.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 22. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for
it at the time of its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction


C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 23. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

A
Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is

AH
performed by

W
A : Lexical analysis

S
B : Syntax analysis

AT
C : . Semantic analysis

P H
D : Structure analysis

O M
Q.no 25. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 27. File type can be represented by

A : file extension
B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

AHA
D : something else

W
Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

S
A : synthesizing code

AT
B : gathering information

P H
C : processing macro

O M
D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro
B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 33. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

A
D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

AH
Q.no 34. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,

W
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

S
A : procedure

AT
B : subroutine

P H
C : macro

O M
D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 36. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 37. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 38. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

A
C : both 1 & 2

AH
D : function

S W
Q.no 39. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

T
A : positioning time

H A
B : random access time

M P
C : seek time

O
D : rotational latency

Q.no 40. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called
A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 43. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

A
C : yet another compiler constructs

AH
D : yet another compiler compiler

S W
Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

T
A : compiler

H A
B : assembler

M P
C : loader

O
D : interpreter

Q.no 45. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because
A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 48. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

AT
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

P H
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

O M
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate
Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 53. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

AHA
B : Syntax analysis

W
C : Regular analysis

S
D : General analysis

AT
Q.no 54. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token

H
category of 'var1 '

M P
A : Identifier

O
B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 55. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent


B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 57. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

A
C : Sequential files

AH
D : Indexed Sequential files

S W
Q.no 58. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

AT
A : Counters

P H
B : RAM & Registers

O M
C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 59. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory


Q.no 1. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

A
B : An extremely large secondary memory

AH
C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

S W
D : A type of memory used in super computers

T
Q.no 3. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is

A
called as

P H
A : Polling

O M
B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 4. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 5. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time
D : throughput

Q.no 6. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A
A : macro prototype

AH
B : macro definition

S W
C : macro identification

T
D : macro call

H A
Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

M P
A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

O
B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction
D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. In memory-mapped I/O

A
A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

AH
B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

S W
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

T
D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

H A
Q.no 13. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the

P
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

O M
A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 14. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 15. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls


C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 16. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

A
Q.no 17. LRU stands for?

AH
A : Less Recently used

S W
B : Least Recurrently used

T
C : Least Randomly used

H A
D : Least Recently used

M P
Q.no 18. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

O
A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 19. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 20. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call


C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 21. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

AHA
Q.no 22. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

W
A : Fixed location given by proframmer

S
B : Any location which is free

AT
C : Fixed location given by assembler

P H
D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

O M
Q.no 23. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 24. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 25. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token


C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

A
Q.no 27. Loader is a program that

AH
A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

S W
B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

T
C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

H A
D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

M P
Q.no 28. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing

O
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 29. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 30. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request


C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 31. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

A
Q.no 32. in which Swap space exists

AH
A : cpu

S W
B : primary memory

T
C : secondary memory

H A
D : none of the mentioned

M P
Q.no 33. Assembler processes

O
A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 35. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

A
Q.no 37. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves

AH
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

S W
A : LOOK

T
B : SCAN

H A
C : C-SCAN

M P
D : C-LOOK

O
Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 40. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce
B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 41. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

A
D : the page is not in memory

AH
Q.no 42. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the

W
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

S
A : resources currently available

AT
B : processes that have previously been in the system

P H
C : resources currently allocated to each process

O M
D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 43. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 44. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 45. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 46. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

AHA
D : no error occurs

W
Q.no 47. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

S
A : Static Linking library

AT
B : Dynamic linking library

P H
C : load time linking library

O M
D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 48. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 49. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 50. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 51. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 52. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

T
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

A
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

P H
A : Bit tables

O M
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 55. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 56. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

AHA
B : First pass

W
C : Zeroth pass

S
D : Not done by assembler

AT
Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

P H
A : compilation

O M
B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 59. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 1. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A
A : Star BUS structure

AH
B : Multiple BUS structure

S W
C : Single BUS structure

T
D : Node to Node BUS structure

H A
Q.no 2. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

M P
A : The former offers faster transfer of data

O
B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 3. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 4. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled


D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 5. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 6. Relocatable programs

A
A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

AH
B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

S W
C : do not need a linker

T
D : can be loaded only at one specific location

H A
Q.no 7. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

M P
A : Interrupts

O
B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 8. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 9. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler
D : interpreter

Q.no 10. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 11. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A
A : SJF-P

AH
B : FCFS

S W
C : RR

T
D : Priority

H A
Q.no 12. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

M P
A : System call

O
B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 14. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler
D : Load and Go

Q.no 15. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 16. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

AHA
A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

W
B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

S
C : RU policy (Recurrently use

AT
D : Optimal page replacement policy

P H
Q.no 17. The function of OS

O M
A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 18. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 19. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program


D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 20. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 21. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A
A : greater than segment limit

AH
B : between 0 and segment limit

S W
C : between 0 and the segment number

T
D : greater than the segment number

H A
Q.no 22. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least

P
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

O M
A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 23. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system

Q.no 24. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table


B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 25. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

AHA
D : Circular SCAN

W
Q.no 26. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

S
A : initialising macro

AT
B : initialising string macro

P H
C : defining a string macro

O M
D : defining a macro

Q.no 27. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 28. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 29. Format of macro call is


A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 30. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

A
C : Target code

AH
D : tokens

S W
Q.no 31. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

T
A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

A
algorithm

P H
B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

M
algorithm

O
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 32. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 33. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems


Q.no 34. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 35. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

A
A : Non preemptive scheduling

AH
B : Preemptive scheduling

S W
C : Shortest job first

T
D : First come First served

H A
Q.no 36. A process is thrashing if

M P
A : it is spending more time paging than executing

O
B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 37. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First


D : Longest Job First

Q.no 39. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A
A : Identifiers

AH
B : Constants

S W
C : Keywords

T
D : context free grammar

H A
Q.no 41. The linker is

M P
A : is same as the loader

O
B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 42. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes


D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 45. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

AHA
A : START

W
B : END

S
C : ORIGIN

AT
D : Both START and ORIGIN

P H
Q.no 46. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

O M
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 47. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 48. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language
C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 49. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

AHA
C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

S W
Q.no 50. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can

T
be implemented in hardware?

H A
A : Counters

M P
B : RAM & Registers

O
C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 51. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 52. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum
D : approximate

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

AHA
A : the instruction set architecture

W
B : page size

S
C : physical memory size

AT
D : number of processes in memory

P H
Q.no 55. An imperative statement

O M
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 56. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 57. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 58. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

AHA
Q.no 59. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

S W
A : Ambiguous

T
B : Unambiguous

H A
C : Regular

M P
D : None of these

O
Q.no 60. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 1. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of
A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

A
C : pure demand paging

AH
D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

S W
Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

T
A : Postfix notation

H A
B : Syntax trees

M P
C : Three address codes

O
D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 6. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin
Q.no 7. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 8. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

AHA
B : virtual memory

W
C : auxiliary memory

S
D : secondary memory

AT
Q.no 9. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs

H
from the memory of computer system

M P
A : Swapping

O
B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 10. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 11. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process


D : entire process

Q.no 12. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 13. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

AHA
A : Appending an extra bit of the address

W
B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

S
C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

AT
D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

P H
Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

O M
A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 16. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left
D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A
A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

AH
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

S W
C : removes comments and white spaces

T
D : Both 1 & 3

H A
Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

M P
A : FCFS

O
B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 21. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler
D : Loader

Q.no 22. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. File type can be represented by

A
A : file extension

AH
B : file identifier

S W
C :  file name

T
D : none of the mentioned

H A
Q.no 24. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

M P
A : magnetic disks

O
B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 25. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is


unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 26. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse


C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 27. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

A
Q.no 28.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

AH
A : error

S W
B : protection

T
C : valid – invalid

H A
D : access

M P
Q.no 29. START pseudo code is used for

O
A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 30. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining


C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

A
Q.no 33.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

AH
A : key

S W
B : value

T
C : bit value

H A
D : constant

M P
Q.no 34. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level

O
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 35. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 36. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON
C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 37. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

A
Q.no 38.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

AH
A : a segment number & offset

S W
B : an offset & value

T
C : a value & segment number

H A
D : a key & value

M P
Q.no 39. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

O
A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 40. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 41. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue
C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 42. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

A
Q.no 43. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to

AH
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

W
A : resource allocation state

S
B : system storage state

AT
C : operating system

P H
D : resources

O M
Q.no 44. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

A
D : PL domain only

AH
Q.no 48. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

W
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

S
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

T
A : Bit tables

H A
B : Chained Free Portions

M P
C : Indexing

O
D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the

T
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

H A
A : resources currently available

M P
B : processes that have previously been in the system

O
C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 54. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 55. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems
Q.no 56. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

A
B : decreases the swap time

AH
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

S W
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

T
Q.no 58. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

H A
A : Lex

M P
B : Yacc

O
C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 59. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory


Q.no 1. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 2. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

A
B : only during expansion of macro calls

AH
C : After expansion of macro calls

S W
D : Any one of the above

T
Q.no 3. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

H A
A : The former offers faster transfer of data

M P
B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

O
C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers


Q.no 6. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 7. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

AHA
B : Logical I/O

W
C : Device I/O

S
D : Scheduling and control

AT
Q.no 8. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the

H
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

M P
A : Physical organization

O
B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 9. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 10. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue
D : process queue

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. It is used as an index into the page table.

A
A : frame bit

AH
B : page number

S W
C : page offset

T
D : frame offset

H A
Q.no 13. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to

P
create,edit and print document  ?

O M
A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 14. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 15. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program
C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 16. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

AHA
Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

W
A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

S
B : LIFO (Last in First out)

AT
C : FILO rule (First in last out)

P H
D : None of the above

O M
Q.no 18. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 19. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 20. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code
C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 21. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

A
Q.no 22. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

AH
A : protection algorithm with each page

S W
B : restricted access rights to users

T
C : restriction on page visibility

H A
D : protection bit with each page

M P
Q.no 23. Assembler processes

O
A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 24. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement
C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

A
Q.no 27. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

AH
A : Non-preemptive scheduling

S W
B : Preemptive scheduling

T
C : All of the mentioned

H A
D : processes are classified into groups

M P
Q.no 28. What is Scheduling?

O
A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users


C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 31. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

A
Q.no 32. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to

AH
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

W
A : Bit table

S
B : Chained Free Portion

AT
C : Indexing

P H
D : Free Block List

O M
Q.no 33. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 34. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 35. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging
C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

A
Q.no 37. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With

AH
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

S W
A : special support from hardware is required

T
B : special support from operating system is essential

H A
C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

M P
D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from

O
hardware or operating system

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 39. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?


A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

A
C : yet another compiler constructs

AH
D : yet another compiler compiler

S W
Q.no 42. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

T
A : Stack

H A
B : Queue

M P
C : Linked list

O
D : Double linked list

Q.no 43. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 44. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN


Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

AHA
A : Counters

W
B : RAM & Registers

S
C : Stack & Counters

AT
D : Registers

P H
Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

O M
A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 50. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

AHA
Q.no 51. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

W
A : Virtual page number

S
B : Page frame number

AT
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

P H
D : Access right information

O M
Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 54. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution
B : A program that appears to execute a source
program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

A
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

AH
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

S W
D : allocate space for literals

T
Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type

A
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm

H
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

M P
A : minimum

O
B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes


D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 59. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

AHA
A : the instruction set architecture

W
B : page size

S
C : physical memory size

AT
D : number of processes in memory

P H
Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a

M
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

O
A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 3. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API
C : library

D : shell

Q.no 4. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

A
Q.no 5. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the

AH
track is known as

W
A : seek time

S
B : rotational delay

AT
C : access time

P H
D : Transfer time

O M
Q.no 6. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly


occurs?

A : FIFO
B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 9. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

A
D : End

AH
Q.no 10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is

W
called as

S
A : Polling

AT
B : Inspection

P H
C : Reviewing

O M
D : Echoing

Q.no 11. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs
from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 12. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 13. Effective access time is directly proportional to


A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 14. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

A
C : after initialisation of program

AH
D : anywhere in a program

S W
Q.no 15. LRU stands for?

T
A : Less Recently used

H A
B : Least Recurrently used

M P
C : Least Randomly used

O
D : Least Recently used

Q.no 16. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 17. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 18. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in


A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 19. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

A
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

AH
D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

S W
Q.no 20. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

T
A : To indicate the purpose of the code

H A
B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

M P
C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

O
D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 21. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 22. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page
A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

A
B : SCAN

AH
C : C-SCAN

S W
D : C-LOOK

T
Q.no 25. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,

A
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

P H
A : procedure

O M
B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

A
Q.no 29. A process is thrashing if

AH
A : it is spending more time paging than executing

S W
B : it is spending less time paging than executing

T
C : page fault occurs

H A
D : swapping can not take place

M P
Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a

O
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 33. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

AHA
D : none of the mentioned

W
Q.no 34. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters

S
and produces output as a meaningful token .

T
A : Parser

H A
B : Optimizer

M P
C : Scanner

O
D : Loader

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 37. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.
A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 38. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

A
C : secondary memory

AH
D : none of the mentioned

S W
Q.no 39. Format of macro call is

T
A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

H A
B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

M P
C : <macro name>

O
D : <call macro>

Q.no 40. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 41. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?
A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 43. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

AHA
C : Regular analysis

W
D : General analysis

S
Q.no 44. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

AT
A : Lex

P H
B : Yacc

O M
C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 47. Static memory allocation is typically performed during


A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 48. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

AHA
C : FIFO

W
D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

S
Q.no 49. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a

T
reserved portion of the disk.

H A
A : Bit tables

M P
B : Chained Free Portions

O
C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 51. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 53. Using a pager

AHA
A : increases the swap time

W
B : decreases the swap time

S
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

AT
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

P H
Q.no 54. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the

M
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

O
A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well


C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 57. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

AHA
Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

S W
A : Bit tables

T
B : Chained Free Portions

H A
C : Indexing

M P
D : Free Block List

O
Q.no 59. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 1. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address


B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 2. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

AHA
D : Unix

W
Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready

S
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

T
A : all process

H A
B : currently running process

M P
C : parent process

O
D : init process

Q.no 4. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 5. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin
Q.no 6. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

AHA
B : An extremely large secondary memory

W
C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

S
D : A type of memory used in super computers

AT
Q.no 8. LR stands for

P H
A : Left to right

O M
B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 9. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 10. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location


Q.no 11. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 12. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

A
B : FCFS

AH
C : RR

S W
D : Priority

T
Q.no 13. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

H A
A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

M P
B : round robin scheduling algorithm

O
C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 14. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 15. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call


Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

AHA
B : ENDS

W
C : MEND

S
D : ENDD

AT
Q.no 18. which of the following is not a type of translator?

P H
A : assembler

O M
B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 19. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 20. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such
Q.no 21. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 22. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

A
B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

AH
C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

S W
D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

T
Q.no 23. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

H A
A : synthesizing code

M P
B : gathering information

O
C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 24. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 25. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 27. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

AHA
B : only lexical analysis

W
C : Code optimization

S
D : code generation

AT
Q.no 28. System softwares are used to

P H
A : bridge gap between different applications

O M
B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 29. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader
Q.no 31. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

AHA
B : Constants

W
C : Keywords

S
D : context free grammar

AT
Q.no 33. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

P H
A : START

O M
B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

Q.no 36. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is


unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 37. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing

A
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

AH
A : Leftmost derivation

S W
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

T
C : Rightmost derivation

H A
D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

M P
Q.no 38. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to

O
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 39. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 40. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation
B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 41. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

AHA
D : Assembler

W
Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type

S
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

AT
A : minimum

P H
B : average

O M
C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter
Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A
A : Virtual page number

AH
B : Page frame number

S W
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

T
D : Access right information

H A
Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

M P
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

O
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 49. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant
D : data dependant

Q.no 50. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 51. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can

A
be implemented in hardware?

AH
A : Counters

S W
B : RAM & Registers

T
C : Stack & Counters

H A
D : Registers

M P
Q.no 52. The linker is

O
A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number
C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

AHA
Q.no 56. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

S W
A : START

T
B : END

H A
C : ORIGIN

M P
D : Both START and ORIGIN

O
Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 58. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 59. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

AHA
D : future requests and releases of each process

W
Q.no 1. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

S
A : semantic analysis

AT
B : code generation

P H
C : syntax analysis

O M
D : code optimization

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a


program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.


A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

A
C : Single BUS structure

AH
D : Node to Node BUS structure

S W
Q.no 6. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

T
A : PS

H A
B : TOP

M P
C : fork

O
D : kill

Q.no 7. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 8. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 9. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?
A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 10. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

AHA
C : Directory management

W
D : Scheduling and control

S
Q.no 11. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing

T
store or in memory and are ready to run.

H A
A : wait queue

M P
B : ready queue

O
C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 12. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 13. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter
Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

A
B : page-fault rate

AH
C : hit ratio

S W
D : none of the mentioned

T
Q.no 16. A macro is

H A
A : a small program inside a program

M P
B : set of special instructions

O
C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System
Q.no 19. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 20. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A
A : Polling

AH
B : Inspection

S W
C : Reviewing

T
D : Echoing

H A
Q.no 21. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

M P
A : Non-preemptive scheduling

O
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 22. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code
D : tokens

Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A
A : error

AH
B : protection

S W
C : valid – invalid

T
D : access

H A
Q.no 26. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

M P
A : greater than segment limit

O
B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 27. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 28. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies
D : cylinders

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

AHA
A : earliest due date

W
B : slack time remaining

S
C : first come, first served

AT
D : critical ratio

P H
Q.no 31. The file name is generally split into two parts :

O M
A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 32. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language
D : high level language

Q.no 34. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 35. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A
A : FCFS – First come First served

AH
B : SJF – Shortest Job First

S W
C : RR – Round Robin

T
D : priority

H A
Q.no 36. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

M P
A : positioning time

O
B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 37. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 38. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner
D : Loader

Q.no 39. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

AHA
A : Non preemptive scheduling

W
B : Preemptive scheduling

S
C : Shortest job first

AT
D : First come First served

P H
Q.no 41. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

O M
A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments


C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

A
Q.no 45. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a

AH
reserved portion of the disk.

W
A : Bit tables

S
B : Chained Free Portions

AT
C : Indexing

P H
D : Free Block List

O M
Q.no 46. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 47. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 48. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass
B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

AHA
D : number of processes in memory

W
Q.no 50. Using a pager

S
A : increases the swap time

AT
B : decreases the swap time

P H
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

O M
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language
D : A program that accepts a program written in
high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

A
Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its

AH
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

W
A : Semantic analysis

S
B : Syntax analysis

AT
C : Regular analysis

P H
D : General analysis

O M
Q.no 55. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 56. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 57. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain


B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 58. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

A
D : both 1 & 3

AH
Q.no 59. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

W
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

S
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

T
A : Bit tables

H A
B : Chained Free Portions

M P
C : Indexing

O
D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 2. Literal table stores


A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

A
C : pure demand paging

AH
D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

S W
Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

T
A : Interrupts

H A
B : Memory mapping

M P
C : Program-controlled I/O

O
D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. The data-in register of I/O port is


A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

A
C : page fault occurs

AH
D : swapping can not take place

S W
Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

T
A : System call

H A
B : API

M P
C : library

O
D : shell

Q.no 10. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 12. In priority scheduling algorithm


A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 13. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

A
C : inbuilt macro call

AH
D : inherited macro call

S W
Q.no 14. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

T
A : Parser

H A
B : Code optimization

M P
C : Code generator

O
D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 15. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 16. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 17. In memory-mapped I/O


A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

AHA
C : auxiliary memory

W
D : secondary memory

S
Q.no 19. A macro can be defined at

AT
A : beginning of a program

P H
B : end of a program

O M
C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 20. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 21. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups


Q.no 22. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 23. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

A
B : user level thread

AH
C : process

S W
D : priority Process

T
Q.no 24. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing

A
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

P H
A : Leftmost derivation

O M
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 25. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 26. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler


D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 27. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 28. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A
A : protection algorithm with each page

AH
B : restricted access rights to users

S W
C : restriction on page visibility

T
D : protection bit with each page

H A
Q.no 29. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

M P
A : Compiler

O
B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation
D : Swapping

Q.no 32. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 33. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

AHA
A : First come First served

W
B : Shortest Job First

S
C : Earliest Deadline First

AT
D : Longest Job First

P H
Q.no 34. Linking is process of binding

O M
A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 35. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software
D : Application software

Q.no 37. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 38. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

AHA
A : Last in first out

W
B : Shortest service time first

S
C : SCAN

AT
D : Circular SCAN

P H
Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,

M
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

O
A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 41. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

A
D : approximate

AH
Q.no 43. The linker is

S W
A : is same as the loader

T
B : is required to create a load module

H A
C : is always used before programs are executed

M P
D : translator

O
Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 45. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist


B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

AHA
D : Both START and ORIGIN

W
Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

S
A : the page is not legal

AT
B : the page is illegal

P H
C : the page is in memory

O M
D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory


B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

AHA
D : Registers

W
Q.no 53. An imperative statement

S
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

AT
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

P H
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

O M
D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant
Q.no 56. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A
A : resources currently available

AH
B : processes that have previously been in the system

S W
C : resources currently allocated to each process

T
D : future requests and releases of each process

H A
Q.no 58. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to

P
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

O M
A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 59. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 60. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 1. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

A
Q.no 2. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not

AH
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

W
A : Directory Management

S
B : Logical I/O

AT
C : Device I/O

P H
D : Scheduling and control

O M
Q.no 3. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 4. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor
B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 6. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

A
D : Myfile.obj

AH
Q.no 7. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready

W
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

S
A : all process

AT
B : currently running process

P H
C : parent process

O M
D : init process

Q.no 8. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 9. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 10. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls


B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

A
D : End

AH
Q.no 12. The function of OS

S W
A : Resource allocator

T
B : control program

H A
C : create user friendly env.

M P
D : All

O
Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 15. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?
A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 16. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

A
C : priority scheduling algorithm

AH
D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

S W
Q.no 17. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

AT
A : Polling

P H
B : Inspection

O M
C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 18. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 19. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned


Q.no 20. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 21. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

A
B : statement

AH
C : Numeric data

S W
D : ASCII data

T
Q.no 22. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,

A
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

P H
A : procedure

O M
B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 24. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process
C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

A
Q.no 26. System programmer needs

AH
A : knowledge of only system

S W
B : knowledge of only programming

T
C : knowledge of both system and application programming

H A
D : knowledge of hardware

M P
Q.no 27. Lexemes can be referred to as

O
A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 29. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent


C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

A
Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

AH
A : Identifiers

S W
B : Constants

T
C : Keywords

H A
D : context free grammar

M P
Q.no 32.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

O
A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 33. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 34. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First


C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 35. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

A
Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

AH
A : USING

S W
B : BALR

T
C : DROP

H A
D : ORG

M P
Q.no 37. Operating system is

O
A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 38. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 39. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser
B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 40. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

A
D : bridge gap between different systems

AH
Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from

W
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

S
A : write ahead

AT
B : read ahead

P H
C : free-behind

O M
D : add-front

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 43. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs
A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 45. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

A
C : Linked list

AH
D : Double linked list

S W
Q.no 46. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

AT
A : Segments are better than pages

P H
B : Pages are better than segments

O M
C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 48. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 49. Using a pager


A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 50. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from

T
Belady’s Anomaly?

H A
A : Optimal replacement

M P
B : LRU

O
C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking
Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A
A : the instruction set architecture

AH
B : page size

S W
C : physical memory size

T
D : number of processes in memory

H A
Q.no 56. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

P
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

M
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

O
A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.
A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

A
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

AH
D : Access right information

S W
Q.no 60. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

AT
A : Identifier

P H
B : Number

O M
C : Keyword

D : operator
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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10892_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

AHA
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

S W
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

AT
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

H
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

M P
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

O
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroeth pass

D : In all passes

Q.no 2. Each execution of procedure is called as

A : activation

B : execution

C : symbol

D : environment

Q.no 3. Which order of expansion nested macro calls follows?

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A : First In first Out

B : First In Last Out

C : Last In First Out

D : Last In Last Out

Q.no 4. To derive a string using the production rules of a given grammar, we use:

A : Position where next reduce or shift operation will occur

B : The next step has use of Non-terminal for reduction

A
C : Used for reduction in a coming-up step along with a position in the sentential form where the

AH
next shift or reduce operation will occur

W
D : Used in the next step for reduction along with a position in the sentential form where the right

S
hand side of the production may be found

AT
Q.no 5. The assembler which performs macro expansion as well as assembly is called as

P H
A : Macro processor

M
B : Macro preprocessor

O
C : Macro

D : Macro assembler

Q.no 6. What is the output of a lexical analyzer?

A : Machine Code

B : Intermediate Code

C : Stream of Token

D : Parse Tree

Q.no 7. A compiler is

A : A program that place program into memory and prepares them for execution

B : A program that automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : program that accepts program written in high level language and produces an object program

D : A program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language

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Q.no 8. Three address code generated , Arrays are

A : One Dimensional

B : Not Supported

C : Multi Dimensional

D : Supported using pointer

Q.no 9. Which one of the following is a top-down parser?

A : Ambiguous

A
B : Unambiguous

AH
C : Regular

S W
D : Irregular

AT
Q.no 10. Type checking is normally done during ?

P H
A : Lexical analysis

M
B : Syntax analysis

O
C : Syntax directed translation

D : Code generation

Q.no 11. Which of these is not a part of Synthesis phase

A : Obtain machine code corresponding to the mnemonic from the Mnemonics table

B : Obtain address of a memory operand from the symbol table

C : Perform LC processing

D : Synthesize a machine instruction or the machine form of a constant

Q.no 12. Which of the following class of statement usually produces no executable code when
compiled?

A : Declarative statement

B : Input output statement

C : Loops

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D : Structural statement

Q.no 13. Which table is designed to hold names of all macros defined in a program?

A : Macro Name Table

B : Macro Definition Table

C : Macro Parameter Name Table

D : Actual Parameter table

Q.no 14. The last statement of the source program should be

A
A : Stop

AH
B : Return

S W
C : OP

AT
D : End

P H
Q.no 15. the main task of the lexical analyzer is

M
A : to read the input characters of the source program

O
B : group them into lexemes

C : produce as output a sequence of tokens for each lexeme in the source program

D : All of above

Q.no 16. TII stands for

A : Table of incomplete instructions

B : Table of information instructions

C : Translation of instructions information

D : Translation of information instruction

Q.no 17. Which amongst LR Parsers is the most powerful.

A : Top down Parser

B : Bottom Up parser

C : May be top down or bottom up

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D : Both top down and bottom up

Q.no 18. What a macro call leads to?

A : Macro Expansion

B : Macro Execution

C : Macro Linking

D : Macro Change

Q.no 19. Which of the following is advanced macro a facility?

A
A : LTORG

AH
B : ORIGIN

S W
C : EQU

AT
D : Expansion Time sequensing symbol

P H
Q.no 20. A graph that shows basic blocks and their successor relationship is called as

M
A : Flow graph

O
B : control graph

C : Hamiltonion graph

D : DAG

Q.no 21. Attribute which indicates value of the expression for a non terminal in sematic action
is known as

A : code

B : place

C : mode

D : record

Q.no 22. YACC is a computer program for ______ operation system.

A : Windows

B : DOS

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C : Unix

D : openSUSE

Q.no 23. The action of parsing the source program into proper syntactic classes is called
__________

A : LALR parser

B : LL parser

C : Recursive Accent parser

D : LR Parser

AHA
Q.no 24. The assembler directive EQU, when used in the instruction: Sum EQU 200 does
________

S W
A : Finds the first occurrence of Sum and assigns value 200 to it

AT
B : Replaces every occurrence of Sum with 200

P H
C : Re-assigns the address of Sum by adding 200 to its original address

M
D : Assigns 200 bytes of memory starting the location of Sum

O
Q.no 25. The lexical analyzer reads the stream of characters making up the source program
and groups the characters into meaningful sequences called -------------

A : lexemes

B : Pattern

C : Tokens

D : Error

Q.no 26. Attribute which indicates type of the result for a non terminal in sematic action is
known as

A : code

B : place

C : mode

D : record

Q.no 27. Attribute which indicates three address code generated for a non terminal in sematic

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action is known as

A : code

B : place

C : mode

D : record

Q.no 28. Induction variables and Reduction in strengths is part of which phase

A : Intermediate code generation

A
B : Storage allocation

AH
C : Code optimization

S W
D : Parser

AT
Q.no 29. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an

H
input string?

P
A : Syntax Analysis

O M
B : Lexical Analysis

C : Interpretation analysis

D : General Syntax Analysis

Q.no 30. Which of the following is Macro Preprocessor Statement?

A : ORIGIN

B : AIF

C : AGO

D : SET

Q.no 31. Which is NOT a implementation For TAC

A : Quadruple

B : Postfix Notation

C : Triple

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D : Indirect Triple

Q.no 32. Computer program can be optimized by

A : Type Checking

B : Common Subprograms

C : Dead Code elimination

D : Copy intermediate loop

Q.no 33. An assembler is

A
A : programming language dependent

AH
B : syntax dependant

S W
C : machine dependant

AT
D : data dependant

P H
Q.no 34. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens

M
A : Yes Another Compile Compiler

O
B : Yet Another Compile Compiler

C : Yet Another Compiler Compiler

D : Yes Another Compiler Compiler

Q.no 35. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 36. A --------- is a sequence of characters in the source program that matches
the pattern for a token and is identied by the lexical analyzer as an
instance of that token

A : lexemes

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B : Pattern

C : Tokens

D : Error

Q.no 37. which of the following is a example of relocating loaders?

A : Absolute loader

B : Compile and Go loader

C : Binary Symbolic Subroutine

A
D : Assemble and Go loader

AH
Q.no 38. What a subroutine name in a call leads to?

S W
A : Execution

AT
B : Expansion

P H
C : Error

M
D : Loop

O
Q.no 39. Allocation strategy which allocates and deallocates storage as needed at runtime
from data area is known as

A : Static Allocation

B : Stack Allocation

C : Dynamic Allocation

D : Heap Allocation

Q.no 40. The input string is in I/p buffer followed by the right end marker -------

A:$

B:*

C:%

D:#

Q.no 41. printf("Total = %d\n", score); In this statement "Total = %d\n" is lexem matching
with token ---------

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A : ID

B : Keyword

C : Literal

D : Pattern

Q.no 42. The _______ table is created by YACC.

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

A
C : Code optimization

AH
D : Code generation

S W
Q.no 43. Which of the following is true for a predictive parser?

AT
A : Analyzing

P H
B : Recognizing

M
C : Tokenizing

O
D : Parsing

Q.no 44. if attributes of child node depends on its parent node then it is called as ……………

A : TAC

B : synthesised

C : inherited

D : directed

Q.no 45. In direct conversion of RE to DFA, If Node is . (Cat node) c1.c2 then Firstpos(node) is

A : if nullable(c1) then firstpos(c1) Union firstpos(c2)


else firstpos(c1)

B : fistpos(c1)

C : if nullable(c2) then firstpos(c1) Union firstpos(c2)


else firstpos(c1)

D : Not Calculated

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Q.no 46. Which of the following statements is false?

A : LALR parsing

B : LL parsing

C : GLR parsing

D : LR Parsing

Q.no 47. Consider the basic block given below


a=b+c
c=a+d
d=b+c

A
e=d-b

AH
a=e+b
The minimum number of nodes and edges present in the DAG representation of the above

W
basic block respectively are

S
A : 6 and 6

AT
B : 8 and 10

P H
C : 4 and 4

O M
D : 8 and 8

Q.no 48. Which of the following system program forgoes the production of object code to
generate absolute machine code and load it into the physical main storage location from which
it will be executed immediately upon completion of the assembly?

A : compiler

B : macroprocessor

C : two pass assembler

D : load-and-go assembler

Q.no 49. Postfix notation for the given expression is


x= c ? a: b

A : xcab?:=

B : xcab: ? =

C : xcab=?:

D : xc=ab:?

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Q.no 50. In which loading scheme programmer must specify to the assembler the address in
core where the program is be be loaded?

A : Dynamic Linking

B : Dynamic loading

C : Binary Symbolic Subroutine

D : Absolute Loader

Q.no 51. Which card contain the actual object code translated version of source program in
direct linking loading scheme?

A
A : TXD(Text card)

AH
B : External Symbol Dictionary card

S W
C : Relocation and Linkage Directory card

AT
D : END card

P H
Q.no 52. To recognize the tokens in the input stream--------------------- and ------------ are
convenient ways of designing recognizers.

O M
A : Transition Diagrams, Finite Automata

B : Transition Diagram, NFA

C : Transaction Diagram, Finite Automata

D : Transaction diagram, NFA

Q.no 53. The assembler stores the object code in ______

A : Main memory

B : Cache

C : Mangnetic Disk

D : RAM

Q.no 54. Which of the following describes a handle (as applicable to LR-parsing)
appropriately?

A : Parser

B : code generator

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C : Lexical Analyzer

D : Code optimizer

Q.no 55. In direct conversion of RE to DFA, If Node is * (star node) having one child c1 then
lastpos(node) is

A : lastpos(c1)

B : lastpos(previousnode)

C : firtspos(node)

D : lastpose(node)

AHA
Q.no 56. The least number of temporary variables required to create a three-address code in
static single assignment form for the expression

W
q + r/3 + s – t * 5 + u * v/w is

T S
A:4

H A
B:8

P
C:7

O M
D:9

Q.no 57. Which is not charectristic of Peephole optimization

A : Redundant- instruction elimination

B : Flow of control optimization

C : Algebraic simplification

D : Not producing new code

Q.no 58. In which mechanism loading and linking of external references are postponed until
execution time?

A : Direct Linking Loader

B : Dynamic loading

C : Absolute Loader

D : Dynamic Linking

Q.no 59. In BSS what is used to solve the problem of relocation?

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A : Relocation bit

B : Allocation bit

C : Transfer vector

D : Program Length

Q.no 60. What does the assembler psudo opcode EXTRN followed by list of symbol indicate?

A : these symbols are defined in other programs but referenced in present program

B : these symbols are defined in present program but referenced in other programs

A
C : Global variable

AH
D : Expansion time variables

S W
Q.no 1. ________ is a process of finding parse tree for a string of tokens

AT
A : SLR

P H
B : CLR

M
C : LALR

O
D : LLR

Q.no 2. Use of macro name in mnemonic field of an assembly statement leads to what?

A : Macro Expansion

B : Macro Execution

C : Macro control transfer

D : Macro replacement

Q.no 3. In a two-pass assembler, the task of the Pass II is to

A : separate the symbol, mnemonic opcode and operand fields

B : build the symbol table.

C : construct intermediate code.

D : synthesize the target program

Q.no 4. Functions of Lexical analyzer are ?

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A : Removing white space

B : Removing constants, identifiers and keywords

C : Removing comments

D : All of above

Q.no 5. Peep-hole optimization is a form of

A : data flow analysis

B : Constant folding

A
C : Local optimization

AH
D : Loop Optimization

S W
Q.no 6. The graph that is used in code optimization is

AT
A : Flow graph

P H
B : DAG

M
C : Control Graph

O
D : Multi graph

Q.no 7. Translation of parse tree to intermediate form is called as

A : Syntax Directed Translation

B : lecical analysis

C : syntax analysis

D : code geeration

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a type of assembler

A : One pass

B : Two pass

C : Three pass

D : Load and go

Q.no 9. A processor-

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A : is a sequence of instructions

B : is the device where information is stored

C : is a device that performs a sequence of operations specified by instructions in memory

D : is the device where programs are stored stored

Q.no 10. Which of the following provides program generation facility through expansion?

A : Assembler

B : Macros

A
C : Compiler

AH
D : Loader

S W
Q.no 11. One of the purposes of using intermediate code in compilers is to

AT
A : make parsing and symantic analysis simpler

P H
B : improve error recovery

M
C : improve the chances of resusing machine independent code optimizer in other compiler

O
D : improve register allocation

Q.no 12. Machine independent optimization is related with

A : recognization of basic syntactic construction through reductions

B : recognition of basic elements and creation of uniform symbols

C : creation of more optimal code

D : use of macro-processor to produce more optimal assembly code

Q.no 13. Shift reduce parsers are __________

A : Right most derivation

B : Rightmost derivation in reverse

C : Leftmost derivation

D : Leftmost derivation in reverse

Q.no 14. In three address code , Arrays are

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A : not supported

B : one dimentional

C : Two dimentional

D : supported via pointers

Q.no 15. What macro prototype statements declares?

A : The name of macro

B : The parameters of macro

A
C : the name of macro and the names and kinds of its parameter

AH
D : macro definition

S W
Q.no 16. Allocation strategy which lays out data objects at compile time is known as

AT
A : Static Allocation

P H
B : Stack Allocation

M
C : Dynamic Allocation

O
D : Heap Allocation

Q.no 17. The concept of grammar is much used in this part of the compiler

A : lexical analysis

B : parser

C : code generation

D : code optimization

Q.no 18. Given the following expression grammar:


E -> E * F | F+E | F
F -> F-F | id

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : Rightmost derivation in reverse

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Q.no 19. all information required for a single activation procedure is contained in

A : stack

B : activation record

C : tree

D : environment

Q.no 20. The nodes of Abstract Syntax Tree deals with which of the following entities

A : Syntactic

A
B : Semantic

AH
C : Operators

S W
D : Operands

AT
Q.no 21. ------------- phase designed to improve the intermediate code.

P H
A : Code optimization

M
B : Code Generation

O
C : Intermediate code generator

D : Syntax Analyzer

Q.no 22. What is used to describe tokens and identifiers.

A : Parser

B : Lexical Analyzer

C : Regular Expression

D : Regular Grammar

Q.no 23. Intermediate code generation for a compiler is

A : Must

B : Optional

C : Depends on language

D : Never

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Q.no 24. In which loading scheme assembler simply places the code into core and the loader
consists of one instruction that transfers to the starting instruction of the newly assembled
program?

A : Absolute loader

B : Assemble and Go loader

C : Binary Symbolic Subroutine

D : Direct Linking Loader

Q.no 25. Forward reference is

A
A : A reference to a label that is defined in the program before its use

AH
B : A reference to a label that is defined later in the program

S W
C : A reference to a label that is defined anywhere in the program

AT
D : A reference to a label that is defined in the another program

P H
Q.no 26. LALR in LALR parser stands for:

M
A : Recursive Descent parser

O
B : no backtracking

C : Recursive Descent parser and no backtracking

D : Recursive Descent parser and backtracking

Q.no 27. In compiler " Reduction in strength means "

A : Removing common subexpressions

B : Removing Loop invariant computation

C : Replacing run time computation by compile time computation

D : replacing a costly set of Instruction by a relatively cheaper one

Q.no 28. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is __________

A : To indicate the starting of the computation code

B : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

C : To indicate the purpose of the code

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D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 29. Which of the following might be used to convert high-level language instructions into
machine language?

A : system software

B : applications software

C : an operating environment

D : an interpreter

Q.no 30. Syntax Directed defination that uses synthesized attribute only is called as

AHA
A : L attributed defination

W
B : S-attributed defination

T S
C : SL attributed defination

H A
D : R-attributed defination

P
Q.no 31. When code is generated for " a < b and c > d" , location left for backpatching are

O M
A : falselist of a< b

B : falselist of a<b and falselist of c>d

C : falselist of a<b ,falselist of c>d, truelist of c >d

D : Truelist of a< b,falselist of a<b and falselist of c>d, truelist of c >d

Q.no 32. Which is NOT a component of activation record

A : return Value

B : local data

C : Saved machine status

D : global data

Q.no 33. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3?

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

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C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 34. The grammar A → AA | (A) | e is not suitable for predictive-parsing because the
grammar is?

A : Scanning

B : Parsing

C : Derivation

D : Reduction

AHA
Q.no 35. Which statement is used to perform auxiliary functions during macro expansion?

W
A : Preprocessor statement

T S
B : Model atatement

H A
C : Prototype statement

P
D : Macro call

O M
Q.no 36. The ------------- phase receives optimized intermediate codes and generates the code
for
execution

A : Code optimization

B : Lexical Analyzer

C : Code Generator

D : Syntax Analyzer

Q.no 37. Which of the following is used to keep track of currently -active activation

A : control stack

B : activation

C : execution

D : symbol

Q.no 38. Which of the following identifies mutually exclusive subroutines?

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A : Linker

B : Assembler

C : Macro

D : Overlay Structure

Q.no 39. In which loading scheme core is occupied by assembler and unavailable to other
object deck?

A : Compile and Go loader

B : Direct Linking Loader

AHA
C : Binders

W
D : Dynamic Linking

T S
Q.no 40. A graphical representation for derivations that filter out the choice regarding

A
replacement order is called the -----------------

P H
A : Graph tree

M
B : Parse tree

O
C : Symol Tree

D : Graph

Q.no 41. Decressing number of instruction in loop is done infollowing optimization technique

A : Elimination of Subexpression

B : Code propogation

C : Dead code elimination

D : Code Motion

Q.no 42. Which of the following is true for a predictive parser?

A : Analyzing

B : Recognizing

C : Tokenizing

D : Parsing

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Q.no 43. In BSS what is used to solve the problem of relocation?

A : Relocation bit

B : Allocation bit

C : Transfer vector

D : Program Length

Q.no 44. What does the assembler psudo opcode EXTRN followed by list of symbol indicate?

A : these symbols are defined in other programs but referenced in present program

A
B : these symbols are defined in present program but referenced in other programs

AH
C : Global variable

S W
D : Expansion time variables

AT
Q.no 45. In which loading scheme programmer must specify to the assembler the address in

H
core where the program is be be loaded?

P
A : Dynamic Linking

O M
B : Dynamic loading

C : Binary Symbolic Subroutine

D : Absolute Loader

Q.no 46. Postfix notation for the given expression is


x= c ? a: b

A : xcab?:=

B : xcab: ? =

C : xcab=?:

D : xc=ab:?

Q.no 47. The assembler stores the object code in ______

A : Main memory

B : Cache

C : Mangnetic Disk

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D : RAM

Q.no 48. To recognize the tokens in the input stream--------------------- and ------------ are
convenient ways of designing recognizers.

A : Transition Diagrams, Finite Automata

B : Transition Diagram, NFA

C : Transaction Diagram, Finite Automata

D : Transaction diagram, NFA

Q.no 49. if attributes of child node depends on its parent node then it is called as ……………

AHA
A : TAC

W
B : synthesised

T S
C : inherited

H A
D : directed

P
Q.no 50. Which of the following statements is false?

O M
A : LALR parsing

B : LL parsing

C : GLR parsing

D : LR Parsing

Q.no 51. Which of the following describes a handle (as applicable to LR-parsing)
appropriately?

A : Parser

B : code generator

C : Lexical Analyzer

D : Code optimizer

Q.no 52. The _______ table is created by YACC.

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Code optimization

D : Code generation

Q.no 53. In direct conversion of RE to DFA, If Node is * (star node) having one child c1 then
lastpos(node) is

A : lastpos(c1)

B : lastpos(previousnode)

C : firtspos(node)

D : lastpose(node)

AHA
Q.no 54. In which mechanism loading and linking of external references are postponed until
execution time?

S W
A : Direct Linking Loader

AT
B : Dynamic loading

P H
C : Absolute Loader

M
D : Dynamic Linking

O
Q.no 55. In direct conversion of RE to DFA, If Node is . (Cat node) c1.c2 then Firstpos(node) is

A : if nullable(c1) then firstpos(c1) Union firstpos(c2)


else firstpos(c1)

B : fistpos(c1)

C : if nullable(c2) then firstpos(c1) Union firstpos(c2)


else firstpos(c1)

D : Not Calculated

Q.no 56. Which card contain the actual object code translated version of source program in
direct linking loading scheme?

A : TXD(Text card)

B : External Symbol Dictionary card

C : Relocation and Linkage Directory card

D : END card

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Q.no 57. Which of the following system program forgoes the production of object code to
generate absolute machine code and load it into the physical main storage location from which
it will be executed immediately upon completion of the assembly?

A : compiler

B : macroprocessor

C : two pass assembler

D : load-and-go assembler

Q.no 58. Which is not charectristic of Peephole optimization

A
A : Redundant- instruction elimination

AH
B : Flow of control optimization

S W
C : Algebraic simplification

AT
D : Not producing new code

P H
Q.no 59. Consider the basic block given below
a=b+c

M
c=a+d

O
d=b+c
e=d-b
a=e+b
The minimum number of nodes and edges present in the DAG representation of the above
basic block respectively are

A : 6 and 6

B : 8 and 10

C : 4 and 4

D : 8 and 8

Q.no 60. The least number of temporary variables required to create a three-address code in
static single assignment form for the expression
q + r/3 + s – t * 5 + u * v/w is

A:4

B:8

C:7

D:9

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

AHA
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

S W
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

AT
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

H
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

P
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

O M
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process
Q.no 3. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 4. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

A
B : size of pages is reduced

AH
C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

S W
D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

T
Q.no 5. which of the following is not a type of translator?

H A
A : assembler

M P
B : compiler

O
C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 6. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 7. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of
3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal
D : Addition Operator

Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 9. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A
A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

AH
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

S W
C : removes comments and white spaces

T
D : Both 1 & 3

H A
Q.no 10. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

M P
A : semantic analysis

O
B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 11. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 12. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP
D : End

Q.no 13. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 14. Time sharing system is implemented using

A
A : FCFS

AH
B : SJF

S W
C : RR

T
D : priority

H A
Q.no 15. It is used as an index into the page table.

M P
A : frame bit

O
B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 16. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 17. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code
D : C Language

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

AHA
A : Exceptions

W
B : Signal handling

S
C : Interrupts

AT
D : DMA

P H
Q.no 20. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and

M
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

O
A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 21.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 22. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for
it at the time of its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction


C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 23. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

A
Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is

AH
performed by

W
A : Lexical analysis

S
B : Syntax analysis

AT
C : . Semantic analysis

P H
D : Structure analysis

O M
Q.no 25. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 27. File type can be represented by

A : file extension
B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

AHA
D : something else

W
Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

S
A : synthesizing code

AT
B : gathering information

P H
C : processing macro

O M
D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro
B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 33. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

A
D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

AH
Q.no 34. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,

W
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

S
A : procedure

AT
B : subroutine

P H
C : macro

O M
D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 36. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 37. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 38. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

A
C : both 1 & 2

AH
D : function

S W
Q.no 39. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

T
A : positioning time

H A
B : random access time

M P
C : seek time

O
D : rotational latency

Q.no 40. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called
A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 43. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

A
C : yet another compiler constructs

AH
D : yet another compiler compiler

S W
Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

T
A : compiler

H A
B : assembler

M P
C : loader

O
D : interpreter

Q.no 45. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because
A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 48. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

AT
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

P H
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

O M
C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate
Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 53. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

AHA
B : Syntax analysis

W
C : Regular analysis

S
D : General analysis

AT
Q.no 54. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token

H
category of 'var1 '

M P
A : Identifier

O
B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 55. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent


B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 57. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

A
C : Sequential files

AH
D : Indexed Sequential files

S W
Q.no 58. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

AT
A : Counters

P H
B : RAM & Registers

O M
C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 59. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory


Q.no 1. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

A
B : An extremely large secondary memory

AH
C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

S W
D : A type of memory used in super computers

T
Q.no 3. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is

A
called as

P H
A : Polling

O M
B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 4. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 5. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time
D : throughput

Q.no 6. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A
A : macro prototype

AH
B : macro definition

S W
C : macro identification

T
D : macro call

H A
Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

M P
A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

O
B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction
D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. In memory-mapped I/O

A
A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

AH
B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

S W
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

T
D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

H A
Q.no 13. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the

P
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

O M
A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 14. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 15. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls


C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 16. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

A
Q.no 17. LRU stands for?

AH
A : Less Recently used

S W
B : Least Recurrently used

T
C : Least Randomly used

H A
D : Least Recently used

M P
Q.no 18. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

O
A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 19. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 20. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call


C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 21. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

AHA
Q.no 22. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

W
A : Fixed location given by proframmer

S
B : Any location which is free

AT
C : Fixed location given by assembler

P H
D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

O M
Q.no 23. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 24. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 25. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token


C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

A
Q.no 27. Loader is a program that

AH
A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

S W
B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

T
C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

H A
D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

M P
Q.no 28. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing

O
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 29. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 30. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request


C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 31. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

A
Q.no 32. in which Swap space exists

AH
A : cpu

S W
B : primary memory

T
C : secondary memory

H A
D : none of the mentioned

M P
Q.no 33. Assembler processes

O
A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 35. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

A
Q.no 37. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves

AH
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

S W
A : LOOK

T
B : SCAN

H A
C : C-SCAN

M P
D : C-LOOK

O
Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 40. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce
B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 41. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

A
D : the page is not in memory

AH
Q.no 42. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the

W
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

S
A : resources currently available

AT
B : processes that have previously been in the system

P H
C : resources currently allocated to each process

O M
D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 43. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 44. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 45. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 46. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

AHA
D : no error occurs

W
Q.no 47. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

S
A : Static Linking library

AT
B : Dynamic linking library

P H
C : load time linking library

O M
D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 48. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 49. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 50. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 51. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 52. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

T
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

A
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

P H
A : Bit tables

O M
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 55. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 56. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

AHA
B : First pass

W
C : Zeroth pass

S
D : Not done by assembler

AT
Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

P H
A : compilation

O M
B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 59. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 1. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A
A : Star BUS structure

AH
B : Multiple BUS structure

S W
C : Single BUS structure

T
D : Node to Node BUS structure

H A
Q.no 2. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

M P
A : The former offers faster transfer of data

O
B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 3. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 4. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled


D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 5. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 6. Relocatable programs

A
A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

AH
B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

S W
C : do not need a linker

T
D : can be loaded only at one specific location

H A
Q.no 7. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

M P
A : Interrupts

O
B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 8. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 9. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler
D : interpreter

Q.no 10. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 11. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A
A : SJF-P

AH
B : FCFS

S W
C : RR

T
D : Priority

H A
Q.no 12. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

M P
A : System call

O
B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 14. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler
D : Load and Go

Q.no 15. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 16. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

AHA
A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

W
B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

S
C : RU policy (Recurrently use

AT
D : Optimal page replacement policy

P H
Q.no 17. The function of OS

O M
A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 18. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 19. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program


D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 20. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 21. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A
A : greater than segment limit

AH
B : between 0 and segment limit

S W
C : between 0 and the segment number

T
D : greater than the segment number

H A
Q.no 22. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least

P
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

O M
A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 23. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system

Q.no 24. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table


B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 25. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

AHA
D : Circular SCAN

W
Q.no 26. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

S
A : initialising macro

AT
B : initialising string macro

P H
C : defining a string macro

O M
D : defining a macro

Q.no 27. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 28. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 29. Format of macro call is


A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 30. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

A
C : Target code

AH
D : tokens

S W
Q.no 31. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

T
A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

A
algorithm

P H
B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

M
algorithm

O
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 32. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 33. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems


Q.no 34. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 35. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

A
A : Non preemptive scheduling

AH
B : Preemptive scheduling

S W
C : Shortest job first

T
D : First come First served

H A
Q.no 36. A process is thrashing if

M P
A : it is spending more time paging than executing

O
B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 37. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First


D : Longest Job First

Q.no 39. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A
A : Identifiers

AH
B : Constants

S W
C : Keywords

T
D : context free grammar

H A
Q.no 41. The linker is

M P
A : is same as the loader

O
B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 42. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes


D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 45. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

AHA
A : START

W
B : END

S
C : ORIGIN

AT
D : Both START and ORIGIN

P H
Q.no 46. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

O M
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 47. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 48. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language
C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 49. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

AHA
C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

S W
Q.no 50. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can

T
be implemented in hardware?

H A
A : Counters

M P
B : RAM & Registers

O
C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 51. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 52. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum
D : approximate

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

AHA
A : the instruction set architecture

W
B : page size

S
C : physical memory size

AT
D : number of processes in memory

P H
Q.no 55. An imperative statement

O M
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 56. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 57. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 58. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

AHA
Q.no 59. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

S W
A : Ambiguous

T
B : Unambiguous

H A
C : Regular

M P
D : None of these

O
Q.no 60. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 1. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of
A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

A
C : pure demand paging

AH
D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

S W
Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

T
A : Postfix notation

H A
B : Syntax trees

M P
C : Three address codes

O
D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 6. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin
Q.no 7. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 8. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

AHA
B : virtual memory

W
C : auxiliary memory

S
D : secondary memory

AT
Q.no 9. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs

H
from the memory of computer system

M P
A : Swapping

O
B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 10. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 11. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process


D : entire process

Q.no 12. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 13. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

AHA
A : Appending an extra bit of the address

W
B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

S
C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

AT
D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

P H
Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

O M
A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 16. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left
D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A
A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

AH
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

S W
C : removes comments and white spaces

T
D : Both 1 & 3

H A
Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

M P
A : FCFS

O
B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 21. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler
D : Loader

Q.no 22. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. File type can be represented by

A
A : file extension

AH
B : file identifier

S W
C :  file name

T
D : none of the mentioned

H A
Q.no 24. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

M P
A : magnetic disks

O
B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 25. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is


unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 26. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse


C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 27. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

A
Q.no 28.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

AH
A : error

S W
B : protection

T
C : valid – invalid

H A
D : access

M P
Q.no 29. START pseudo code is used for

O
A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 30. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining


C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

A
Q.no 33.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

AH
A : key

S W
B : value

T
C : bit value

H A
D : constant

M P
Q.no 34. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level

O
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 35. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 36. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON
C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 37. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

A
Q.no 38.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

AH
A : a segment number & offset

S W
B : an offset & value

T
C : a value & segment number

H A
D : a key & value

M P
Q.no 39. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

O
A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 40. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 41. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue
C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 42. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

A
Q.no 43. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to

AH
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

W
A : resource allocation state

S
B : system storage state

AT
C : operating system

P H
D : resources

O M
Q.no 44. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

A
D : PL domain only

AH
Q.no 48. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

W
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

S
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

T
A : Bit tables

H A
B : Chained Free Portions

M P
C : Indexing

O
D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the

T
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

H A
A : resources currently available

M P
B : processes that have previously been in the system

O
C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 54. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 55. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems
Q.no 56. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

A
B : decreases the swap time

AH
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

S W
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

T
Q.no 58. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

H A
A : Lex

M P
B : Yacc

O
C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 59. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory


Q.no 1. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 2. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

A
B : only during expansion of macro calls

AH
C : After expansion of macro calls

S W
D : Any one of the above

T
Q.no 3. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

H A
A : The former offers faster transfer of data

M P
B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

O
C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers


Q.no 6. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 7. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

AHA
B : Logical I/O

W
C : Device I/O

S
D : Scheduling and control

AT
Q.no 8. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the

H
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

M P
A : Physical organization

O
B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 9. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 10. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue
D : process queue

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. It is used as an index into the page table.

A
A : frame bit

AH
B : page number

S W
C : page offset

T
D : frame offset

H A
Q.no 13. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to

P
create,edit and print document  ?

O M
A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 14. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 15. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program
C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 16. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

AHA
Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

W
A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

S
B : LIFO (Last in First out)

AT
C : FILO rule (First in last out)

P H
D : None of the above

O M
Q.no 18. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 19. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 20. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code
C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 21. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

A
Q.no 22. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

AH
A : protection algorithm with each page

S W
B : restricted access rights to users

T
C : restriction on page visibility

H A
D : protection bit with each page

M P
Q.no 23. Assembler processes

O
A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 24. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement
C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

A
Q.no 27. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

AH
A : Non-preemptive scheduling

S W
B : Preemptive scheduling

T
C : All of the mentioned

H A
D : processes are classified into groups

M P
Q.no 28. What is Scheduling?

O
A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users


C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 31. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

A
Q.no 32. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to

AH
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

W
A : Bit table

S
B : Chained Free Portion

AT
C : Indexing

P H
D : Free Block List

O M
Q.no 33. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 34. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 35. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging
C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

A
Q.no 37. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With

AH
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

S W
A : special support from hardware is required

T
B : special support from operating system is essential

H A
C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

M P
D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from

O
hardware or operating system

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 39. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?


A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

A
C : yet another compiler constructs

AH
D : yet another compiler compiler

S W
Q.no 42. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

T
A : Stack

H A
B : Queue

M P
C : Linked list

O
D : Double linked list

Q.no 43. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 44. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN


Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

AHA
A : Counters

W
B : RAM & Registers

S
C : Stack & Counters

AT
D : Registers

P H
Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

O M
A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 50. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

AHA
Q.no 51. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

W
A : Virtual page number

S
B : Page frame number

AT
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

P H
D : Access right information

O M
Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 54. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution
B : A program that appears to execute a source
program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

A
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

AH
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

S W
D : allocate space for literals

T
Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type

A
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm

H
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

M P
A : minimum

O
B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes


D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 59. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

AHA
A : the instruction set architecture

W
B : page size

S
C : physical memory size

AT
D : number of processes in memory

P H
Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a

M
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

O
A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 3. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API
C : library

D : shell

Q.no 4. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

A
Q.no 5. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the

AH
track is known as

W
A : seek time

S
B : rotational delay

AT
C : access time

P H
D : Transfer time

O M
Q.no 6. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly


occurs?

A : FIFO
B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 9. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

A
D : End

AH
Q.no 10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is

W
called as

S
A : Polling

AT
B : Inspection

P H
C : Reviewing

O M
D : Echoing

Q.no 11. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs
from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 12. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 13. Effective access time is directly proportional to


A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 14. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

A
C : after initialisation of program

AH
D : anywhere in a program

S W
Q.no 15. LRU stands for?

T
A : Less Recently used

H A
B : Least Recurrently used

M P
C : Least Randomly used

O
D : Least Recently used

Q.no 16. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 17. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 18. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in


A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 19. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

A
C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

AH
D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

S W
Q.no 20. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

T
A : To indicate the purpose of the code

H A
B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

M P
C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

O
D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 21. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 22. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page
A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

A
B : SCAN

AH
C : C-SCAN

S W
D : C-LOOK

T
Q.no 25. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,

A
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

P H
A : procedure

O M
B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

A
Q.no 29. A process is thrashing if

AH
A : it is spending more time paging than executing

S W
B : it is spending less time paging than executing

T
C : page fault occurs

H A
D : swapping can not take place

M P
Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a

O
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 33. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

AHA
D : none of the mentioned

W
Q.no 34. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters

S
and produces output as a meaningful token .

T
A : Parser

H A
B : Optimizer

M P
C : Scanner

O
D : Loader

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 37. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.
A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 38. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

A
C : secondary memory

AH
D : none of the mentioned

S W
Q.no 39. Format of macro call is

T
A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

H A
B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

M P
C : <macro name>

O
D : <call macro>

Q.no 40. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 41. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?
A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 43. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

AHA
C : Regular analysis

W
D : General analysis

S
Q.no 44. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

AT
A : Lex

P H
B : Yacc

O M
C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 47. Static memory allocation is typically performed during


A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 48. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

AHA
C : FIFO

W
D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

S
Q.no 49. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a

T
reserved portion of the disk.

H A
A : Bit tables

M P
B : Chained Free Portions

O
C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 51. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 53. Using a pager

AHA
A : increases the swap time

W
B : decreases the swap time

S
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

AT
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

P H
Q.no 54. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the

M
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

O
A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well


C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 57. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

AHA
Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

S W
A : Bit tables

T
B : Chained Free Portions

H A
C : Indexing

M P
D : Free Block List

O
Q.no 59. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 1. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address


B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 2. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

AHA
D : Unix

W
Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready

S
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

T
A : all process

H A
B : currently running process

M P
C : parent process

O
D : init process

Q.no 4. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 5. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin
Q.no 6. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

AHA
B : An extremely large secondary memory

W
C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

S
D : A type of memory used in super computers

AT
Q.no 8. LR stands for

P H
A : Left to right

O M
B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 9. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 10. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location


Q.no 11. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 12. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

A
B : FCFS

AH
C : RR

S W
D : Priority

T
Q.no 13. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

H A
A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

M P
B : round robin scheduling algorithm

O
C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 14. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 15. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call


Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

AHA
B : ENDS

W
C : MEND

S
D : ENDD

AT
Q.no 18. which of the following is not a type of translator?

P H
A : assembler

O M
B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 19. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 20. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such
Q.no 21. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 22. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

A
B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

AH
C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

S W
D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

T
Q.no 23. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

H A
A : synthesizing code

M P
B : gathering information

O
C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 24. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 25. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 27. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

AHA
B : only lexical analysis

W
C : Code optimization

S
D : code generation

AT
Q.no 28. System softwares are used to

P H
A : bridge gap between different applications

O M
B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 29. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader
Q.no 31. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

AHA
B : Constants

W
C : Keywords

S
D : context free grammar

AT
Q.no 33. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

P H
A : START

O M
B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

Q.no 36. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is


unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 37. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing

A
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

AH
A : Leftmost derivation

S W
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

T
C : Rightmost derivation

H A
D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

M P
Q.no 38. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to

O
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 39. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 40. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation
B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 41. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

AHA
D : Assembler

W
Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type

S
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

AT
A : minimum

P H
B : average

O M
C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter
Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A
A : Virtual page number

AH
B : Page frame number

S W
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

T
D : Access right information

H A
Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

M P
A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

O
B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 49. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant
D : data dependant

Q.no 50. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 51. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can

A
be implemented in hardware?

AH
A : Counters

S W
B : RAM & Registers

T
C : Stack & Counters

H A
D : Registers

M P
Q.no 52. The linker is

O
A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number
C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

AHA
Q.no 56. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

S W
A : START

T
B : END

H A
C : ORIGIN

M P
D : Both START and ORIGIN

O
Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 58. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 59. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

AHA
D : future requests and releases of each process

W
Q.no 1. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

S
A : semantic analysis

AT
B : code generation

P H
C : syntax analysis

O M
D : code optimization

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a


program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.


A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

A
C : Single BUS structure

AH
D : Node to Node BUS structure

S W
Q.no 6. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

T
A : PS

H A
B : TOP

M P
C : fork

O
D : kill

Q.no 7. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 8. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 9. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?
A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 10. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

AHA
C : Directory management

W
D : Scheduling and control

S
Q.no 11. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing

T
store or in memory and are ready to run.

H A
A : wait queue

M P
B : ready queue

O
C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 12. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 13. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter
Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

A
B : page-fault rate

AH
C : hit ratio

S W
D : none of the mentioned

T
Q.no 16. A macro is

H A
A : a small program inside a program

M P
B : set of special instructions

O
C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System
Q.no 19. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 20. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A
A : Polling

AH
B : Inspection

S W
C : Reviewing

T
D : Echoing

H A
Q.no 21. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

M P
A : Non-preemptive scheduling

O
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 22. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code
D : tokens

Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A
A : error

AH
B : protection

S W
C : valid – invalid

T
D : access

H A
Q.no 26. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

M P
A : greater than segment limit

O
B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 27. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 28. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies
D : cylinders

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

AHA
A : earliest due date

W
B : slack time remaining

S
C : first come, first served

AT
D : critical ratio

P H
Q.no 31. The file name is generally split into two parts :

O M
A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 32. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language
D : high level language

Q.no 34. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 35. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A
A : FCFS – First come First served

AH
B : SJF – Shortest Job First

S W
C : RR – Round Robin

T
D : priority

H A
Q.no 36. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

M P
A : positioning time

O
B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 37. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 38. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner
D : Loader

Q.no 39. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

AHA
A : Non preemptive scheduling

W
B : Preemptive scheduling

S
C : Shortest job first

AT
D : First come First served

P H
Q.no 41. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

O M
A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments


C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

A
Q.no 45. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a

AH
reserved portion of the disk.

W
A : Bit tables

S
B : Chained Free Portions

AT
C : Indexing

P H
D : Free Block List

O M
Q.no 46. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 47. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 48. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass
B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

AHA
D : number of processes in memory

W
Q.no 50. Using a pager

S
A : increases the swap time

AT
B : decreases the swap time

P H
C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

O M
D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language
D : A program that accepts a program written in
high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

A
Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its

AH
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

W
A : Semantic analysis

S
B : Syntax analysis

AT
C : Regular analysis

P H
D : General analysis

O M
Q.no 55. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 56. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 57. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain


B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 58. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

A
D : both 1 & 3

AH
Q.no 59. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

W
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

S
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

T
A : Bit tables

H A
B : Chained Free Portions

M P
C : Indexing

O
D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 2. Literal table stores


A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

A
C : pure demand paging

AH
D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

S W
Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

T
A : Interrupts

H A
B : Memory mapping

M P
C : Program-controlled I/O

O
D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. The data-in register of I/O port is


A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

A
C : page fault occurs

AH
D : swapping can not take place

S W
Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

T
A : System call

H A
B : API

M P
C : library

O
D : shell

Q.no 10. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 12. In priority scheduling algorithm


A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 13. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

A
C : inbuilt macro call

AH
D : inherited macro call

S W
Q.no 14. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

T
A : Parser

H A
B : Code optimization

M P
C : Code generator

O
D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 15. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 16. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 17. In memory-mapped I/O


A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

AHA
C : auxiliary memory

W
D : secondary memory

S
Q.no 19. A macro can be defined at

AT
A : beginning of a program

P H
B : end of a program

O M
C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 20. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 21. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups


Q.no 22. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 23. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

A
B : user level thread

AH
C : process

S W
D : priority Process

T
Q.no 24. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing

A
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

P H
A : Leftmost derivation

O M
B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 25. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 26. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler


D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 27. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 28. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A
A : protection algorithm with each page

AH
B : restricted access rights to users

S W
C : restriction on page visibility

T
D : protection bit with each page

H A
Q.no 29. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

M P
A : Compiler

O
B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation
D : Swapping

Q.no 32. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 33. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

AHA
A : First come First served

W
B : Shortest Job First

S
C : Earliest Deadline First

AT
D : Longest Job First

P H
Q.no 34. Linking is process of binding

O M
A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 35. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software
D : Application software

Q.no 37. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 38. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

AHA
A : Last in first out

W
B : Shortest service time first

S
C : SCAN

AT
D : Circular SCAN

P H
Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,

M
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

O
A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 41. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

A
D : approximate

AH
Q.no 43. The linker is

S W
A : is same as the loader

T
B : is required to create a load module

H A
C : is always used before programs are executed

M P
D : translator

O
Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 45. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist


B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

AHA
D : Both START and ORIGIN

W
Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

S
A : the page is not legal

AT
B : the page is illegal

P H
C : the page is in memory

O M
D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory


B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

AHA
D : Registers

W
Q.no 53. An imperative statement

S
A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

AT
B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

P H
C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

O M
D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant
Q.no 56. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A
A : resources currently available

AH
B : processes that have previously been in the system

S W
C : resources currently allocated to each process

T
D : future requests and releases of each process

H A
Q.no 58. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to

P
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

O M
A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 59. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 60. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 1. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

A
Q.no 2. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not

AH
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

W
A : Directory Management

S
B : Logical I/O

AT
C : Device I/O

P H
D : Scheduling and control

O M
Q.no 3. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 4. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor
B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 6. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

A
D : Myfile.obj

AH
Q.no 7. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready

W
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

S
A : all process

AT
B : currently running process

P H
C : parent process

O M
D : init process

Q.no 8. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 9. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 10. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls


B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

A
D : End

AH
Q.no 12. The function of OS

S W
A : Resource allocator

T
B : control program

H A
C : create user friendly env.

M P
D : All

O
Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 15. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?
A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 16. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

A
C : priority scheduling algorithm

AH
D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

S W
Q.no 17. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

AT
A : Polling

P H
B : Inspection

O M
C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 18. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 19. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned


Q.no 20. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 21. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

A
B : statement

AH
C : Numeric data

S W
D : ASCII data

T
Q.no 22. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,

A
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

P H
A : procedure

O M
B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 24. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process
C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

A
Q.no 26. System programmer needs

AH
A : knowledge of only system

S W
B : knowledge of only programming

T
C : knowledge of both system and application programming

H A
D : knowledge of hardware

M P
Q.no 27. Lexemes can be referred to as

O
A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 29. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent


C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

A
Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

AH
A : Identifiers

S W
B : Constants

T
C : Keywords

H A
D : context free grammar

M P
Q.no 32.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

O
A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 33. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 34. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First


C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 35. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

A
Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

AH
A : USING

S W
B : BALR

T
C : DROP

H A
D : ORG

M P
Q.no 37. Operating system is

O
A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 38. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 39. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser
B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 40. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

A
D : bridge gap between different systems

AH
Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from

W
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

S
A : write ahead

AT
B : read ahead

P H
C : free-behind

O M
D : add-front

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 43. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs
A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 45. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

A
C : Linked list

AH
D : Double linked list

S W
Q.no 46. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

AT
A : Segments are better than pages

P H
B : Pages are better than segments

O M
C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 48. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 49. Using a pager


A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 50. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

AHA
C : Indexing

W
D : Free Block List

S
Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from

T
Belady’s Anomaly?

H A
A : Optimal replacement

M P
B : LRU

O
C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking
Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A
A : the instruction set architecture

AH
B : page size

S W
C : physical memory size

T
D : number of processes in memory

H A
Q.no 56. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead

P
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the

M
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

O
A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.
A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

A
C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

AH
D : Access right information

S W
Q.no 60. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

AT
A : Identifier

P H
B : Number

O M
C : Keyword

D : operator
Operating System Questions & Answers – Processes

This set of Operating System Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Processes”.

1. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called __________
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:b

A
Explanation: Those systems which allows more than one process execution at a time, are called
multiprogramming systems. Uniprocessing means only one processor.

A H
2. In operating system, each process has its own __________
a) address space and global variables

W
b) open files

S
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers

AT
d) all of the mentioned
Answer:d

H
Explanation: None.

P
3. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?
a) fork

M
b) create

O
c) new
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a
Explanation: None.
4. A process can be terminated due to __________
a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. What is the ready state of a process?
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: When process is unable to run until some task has been completed, the process
is in blocked state and if process is using the CPU, it is in running state.
6. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. A set of processes is deadlock if __________
a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. A process stack does not contain __________
a) Function parameters

A
b) Local variables

H
c) Return addresses

A
d) PID of child process
Answer: d

W
Explanation: None.

AT S
9. Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated child?
a) wait
b) exit

H
c) fork

P
d) get
Answer: a

M
Explanation: None.

O
10. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by
the __________
a) CPU registers
b) Program counter
c) Process stack
d) Pipe

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

This set of Operating System Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “CPU
Scheduling”.

1. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called _____________
a) job queue
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as
____________
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time
c) response time

A
d) throughput

H
Answer: b

A
Explanation: None.

W
4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU

S
first?

AT
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling

H
c) priority scheduling

P
d) none of the mentioned

M
Answer: a

O
Explanation: None.
5. In priority scheduling algorithm ____________
a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of ____________
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Process are classified into different groups in ____________
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm ____________
a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned

A
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

A H
10. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread

W
b) user level thread

S
c) process

AT
d) none of the mentioned

H
Answer: b

P
Explanation: User level threads are managed by thread library and the kernel is unaware of
them.

O M
This set of Operating System Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Deadlock”.

1. What is a reusable resource?


a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?
a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. A system is in the safe state if ____________
a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
b) using thread
c) using pipes
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
a) banker’s algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm

A
d) karn’s algorithm

A H
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

S W
6. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?

AT
a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear

H
d) all of the mentioned

P
Answer: d

M
Explanation: None.

O
7. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mention
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied necessary
resources is called ____________
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the deadlock
occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. To avoid deadlock ____________
a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
b) resource allocation must be done only once
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) inversion technique can be used

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Total- (10+10+10)

********************************************************************************
***** SPOS Question Bank on unit-IV

A H A
1. Dual mode of operating system has

S W
A. 1 mode

AT
B. 2 modes
C. 3 modes

H
D. 4 modes

P
ANSWER: B

M
2. Multi-processor system gives a

O
A. small system
B. tightly coupled system
C. loosely coupled system
D. both a and b
Answer B

3. Logical extension of multiprogramming operating system is

A. time sharing
B. multi-tasking
C. single programing
D. both a and b
Answer D

4. Multiprocessor system have advantage of

A. Increased Throughput
B. Expensive hardware
C. operating system
D. both a and b
ANSWER:A

5. Scheduling of threads are done by


A. input
B. output
C. operating system
D. memory

ANSWER:C

6. Multiprogramming of computer system increases

A. memory
B. storage
C. CPU utilization

A H A
S W
P H AT
O M
D. cost
ANSWER:
C
7. Another type of multiple-CPU system is the

A. mini Computer
B. Super Computer
C. Clustered System
D. both a and b
ANSWER:

A
C

AH
8. Interrupt table of pointers having addresses for each interrupt is located at

S W
A. high memory
B. low memory

T
C. mid memory

A
D. both a and b

H
ANSWER:

P
B

M
9. Example of open source operating system is

O
A. UNIX
B. Linux
C. windows
D. both a and b
ANSWER:
D
10. Main memory of computer system is also called

A. non volatile
B. volatile
C. reserved
D. large

ANSWER: B
11. Controller of computer system transfers data from device to

A. buffers
B. cache
C. registers
D. in
dexes
ANSWER:
A
12. When many users accesses mainframes, this approach is called as

A. resource allocation
B. word processors
C. dedicated resources
D. interface

ANSWER: A

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
13. Accessing same data from storage of computer system is provided by

A. serial clusters
B. parallel clusters
C. Beowulf clusters
D. both a and b
ANSWER:
B
14. To start an I/O operation device driver loads appropriate register into?

A
A. memory

AH
B. Secondary storage
C. Device Controller

W
D. Ar

S
rays

T
ANSWER:

A
C

H
15. Symmetric multiprocessing architecture of computer system uses shared

M P
A. bus

O
B. memory
C. processors

D. both a and
b ANSWER: D

16. In asymmetric clustering other machines perform operations while one machine is in

A. hot standby mode


B. standby mode
C. reset mode
D. undefined mode
ANSWER: AAnswer
A
17. Ability to continuously providing service proportional to level of surviving hardware

A. graceful upgradation
B. degradation
C. upgradation
D. graceful
degradation
ANSWER: D
18. Secondary memory of computer system is also called

A. non volatile
B. volatile
C. reserved
D. small

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
ANSWER: A

19. Environment in which programs of computer system are executed is:

A. operating system
B. nodes
C. clustered system
D. both a and b
ANSWER:
A

AHA
20. One word memory storage is collection of

W
A. 2 bytes

S
B. 4 bytes
C. 7 bytes

T
8

A
D.
byt

H
es

P
ANSWER:

M
B

O
21. Each user of computer system that uses computer services has at least

A. 1program
B. 2programs
C. 3programs
D. 4programs
ANSWER:
A
22. Clusters of computer system can be used more efficiently using

A. serialization
B. parallelization
C. LAN
D. WAN

ANSWER: B

23. A properly designed operating system must ensure that an incorrect (or malicious)
program cannot cause other programs to execute
A. incorrectly
B. Correctly
C. both a and b
D. None

ANSWER: A

24. Table of pointers for interrupt to be executed contains the


A. interrupts
B. programs

A
C. addresses

AH
D. compilers
ANSWER: C

S W
25. User view of system depends upon the

H AT
A. CPU

P
B. software
C. hardware

M
D. interface

O
ANSWER: D

26. Memories are normally classified according to their

A. speed
B. cost
C. indexes
D. both a and b
ANSWER:
D
27. SCSI system is abbreviation of the

A. small common-system interface


B. small common-system interaction
C. small computer-system interface
D. small computer-system
interaction ANSWER: C
28. One megabyte memory storage in form of bytes is equal to

A. 1024 bytes
B. 1024² bytes
C. 1024³ bytes
D. 1024&sup4; bytes
ANSWER: B
29. Multi-processing systems of computer system are of

A. 2 types
B. 3 types
C. 4 types
D. 5 types

AHA
ANSWER: A

S W
30. Clustered computer systems are normally linked via

AT
A. LAN

H
B. WAN

M P
O
C. PAN
D. TAN

ANSWER: A

31. Kernel mode of operating system runs when mode bit is

A. 1
B. 0

A
C. x

AH
D. undefined
ANSWER:

W
B

S
32. Kernel mode of operating system is also called

AT
user mode

H
A.
system mode

P
B.
C. supervisor mode

M
D. both a and b
ANSWER:

O
C
33. Multi-processor systems of computer system has advantage of

A. cost
B. reliability
C. uncertainty
D. scalability
ANSWER: B

34. Time sharing systems of computer system have

A. clusters
B. nodes
C. file system
D. both a and b

ANSWER:C

35. One megabyte memory storage in form of bytes is equal to

A. 1024 bytes
B. 1024 kilo bytes
C. 1056 bytes
D. 1058 kilo
bytes
ANSWER: B

36. Privileged mode of operating system mode is a

A. user code

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
B. kernel mode
C. system mode
D. both b and c
ANSWER:
B
37. Example of bug in one program of operating system effects others in

A. zero error
B. infinite loop
C. invalid memory access

A
D. both a and b

AH
ANSWER:
B

W
38. Master slave relationship in computer system is used by

AT S
A. symmetric multiprocessor
asymmetric multiprocessor

H
B.
C. symmetric multiprocessing

P
D. asymm etric

M
multiprocessing
ANSWER: D

O
39. Beowulf clusters of computer system uses

A. close source softwares


B. open source softwares
C. dedicated softwares
 both a
and b
D. ANSWER:
B
40. In non-multiprogrammed system Central Processing Unit will

A. sit idle
B. perform well
C. cost high
D. cost low

ANSWER: B

41. When a thread needs to wait for an event it will


A. Block
B. Execute
C. Terminate
D. Update
ANSWER:A

42. In a pure Kernel Level Thread facility all of work of thread management is done by the
A. Application
B. Program
C. Kernel
D. Threads
ANSWER:C

AHA
43. Microkernel design imposes a uniform

W
A. Process

S
B. Processor
C. Interface

T
D. System

A
ANSWER:C

P H
M
44. Microkernel architecture facilitates

O
A. Functionality
B. Extensibility
C. Reliability
D. Portability
ANSWER:B

45. Asynchronous elements in program can be implemented through


A. Bugs
B. Threads
C. Programs
D. Security Policy
ANSWER:B

46. Unit of dispatching is usually referred as


A. Multiprogramming
B. Security Policy
C. Problem
D. Thread
ANSWER:D
47. A single machine instruction can controls simultaneous execution of a number processing
elements on
A. Lockstep Basis
B. Open Step Basis
C. Early Basis
D. None
ANSWER:A

48. Owner of an address space can grant a number of its

A
A. Modules

AH
B. Pages
C. Devices

W
D. Computers

S
ANSWER:B

AT
49. Microkernel lends itself to

P H
A. Computers
B. Systems

M
C. Distributed Systems

O
D. Applications
ANSWER:C

50. Microkernel supports


A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Accessible
D. Rigid
ANSWER:A

51. In Many-to-One multithreading model many user level threads are attached to
A. One register
B. operating system
C. One kernel thread
D. other threads
ANSWER:C

52. Programs involve a variety of activities is easier to design and implement using
A. Programs
B. Information
C. Data
D. Threads
ANSWER:D

53. Multiple threads within same process may be allocated to separate


A. Applications
B. Programs
C. Processors
D. Processes
ANSWER:C

AHA
54. A lightweight process (LWP) can be viewed as a mapping between ULTs and

W
A. Kernel Threads

S
B. UNIX Thread

T
C. Linux Threads

A
D. WindowVista Threads

H
ANSWER:A

P
55. Modular design helps to enhance

M
A. Functionality

O
B. Reliability
C. Portability
D. Flexibility
ANSWER:B

56. Microkernel is responsible for mapping each virtual


A. Module
B. I/O Devices
C. Memory
D. Page
ANSWER:D

57. Thread processor affinity is set of


A. Processes
B. Processors
C. Programs
D. Applications

ANSWER:B

58. In UNIX, thread is


A. Runnable
B. Executing
C. Updated
D. Access
ANSWER:A

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
59. When a process is spawned, a thread for that process is also
A. Complete
B. Spawned
C. Closed
D. Update
ANSWER:B

60. A sequence of data is transmitted to a set of


A. Devices
B. Resources

A
C. Computers

AH
D. Processors
ANSWER:D

T S W
61. A set of processors simultaneously execute different instructions on different

A
A. Buffers

H
B. Data Set

P
C. Buses

M
D. Registers
ANSWER:B

O
62. A new process is created in Linux by copying the
A. Address
B. ID
C. Object
D. Attributes
ANSWER:D

63. Multithreading refers to ability of an operating system to support multiple


A. Execution
B. Updating
C. Completion
D. None
ANSWER:A

64. A microkernel architecture works well in context of an


A. Object Oriented Operating System
B. Internal device
C. Interface
D. Attractive Feature
E. ANSWER:A
65. When a new process is created in Win32 new process inherits many of its
A. Classes
B. Objects
C. Parent Attributes
D. Functions
ANSWER:C

66. A single processor executes a single instruction stream to operate on data stored in a single
A. Computer

A
B. System

AH
C. Memory
D. Device
ANSWER:C

T S W
67. Each windows process is represented by an

H A
A. I/O Devices

P
B. Interface
C. Object

M
D. Information

O
ANSWER:C

68. With Microkernel architecture it is possible to handle hardware interrupts as


A. Application
B. Information
C. Data
D. Message
ANSWER:D

69. Process or task in Linux is represented by a


A. task done
B. task construct
C. task build
D. task struct
ANSWER:D

70. Windows processes are implemented as


A. Objectives
B. Programs
C. Modems
D. Models
ANSWER:A
71. Kernel threads are directly supported by
A. Register
B. Application
C. Operating system
D. Memory
ANSWER:C

72. Motivation for converting interrupts to threads is to reduce

A
A. Overcome

AH
B. Overhead
C. Overload

W
D. Over access

S
ANSWER:B

H AT
73. Process image is collection of

P
A. Images

M
B. Graphics

O
C. Programs
D. None

ANSWER:C

74. Kernel dispatcher keep track of all ready


A. Threads
B. Systems
C. Registers
D. Buffers

ANSWER:A

75. A process can map any of its pages into address space of another

A. Process
B. Program
C. System
D. Application
ANSWE:A
76. In a pure User Level Thread facility all of work of thread management is
done by the

A. Application
B. Process
C. Program
D. System

A
ANSWER:A

W AH
77. Process execution is execution of

AT S
A. Blocks

H
B. Paths

P
C. Statements
D. Programs

O M
ANSWER:B

78. Traditionally computer has been viewed as a sequential

A. Data
B. Machine
C. Program
D. Process

ANSWER:B

79. Port identities and capabilities are maintained by

A. Object Oriented Operating System


B. Kernel Service
C. Kernel
D. Microkernel

ANSWER:C

80. Which java feature is used to invoke a method on a remote object?

A. Process Control Block (PCB)


B. Remote Method Invocation (RMI)
C. Remote access control Block

A
D. Both a and b

AH
ANSWER:B

S W
Total=30+80=110

H AT
M P
O
1. Whenever a process needs I/O to or from a disk it issues a ______________
a) system call to the CPU
b) system call to the operating system
c) a special procedure
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. If a process needs I/O to or from a disk, and if the drive or controller is busy then
____________

A
a) the request will be placed in the queue of pending requests for that drive

AH
b) the request will not be processed and will be ignored completely
c) the request will be not be placed
d) none of the mentioned

W
Answer: a

S
Explanation: None.

AT
3. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders.

H
98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67

P
Considering FCFS (first cum first served) scheduling, the total number of head movements is, if
the disk head is initially at 53 is?

M
a) 600

O
b) 620
c) 630
d) 640
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders.


98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67
Considering SSTF (shortest seek time first) scheduling, the total number of head movements is,
if the disk head is initially at 53 is?
a) 224
b) 236
c) 245
d) 240
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Random access in magnetic tapes is _________ compared to magnetic disks.


a) fast
b) very fast
c) slow
d) very slow
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. Magnetic tape drives can write data at a speed ________ disk drives.
a) much lesser than
b) comparable to
c) much faster than
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

A
7. On media that use constant linear velocity (CLV), the _____________ is uniform.

AH
a) density of bits on the disk
b) density of bits per sector
c) the density of bits per track

W
d) none of the mentioned

S
Answer: c

T
Explanation: The farther a track is from the center of the disk.

H A
8. SSTF algorithm, like SJF __________ of some requests.

P
a) may cause starvation
b) will cause starvation

M
c) does not cause starvation

O
d) causes aging
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the other
end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is reversed
and servicing continues.
a) LOOK
b) SCAN
c) C-SCAN
d) C-LOOK
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. In the _______ algorithm, the disk head moves from one end to the other, servicing requests
along the way. When the head reaches the other end, it immediately returns to the beginning of
the disk without servicing any requests on the return trip.
a) LOOK
b) SCAN
c) C-SCAN
d) C-LOOK
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

advertisement

11. In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm goes as far as the final request in each direction, then
reverses direction immediately without going to the end of the disk.
a) LOOK
b) SCAN
c) C-SCAN
d) C-LOOK

A
View Answer

AH
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

S W
12. Which of the following is an example of Spooled Device?

AT
a) A graphic display device
b) A line printer used to print the output of a number of jobs

H
c) A terminal used to enter input data to a running program

P
d) A secondary storage device in a virtual memory system

M
Answer: b

O
Explanation: A line printer used to print the output of a number of jobs

13. Thrashing occurs when___________

a) CPU tends to execute a particular process and seeks for it's respective page
b) IO demands a service
c) Cache memory stores a page
d) Any command runs

Answer: a

14. The following is not a layer of IO management module

a) PIOCS (Physical Input Output Control System)


b) LIOCS (Logical Input Output Control System)
c) FS (File System)
d) MCS (Management Control System)

Answer: (d).MCS (Management Control System)


15. If one or more devices use a common set of wires to communicate with the computer system,
the connection is called ______

a) CPU
b) Monitor
c) Wirefull
d) Bus

Answer: (d).

A
16. A ____ a set of wires and a rigidly defined protocol that specifies a set of messages that can

AH
be sent on the wires.

a) Port

W
b) Node

S
c) Bus

T
d) None of above

H A
Answer: (c).

P
17. When device A has a cable that plugs into device B, and device B has a cable that plugs into

M
device C and device C plugs into a port on the computer, this arrangement is called a _________

O
a) Port
b) Daisy chain
c) Bus
d) Cable

Answer: (b).

18. The _________ present a uniform device-access interface to the I/O subsystem, much as
system calls provide a standard interface between the application and the operating system.

a) Devices
b) Buses
c) Device drivers
d) I/O systems

Answer: c

19. How does the Hardware trigger an interrupt ?

a) Sending signals to CPU through system bus


b) Executing a special program called interrupt program
c) Executing a special program called system program
d) Executing a special operation called system call
Answer: (a).

20. Which operation is performed by an interrupt handler ?

a) Saving the current state of the system


b) Loading the interrupt handling code and executing it
c) Once done handling, bringing back the system to the original state it was before the
interrupt occurred
d) All of these

Answer: (d).

A
21. Whenever a process needs I/O to or from a disk it issues a ______________

AH
a) system call to the CPU
b) system call to the operating system

W
c) a special procedure

S
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b

T
Explanation: As per Definition.

H A
22. If a process needs I/O to or from a disk, and if the drive or controller is busy then

P
____________

M
a) the request will be placed in the queue of pending requests for that drive
b) the request will not be processed and will be ignored completely

O
c) the request will be not be placed
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: As per Definition

23. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders.
98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67
Considering FCFS (first cum first served) scheduling, the total number of head movements is, if
the disk head is initially at 53 is?
a) 600
b) 620
c) 630
d) 640
Answer: d
Explanation: As per Definition

24. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders.
98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67
Considering SSTF (shortest seek time first) scheduling, the total number of head movements is,
if the disk head is initially at 53 is?
a) 224
b) 236
c) 245
d) 240
Answer: b
Explanation: As per Definition

25. Random access in magnetic tapes is _________ compared to magnetic disks.


a) fast
b) very fast
c) slow
d) very slow
Answer: d

A
Explanation: As per Definition

AH
26. Magnetic tape drives can write data at a speed ________ disk drives.
a) much lesser than

W
b) comparable to

S
c) much faster than

T
d) none of the mentioned

A
Answer: b

H
Explanation: As per Definition

P
27. On media that use constant linear velocity (CLV), the _____________ is uniform.

M
a) density of bits on the disk

O
b) density of bits per sector
c) the density of bits per track
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The farther a track is from the center of the disk.

28. SSTF algorithm, like SJF __________ of some requests.


a) may cause starvation
b) will cause starvation
c) does not cause starvation
d) causes aging
Answer: a
Explanation: As per Definition

29. In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.
a) LOOK
b) SCAN
c) C-SCAN
d) C-LOOK
Answer: b
Explanation: As per Definition

30. In the _______ algorithm, the disk head moves from one end to the other, servicing requests
along the way. When the head reaches the other end, it immediately returns to the beginning of
the disk without servicing any requests on the return trip.
a) LOOK
b) SCAN
c) C-SCAN
d) C-LOOK
Answer: c

A
Explanation: As per Definition

AH
31. In the ______ algorithm, the disk arm goes as far as the final request in each direction, then
reverses direction immediately without going to the end of the disk.

W
a) LOOK

S
b) SCAN

T
c) C-SCAN

A
d) C-LOOK

P H
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

O M
32. ______ is a unique tag, usually a number identifies the file within the file system.
a) File identifier
b) File name
c) File type
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: By Definition

33. To create a file ____________


a) allocate the space in file system
b) make an entry for new file in directory
c) allocate the space in file system & make an entry for new file in directory
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: By Definition

34. By using the specific system call, we can ____________


a) open the file
b) read the file
c) write into the file
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: By Definition

35. File type can be represented by ____________


a) file name
b) file extension
c) file identifier
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: By Definition

A
36. Which file is a sequence of bytes organized into blocks understandable by the system’s

AH
linker?
a) object file
b) source file

W
c) executable file

S
d) text file

T
Answer: a

A
Explanation: By Definition

P H
37. What is the mounting of file system?
a) crating of a filesystem

M
b) deleting a filesystem

O
c) attaching portion of the file system into a directory structure
d) removing the portion of the file system into a directory structure
Answer: c
Explanation: By Definition

38. Mapping of file is managed by ____________


a) file metadata
b) page table
c) virtual memory
d) file system
Answer: a
Explanation: By Definition

39. Mapping of network file system protocol to local file system is done by ____________
a) network file system
b) local file system
c) volume manager
d) remote mirror
Answer: a
Explanation: By Definition
40. Which one of the following explains the sequential file access method?
a) random access according to the given byte number
b) read bytes one at a time, in order
c) read/write sequentially by record
d) read/write randomly by record
Answer: b
Explanation: By Definition

41. When will file system fragmentation occur?


a) unused space or single file are not contiguous
b) used space is not contiguous

A
c) unused space is non-contiguous

AH
d) multiple files are non-contiguous
Answer: a
Explanation: By Definition

T S W
P H A
O M
SPOS MCQ Question Bank on UNIT-V
1. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of:
A. program counter
B. status register
C. instruction register
D. program status word
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
None

2. A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called:


A. stack pointer
B. cache

A
C. accumulator

H
D. disk buffer

A
ANSWER: B

W
3. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?

S
A. physical address

AT
B. absolute address
C. logical address

H
D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:C

M P
4. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by:

O
A. memory management unit
B. CPU
C. PCI
D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:A

5. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data from secondary
storage for use in main memory is called:
A. fragmentation
B. paging
C. mapping
D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:B

6. Effective access time is directly proportional to:


A. page-fault rate
B. hit ratio
C. memory access time
D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:B

7. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced:


A. oldest page is chosen
B. newest page is chosen
C. random page is chosen
D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:A
8. Which algorithm chooses the page that has not been used for the longest period of time whenever
the page required to be replaced?

A. first in first out algorithm


B. additional reference bit algorithm
C. least recently used algorithm
D. counting based page replacement algorithm
ANSWER:A

9. A process is thrashing if:


A. it is spending more time paging than executing
B. it is spending less time paging than executing
C. page fault occurs
D. swapping can not take place

A
ANSWER:C

A H
10. Working set model for page replacement is based on the assumption of:

W
A. modularity

S
B. locality
C. globalization

AT
D. random access
ANSWER:A

P H
11. The operating system is :

M
A. in the low memory
B. in the high memory

O
C. either a or b (depending on the location of interrupt vector)
D. None of these
ANSWER:C

12. In contiguous memory allocation :


A. each process is contained in a single contiguous section of memory
B. all processes are contained in a single contiguous section of memory
C. the memory space is contiguous
D. None of these
ANSWER:A

13. The relocation register helps in :


A. providing more address space to processes
B. a different address space to processes
C. to protect the address spaces of processes
D. None of these
ANSWER:C

14. With relocation and limit registers, each logical address must be
A. less than
B. equal to
C. greater than
D. None of these
the limit register.
ANSWER:A
15. The operating system and the other processes are protected from being modified by an already
running process because :
A. they are in different memory spaces
B. they are in different logical addresses
C. they have a protection algorithm
D. every address generated by the CPU is being checked against the relocation and limit registers
ANSWER:D

16. Transient operating system code is code that :


A. is not easily accessible
B. comes and goes as needed
C. stays in the memory always
D. never enters the memory space
ANSWER:B

A
17. Using transient code,

H
A. increases

A
B. decreases

W
he size of the operating system during program execution. C. changes

S
D. maintains
ANSWER:C

AT
18. When memory is divided into several fixed sized partitions, each partition may contain

H
A. exactly one process

P
B. atleast one process

M
C. multiple processes at once
D. None of these

O
ANSWER:A

19. In fixed sized partition, the degree of multiprogramming is bounded by


A. the number of partitions
B. the CPU utilization
C. the memory size
D. All of these
ANSWER:A

20. The first fit, best fit and worst fit are strategies to select a
A. process from a queue to put in memory
B. processor to run the next process
C. free hole from a set of available holes
D. All of these
ANSWER:C

21. In internal fragmentation, memory is internal to a partition and :


A. is being used
B. is not being used
C. is always used
D. None of these
ANSWER:B

22. A solution to the problem of external fragmentation is :


A. compaction
B. larger memory space
C. smaller memory space
D. None of these
ANSWER:A

23. Another solution to the problem of external fragmentation problem is to :


 A. permit the logical address space of a process to be noncontiguous
 B. permit smaller processes to be allocated memory at last
 C. permit larger processes to be allocated memory at last
 D. All of these
ANSWER:A
24. If relocation is static and is done at assembly or load time, compaction
 A. cannot be done
 B. must be done
 C. must not be done

A
 D. can be done

H
.

A
ANSWER:A

W
25. The disadvantage of moving all process to one end of memory and all holes to the other

S
direction,
producing one large hole of available memory is :

AT
 A. the cost incurred
 B. the memory used

H
 C. the CPU used

P
 D. All of these

M
ANSWER:A
Answer D

O
26.
is generally faster than
 A. first fit, best fit, worst fit
 B. best fit, first fit, worst fit
and
. C. worst fit, best fit, first fit
 D. None of these
ANSWER:A
27. External fragmentation exists when :
 A. enough total memory exists to satisfy a request but it is not contiguous
 B. the total memory is insufficient to satisfy a request
 C. a request cannot be satisfied even when the total memory is free
 D. None of these
ANSWER:A
28. External fragmentation will not occur when :
 A. first fit is used
 B. best fit is used
 C. worst fit is used
 D. no matter which algorithm is used, it will always occur
ANSWER:D
29. Sometimes the overhead of keeping track of a hole might be :
 A. larger than the memory
 B. larger than the hole itself
 C. very small
 D. All of these
ANSWER:B
30. When the memory allocated to a process is slightly larger than the process, then :
 A. internal fragmentation occurs
 B. external fragmentation occurs
 C. both a and b
 D. neither a nor b

ANSWER:A
31. Because of virtual memory, the memory can be shared among:

A. processes
 B. threads
 C. instructions
 D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:A

A
32.

H
is the concept in which a process is copied into main memory from the secondary memory

A
according to the requirement.

W
 A. Paging

S
 B. Demand paging
 C. Segmentation

AT
 D. Swapping
ANSWER:B

H
33. The pager concerns with the:

P
 A. individual page of a process

M
 B. entire process
 C. entire thread

O
 D. first page of a process

ANSWER:A
34. Swap space exists in:
 A. primary memory
 B. secondary memory
 C. CPU
 D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:B
35. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical
memory, then?
 A. segmentation fault occurs
 B. fatal error occurs
 C. page fault occurs
 D. no error occursANSWER:C
36. Effective access time is directly proportional to:
 A. page-fault rate
 B. hit ratio
 C. memory access time
 D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:A
37. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced:
 A. oldest page is chosen
 B. newest page is chosen
 C. random page is chosen
 D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:A

38. Which algorithm chooses the page that has not been used for the longest period of time
whenever the page required to be replaced?
 A. first in first out algorithm
 B. additional reference bit algorithm
 C. least recently used algorithm
 D. counting based page replacement algorithm
ANSWER:C

39. A process is thrashing if:


 A. it is spending more time paging than executing
 B. it is spending less time paging than executing

A
 C. page fault occurs

H
 D. swapping can not take place

A
ANSWER:A

S W
40. Working set model for page replacement is based on the assumption of:
 A. modularity

AT
 B. locality
 C. globalization

H
 D. random access

P
ANSWER:B

M
41. Destruction of files for malicious reasons such as access by fraudulent people is classified as

O
being
A. modified
B. accessed
C. destroyed
D. unauthorized access
ANSWER:A

42.. In files, if order of operation on two or more files are similar, then operation will be

A.complex
B.simple
C. sequential
D. combinational
ANSWER:B

43. Search in which record is checked and read for desired items in file linearly is classified as
A. combinational search
B. linear research
C. linear search
D. quadratic search
ANSWER:C
4. Field which is used to identify specific record and can't be duplicated is classified as
A. key field
B. duplicate field
C. copied field
D. original field
Answer A

45. Access in which records are accessed from and inserted into file, is classified as
A. direct access
B. sequential access
C. random access
D. duplicate access
ANSWER:B

46.Smallest piece of data that could be deal separately is classified as

A
A. file record

H
B. item

A
C. data column

W
D. bug

S
Answer B

AT
47. File code which engineers add to file name and limit access to few users is called
A. limited code

H
B. access code

P
C. code protection

M
D. physical code
Answer B

O
48. Large collection of structured data that can be used in different applications is called
A. database management
B. management system
C. database
D. data storage system
Answer C

49. Preparation of disc for subsequent file storage is classified as


A. disc format
B. disc address
C. disc footer
D. disc header
Answer A

50. In microcomputers files, inquiry programs used for simple purposes are classified as
A. storage package
B. database package
C. organized package
D. hardware package
Answer B

51. In computer programming, particular way by which data records are arranged into a specific
manner is considered as
A. organization
B. reorganizedC. managing
D. record storage
ANSWER:A

52. Arrangement of data into a specific order is classified as


A. sorting
B. ordering
C. learning
D. inquiring
Answer A

53. File which is automatically updated when needed is classified as


A. particular file
B. reference file
C. master file

A
D. application file

H
Answer C

W A
54. All keys which are used to identify particular item must be

S
A. same
B. different

AT
C. lengthy
D. short

H
ANSWER:B

M P
55. Program packages that allows user to search items in a file or some combination of selected
items are classified as

O
A. file search
B. file inquiry
C. linear file search
D. quadratic linear search
Answer B

56. Programs written easily by programmers in a


A. direct file
B. order file
C. sequence file
D. timed file
Answer C

57. Kind of exchange in which number is compared to next item for possible exchange is called
A. exchange sort
B. selection sort
C. bubble sort
D. possible sort
Answer C

58. Operations performed on serial file are in order would be much


A. easier
B. complex
C. differential
D. sequential
Answer A

59. In user facilities, copying of all records onto a main store from permanent store is considered as
A. delete file
B. rename file
C. save file
D. load file
Answer D

60. In sequential files update, record orders of transaction file and master file must be
A. safe
B. same
C. different
D. descending order
ANSWER:B

HA
61.When data files are updated, new file is called

A
A. father file

W
B. son file

S
C. grandfather file
D. grandson file

AT
ANSWER:B

H
62. Ability to obtain data from a storage device by going directly to where it is physically located on

P
device rather than by having to sequentially look for data at one physical location after another is

M
called
A. sequential access

O
B. timed access
C. direct access
D. variable access
ANSWER:C

63. Level of generations that are generally kept are


A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
ANSWER:B

64. Straightforward allocation of storage space is consist of fixed length


A. item
B. advantage
C. previous records
D. disadvantage
ANSWER:B

25. Use of passwords and access codes to safeguard files is classified as


A. software safeguards
B. physical safeguards
C. generation files
D. locked files
Answer A
26. Selection of files are easy in
A.direct access
B. sequential access
C. timed access
D. random access
Answer A

27. Items in key field of record is classified as


A. duplicate
B. key
C. copied column
D. copied row
Answer B

A
28.. Method of scanning of files for a desired record is classified as

H
A. linear research

A
B. quadratic search

W
C. search

S
D. non linear research
ANSWER:C

AT
29. If master and transaction file have keys in same order then it takes

H
A. less time

P
B. more time

M
C. many hours
D. many days

O
ANSWER:A

30. Organized collection of records is considered as


A. record
B. file
C. rows
D. column
ANSWER:B

31. Label which contains file name is classified as


A.header label
B. trailer label
C.end of file marker
D. start of file marker
ANSWER:A

32. File used to update information in computer's master file is classified as


A. transaction file
B. direct file
C. order file
D. sequence file
ANSWER:AAnswer A

33. Files to be accessed from punched cards and paper tape is classified as
A.timed access file
B. random access file
C. direct access file
D. sequential access file
Answer D

34. Method by which program read from files and writes data into file is considered as
A.access
B. organization
C. recording
D. selection
Answer A

35. Type of field in which reserved set of characters are not determined is classified as
A.stable length
B. file length

A
C. variable length

H
D. fixed length

A
ANSWER:C

S W
36.Type of access in which records are chosen in an order is classified as
A.timed access file

AT
B. random access file
C. direct access file

H
D. sequential access file

P
ANSWER:C

M
37. Process of creating copy of stored data onto another disc is termed as creating

O
A.locked files
B. backup files
C. modified file
D. destroyed file
ANSWER:B

38. Directory which consists of list of files is classified as


A. list directory
B. directory part
C. catalogue
D. disc directory
ANSWER:C

39. Records would not be arranged in particular order before creating it is classified as
A. direct access file
B. sequence access file
C. timed access file
D. random access file
ANSWER:A

40. File which contains list of other file names is known as


A. path file
B. batched file
C. directory
D. path name
ANSWER:C

1. With deadlock detection, requested resources are granted to


A. Resources
B. Programs
C. Processes
D. Users
ANSWER:C

2. All deadlocks involve conflicting needs for


A. Resources
B. Users
C. Computers
D. Programs

A
ANSWER:A

A H
3. Fastest form of inter process communication provided in UNIX is

W
A.Virtual Memory

S
B. Memory
C. Shared Memory

AT
D. Main Memory
Answer C

P H
4. Deadlock prevention strategies are very

M
A.Conservative
B. Straight

O
C. Complex
D. Simple
ANSWER:A

5. A consumable resource is one that can be


A. Access
B. Count
C. Created
D. Control
ANSWER:C

6. A signal is a software mechanism that informs a


A. Processor
B. User
C. Program
D. Process
ANSWER:D

7. No preemption means that a resource is released as


A. Terminated
B. Non Voluntarily
C. Voluntarily
D. None
ANSWER:C
8. Deadlock avoidance requires knowledge of future
A. Process
B. Resource
C. Program
D. Application
ANSWER:A

9. Circular wait condition can be prevented by defining a linear ordering of


A. Program Type
B. User Type
C. Resource Type
D. Process Type
ANSWER:C

10. An unsafe state is of course a state that is not

A
A. Require

H
B. SafeC. Run

A
D. Control

W
ANSWER:B

S
11. Linux includes all of concurrency mechanism found in other

AT
A. UNIX System
b. Linux System

H
C. Windows System

P
D. None

M
Answer A

O
12. Dining philosophers problem can be seen as representative of
A. Users
B. Problems
C. Process
D. Application
Answer B

13. A direct method of deadlock prevention is to prevent occurrence of a circular


A. Data
B. Process
C. Movement
D. Wait
Answer D

14. To solve dining philosophers, monitor consist of two


A. Users
B. Programs
C. Applications
D. Procedures
Answer D

15. Conditions for deadlock, only one process may use a resource at a
A. Program
B. Time
C. Process
D. None
Answer B

16. A useful tool in characterizing and allocating of resources to process is the


A. User Allocation Graph
B. Time Allocation Graph
C. Resource Allocation Graph
D. Location Allocation Graph
Answer C

17. UNIX provides a variety of mechanisms for inter processor


A. Information
B. Communication
C. Process
D. Resource

A
Answer B

A H
18. Deadlock involves reusable

W
A. Resources

S
B. Users
C. Time

AT
D. Cost
Answer A

P H
19. Once deadlock has been detected, some strategy is needed for

M
A. Control
B. Access

O
C. Recovery
D. None
Answer C
20. Common technique used for protecting a critical section in Linux is the
A. Lock Step
B. Program lock
C. Spinlock
D. None
ANSWER:C
Answer 21. For effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
 A. every time a resource request is made
 B. at fixed time intervals
 C. both (a) and (b)
 D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:C

24. Which To The avoid number one of of mentioned the resources following a visual by ( a
mathematical process : ) way to determine the deadlock occurrence?

25. aging inversion technique can requested be is used none of deadlock:


 A. must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system
 B. must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system
 C. must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
 D. must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
 ANSWER:C
26. The request and release of resources are
 A. command line statements
 B. interrupts
 C. system calls
 D. special programs
ANSWER:C

27. Multithreaded programs are :


 A. lesser prone to deadlocks
 B. more prone to deadlocks
 C. not at all prone to deadlocks
 D. None of these
ANSWER:B
28. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system :

A
 A. at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode

H
 B. the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor

A
 C. there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode

W
 D. All of these

S
ANSWER:A
29. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail :

AT
 A. A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and then request
to

H
acquire it

P
 B. A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire additional resources that

M
are
being held by other processes

O
 C. A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional resources
 D. None of theseANSWER:B
30. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods :
 A. to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
 B. to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
 C. to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
 D. to recover from a deadlock

ANSWER:A
31. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion :
 A. must exist
 B. must not exist
 C. may exist
 D. None of these
ANSWER:A
32. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion :
 A. is required
 B. is not required
 C. None of these
ANSWER:B
33. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be ensured that :
 A. whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other resources
 B. each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its execution
 C. a process can request resources only when it has none
 D. All of these
ANSWER:D
34. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its execution
is :
 A. Low CPU utilization
 B. Low resource utilization
 C. Very high resource utilization
 D. None of theseANSWER:B
35. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another resource
that
cannot be immediately allocated to it :
 A. then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
 B. the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
 C. the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
 D. then all resources currently being held are preempted

A
ANSWER:D

H
36. What is the reusable resource?

A
 A. that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use

W
 B. that can be used by more than one process at a time

S
 C. that can be shared between various threads
 D. none of the mentioned

AT
ANSWER:A
37. Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible?

H
 A. mutual exclusion

P
 B. a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources

M
 C. no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
 D. all of the mentioned

O

ANSWER:D
38. A system is in the safe state if:
 A. the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
 B. there exist a safe sequence
 C. both (a) and (b)
 D. none of the mentioned
ANSWER:C
39. The circular wait condition can be prevented by:
 A. defining a linear ordering of resource types
 B. using thread C. using pipes
 D. all of the mentioned
ANSWER:A
40. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
 A. banker’s algorithm
 B. round-robin algorithm
 C. elevator algorithm
 D. karn’s algorithm
ANSWER:A
SPOS Question Bank on unit-IV

1. Dual mode of operating system has

A. 1 mode
B. 2 modes
C. 3 modes
D. 4 modes
ANSWER: B
2. Multi-processor system gives a
A. small system
B. tightly coupled system

A
C. loosely coupled system

H
D. both a and b

A
Answer B

S W
3. Logical extension of multiprogramming operating system is

AT
A. time sharing

H
B. multi-tasking

P
C. single programing
D. both a and b

M
Answer D

O
4. Multiprocessor system have advantage of

A. Increased Throughput
B. Expensive hardware
C. operating system
D. both a and b
ANSWER:A

5. Scheduling of threads are done by

A. input
B. output
C. operating system
D. memory

ANSWER:C

6. Multiprogramming of computer system increases

A. memory
B. storage
C. CPU utilization

A HA
S W
P H AT
O M
D. cost
ANSWER:
C
7. Another type of multiple-CPU system is the

A. mini Computer
B. Super Computer
C. Clustered System
D. both a and b
ANSWER:

A
C

AH
8. Interrupt table of pointers having addresses for each interrupt is located at

S W
A. high memory
B. low memory

T
C. mid memory

A
D. both a and b

H
ANSWER:

P
B

M
9. Example of open source operating system is

O
A. UNIX
B. Linux
C. windows
D. both a and b
ANSWER:
D
10. Main memory of computer system is also called

A. non volatile
B. volatile
C. reserved
D. large

ANSWER: B
11. Controller of computer system transfers data from device to

A. buffers
B. cache
C. registers
D. in
dexes
ANSWER:
A
12. When many users accesses mainframes, this approach is called as

A. resource allocation
B. word processors
C. dedicated resources
D. interface

ANSWER: A

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
13. Accessing same data from storage of computer system is provided by

A. serial clusters
B. parallel clusters
C. Beowulf clusters
D. both a and b
ANSWER:
B
14. To start an I/O operation device driver loads appropriate register into?

A
A. memory

AH
B. Secondary storage
C. Device Controller

W
D. Ar

S
rays

T
ANSWER:

A
C

H
15. Symmetric multiprocessing architecture of computer system uses shared

M P
A. bus

O
B. memory
C. processors

D. both a and
b ANSWER: D

16. In asymmetric clustering other machines perform operations while one machine is in

A. hot standby mode


B. standby mode
C. reset mode
D. undefined mode
ANSWER: AAnswer
A
17. Ability to continuously providing service proportional to level of surviving hardware

A. graceful upgradation
B. degradation
C. upgradation
D. graceful
degradation
ANSWER: D
18. Secondary memory of computer system is also called

A. non volatile
B. volatile
C. reserved
D. small

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
ANSWER: A

19. Environment in which programs of computer system are executed is:

A. operating system
B. nodes
C. clustered system
D. both a and b
ANSWER:
A

AHA
20. One word memory storage is collection of

W
A. 2 bytes

S
B. 4 bytes
C. 7 bytes

T
D. 8

H A
bytes

P
ANSWER:

M
B

O
21. Each user of computer system that uses computer services has at least

A. 1program
B. 2programs
C. 3programs
D. 4programs
ANSWER:
A
22. Clusters of computer system can be used more efficiently using

A. serialization
B. parallelization
C. LAN
D. WAN

ANSWER: B

23. A properly designed operating system must ensure that an incorrect (or malicious)
program cannot cause other programs to execute
A. incorrectly
B. Correctly
C. both a and b
D. None

ANSWER: A

24. Table of pointers for interrupt to be executed contains the


A. interrupts
B. programs

A
C. addresses

AH
D. compilers
ANSWER: C

S W
25. User view of system depends upon the

H AT
A. CPU

P
B. software
C. hardware

M
D. interface

O
ANSWER: D

26. Memories are normally classified according to their

A. speed
B. cost
C. indexes
D. both a and b
ANSWER:
D
27. SCSI system is abbreviation of the

A. small common-system interface


B. small common-system interaction
C. small computer-system interface
D. small computer-system
interaction ANSWER: C
28. One megabyte memory storage in form of bytes is equal to

A. 1024 bytes
B. 1024² bytes
C. 1024³ bytes
D. 1024&sup4; bytes
ANSWER: B
29. Multi-processing systems of computer system are of

A. 2 types
B. 3 types
C. 4 types
D. 5 types

AHA
ANSWER: A

S W
30. Clustered computer systems are normally linked via

AT
A. LAN

H
B. WAN

M P
O
C. PAN
D. TAN

ANSWER: A

31. Kernel mode of operating system runs when mode bit is

A. 1
B. 0

A
C. x

AH
D. undefined
ANSWER:

W
B

S
32. Kernel mode of operating system is also called

AT
A. user mode

H
B. system mode

P
C. supervisor mode

M
D. both a and b

O
ANSWER:
C
33. Multi-processor systems of computer system has advantage of

A. cost
B. reliability
C. uncertainty
D. scalability
ANSWER: B

34. Time sharing systems of computer system have

A. clusters
B. nodes
C. file system
D. both a and b

ANSWER:C

35. One megabyte memory storage in form of bytes is equal to

A. 1024 bytes
B. 1024 kilo bytes
C. 1056 bytes
D. 1058 kilo
bytes
ANSWER: B

36. Privileged mode of operating system mode is a

A. user code

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
B. kernel mode
C. system mode
D. both b and c
ANSWER:
B
37. Example of bug in one program of operating system effects others in

A. zero error
B. infinite loop
C. invalid memory access

A
D. both a and b

AH
ANSWER:
B

W
38. Master slave relationship in computer system is used by

AT S
A. symmetric multiprocessor
B. asymmetric multiprocessor

H
C. symmetric multiprocessing

P
D. asymmetric

M
multiprocessing
ANSWER: D

O
39. Beowulf clusters of computer system uses

A. close source softwares


B. open source softwares
C. dedicated softwares
D. both a and b
ANSWER:
B
40. In non-multiprogrammed system Central Processing Unit will

A. sit idle
B. perform well
C. cost high
D. cost low

ANSWER: B

MCQ. When a thread needs to wait for an event it will


A. Block
B. Execute
C. Terminate
D. Update
ANSWER:A

MCQ. In a pure Kernel Level Thread facility all of work of thread management is done by the
A. Application
B. Program
C. Kernel
D. Threads
ANSWER:C

AHA
MCQ. Microkernel design imposes a uniform
A. Process

W
B. Processor

S
C. Interface
D. System

T
ANSWER:C

P H A
MCQ. Microkernel architecture facilitates

M
A. Functionality

O
B. Extensibility
C. Reliability
D. Portability
ANSWER:B

MCQ. Asynchronous elements in program can be implemented through


A. Bugs
B. Threads
C. Programs
D. SecurityPolicy
ANSWER:B

MCQ. Unit of dispatching is usually referred as


A. Multiprogramming
B. Security Policy
C. Problem
D. Thread
ANSWER:D

MCQ. A single machine instruction can controls simultaneous execution of a number


processing elements on
A. Lockstep Basis
B. Open Step Basis
C. Early Basis
D. None
ANSWER:A

MCQ. Owner of an address space can grant a number of its


A. Modules
B. Pages
C. Devices

A
D. Computers

AH
ANSWER:B

S W
MCQ. Microkernel lends itself to

T
A. Computers

A
B. Systems

H
C. Distributed Systems

P
D. Applications
ANSWER:C

O M
MCQ. Microkernel supports
A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Accessible
D. Rigid
ANSWER:A

MCQ. In Many-to-One multithreading model many user level threads are attached to
A. One register
B. operating system
C. One kernel thread
D. other threads
ANSWER:C

MCQ. Programs involve a variety of activities is easier to design and implement using
A. Programs
B. Information
C. Data
D. Threads
ANSWER:D
MCQ. Multiple threads within same process may be allocated to separate
A. Applications
B. Programs
C. Processors
D. Processes
ANSWER:C

MCQ. A lightweight process (LWP) can be viewed as a mapping between ULTs and

A
A. Kernel Threads

AH
B. UNIX Thread
C. Linux Threads
D. WindowVista Threads

W
ANSWER:A

T S
MCQ. Modular design helps to enhance

H A
A. Functionality

P
B. Reliability
C. Portability

M
D. Flexibility

O
ANSWER:B

MCQ. Microkernel is responsible for mapping each virtual


A. Module
B. I/O Devices
C. Memory
D. Page
ANSWER:D

MCQ. Thread processor affinity is set of


A. Processes
B. Processors
C. Programs
D. Applications

ANSWER:B

MCQ. In UNIX, thread is


A. Runnable
B. Executing
C. Updated
D. Access
ANSWER:A

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
MCQ. When a process is spawned, a thread for that process is also
A. Complete
B. Spawned
C. Closed
D. Update
ANSWER:B

MCQ. A sequence of data is transmitted to a set of


A. Devices

A
B. Resources

AH
C. Computers
D. Processors
ANSWER:D

T S W
MCQ. A set of processors simultaneously execute different instructions on different

H A
A. Buffers

P
B. Data Set
C. Buses

M
D. Registers

O
ANSWER:B

MCQ. A new process is created in Linux by copying the


A. Address
B. ID
C. Object
D. Attributes
ANSWER:D

MCQ. Multithreading refers to ability of an operating system to support multiple


A. Execution
B. Updating
C. Completion
D. None
ANSWER:A

MCQ. A microkernel architecture works well in context of an


A. Object Oriented Operating System
B. Internal device
C. Interface
D. Attractive FeatureANSWER:A
MCQ. When a new process is created in Win32 new process inherits many of its
A. Classes
B. Objects
C. Parent Attributes
D. Functions
ANSWER:C

MCQ. A single processor executes a single instruction stream to operate on data stored in a single
A. Computer
B. System
C. Memory

A
D. Device

AH
ANSWER:C

S W
MCQ. Each windows process is represented by an

T
A. I/O Devices

A
B. Interface

H
C. Object

P
D. Information
ANSWER:C

O M
MCQ. With Microkernel architecture it is possible to handle hardware interrupts as
A. Application
B. Information
C. Data
D. Message
ANSWER:D

MCQ. Process or task in Linux is represented by a


A. task done
B. task construct
C. task build
D. task struct
ANSWER:D

MCQ. Windows processes are implemented as


A. Objectives
B. Programs
C. Modems
D. Models
ANSWER:A
MCQ. Kernel threads are directly supported by
A. Register
B. Application
C. Operating system
D. Memory
ANSWER:C

MCQ. Motivation for converting interrupts to threads is to reduce


A. Overcome

A
B. Overhead

AH
C. Overload
D. Over access
ANSWER:B

T S W
MCQ. Process image is collection of

H A
A. Images

P
B. Graphics
C. Programs

M
D. None

O
ANSWER:C

MCQ. Kernel dispatcher keep track of all ready


A. Threads
B. Systems
C. Registers
D. Buffers

ANSWER:A

MCQ. A process can map any of its pages into address space of another

A. Process
B. Program
C. System
D. Application
ANSWE:A
MCQ. In a pure User Level Thread facility all of work of thread management is done by the

A. Application
B. Process
C. Program
D. System

ANSWER:A

AHA
MCQ. Process execution is execution of

S W
A. Blocks

T
B. Paths

A
C. Statements

H
D. Programs

M P
ANSWER:B

O
MCQ. Traditionally computer has been viewed as a sequential

A. Data
B. Machine
C. Program
D. Process

ANSWER:B

MCQ. Port identities and capabilities are maintained by

A. Object Oriented Operating System


B. Kernel Service
C. Kernel
D. Microkernel

ANSWER:C
MCQ. Which java feature is used to invoke a method on a remote object?

A. Process Control Block (PCB)


B. Remote Method Invocation (RMI)
C. Remote access control Block
D. both a and
ANSWER:B

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
MCQ Question Bank for SPOS Unit-1

In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?
1.
Second pass
a.
First pass
b.
Zeroeth pass
c.
Not done by assembler
d.
Answer:(a).Second pass

A HA
Which of the following is not a type of assembler ?
2.

S W
one pass
a.

AT
two pass
b.

H
three pass
c.

P
load and go

M
d.

O
Answer:(c).three pass

In a two pass assembler, adding literals to literal table and address resolution of local symbols
3. are done using ?

First pass and second respectively


a.
Both second pass
b.
Second pass and first respectively
c.
Both first pass
d.
Answer:(d).Both first pass

In a two pass assembler the pseudo code EQU is to be evaluated during ?


4.
Pass 1
a.
Pass 2
b.
not evaluated by the assembler
c.
None of above
d.
Answer:(a).Pass 1

Which of the following system program foregoes the production of object code to generate
absolute machine code and load it into the physical main storage location from which it will be
5.
executed immediately upon completion of the assembly ?

Macro processor
a.
Load and go assembler
b.
Two pass assembler

A
c.

H
Compiler
d.

A
Answer:(b).Load and go assembler

S W
AT
Translator for low level programming language were termed as
6.

H
Assembler
a.

P
Compiler

M
b.

O
Linker
c.
Loader
d.
Answer:(a).Assembler

An assembler is
7.
programming language dependent
a.
syntax dependant
b.
machine dependant
c.
data dependant
d.
Answer:(c).machine dependant

An imperative statement
8.
Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them
a.
Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program
b.
Indicates an action to be performed during optimization
c.
None of the above
d.
Answer:(b).Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

In a two-pass assembler, the task of the Pass II is to


9.
separate the symbol, mnemonic opcode and operand fields.
a.
build the symbol table.
b.
construct intermediate code.
c.

A
synthesize the target program.

H
d.

A
Answer:(d).synthesize the target program.

S W
TII stands for

AT
10.
Table of incomplete instructions
a.

P H
Table of information instructions
b.

M
Translation of instructions information
c.

O
Translation of information instruction
d.
Answer:(a).Table of incomplete instructions

Assembler is a machine dependent, because of?


11.
Macro definition table(MDT)
a.
Pseudo operation table(POT)
b.
Argument list array(ALA)
c.
Mnemonics operation table(MOT)
d.
Answer: (d).Mnemonics operation table(MOT)

Assembler is ?
12.
A program that places programs into memory an prepares them for execution
a.
A program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language
b.
A program that accepts a program written in high level language and produces an object
c. program

Is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language


d.
Answer:(b).A program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language

Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like ?


13.
Stack
a.
Queue
b.

A
Linked list
c.

A H
Double linked list
d.

W
Answer:(c).Linked list

AT S
Assembler is a program that
14.

H
places programs into memory and prepares then for execution

P
a.

M
automates the translation of assemble language into machine language
b.

O
accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program
c.
appears to execute a resource as if it were machine language
d.
Answer:(b).automates the translation of assemble language into machine language

A single two pass assembler does which of the following in the first pass
15.
It allicates space for the literals
a.
It computes the total length of the program
b.
It builds the symbol table for the symbols and their values
c.
all of the above
d.
Answer:(d).all of the above

Which of the following is not a function of pass1 of an assembler


16.
generate data
a.
keep track of LC
b.
remember literals
c.
remember values of symbols until pass 2
d.
Answer:(a).generate data

An Assembler converts
17.
machine code to mnemonics
a.
high level language to assembly level
b.

A
assembly language to machine language

H
c.

A
all of the above
d.

S W
Answer:(c).assembly language to machine language

AT
____ converts the programs written in assembly language into machine instructions .
18.

P H
Machine compiler
a.

M
Interpreter
b.

O
Assembler
c.
Converter
d.
Answer:(c).Assembler

The instructions like MOV or ADD are called as ______ .


19.
OP-Code
a.
Operators
b.
Commands
c.
None of the above
d.
Answer:(a).OP-Code

Instructions which wont appear in the object program are called as _____ .
20.
Redundant instructions
a.
Exceptions
b.
Comments
c.
Assembler Directives
d.
Answer:(d).Assembler Directives

The assembler stores all the names and their corresponding values in ______ .
21.
Special purpose Register
a.
Symbol Table

A
b.

H
Value map Set

A
c.

W
None of the above
d.

S
Answer:(b).Symbol Table

P H AT
When dealing with the branching code, the assembler
22.

M
Replaces the target with its address
a.

O
Does not replace until the test condition is satisfied
b.
Finds the Branch offset and replaces the Branch target with it
c.
Replaces the target with the value specified by the DATAWORD directive
d.
Answer:(c).Finds the Branch offset and replaces the Branch target with it

The last statement of the source program should be _______ .


23.
Stop
a.
Return
b.
OP
c.
End
d.
Answer:(d).End

_____ directive specifies the end of execution of a program .


24.
End
a.
Return
b.
Stop
c.
Terminate
d.
Answer:(b).Return

In a two-pass assembler, the task of the Pass II is to


25.
separate the symbol, mnemonic opcode and operand fields.
a.

A
build the symbol table.

H
b.

A
construct intermediate code.
c.

S W
synthesize the target program.
d.

AT
Answer:(d).synthesize the target program.

P H
O M
Address symbol table is generated by the
26.
memory management software
a.
assembler
b.
match logic of associative memory
c.
generated by operating system
d.
Answer:(b).assembler

Which of these features of assembler are Machine-Dependent ?


27.
Instruction formats
a.
Addressing modes
b.
Program relocation
c.
All of the mentioned
d.
Answer:(d).All of the mentioned
In a two pass assembler pseudo code,equ is to be evaluated during
28.
pass 1
a.
pass 2
b.
not evaluated by the assembler
c.
none of these
d.
Answer:(a).pass 1

The translator used by second generation languages is?


29.

A
assembler

H
a.

A
interpreter
b.

S W
compiler
c.

AT
linker
d.

H
Answer:(a).assembler

M P
A simple two-pass assembler does which of the following in the first pass ?
30.

O
It allocates space for the literals
a.
It computes the total length of the program
b.
It builds the symbol table for the symbols and their values
c.
All of these
d.
Answer:(d).All of these

In a single pass assembler, most of the forward references can be avoided by putting the
31. restriction

that the data segment must be defined after the code segment
a.
on the number of strings/lifereacts
b.
on unconditional rump
c.
None of these
d.
Answer:(a).that the data segment must be defined after the code segment

Which of the following translation program converts assembly language programs to object
32. program

Loader
a.
Compiler
b.
Assembler
c.
Macroprocessor
d.

A
Answer:(c).Assembler

A H
Loop is a collection of nodes that is

W
33.

S
strongly connected and has a unique entry
a.

AT
loosely connected and has a unique entry
b.

H
strongly connected

P
c.

M
none of these
d.

O
Answer:(a).strongly connected and has a unique entry

Pass 2 -
34.
perform processing of assembler directives not done during pass 1
a.
write the object program and assembly listing
b.
assemble instruction and generate data
c.
all of these
d.
Answer:(d).all of these

Pass I -
35.
save the values assigned to all labels for use in pass 2
a.
perform some processing of assembler directives
b.
assign address to all statements in the program
c.
all of these
d.
Answer:(d).all of these

Which of the following system program forgoes the production of object code to generate
absolute machine code and load it into the physical main storage location from which it will be
36.
executed immediately upon completion of the assembly?

compiler
a.
macroprocessor
b.
two pass assembler
c.

A
load-and-go assembler
d.

A H
Answer:(d).load-and-go assembler

S W
In a two-pass assembler, symbol table is

AT
37.
Generated in first pass
a.

P H
Generated in second pass
b.

M
Not generated at all
c.

O
Generated and used only in second pass
d.
Answer:(c).Not generated at all

Match the following:

(a) Forward Reference Table (i) Assembler directive

(b) Mnemonic Table (ii) Uses array data structure

38. (c) Segment Register Table (iii) Contains machine OP code

(d) EQU (iv) Uses linked list data structure

code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
a.
(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
b.
(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
c.
(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
d.
Answer:(d).(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)

The translator which performs macro calls expansion is called :


39.
Macro processor
a.
Micro pre-processor

A
b.

H
Macro pre-processor

A
c.

W
Dynamic linker
d.

S
Answer:(c).Macro pre-processor

P H AT
‘Macro’ in an assembly level program is …………..
40.

M
sub program
a.

O
a complete program
b.
a hardware portion
c.
relative coding
d.
Answer:(a).sub program

Grammar of the programming is checked at …………… phase of compiler.


41.
semantic analysis
a.
code generation
b.
syntax analysis
c.
code optimization
d.
Answer:(c).syntax analysis

Macro-processors are ………….


42.
Hardware
a.
Compiler
b.
Registers
c.
None of the above
d.
Answer:(b).Compiler

An assembly program contains:


43.
imperative and declarative statements
a.

A
imperative and assembler directives

H
b.

A
imperative and declarative statements as well as assembler directives
c.

S W
declarative statements and assembler directives
d.

AT
Answer:(c).imperative and declarative statements as well as assembler directives

P H
Which of the following are Assembler Directives?

O M
(i) EQU
44. (ii) ORIGIN
(iii) START
(iv) END

(ii), (iii) and (iv)


a.
(i), (iii) and (iv)
b.
(iii) and (iv)
c.
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
d.
Answer:(d).(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Assembler program is:


45.
dependent on the operating system
a.
dependent on the compiler
b.
dependent on the hardware
c.
independent of the hardware
d.
Answer:(c).dependent on the hardware

In a two pass compiler, during the first pass:


46.
user defined address symbols are correlated with their binary equivalent
a.
the syntax of the statement is checked and mistakes, if any, are listed
b.
object program is generated
c.
semantic of the source program is elucidated
d.

A
Answer:(a).user defined address symbols are correlated with their binary equivalent

A H
W
A single instruction in an assembly language program contains:
47.

S
one micro operation

AT
a.
one macro operation
b.

P H
one instruction to be completed in a single pulse
c.

M
one machine code instruction
d.

O
Answer:(b).one macro operation

An operating system is:


48.
Collection of hardware components
a.
Collection of input-output devices
b.
Collection of software routines
c.
All the above
d.
Answer: (c).Collection of software routines

Which activity is not included in the first pass of two pass assembler?
49.
build the symbol table
a.
construct the intermediate code
b.
separate mnemonic opcode and operand field
c.
none of these
d.
Answer: (d).none of these

Which activity is not included in the first pass of two pass assemblers ?
50.
Build the symbol table
a.
Construct the machine code
b.
Separate mnemonic opcode and operand fields
c.
None of these
d.

A
Answer: (d).None of these

A H
W
Which activity is not included in the first pass of two pass assemblers?
51.

S
Build the symbol table

AT
a.
Construct the intermediate code
b.

P H
Separate mnemonic opcode and operand fields
c.

M
None of the above
d.

O
Answer: (d).None of the above

Which activity is included in the first pass of two pass assemblers?


52.
Build the symbol table
a.
Construct the intermediate code
b.
Separate mnemonic opcode and operand fields
c.
All of the above
d.
Answer: (d).All of the above
In two pass assembler the symbol table is used to store:
53.
Label and value
a.
Only value
b.
Mnemonic
c.
Memory Location
d.
Answer: (d).Memory Location

Not an assembler directive

A
54.

H
XCHG

A
a.

W
ASSUME
b.

S
SHORT

AT
c.
DB
d.

P H
Answer: (a).XCHG

M
55. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is __________

O
A. To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored
B. To indicate the starting of the computation code
C. To indicate the purpose of the code
D. To list the locations of all the registers used
Answer: Option A

56. The last statement of the source program should be _______


A. Stop
B. Return
C. OP
D. End
Answer: Option D

57. In a two pass assembler, adding literals to literal table and address resolution of local symbols
are done using?

A. First pass and second respectively


B. Both second pass
C. Second pass and first respectively
D. Both first pass
Answer: Option D
58. A machine language instruction format consists of
A. Operand field
B. Operation code field
C. Operation code field & operand field
D. None of the mentioned

59. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the?
A. Second pass
B. First pass

A
C. Zeroeth pass

H
D. Not done by assembler

A
Answer: Option A

S W
AT
60. In a two-pass assembler, the task of the Pass II is to
A. separate the symbol, mnemonic opcode and operand fields

H
B. build the symbol table

P
C. construct intermediate code

M
D. synthesize the target program

O
Answer: Option D

61. Which of the following are language processors


A. assembler

B. compilers

C. interpreter
D. All of these

Answer: Option A

62. Which of the following might be used to convert high-level language instructions into machine
language?

A. system software
B. applications software

C. an operating environment
D. an interpreter

Answer: Option D

63. Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?


a) Application Software
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) User

Answer: b
Explanation: Software is basically classified into two: System and application. System Software is

A
designed to control the operations and extend the processing capability of a computer system.

A H
64. Which of the following is not an example of system software?

S W
a) Language Translator

AT
b) Utility Software
c) Communication Software

H
d) Word Processors

M P
Answer: d

O
Explanation: A system software is responsible for controlling the operations of a computer system.
Word Processor is an application software since it is specific to its purpose.

65. A person who designs the programs in a software package is called :


a) User
b) Software Manager
c) System Developer
d) System Programmer

Answer: d
Explanation: The programs included in a system software package are called system programs. The
programmers who design them and prepare them are called system programmers.

66. ___________________ is designed to solve a specific problem or to do a specific task.


a) Application Software
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) User

Answer: a
Explanation: An application software is specific to solving a specific problem. System software is
designed for controlling the operations of a computer system.

67.Assembler is used as a translator for?


a) Low level language
b) High Level Language

A
c) COBOL

A H
d) C

S W
Answer: a

AT
Explanation: Assembler is used in case of low level languages. It is generally used to make the
binary code into an understandable format. Interpreter is used with the high level languages

H
similarly.

M P
O
68. What do you call a program in execution?
a) Command
b) Process
c) Task
d) Instruction

Answer: b
Explanation: Option Process is correct. A program is a set of instructions. A program in execution is
called a process.

69.

Which of the following functions is/ are performed by the loader?


Allocate space in memory for the programs and resolve symbolic references between object
A.
decks
B. Physically place the machine instructions and data into memory
Adjust all address dependent locations, such as address constants, to correspond to the allocated
C.
space
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D

70.

5.A self-relocating program is one which


A cannot be made to execute in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time
. of its coding or translation
B. consists of a program and relevant information for its relocation
C
can itself perform the relocation of its address-sensitive portions
.
D
All of the above
.

HA
Answer: Option C

W A
S
71.

AT
Which of the following systems software does the job of merging the records from two flies into

H
one?

P
A
Documentation system

M
.

O
B.Utility program
C
Networking software
.
D
Security software
.

Answer: Option B

72.

A compiler for a high-level language that runs on one machine and produces code for a different
machine is called
A
optimizing compiler
.
B. one pass compiler
C
cross compiler
.
D
multipass compiler
.

Answer: Option C
73.
Assembly code data base is associated with
A.a permanent table which lists all key words and special symbols of the language in symbolic form
a permanent table of decision rules in the form of patterns for matching with the uniform symbol
B.
table to discover syntactic structure
consists of a full or partial list or the tokens as they appear in the program. Created by Lexical
C.
analysis and used for syntax analysis and interpretation
assembly language version of the program which is created by the code generation phase and is
D.
input to the assembly phase
Answer: Option D

A HA
74.

W
A development stategy whereby the executive control modules of a system are coded and tested

AT S
first, is known as
A

H
Bottom-up development
.

P
B. Top-down development
C

M
Left-Right development
.

O
D
All of the above
.
Answer: Option B

75.
A non-relocatable program is one which
A cannot be made to execute in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time
. of its coding or translation
B.consists of a program and relevant information for its relocation
C
can itself perform the relocation of its address-sensitive portions
.
D
All Of the above
.
Answer: Option A

76.
Multiprogramming was made possible by
A.input/output units that operate independently of the CPU
B. operating systems
C.both (a) and (b)
D.neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

77.

An Interpreter is

A
A.is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language

H
B. a program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language

A
C.program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program
D.a program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

W
Answer: Option A

AT S
H
78.

P
Systems software is a program that directs the overall operation of the computer, facilitates its use

O M
and interacts with the users. What are the different types of this software?
A.Operating system
B. Languages
C.Utilities
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D

79.
Assembler is
A.a program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language
a program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object
B.
program
C.a program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
D.is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language
Answer: Option A

80.
A translator which reads an entire programme written in a high level language and converts it into
machine language code is:
A.assembler
B. translator
C.compiler
D.system software
Answer: Option C

81.
Which of the following might be used to convert high-level language instructions into machine
language?

HA
A
system software

A
.
B.applications software

W
C

S
an operating environment
.

AT
D
an interpreter
.

H
Answer: Option D

M P
O
82.
Which of the following program is not a utility?
A
Debugger
.
B.Editor
C
Spooler
.
D
All of the above
.
Answer: Option C

83. A translator which reads an entire programme written in a high level language and converts it
into machine language code is:

A. compiler B. translator
C. assembler D. system software
Answer: A
Explanation:
compiler

84. Which of the following might be used to convert high-level language instructions into machine
language?

A
an interpreter
.
B
system software
.
C
applications software
.
D
an operating environment

A
.

H
Answer & Explanation

A
Answer: A

S W
Explanation:

AT
an interpreter

P H
85. The advantage(s) inherent to using high level languages is/are:

O M
A
A greater degree of machine independence
.
B
Improved debugging capability, and superior documentation
.
C
Fewer people, less management and shorter transition in learning time
.
D
All of the above
.
Answer & Explanation
Answer: D

Explanation:

All of the above

86. . A development stategy whereby the executive control modules of a system are coded and
tested first, is known as

A. Top-down development
B. Bottom-up development
C. Left-Right development
D. All of the above
Answer & Explanation
Answer:A

Explanation:

Top-down development

87. Multiprogramming was made possible by

A. operating systems
B. input/output units that operate independently of the CPU

A
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)

A H
Answer & Explanation

W
Answer:C

S
Explanation:

AT
both (a) and (b)

P H
M
88. An Interpreter is

O
A. a program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
B. a program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language
C. is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language
program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object
D.
program
Answer & Explanation
Answer:C

Explanation:

is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language

89. Systems software is a program that directs the overall operation of the computer, facilitates its
use and interacts with the users. What are the different types of this software?

A. Utilities B. Languages
C. Operating system D. All of the above
Answer & Explanation
Answer:D

Explanation:
All of the above

90. Loaders that allow for program relocation are called

A. relative loaders B. relocating loaders


C. both (a) and (b) D. None of the above
Answer & Explanation
Answer:C

Explanation:

A
both (a) and (b)

A H
91. The task(s) of the Lexial analysis phase is/are:

S W
AT
A. to build a uniform symbol table
B. to build a literal table and an identifier table
C. to parse the source program into the basic elements or tokens of the language

H
D. All of the above

P
Answer & Explanation

O M
Answer:D

Explanation:

All of the above

92. The action of parsing the source program into the proper syntactic classes is known as

A. lexical analysis
B. syntax analysis
C. general syntax analysis
D. interpretation analysis
Answer & Explanation
Answer:A

Explanation:

lexical analysis

93. Advantage(s) of using assembly language rather than machine language is/are:
A. Introduction of data to program is easier
B. Addresses any symbolic, not absolute
C. It is mnemonic and easy to read
D. All of the above
Answer & Explanation
Answer:D

Explanation:

All of the above

A
94. The table created by lexical analysis to describe all literals used in the source program, is:

A H
A. Reductions B. Literal table

W
C. Identifier table D. Terminal table

S
Answer & Explanation

AT
Answer:B

H
Explanation:

P
Literal table

O M
95. Indicate which of the following is not true about an interpreter?

A. Interpreter is a kind of translator


B. Interpreter generates an object program from the source program
C. Interpreter analyses each source statement every time it is to be executed
D. All of the above
Answer & Explanation
Answer:B

Explanation:

Interpreter generates an object program from the source program

96. When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a special type of absolute loader, called a
______ is executed

A. bootstrap loader
B. loader
C. linker
D. None of the above
Answer & Explanation
Answer:A

Explanation:

bootstrap loader

97. A compiler is

A. a program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

A
B. a program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language
C. is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language

H
program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object

A
D.
program

W
Answer & Explanation

AT S
Answer:D

Explanation:

P H
program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

O M
98. An algorithm is best described as

A. A computer language
B. A branch of mathematics
C. A step by step procedure for solving a problem
D. All of the above
Answer & Explanation
Answer:C

Explanation:

A step by step procedure for solving a problem

99. Which of the following system program forgoes the production of object code to generate
absolute machine code and load it into the physical main storage location from which it will be
executed immedia

A. compiler
B. macroprocessor
C. two pass assembler
D. load-and-go assembler
Answer & Explanation
Answer:D

Explanation:

load-and-go assembler

100.

Bug means
A. A logical error in a program
B. A difficult syntax error in a program

A
C. Documenting programs using an efficient documentation tool
D. All of the above

H
Answer & Explanation

A
Answer:A

S W
Explanation:

AT
A logical error in a program

P H
O M
UNIT-I
INTRODUCTION
1. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the?
A. Second pass
B. First pass
C. Zeroeth pass
D. Not done by assembler
Ans:A

A
2. Which of the following is not a type of assembler ?

AH
A. Second pass
B. First pass

W
C. Three pass

S
D. Load and Go

T
Ans:C

H A
3. In a two pass assembler, adding literals to literal table and address resolution of local

P
symbols are done using ?

M
A. First Pass and second pass respectively

O
B. Both Second pass
C . Second pass and first respectively
D. Both first pass
Ans:D

4. In a two pass assembler the pseudo code EQU is to be evaluated during?


A. Pass 1
B. Pass 2
C. not evaluated by the assembler
D. None of above
Ans: A

5. Which of the following system program foregoes the production of object code to
generate absolute machine code and load it into the physical main storage location from
which it will be executed immediately upon completion of the assembly ?
A. Macro processor
B. Load and go assembler
C. Two pass assembler
D. Compiler
Ans: B
6. Translator for low level programming language were termed as
A. Assembler
B. Compiler
C. Linker
D. Loader
Ans: A

7. An assembler is
A. programming language dependent
B. syntax dependant

A
C. machine dependant

AH
D. data dependant
Ans: C

S W
8. An imperative statement

T
A. Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

A
B. Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

H
C. Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

P
D. None of the above
Ans:B

O M
9. In a two-pass assembler, the task of the Pass II is to
A. separate the symbol, mnemonic opcode and operand fields.
B. build the symbol table.
C. construct intermediate code.
D. synthesize the target program.
Ans:D

10. TII stands for


A. Table of incomplete instructions
B. Table of information instructions
C. Translation of instructions information
D. Translation of information instruction
Ans: A

11. Assembler is a machine dependent, because of?


A. Macro definition table(MDT)
B. Pseudo operation table(POT)
C. Argument list array(ALA)
D. Mnemonics operation table(MOT)
Ans:D
12. Assembler is ?
A. A program that places programs into memory an prepares them for execution
B. A program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language
C. A program that accepts a program written in high level language and produces an
object program
D. Is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language
Ans:B

13. Forward reference table (FRT) is arranged like ?


A. Stack

A
B. Queue

AH
C. Linked list
D. Double linked list

W
Ans: C

T S
14. A single two pass assembler does which of the following in the first pass

A
A. It allocates space for the literals

H
B. It computes the total length of the program

P
C. It builds the symbol table for the symbols and their values
D. all of the above

M
Ans:D

O
15. Which of the following is not a function of pass1 of an assembler
A. generate data
B. keep track of LC
C. remember literals
D. remember values of symbols until pass 2
Ans: A

16. The instructions like MOV or ADD are called as ______ .


A. OP-Code
B. Operators
C. Commands
D. None of the above
Ans:A

17. Instructions which will not appear in the object program are called as _____ .
A. Redundant instructions
B. Exceptions
C. Comments
D. Assembler Directives
Ans: D

18. The assembler stores all the names and their corresponding values in ______
A. Special purpose Register
B. Symbol Table
C. Value map Set
D. None of the above
Ans: B

A
19. When dealing with the branching code, the assembler

AH
A. Replaces the target with its address
B. Does not replace until the test condition is satisfied

W
C. Finds the Branch offset and replaces the Branch target with it

S
D. Replaces the target with the value specified by the DATAWORD directive

T
Ans:C

H A
20. The last statement of the source program should be _______ .

P
A. Stop
B. Return

M
C. OP

O
D. End
Ans:D

21. Address symbol table is generated by the


A. Memory management software
B. Assembler
C. Match logic of associative memory
D. Generated by operating system
Ans: B

22. Which of these features of assembler are Machine-Dependent ?


A. Instruction formats
B. Addressing modes
C. Program relocation
D. All of the mentioned
Ans:D

23. In a two pass assembler pseudo code EQU is to be evaluated during


A. pass 1
B. pass 2
C. not evaluated by the assembler
D. none of these
Ans:A

24. The translator used by second generation languages is?


A. assembler
B. interpreter
C. compiler
D. linker

A
Ans:A

AH
25. A simple two-pass assembler does which of the following in the first pass?

W
A. It allocates space for the literals

S
B. It computes the total length of the program

T
C. It builds the symbol table for the symbols and their values

A
D. All of these

H
Ans:D

P
26. In analyzing the compilation of PL/I program the description " resolving symbolic

M
address ( labels ) and generating machine language " is associated with

O
A. syntax analysis
B. code generation
C. storage assignment
D. assembly and output
Ans:D

27. In a single pass assembler, most of the forward references can be avoided by putting the
restriction
A. that the data segment must be defined after the code segment
B. on the number of strings/life reacts
C. on unconditional Jump
D. None of these
Ans: A

28. Pass 2 -
A. perform processing of assembler directives not done during pass 1
B. writes the object program and assembly listing
C. assemble instruction and generate data
D. all of these
Ans:D

29. Pass I -
A. save the values assigned to all labels for use in pass 2
B. perform some processing of assembler directives
C. assign address to all statements in the program
D. all of these
Ans:D

30. Which table is permanent databases that has an entry for each terminal symbol ?

A
A. Literal table

AH
B. Identifier table
C. Terminal table

W
D. None of these

S
Ans:C

AT
31. Which of the following system program forgoes the production of object code to generate

H
absolute machine code and load it into the physical main storage location from which it

P
will be executed immediately upon completion of the assembly?
A. compiler

M
B. macroprocessor

O
C. two pass assembler
D. load-and-go assembler
Ans:D

32. In a two-pass assembler, symbol table is


A. Generated in first pass
B. Generated in second pass
C. Not generated at all
D. Generated and used only in second pass
Ans:C

33. Match the following:

(a) Forward Reference Table (i) Assembler directive


(b) Mnemonic Table (ii) Uses array data structure
(c) Segment Register Table (iii) Contains machine OP code
(d) code: EQU (iv) Uses linked list data structure
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


B. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
C. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans:D

34. Which of the following program is not a utility?


A. Debugger
B. Editor
C. Spooler
D. All of the above

A
Ans:C

AH
35. Software that allows your computer to interact with the user, applications, and hardware

W
is called

S
A. application software

T
B. word processor

A
C. system software

H
D. database software

P
Ans:C

M
36. Programs that coordinate computer resources, provide an interface between users and the

O
computer and run applications are called
A. utilities
B. operating systems
C. device drivers
D. language translators
Ans:B

37. This type of program performs specific tasks related to managing computer resources.
Also known as a service program,
A. utility
B. operating system
C. language translator
D. device driver
Ans:A

38. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is _________


A. To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored
B. To indicate the starting of the computation code
C. To indicate the purpose of the code
D. To list the locations of all the registers used
Ans:A

39. A machine language instruction format consists of


A. Operand field
B. Operation code field
C. Operation code field & operand field
D. None of the mentioned
Ans:C

A
40. The extension file that is must for a file to be accepted by the LINK as a valid object file

AH
is
A. .OBJ file

W
B. .EXE file

S
C. .MASM file

T
D. DEBUG file

A
Ans:A

P H
41. Which of the following are language processors
A. assembler

M
B. compilers

O
C. interpreter
D. All of these
Ans:D

42. Programming language in which there is a very strong correspondence between the
language and the architecture's machine code instructions is termed as
A. machine language
B. assembly language
C. high level language
D. medium language
Ans:B

43. Binder performs the functions of


A. allocation
B. relocation
C. linking
D. All of these
Ans:D
44. Which development tool / program has the potential to allocate the specific
Addresses so as to load the object code into memory?
A. Loader
B. Locator
C. Library
D. Linker
Ans:B

45. The assembler list file generated by an assembler mainly includes ________
a. binary codes

A
b. assembly language statements

AH
c. offset for each instruction
d. all of the above

W
Ans:d

T S
46. Which kind of assembler does not generate the programs in similar language as that

A
used by micro-controllers by developing the program in high-level languages

H
making them as machine independent?

P
a. Macro Assembler
b. Cross Assembler

M
c. Meta Assembler

O
d. All of the above
Ans:b

47. What kind of address/es is /are usually assigned to program by the linker adopted in
an execution of assembler?
a. Absolute Address
b. Relative Address starting from unity
c. Relative Addresses starting from zero
d. None of the above
Ans:C

48. What are the major form of functionalities associated to high-level language
compilers?
a. Generation of an application program
b. Conversion of generated code from higher level language to machine-level language
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Ans:c
49. Which development tool can facilitate the creation and modification of source
programs in addition to assembly and higher -level languages?
a. Editor
b. Assembler
c. Debugger
d. High-level language Compiler
Ans:a

50. It is a characteristic provision of some debuggers to stop the execution after each
instruction because__________

A
a. it facilitates to analyze or vary the contents of memory and register

AH
b. it facilitates to move the break point to a later point
c. it facilitates to rerun the program

W
d. it facilitates to load the object code program to system memory

S
Ans:a

AT
51. An interpreter is a program that

H
A. places programs into memory and prepares then for execution

P
B. automates the translation of assemble language into machine language
C. accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

M
D. appears to execute a resource as if it were machine language

O
Ans:D

52. A simple two pass assembler does which of the following in the first class
a. It allocates space for the literals
b. It computes the total length of the program
c. It builds the symbol table for the symbols and their values
d .It generates code for all the load and stores regular instruction
A. only a
B. a and b
C. a,b and c
D. only d
Ans:C

53. Mnemonic refers to:


A. Instructions
B. Code
C. Symbolic codes
D. Assembler
Ans:C
54. Mnemonic represent:
A. Operation codes
B. Strings
C. Address
D. None of these
Ans:A

55. To represent addresses in assembly language we use


A. String characters
B. Arrays

A
C. Structure

AH
D. Enum
Ans:A

S W
56. ________generation computers use assembly language:

T
A. First generation

A
B. Third generation

H
C. second generation

P
D. fourth generation
Ans:C

O M
57. The assembler translates isomorphically______ mapping from mnemonic in these
statements to machine instructions:
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:3
D. 4:1

Ans:A
58. In second pass, assembler creates _______in binary format for every instruction in
program and then refers to the symbol table to giving every symbol an______ relating the
segment.
A. Code and program
B. Program and instruction
C. Code and offset
D. All of these
Ans:C

59. In which code is object file is coded:


A. Link code
B. Decimal code
C. Assembly code
D. Binary code
Ans:D

60. which type of errors are detected by the assembler:


a. syntax error
b. logical error
c. run time error
d. none of these

AHA
T S W
P H A
O M
Ans:a

61. MOVE AX BX in this LINES OF CODE what type of error is declared:


a. Undeclared identifier MOVE
b. undeclared identifier AX
c. Accept as a command
d. Not look in symbol table
Ans:A

62. What type of errors are not detected by assemblers:

a. Syntax error
b. Run time error

A
c. Logical error

H
d. All of these

A
Ans:C

S W
63. An assembler is a utility program that performs:

AT
a. Isometric translation
b. Isomorphic translation

H
c. Isochoric translation

P
d. None of these
Ans:b

O M
64. Assemblers are of 2 types:
a. 1 pass
b. 2 pass
c. both a & b
d. none of these
Ans:c

65. Which of the following is not an example of system software?


A. Word Processors
B. Language Translator
C. Utility Software
D. Communication Software
Ans:A

66. ___________________ is designed to solve a specific problem or to do a specific task


A. System Software
B. Utility Software
C. User
D. Application Software
Ans:D

67. Which statements are used for reserving memory for variables
A. Imperative statement
B. Assembler Directives
C. Declaration statements
D. None of the above
Ans:C

68. Which are advanced Assembler directives


A. ORIGIN
B. EQU
C. LTORG
D. All of the above
Ans:D

H A
69. Which directive is used to reset Location Counter?

A
A. ORIGIN

W
B. EQU

S
C. LTORG

AT
D. None of the above
Ans:A

P H
70. Correct Syntax of ORIGIN

M
A. A ORIGIN 408

O
B. 408 ORIGIN A
C. ORIGIN A 408
D. ORIGIN A
Ans: D

71. Correct Syntax of using LTORG is


A. LTORG L
B. LTORG 200
C. 200 LTORG
D. LTORG
Ans:D

72. Match the following


a. LTORG i) Used to set new address for LC
b. ORIGIN ii) Depending on condition code transfer control
c. EQU iii) Allocates addresses to literals
d. BC iv) Associates new address to symbol
A. (a)-iii (b)-i (c)-ii (d)-iv
B. (a)-iii (b)-i (c)-iv (d)-ii
C. (a)-iii (b)-iv (c)-i (d)-ii
D. (a)-iii (b)-iI (c)-iv (d)-i
Ans: B
73. Which statement is used to specify size of variable?
A. LTORG
B. DC
C. DS
D. END
Ans: C

74. A simple two-pass assembler does the following in the first pass:
(a) It allocates space for the literals.
(b) It computes the total length of the program
(c) It builds the symbol table for the symbols and their values.
(d) It generates code for all the load and store register instructions.

A
(e) None of the above.

H
Ans: C

W A
75. What will be LC value after end of code?

S
START 200

AT
MOVER AREG ‘=5’
MOVEM AREG X

H
L1 MOVER BREG ‘=2’

P
ORIGIN L1+3

O M
A. 203
B. 204
C. 206
D. 205
Ans:D

76. What will be addresses of literals?


START 200
MOVER AREG ‘=5’
MOVEM AREG X
L1 MOVER BREG ‘=2’
ORIGIN L1+3

A. Literal ‘=2’ address 205 and Literal ‘=5’ address is 206


B. Literal ‘=2’ address 204 and Literal ‘=5’ address is 205
C. Literal ‘=5’ address 204 and Literal ‘=2’ address is 205
D. Literal ‘=5’ address 205 and Literal ‘=6’ address is 206
Ans: D

77. What will be addresses of literals?


START 200
MOVER AREG ‘=5’
MOVEM AREG X
L1 MOVER BREG ‘=2’
ORIGIN L1+6

A. Literal ‘=2’ address 209 and Literal ‘=5’ address is 210


B. Literal ‘=2’ address 210 and Literal ‘=5’ address is 209
C. Literal ‘=5’ address 208 and Literal ‘=2’ address is 209
D. Literal ‘=5’ address 209 and Literal ‘=6’ address is 208
Ans: C

78. What will be addresses of literals?


START 200

A
L1 MOVER AREG ‘=5’

H
MOVEM AREG X

A
MOVER BREG ‘=2’

W
ORIGIN L1+6

AT S
A. Literal ‘=2’ address 209 and Literal ‘=5’ address is 210
B. Literal ‘=2’ address 208 and Literal ‘=5’ address is 207

H
C. Literal ‘=5’ address 208 and Literal ‘=2’ address is 207

P
D. Literal ‘=5’ address 209 and Literal ‘=6’ address is 208

M
Ans: B

O
79. Find literals and label in following code
START 200
L1 MOVER AREG ‘=5’
MOVEM AREG X
MOVER BREG ‘=2’
ORIGIN L1+6

A. Literals:X and 2 label: L1


B. Literals:L1 label: 5 and 2
C. Literals:5 and 2 label: X+6
D. Literals:5 and 2 label: L1
Ans: D

80. What will be address of D and A

START 100
MOVER AREG ‘=5’
ADD CREG ‘=1’
A DS 3
L1 MOVER AREG B
ADD AREG C
MOVEM AREG D
LTORG
D EQU A+1

A. Address of A=103 Address of D=104


B. Address of A=102 Address of D=110
C. Address of A=102 Address of D=103
D. Address of A=102 Address of D=107
Ans:C

81. What will be address of literals

START 100

A
MOVER AREG ‘=5’

H
ADD CREG ‘=1’

A
A DS 3

W
L1 MOVER AREG B

S
ADD AREG C
MOVEM AREG D

AT
LTORG
D EQU A+1

P H
A. Address of first literal= 101 Address of first literal=102

M
B. Address of first literal= 108 Address of first literal=109

O
C. Address of first literal= 106 Address of first literal=107
D. Address of first literal= 100 Address of first literal=101
Ans:B

82. From following assembly code which are literals and symbols

START 100
MOVER AREG ‘=5’
ADD CREG ‘=1’
A DS 3
L1 MOVER AREG B
ADD AREG C
MOVEM AREG D
LTORG
D EQU A+1
A. Symbols are L1, A, B and Literals are 5, 1
B. Symbols are A, B and Literals are 3, 5, 1
C. Symbols is L1 and Literals are 5, 1
D. Symbols are A, B and Literals are 5, 1
Ans: D

83. Which pseudo code indicates to the assembler which general purpose register to use
as a base and what its contents will be.
A. USING
B. BALR
C. BR
D. NONE
Ans:A
84. The advantages of assembly level programming are
a) flexibility of programming is more
b) chances of error are less
c) debugging is easy
d) all of the mentioned
Ans:D

A
85. The extension that is essential for every assembly level program is

H
a) .ASP

A
b) .ALP

W
c) .ASM

S
d) .PGM

AT
Ans:c

P H
O M
UNIT-II
MACROPROCESSOR, LINKER AND LOADER
1. The object code is then passed through a program called a ___________ which turns it
into an executable program.
A. Integer
B. Source code
C. Linker
D. None of the above
Ans:C

AHA
2. When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a special type of absolute loader is
executed, called a

W
A. Compile and Go loader

S
B. Boot loader

T
C. Bootstrap loader

A
D. Relating loader

H
Ans:C

M P
3. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always?

O
A. Text editor
B. Assembler
C. Linker
D. LOADER
Ans:D

4. Which is not a function of a loader?


A. Allocation
B. Translation
C. Relocation
D. Loading
Ans:B

5. Disadvantage of compiler and go loading scheme is that


A. a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is
unavailable the object program
B. it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run
C. it is very difficult to handle multiple segments especially if the source programs are in
different language and to produce overlay modular programs
D. all of the above
Ans:D

6. The non relocatable program is one which

A. Can not made to execute in any area to storage other than the one designated for it at
the time of its coding or translation
B. consists of a program and relevant information for its relocation
C. can itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions
D. all of the above
Ans:A

A
7. By whom address of external function in the assembly source file supplied by ______

AH
when activated:
a. Assembler

W
b. Linker

S
c. Machine
d. Code

T
Ans:b

P H A
8. A_______ processor controls repetitious writing of sequence:
a. Macro

M
b. Micro

O
c. Nano
d. All of these
Ans:A

9. IBM-360 type language is example which supporting______ language:


a. Micro
b. Macro
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
Ans:b

10. _________ is attached to using macro instruction definition:


a. Name
b. Definition
c. Identifier
d. All of these.
Ans: a

11. END of macro definition by


a. NAME
b. MEND
c. DATA
d. MEMORY
Ans:b

12. Process of replacing the sequence of lines of codes is known as:


a. Tetra macro
b. Expanding tri macro
c. Expanding macro
d. None of these
Ans:c

13. A program that links several programs is called:

A
a. Loader

AH
b. Linker
c. Translator

W
d. None of these

S
Ans:b

AT
14. _______address is not assigned by linker:

H
a. Relative

P
b. Absolute
c. Both a & b

M
d. None of these

O
Ans:b

15. . ________address is provided by linker to modules linked together that starting


from______:
a. Absolute and 0
b. Relative and 0
c. Relative and 1
d. Relative and 3
Ans:b

16. . A linker is also known as:


a. Binder
b. Linkage editor
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
Ans:C

17. Loading is _______ with the task of storage management of operating system and mostly
preformed after assembly:
a. Expanded
b. Bound
c. Overlaps
d. All of these
Ans:b

18. It is the task of the ________to locate externally defined symbols in programs, load them
in to memory by placing their _______of symbols in calling program:
a. Loader and name
b. Linker and values
c. Linker and name
d. Loader and values
Ans:d

AHA
19. Linker creates a link file containing binary codes and also produces_______ containing
address information on linked files:

W
a. Symbol map

S
b. Map table
c. Link map

T
d. None of these

A
Ans:c

P H
20. A module contains machine code with specification on______:

M
a. Relative addresses
b. Absolute addresses

O
c. Object program
d. None of these
Ans:a

21. After actual locations for main storage are known, a ______adjusts relative addresses to
these actual locations
a. Default loader
b. Locating loader
c. Relocating loader
d. None of these
Ans:c

22. If there is a module from single source-language only that does not contain any external
references, it doesn’t need a linker to load it and is loaded______:
a. Indirectly
b. Directly
c. Extending
d. None of these
Ans:b

23. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler?


A. Relocation
B. Allocation
C. Linking
D. Loading
Ans:A

24. The linker?


A. is same as the loader
B. is required to create a load module
C. is always used before programs are executed

A
D. None of above

AH
Ans:B

W
25. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a

S
form suitable for execution ?

T
A. Assembler

A
B. Linking loader

H
C. Cross compiler

P
D. Load and Go
Ans:B

O M
26. Loading process can be divided into two separate programs, to solve some problems. The
first is binder the other is?
A. Linkage editor
B. Module Loader
C. Relocator
D. None of these
Ans:B

27. Load address for the first word of the program is called
A. Load address origin
B. Linker address origin
C. Phase library
D. Absolute library
Ans: A

28. Resolution of externally defined symbols is performed by


A. Linker
B. Loader
C. Compiler
D. Editor
Ans:A

29. Relocatable programs


A. cannot be used with fixed partitions
B. can be loaded almost anywhere in memory
C. do not need a linker
D. can be loaded only at one specific location
Ans:B

A
30. Memory allocation involves which of the following task(s)

AH
A. determine amount of memory required
B. use an appropriate memory allocation model

W
C. determine appropriate memory mapping

S
D. All of the above

T
Ans: D

H A
31. ________________is used for reducing relocation requirements.

P
A. Relocation register
B. Track register

M
C. Binding register

O
D. Segment Register
Ans: D

32. If load origin is not equal to linked origin then relocation is performed by
A. Linker
B. By program itself
C. Loader
D. Relocation not performed
Ans: C

33. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed
by____________.
A. Absolute Loader
B. Loader
C. Linker
D. None of the above
Ans:C

34. In an absolute loading scheme which loader function is accomplished by loader


A. Linker
B. Loader
C. Compiler
D. Editor
Ans: B

35. Relocating bits used by relocating loader are specified by


A. Relocating loader itself
B. Linker
C. Assembler

A
D. Macro processor

AH
Ans:B

W
36. Which of the following can be accessed by transfer vector approach of linking?

S
A. External data segments

T
B. Data located in other procedure

A
C. External subroutines

H
D. All of these

P
Ans: C

M
37. A system program that combines separately compiled modules of a program into a form

O
suitable for execution is
A. Linking loader
B. Assembler
C. Cross compiler
D. None of the mentioned
Ans:A

38. Which of the following module does not incorporate initialization of values changed by
the module?
A. re-enterable module
B. all of these
C. serially reusable module
D. non reusable module
Ans: D

39. A linker is given object module for a set of programs that were compiled separately.
What information need not be included in an object module
A. Object code
B. Relocation bits
C. Absolute addresses of internal symbols.
D. Names and locations of all external symbols denied in the object module
Ans:C

40. Which of the following functions is performed by loader?


A. Adjust all address dependent locations, such as address constants, to correspond to the
allocated space
B. Allocate space in memory for the programs and resolve symbolic references between
objects decks
C. Physically place the machine instructions and data into memory

A
D. All of the above

AH
Ans:D

W
41. In what module, multiple instances of execution will yield the same result even if one

S
instance has not terminated before the next one has begun?

T
A. serially reusable

A
B. recursive module

H
C. reenterable module

P
D. non-reusable module
Ans:C

O M
42. Direct linking loader is an example of
A. Compile and Go loader
B. Absolute loader
C. Dynamic loader
D. Relocating loader
Ans:C

43. In direct linking loader which card is not related to object program
A. ESD
B. TXT
C. RLD
D. BSS
Ans:D

44. Binary Symbolic Subroutine loader is an example of


A. Compile and Go loader
B. Absolute loader
C. Dynamic loader
D. Relocating loader
Ans:D

45. In direct linking loader, Location and length of each address constant is maintained by
A. ESD
B. TXT
C. RLD
D. END
Ans: C

46. ESD cards contain information about

A
A. All symbols that are defined in this program that may be reference elsewhere and all

AH
symbols reference in the program but defined elsewhere.
B. Actual object code translated version of source program.

W
C. Those location in the program whose content depend on the address at which program

S
is placed.

T
D. END of object deck.

A
Ans: A

P H
47. TXT cards contain information about
A. All symbols that are defined in this program that may be reference elsewhere and all

M
symbols reference in the program but defined elsewhere.

O
B. Actual object code translated version of source program.
C. Those location in the program whose content depend on the address at which program
is placed.
D. END of object deck.
Ans: B

48. RLD cards contain information about


A. All symbols that are defined in this program that may be reference elsewhere and all
symbols reference in the program but defined elsewhere.
B. Actual object code translated version of source program.
C. Those location in the program whose content depend on the address at which program
is placed.
D. END of object deck.
Ans:C

49. END cards contain information about


A. All symbols that are defined in this program that may be reference elsewhere and all
symbols reference in the program but defined elsewhere.
B. Actual object code translated version of source program.
C. Those location in the program whose content depend on the address at which program
is placed.
D. END of object deck.
Ans:D

50. Transfer vector is used by Direct linking loader


A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans: A

A
51. In compile and go loader linking is performed loader.

AH
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

W
Ans: B

T S
52. Global External Symbol Table(GEST) is used by direct linking loader.

A
A. TRUE

H
B. FALSE

P
Ans:A

M
53. Global External Symbol Table(GEST) is not used by direct linking loader.

O
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans:B

54. Local External Symbol Array is used by direct linking loader.


A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans:A
55. Local External Symbol Array) is not used by direct linking loader.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans: B

56. Overlay Structures used when


A. Virtual memory is available.
B. secondary memory is available
C. Virtual Memory is not available.
D. None of the above
Ans:C
57. In which card length of segment is present?
A. ESD
B. TXT
C. RLD
D. END
Ans: A

58. In direct linking loader, relocation and linking information of object program is present in
A. ESD
B. TXT

A
C. RLD

AH
D. END
Ans:C

S W
59. Match the following cards with it’s functions

AT
(a) ESD (i) Actual object code translated version

H
(b) RLD (ii) Specifies the address to start execution

P
(c) TXT (iii) Contains relocation information
(d) END (iv) Information about entries and symbols

M
(a) (b) (c) (d)

O
A. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
B. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
C. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
D. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans:D

60. Which of the following features is not offered by Macros?


A. Code reusability
B. Less memory space
C. Fast execution
D. None of the above
Ans: B

61. Which of the following is the correct syntax for calling a Macro?
A. MACRO macro_name
B. MACRO macro_name [ parameter's list]
C. macro_name [parameter's list ]
D. None of the above
Ans:C
62. Which of the following characteristics of Procedures makes it unfit for being used for
short instruction sets with less number of instructions?
A. Extra code requirement for integrating procedures
B. Linking of procedures with the mainline program takes too much time
C. Extra work load on processor for shifting controls
D. All of the Above
Ans: D

63. In a program, a Macro is being called 'n' times. Then how many times is the machine
code generated for the same?

A
A. 1 time

AH
B. 'n' times
C. 'n-1' times

W
D. None of the above

S
Ans: B

AT
64. Macro definition is enclosed

H
A. between Macro header statement and macro end

P
B. In main program
C. In other function

M
D. None of the above

O
Ans:A

65. MACRO definition consist of


A. Macro prototype statement
B. One or more model statements
C. Macro pre-processor statements
D. All of the above
Ans:D

66. A macro is
A. a small program inside a program
B. set of special instructions
C. a unit of specification for program generation through expansion
D. None of the above
Ans:C

67. A ________________ statement declare the name of macro.


A. macro prototype
B. macro definition
C. macro identification
D. None of the above
Ans:A

68. During macro expansion each statement is replaced by


A. the original program
B. the sequence of assembly statement
C. by specific symbols
D. None of the above
Ans:B

AHA
69. Each macro statement is marked with the __________ sign preceded it.
A. +

W
B. @

S
C. -

T
D. $

A
Ans:A

P H
70. The flow control during macro expansion is
A. combination

M
B. chronological

O
C. indexable
D. sequential
Ans:D

71. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as


A. referential macro call
B. nested macro call
C. inbuilt macro call
D. inherited macro call
Ans:B

72. Expansion time variables are used


A. Before expansion of micro calls
B. only during expansion of macro calls
C. After expansion of micro calls
D. Any one of the above
Ans:B

73. The translator which perform macro expansion is called a


A. Macro processor
B. Macro pre-processor
C. Micro pre-processor
D. assembler
Ans:B

74. Macro processor is an inbuilt function of ?


A. Loader
B. Editor
C. Linker

A
D. Assembler

AH
Ans:D
75. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then to reduce the

W
length of the program, ……. is used.

S
A. procedure

T
B. subroutine

A
C. macro

H
D. none of the mentioned

P
Ans:C

M
76. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

O
A. initialising macro
B. initialising string macro
C. defining a string macro
D. defining a macro
Ans: D

77. A macro can be used


A. in data segment
B. to represent directives
C. to represent statements
D. all of the mentioned
Ans: D

78. Inserting the statements and instructions represented by macro, directly at the place of the
macroname, in the program, is known as
A. calling a macro
B. inserting a macro
C. initializing a macro
D. none of the mentioned
Ans: A

79. The time required for execution of a macro is ……… that of procedure.
A. greater than
B. less than
C. equal to
D. none of the mentioned
Ans:B

80. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A
A. complete code of instruction string is inserted at each place, wherever the macroname

AH
appears
B. macro requires less time of execution than that of procedure

W
C. macro uses stack memory

S
D. macro name can be anything except registers and mnemonics

T
Ans:C

H A
81. The beginning of the macro can be represented as

P
A. START
B. BEGIN

M
C. MACRO

O
D. none of the mentioned
Ans: C

82. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the


A. FIFO rule (First in first out)
B. LIFO (Last in First out)
C. FILO rule (First in last out)
D. None of the above
Ans:B

83. Macro-processors are ______


A. Hardware
B. Compilers
C. Registers
D. None of the above
Ans:B

84. Macro processor is an inbuilt function of -


A. Loader
B. Linker
C. Editor
D. Assembler
Ans:D

85. Advantage of incorporating the macro-processor into pass 1 is that


A. many functions have to be implemented twice
B. more flexibility is available to the programmer in that he may use all the features of
the assembler in conjunction with macros.
C. functions are combined and it is not necessary to create intermediate files as output

A
from the macro-processor and input to the assembler.

AH
D. all of these
Ans: D

S W
86. In which way a macro processor for assembly language can be implemented

T
A. Processor incorporated into pass 1 of a standard two pass assembler

A
B. Independent one-pass processor

H
C. Independent two-pass processor

P
D. All of these
Ans:D

O M
87. What are x and y in the following macro definition?
MACRO Add x, y
Load y
Mul x
Store y
MEND
A. variables
B. identifiers
C. formal parameters
D. actual parameters
Ans: C

88. The conditional expansion facility of macro procesors is provided to


A. to expand certain model statements depending upon the value of a condition during
the execution of the expanded program
B. test a condition during the execution of the expanded program
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. to expand certain model statements depending upon the value of a condition during
the process of macro expansion
Ans: C

89. The advantage(s) of incorporating the macro processor into pass 1 is/ are
A. many functions do not have to be implemented twice
B. more flexibility is available to the programmer in which he/she may use all the
features of the assembler in conjunction with macros
C. Functions are combined and it is not necessary to create intermediate files as output
from the macro processor and input to the assembler
D. All of the above
Ans: D

AHA
90. In which way(s) can a macro processor for assembly language be implemented?
A. independent one-pass processor

W
B. independent two-pass processor

S
C. processor incorporated into pass of a standard two-pass assembler

T
D. all of the above

A
Ans:D

P H
91. Which symbol used with formal parameter?
A. $

M
B. %

O
C. @
D. &
Ans:D

92. Which of the following is true in MACRO?


A. Keyword Parameters are written before positional parameters
B. Can be written in any order.
C. positional Parameters are written before Keyword parameters
D. Keyword parameters not allowed
Ans:C

93. MACRO uses both positional and keyword parameters?


A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans:A

94. Consider following Macro


MACRO
INCR &MEM_VAL &INCR_VAL &REG
MOVER &REG &MEM_VAL
ADD &REG &MEM_VAL
MOVEM &REG &MEM_VAL
MEND
Macro call for above definition will be?
A. INCR A B AREG
B. INCR MEM_VAL=A INCR_VAL=B REG=AREG
C. INCR MEM_VAL=A REG=AREG INCR_VAL=B
D. All of the above
Ans:A

AHA
95. Consider following Macro
MACRO

W
INCR &MEM_VAL= &INCR_VAL= &REG=

S
MOVER &REG &MEM_VAL

T
ADD &REG &MEM_VAL

A
MOVEM &REG &MEM_VAL

H
MEND

P
Macro call for above definition will be?
A. INCR A B AREG

M
B. INCR MEM_VAL=A INCR_VAL=B REG=AREG

O
C. INCR MEM_VAL=A REG=AREG INCR_VAL=B
D. Both B and C
Ans:D

96. Consider following Macro


MACRO
INCR &MEM_VAL=10 &INCR_VAL= &REG=
MOVER &REG &MEM_VAL
ADD &REG &MEM_VAL
MOVEM &REG &MEM_VAL
MEND
Macro call for above definition will be?
A. INCR A B AREG
B. INCR INCR_VAL=B REG=AREG
C. INCR MEM_VAL=A REG=AREG INCR_VAL=B
D. Both B and C
Ans:D

97. While calling Macro, ______ Parameters are always placed before ______ parameters.
A. Keyword, positional
B. Positional, Keyword
C. Default, Positional
D. Positional, Default
Ans: B

98. Mixing of parameters is allowed in macro.


A.TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans: A

AHA
99. Mixing of parameters is not allowed in macro.
A.TRUE

W
B. FALSE

S
Ans: B

AT
100.From following which is true?

H
A. Macro uses positional, keyword and default parameters

P
B. Positional Parameters are placed before Keyword parameters
C. Macro uses mixing of all parameters

M
D. All the above

O
Ans:D
UNIT-III
LANGUAGE TRANSLATOR
1. A compiler is a program that

A places programs into memory and prepares them for execution.


B automates the translation of assembly language into machine language.
C accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program.
D None of the above
Ans:C

2. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A
A. Machine Code

H
B. Intermediate Code

A
C. Stream of Token

W
D. Parse Tree

S
Ans: C

AT
3. Which concept of grammar is used in the compiler?

H
A Parser

P
B Code optimization

M
C Lexical analysis
D Code generation

O
Ans: A

4. What goes over the characters of the lexeme to produce a value?

A Scanner
B Lexical generator
C Parser
D Evaluator
Ans:A

5. Two Important lexical categories are

A White Space & Comments


B White Space
C Comments
D None of the mentioned
Ans: A

6. Which grammar defines Lexical Syntax

A Lexical Grammar
B Context free Grammar
C Regular Grammar
D None of the above
Ans: A
7. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A Integer Literal
B Addition Operator
C Identifier
D None of the above
Ans: A

8. It has encoded within it information on the possible sequences of characters that can
be contained within any of the tokens it handles..Above motioned function is
performed by?

A Syntactic Analyser

A
B Parser
C Scanner

H
D All of the mentioned

A
Ans: C

S W
9. A programmer, by mistake, writes an instruction to divide, instead of a multiply, such

AT
error can be detected by a/an

A compiler

H
B interpreter

P
C compiler or interpreter test

M
D None of these
Ans: D

O
10. The process of forming tokens from an input stream of characters is called_____

A Tokenization
B Liberalisation
C Characterisation
D None of the mentioned
Ans: A

11. Which of the following is a phase of a compilation process ?

A Lexical analysis
B Code generation
C Both (a) and (b)
D None of these
Ans:C

12. Compiler can diagnose

A Grammatical errors only


B logical errors only
C grammatical as well as logical errors
D None of these
Ans:A
13. System program such a s compiler are designed so that they are

A re-enterable
B non-reusable
C serially usable
D None of the above
Ans:A

14. A compiler program written in a high level language is called

A source program
B object program
C machine language program
D None of these

A
Ans: A

A H
15. The output of lexical analyzer is

W
A Set of Tokens

S
B A set of RE

AT
C Syntax Tree
D None of the above

H
Ans: A

P
16. Which of the following are Lexemes?

O M
A Keywords
B Identifiers
C Constants
D All of the mentioned
Ans: D

17. Which of the following is not a phase of compiler?

a. syntax
b. lexical
c. testing
d. code generation
Ans: c

18. In compiler, Source program is read by

a. parser
b. lexical analyzer
c.developer
d.analyst
Ans:b

19. In interpreter, Source program is read

a. character by character
b. line by line
c. page by page
d. module wise
Ans:b

20. Compiler

a. reads source program


b. converts it into target language
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Ans:c

A
21. Token for if is

H
a. id

A
b. keyword

W
c. If

S
d. string

AT
Ans: c

22. Output of parser is

P H
a. set of tokens
b. parse tree

M
c. object code

O
d. intermediate code
Ans: b

23. Grammar is ambiguous if

a. it has 2 parse trees


b. it has two left most derivations
c. it has two right most derivations
d. all of the above
Ans: d

24. Parsing is also known as

a. syntax analysis
b. lexical analysis
c. semantic analysis
d. code generation
Ans: a

25. The concept of FSA is much used in this part of the compiler

a. lexical analysis
b. parser
c. code generation
d. code optimization
Ans: a

26. Input buffer is used

a. syntax analysis
b. lexical analysis
c. semantic analysis
d. code generation
Ans: b

27. Input buffer is

a. symbol table

A
b. divided into two halves
c. divided into Three halves

H
d. not divided

A
Ans: b

S W
28. How many Pointers are maintained in Input buffering Scheme?

AT
a. One

H
b. Two

P
c. Three
d. None of these

M
Ans: b

O
29. In input buffering scheme use two pointer are

a. low and High


b. First and second
c. Begin Pointer and Forward pointer
d. None of the above
Ans: c

30. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called
a) Ambiguous
b) Unambiguous
c) Regular
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

31. The optimization which avoids test at every iteration is


a) Loop unrolling
b) Loop jamming
c) Constant folding
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a
32. Shift reduce parsers are
a) Top down Parser
b) Bottom Up parser
c) May be top down or bottom up
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

33. An intermediate code form is


a) Postfix notation
b) Syntax Trees
c) Three Address code
d) All of the mentioned

A
Ans: d

A H
34. A bottom up parser generates

W
a) Right most derivation

S
b) Right most derivation in reverse

AT
c) Left most derivation
d) Left most derivation in reverse

H
Ans: b

M P
35. A optimizing compiler

O
a) Is optimized to occupy less space
b) Is optimized to take less time for execution
c) Optimized the code
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

36. Input to code generator


a) Source code
b) Intermediate code
c) Target code
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b

37. _____________ is a graph representation of a derivation


a) The parse tree
b) Oct tree
c) Binary tree
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

38. An intermediate code form is


a) Postfix Notation
b) Syntax Trees
c) Three address code
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c

39. How many parts of compiler are there?


A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Ans: B

A
40. Grammar of the programming is checked at _______ phase of compiler.

H
A. Semantic analysis

A
B. Syntax analysis

W
C. Code optimization

S
D. Code generation

AT
Ans: B

H
41. Compiler can check ________ error.

P
A. Logical

M
B. Syntax

O
C. Content
D. Both A and B
Ans: B

42. What is the name of the process that determining whether a string of tokens can be
generated by a grammar?
A. Analysing
B. Recognizing
C. Translating
D. Parsing
Ans: D

43. Dead code elimination is done in


A. Lexical Phase
B. Syntax analysis
C. Code generation
D. Code optimization
Ans: D

44. Which of the following operations done in code optimization


A. Memory management
B. Eliminate redundancies
C. Generating code
D. Register allocation
Ans: B

45. Which of the following operations done in code generation


A. Generating code
B. Register allocation
C. Memory management
D. All of the above
Ans: D

46. Match the following

A
a)Lexical analysis i)Dead code elimination

H
b) Syntax analysis ii)Type checking

A
c) Semantic analysis iii)Generates Syntax tree

W
d) code optimization iv) Divide source program into tokens

AT S
A. a-iv b-iii c-i d-ii
B. a-iv b-ii c-i d-iii

H
C. a-iv b-iii c-ii d-i

P
D. a-iv b-ii c-iii d-i

M
Ans: B

O
47. Type checking is done usually done by

A. Lexical Phase
B. Syntax analysis
C. Semantic analysis
D. Code optimization
Ans: C

48. Which is permanent data base in the general model of compiler


A. Literal table
B. Identifier table
C. Source code
D. Terminal Table
Ans: C

49. Which of the following not used in intermediate code form?


A. Postfix notation
B. Three address code
C. Syntax trees
D. Quadruples
Ans: C
50. The lexical analysis for a modern computer language such as Java needs the power of
which one of the following machine models in a necessary and sufficient sense?
A. Finite state automata
B. Deterministic pushdown automata
C. Non-Deterministic pushdown automata
D. Turing Machine
Ans: A

51. Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
P. Regular expression 1. Syntax analysis
Q. Pushdown automata 2. Code generation

A
R. Dataflow analysis 3. Lexical analysis

H
S. Register allocation 4. Code optimization

A
A. P-4. Q-1, R-2, S-3
B. P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

S W
C. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
D. P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

AT
Ans: B

P H
52. Some code optimizations are carried out on the intermediate code because
A. they enhance the portability of the compiler to other target processors

M
B. program analysis is more accurate on intermediate code than on machine code

O
C. the information from dataflow analysis cannot otherwise be used for optimization
D. the information from the front end cannot otherwise be used for optimization
Ans: A

53. Which one of the following is FALSE?


A. A basic block is a sequence of instructions where control enters the sequence at the
beginning and exits at the end
B. Available expression analysis can be used for common subexpression elimination
C. Live variable analysis can be used for dead code elimination
D. x = 4 ∗ 5 => x = 20 is an example of common subexpression elimination
Ans: D

54. One of the purposes of using intermediate code in compilers is to


A. make parsing and semantic analysis simpler
B. improve error recovery and error reporting
C. increase the chances of reusing the machine-independent code optimizer in other
compilers
D. improve the register allocation
Ans: C
55. Consider the following statements:

(I) The output of a lexical analyzer is groups of characters.


(II) Total number of tokens in printf("i=%d, &i=%x", i, &i); are 11.
(III) Symbol table can be implementation by using array and hash table but not tree.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
A. Only (I)
B. Only (II) and (III)
C. All (I), (II), and (III)
D. None of these
Ans: D

A
56. Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2.

H
Group 1 Group 2

A
A. Responsible for recognizing syntax 1. Optimizer

W
B. Output stream of words 2. Semantic analysis

S
C. Understands meanings of variables 3. Parser

AT
D. Used to improve IR representation 4. Scanner

H
Code: A B C D

P
A. iii iv ii i

M
B. iv iii ii i

O
C. ii iv i iii
D. ii iv iii i
Ans: A

57. The number of tokens in the following C statement is printf("i=%d, &i=%x", i&i);
A. 13
B. 6
C. 10
D. 9
Ans: D

58. Indicate which of the following is not true about interpreter ?


A. Interpreter generate an object program from the source program
B. Interpreter analyses each source statement every time it is to be executed
C. Interpreter is a kind of translator
D. All of above
Ans: A

59. An interpreter is
A. A program that places programs into memory an prepares them for execution
B. A program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine
language
C. A program that accepts a program written in high level language and produces an
object program
D. Is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine
language
Ans: D

60. An interpreter is a program that


A. places programs into memory and prepares then for execution
B. automates the translation of assemble language into machine language
C. accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

A
D. appears to execute a resource as if it were machine language

H
Ans: D

W A
61. A programmer, by mistakes writes a program to multiply two numbers instead of

S
dividing them, how can this error be detected

AT
A. Compiler
B. Interpreter

H
C. Compiler or interpreter

P
D. None of the above

M
Ans: D

O
62. Compilers and interpreters are themselves:______________?
A. High-level language
B. Codes
C. Programs
D. Mnemonics
Ans: C

63. A finite automata recognizes


a) Any Language
b) Context Sensitive Language
c) Context Free Language
d) Regular Language
Ans: D

64. The regular languages are not closed under


A. Concatenation
B. Union
C. Kleene star
D. Complement
Ans: D
65. In regular expressions, the operator „*‟ stands for
a) Concatenation
b) Selection
c) Iteration
d) Addition
Ans: c

66. Regular expressions are used to represent which language


a) Recursive language
b) Context free language
c) Regular language
d) All of the mentioned

A
Ans: c

A H
67. Lexical Analyser‟s Output is given to Syntax Analysis.

W
a) True

S
b) False

AT
Ans: a

H
68. Which phase of the compiler is Lexical Analyser?

P
a) First

M
b) Second

O
c) Third
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

69. Which one is a type of Lexeme


a) Identifiers
b) Constants
c) Keywords
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

70. The process of forming tokens from an input stream of characters is called_____
a) Liberalisation
b) Characterisation
c) Tokenization
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

71. Which one is a lexer Generator


a) ANTLR
b) DRASTAR
c) FLEX
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

72. Select a Machine Independent phase of the compiler


a) Syntax Analysis
b) Intermediate Code generation
c) Lexical Analysis
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

73. Output file of Lex is _____ the input file is Myfile?

A
a) Myfile.e

H
b) Myfile.yy.c

A
c) Myfile.lex

W
d) Myfile.obj

S
Ans: b

AT
74. Suppose One of the Operand is String and other is Integer then it does not throw error

H
as it only checks whether there are two operands associated with „+‟ or not .

P
a) True

M
b) False

O
Ans: a

75. What does a Syntactic Analyser do?


a) Maintain Symbol Table
b) Collect type of information
c) Create parse tree
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

76. Which of the following statement is true?


a) Every language that is defined by regular expression can also be defined by finite
automata
b) Every language defined by finite automata can also be defined by regular
expression
c) We can convert regular expressions into finite automata
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

77. YACC is a computer program for ______ operation system.


a) Windows
b) DOS
c) Unix
d) openSUSE
Ans: c

78. The YACC takes C code as input and outputs_________


a) Top down parsers
b) Bottom up parsers
c) Machine code
d) None of the mentioned
Ans :b

79. Which of the following software tool is parser generator?

A
a) Lex

H
b) Yacc

A
c) Both of the mentioned

W
d) None of the mentioned

S
Ans: b

AT
80. A Lex compiler generates

H
a) Lex object code

P
b) Transition tables

M
c) Tokens

O
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

81. Input of Lex is ?


A. set to regular expression
B. statement
C. Numeric data
D. ASCII data
Ans: a

82. Yacc semantic action is a sequence of ?


A. Tokens
B. Expression
C. C statement
D. Rules
Ans: C

83. A compiler that runs on one machine and produces code for a different machine is
called
A. cross compilation
B. one pass compilation
C. two pass compilation
D. none of these
Ans: A

84. YACC stands for


A. yet accept compiler constructs
B. yet accept compiler compiler
C. yet another compiler constructs
D. yet another compiler compiler
Ans: D

85. Pee hole optimization


A. Loop optimization

A
B. Local optimization

H
C. Constant folding

A
D. Data flow analysis

W
Ans: C

AT S
86. Advantage of panic mode of error recovery is that
A. It is simple to implement

H
B. It never gets into an infinite loop

P
C. Both a and b

M
D. None of these

O
Ans: d

87. The output of lexical analyzer is


A. A set of RE
B. Syntax Tree
C. Set of Tokens
D. String Character
Ans: C

88. What is token for the lexeme “core dumped”


A. Keywords
B. Literals
C. Identifiers
D. Sentinels
Ans: B

89. Cross compiler is used in Bootstrapping.


a) True
b) False
Ans: a
90. Is GCC a cross Complier
a) Yes
b) No
Ans: a

91. What constitutes the stages of the compilation process?


a) Feasibility study, system, design, and testing
b) Implementation and. documentation
c) Lexical analysis, syntax. Analysis and code generation
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

A
92. Which of the following is not feature of compiler?

H
a) Scan the entire program first and translate into machine code

A
b) To remove syntax errors

W
c) Slow for debugging

S
d) Execution time is more

AT
Ans: d

H
93. All ___________ Are automatically treated as regular expressions.

P
a) Programmatic description

M
b) Window

O
c) Win Object
d) Collection
Ans: a

94. In a compiler, keywords of a language are recognized during


a) Parsing of the program
b) the code generation
c) the lexical analysis of the program
d) dataflow analysis
Ans: c

95. Consider the following statements related to compiler construction :


I. Lexical Analysis is specified by context-free grammars and implemented by pushdown
automata.
II. Syntax Analysis is specified by regular expressions and implemented by finite-state
machine.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
a) only I
b) only II
c) first I and II
d) neither I nor II
Ans: d
96. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
a) Context-free grammar can be used to specify both lexical and syntax rules.
b) Type checking is done before parsing.
c) High-level language programs can be translated to different Intermediate Representations
d) Arguments to a function can be passed using the program stack.
Ans: b

A H A
S W
P H AT
O M
UNIT-IV
OPERATING SYSTEMS
1. What is operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) link to interface the hardware and application programs
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

2. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the

A
___________

H
a) System calls

A
b) API

W
c) Library

S
d) Assembly instructions

AT
Ans: a

H
3. Which one of the following is not true?

P
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
b) kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting

M
c) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating

O
system
d) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
Ans: c

4. Which one of the following error will be handling by the operating system?
a) power failure
b) lack of paper in printer
c) connection failure in the network
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

5. By operating system, the resource management can be done via __________


a) time division multiplexing
b) space division multiplexing
c) time and space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

6. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?


a) VxWorks
b) Windows CE
c) RTLinux
d) Palm OS.
Ans: d

7. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called __________
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

8. In operating system, each process has its own __________

A
a) address space and global variables

H
b) open files

A
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers

W
d) all of the mentioned

S
Ans: d

AT
9. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?

H
a) fork

P
b) create

M
c) new

O
d) none of the mentioned.
Ans: a

10. A process can be terminated due to __________


a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

11. What is the ready state of a process?


a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

12. What is inter process communication?


a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

13. A set of processes is deadlock if __________


a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

14. A process stack does not contain __________


a) Function parameters
b) Local variables

A
c) Return addresses

H
d) PID of child process

A
Ans: d

S W
15. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided

AT
by the __________
a) CPU registers

H
b) Program counter

P
c) Process stack

M
d) Pipe.

O
Ans: b

16. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following?
a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
Ans: c

17. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
Ans: b

18. The state of a process is defined by __________


a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
Ans: d
19. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running
Ans: b

20. What is a Process Control Block?


a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) A secondary storage section
d) A Block in memory

A
Ans: b

A H
21. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in __________

W
a) Process Register

S
b) Program Counter

AT
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit

H
Ans: c

M P
22. What is the degree of multiprogramming?

O
a) the number of processes executed per unit time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) the number of processes in memory
Ans: d

23. A single thread of control allows the process to perform __________


a) only one task at a time
b) multiple tasks at a time
c) only two tasks at a time
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

24. What is the objective of multiprogramming?


a) Have some process running at all times
b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
c) To minimize CPU utilization
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

25. What is a short-term scheduler?


a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

26. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes?


a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
Ans: b

A
27. When the process issues an I/O request __________

H
a) It is placed in an I/O queue

A
b) It is placed in a waiting queue

W
c) It is placed in the ready queue

S
d) It is placed in the Job queue

AT
Ans: a

H
28. What will happen when a process terminates?

P
a) It is removed from all queues

M
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue

O
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated
Ans: a

29. What is a long-term scheduler?


a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

30. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______ and the
Short term Scheduler will have a ______ to do.
a) full, little
b) full, lot
c) empty, little
d) empty, lot
Ans: c

31. What is a medium-term scheduler?


a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

32. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler
is __________
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

A
33. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is __________

H
a) block

A
b) wakeup

W
c) dispatch

S
d) none of the mentioned

AT
Ans: a

H
34. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is

P
completed, the process goes from the running state to the __________

M
a) Blocked state

O
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
Ans: b

35. In a multiprogramming environment __________


a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time
Ans: c

36. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the
service is completed, it goes to the __________
a) Running state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
Ans: b

37. The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain __________
a) the value of the CPU registers
b) the process state
c) memory-management information
d) context switch time
Ans: d

38. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between
processes?
a) General purpose registers
b) Translation look aside buffer
c) Program counter
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b

H A
39. Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?

A
a) A device

W
b) Timer

S
c) Scheduler process

AT
d) Power failure
Ans: c

P H
40. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?

M
a) cooperating process

O
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process
Ans: a

41. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the
execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called?
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition
Ans: b

42. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be
executing in their critical section. This condition is called?
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
Ans: a
43. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the __________
a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

44. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively
inverting the relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called __________
a) priority inversion
b) priority removal
c) priority exchange

A
d) priority modification

H
Ans: a

W A
45. Process synchronization can be done on __________

S
a) hardware level

AT
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level

H
d) none of the mentioned

P
Ans: c

O M
46. With _____________ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other
process are waiting for the processor. With ______________ more than one process
can be running simultaneously each on a different processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing
Ans: d

47. In UNIX, each process is identified by its __________


a) Process Control Block
b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

48. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is _____ for the child process and
_____ for the parent process.
a) A Negative integer, Zero
b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer
d) A nonzero integer, Zero
Ans: c

49. The child process can __________


a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it
Ans: a

50. What is Inter process communication?


a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the
same address space

A
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the

H
same address space

A
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication

W
d) none of the mentioned

S
Ans: b

AT
51. Message passing system allows processes to __________

H
a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data

P
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data

M
c) share data

O
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
Ans: a

52. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message
Ans: d

53. Messages sent by a process __________


a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

54. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called
__________
a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

55. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

A
56. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute

H
are kept on a list called _____________

A
a) job queue

W
b) ready queue

S
c) execution queue

AT
d) process queue.
Ans: b

P H
57. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is

M
termed as ____________

O
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput
Ans: b

58. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the
CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

59. In priority scheduling algorithm ____________


a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d) None of the mentioned.
Ans: a
60. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its
priority is compared with the priority of ____________
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process
Ans: b

61. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?


a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm

A
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

H
Ans: b

W A
62. Process are classified into different groups in ____________

S
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm

AT
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm

H
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

P
Ans: d

O M
63. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm ____________
a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

64. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________


a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) larger memory sized systems
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

65. With multiprogramming ______ is used productively.


a) time
b) space
c) money
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a
66. What are the two steps of a process execution?
a) I/O & OS Burst
b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) OS & Memory Burst
Ans: b

67. An I/O bound program will typically have ____________


a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts

A
Ans: c

A H
68. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be

W
executed.

S
a) blocked, short term

AT
b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term

H
d) ready, long term

P
Ans: c

O M
69. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?
a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b

70. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is called
____________
a) process switch
b) task switch
c) context switch
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

71. What is Dispatch latency?


a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping the CPU
idle
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
72. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase CPU utilization
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

73. Scheduling is done so as to ____________


a) increase the throughput
b) decrease the throughput
c) increase the duration of a specific amount of work
d) none of the mentioned

A
Ans: a

A H
74. What is Turnaround time?

W
a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution

S
b) the total time spent in the ready queue

AT
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process

H
Ans: d

M P
75. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

O
a) increase the turnaround time
b) decrease the turnaround time
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
Ans: b

76. What is Waiting time?


a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Ans: b

77. Scheduling is done so as to ____________


a) increase the waiting time
b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

78. What is Response time?


a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

79. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ____________


a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

A
80. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system ____________

H
a) using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

A
algorithm

W
b) using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

S
algorithm

AT
c) using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

H
Ans: a

M P
81. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes

O
is concerned with ____________
a) assigning ready processes to CPU
b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c) assigning running processes to blocked queue
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

82. Complex scheduling algorithms ____________


a) are very appropriate for very large computers
b) use minimal resources
c) use many resources
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

83. What is FIFO algorithm?


a) first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b) first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c) first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
Ans:b
84. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called ____________
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served
Ans: b

85. What is Scheduling?


a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned

A
d) none of the mentioned

H
Ans: a

W A
86. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting

S
for an input event in the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-

AT
Robin time sharing method. Which out of the following quantum times is the best
value for small response times, if the processes have a short runtime, e.g. less than

H
10ms?

P
a) tQ = 15ms

M
b) tQ = 40ms

O
c) tQ = 45ms
d) tQ = 50ms.
Ans: a

87. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.
a) earliest due date
b) slack time remaining
c) first come, first served
d) critical ratio
Ans: c

88. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?
a) First come First served
b) Shortest Job First
c) Earliest Deadline First
d) Longest Job First
Ans: b

89. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that
for long jobs is slightly ___________
a) Lengthened; Shortened
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged
Ans: b

90. Which of the following statements are true?

I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation


II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time

a) I only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only

A
d) I, II and III

A H
Ans: d

S W
91. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

AT
a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First

H
c) RR – Round Robin

P
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

O M
92. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is ____________
a) it is too good an algorithm
b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) it is too complex to understand
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

93. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________


a) time sharing systems
b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems
Ans: b

94. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in
milliseconds.

Process Burst time


P1 6
P2 8
P3 7
P4 3
Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm.
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms

Ans: a

95. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is ____________
a) the predicted next CPU burst
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c) the current CPU burst

A
d) anything the user wants

H
Ans: a

A
96. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?

S W
a) it schedules in a very complex manner
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time

AT
c) it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU

H
d) none of the mentioned

P
Ans: c

M
97. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?

O
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority
Ans: b

98. Mutual exclusion implies that ____________


a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be
executing in their critical sections
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be
executing in their critical sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system
must be blocked until it finishes execution
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

99. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?


a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other
resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

100. A system is in the safe state if ____________


a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a
deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

A
101. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________

H
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types

A
b) using thread

W
c) using pipes

S
d) all of the mentioned

AT
Ans: a

H
102. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?

P
a) banker‟s algorithm

M
b) round-robin algorithm

O
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn‟s algorithm
Ans: a

103. What is the drawback of banker‟s algorithm?


a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

104. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?


a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

105. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied


necessary resources is called ____________
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging
Ans: b

106. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the
deadlock occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

A
107. To avoid deadlock ____________

H
a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate

A
b) resource allocation must be done only once

W
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted

S
d) inversion technique can be used

AT
Ans: a

H
108. The number of resources requested by a process ____________

P
a) must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system

M
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system

O
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
Ans: c

109. The request and release of resources are ___________


a) command line statements
b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special programs
Ans: c

110. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

111. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________


a) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

112. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail ____________


a) A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and
then request to acquire it
b) A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire additional
resources that are being held by other processes
c) A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional
resources
d) None of the mentioned

A
Ans: b

A H
113. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods ____________

W
a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold

S
b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold

AT
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock

H
Ans: a

M P
114. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion ____________

O
a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

115. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion ____________


a) is required
b) is not required
c) may be or may not be required
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

116. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must
be ensured that ____________
a) whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other resources
b) each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its
execution
c) a process can request resources only when it has none
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d
117. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its
execution is ____________
a) Low CPU utilization
b) Low resource utilization
c) Very high resource utilization
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

118. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another
resource that cannot be immediately allocated to it ____________
a) then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
b) the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it

A
c) the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it

H
d) then all resources currently being held are pre-empted

A
Ans: d

S W
119. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to ____________

AT
a) impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one precedes
another in the ordering

H
b) to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes

P
c) to let a process wait for only one resource at a time

M
d) all of the mentioned

O
Ans: a

120. Each request requires that the system consider the _____________ to decide whether
the current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.
a) resources currently available
b) processes that have previously been in the system
c) resources currently allocated to each process
d) future requests and releases of each process
Ans: a

121. Given a priori information about the ________ number of resources of each type that
maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures
that the system will never enter a deadlock state.
a) minimum
b) average
c) maximum
d) approximate
Ans: c

122. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the __________ to ensure that
a circular wait condition can never exist.
a) resource allocation state
b) system storage state
c) operating system
d) resources
Ans: a

123. A state is safe, if ____________


a) the system does not crash due to deadlock occurrence
b) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a
deadlock
c) the state keeps the system protected and safe
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: b

H A
124. A system is in a safe state only if there exists a ____________

A
a) safe allocation

W
b) safe resource

S
c) safe sequence

AT
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: c

P H
125. All unsafe states are ____________

M
a) deadlocks

O
b) not deadlocks
c) fatal
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

126. A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and 3 processes : P0, P1, and P2.
Process P0 requires 10 tape drives, P1 requires 4 and P2 requires 9 tape drives.
Process
P0
P1
P2

Maximum needs (process-wise: P0 through P2 top to bottom)


10
4
9

Currently allocated (process-wise)


5
2
2
Which of the following sequence is a safe sequence?
a) P0, P1, P2
b) P1, P2, P0
c) P2, P0, P1
d) P1, P0, P2
Ans: d

127. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph ____________


a) then the system will not be in a safe state
b) then the system will be in a safe state
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

128. The resource allocation graph is not applicable to a resource allocation system

A
____________

H
a) with multiple instances of each resource type

A
b) with a single instance of each resource type

W
c) single & multiple instances of each resource type

S
d) none of the mentioned

AT
Ans: a

H
129. The Banker‟s algorithm is _____________ than the resource allocation graph

P
algorithm.

M
a) less efficient

O
b) more efficient
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

130. The data structures available in the Banker‟s algorithm are ____________
a) Available
b) Need
c) Allocation
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

131. The content of the matrix Need is ____________


a) Allocation – Available
b) Max – Available
c) Max – Allocation
d) Allocation – Max
Ans: c

132. A system with 5 processes P0 through P4 and three resource types A, B, C


have A with 10 instances, B with 5 instances, and C with 7 instances. At time t0, the
following snapshot has been taken:
Process
P0
P1
P2
P3
P4

Allocation (process-wise : P0 through P4 top TO bottom)


A B C
0 1 0
2 0 0
3 0 2
2 1 1

A
0 0 2

A H
MAX (process-wise: P0 through P4 top TO bottom)
A B C

W
7 5 3

S
3 2 2

AT
9 0 2
2 2 2

H
4 3 3

P
Available

M
A B C

O
3 3 2

The sequence <P1, P3, P4, P2, P0> leads the system to ____________
a) an unsafe state
b) a safe state
c) a protected state
d) a deadlock

Ans: b

133. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection algorithm that is applicable when
____________
a) all resources have a single instance
b) all resources have multiple instances
c) all resources have a single 7 multiple instances
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

134. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that ____________
a) Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs
b) Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs
c) Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system
d) Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system
Ans: a

135. If the wait for graph contains a cycle ____________


a) then a deadlock does not exist
b) then a deadlock exists
c) then the system is in a safe state
d) either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state
Ans: b

136. If deadlocks occur frequently, the detection algorithm must be invoked


________
a) rarely

A
b) frequently

H
c) rarely & frequently

A
d) none of the mentioned

W
Ans: b

AT S
137. What is the disadvantage of invoking the detection algorithm for every
request?

H
a) overhead of the detection algorithm due to consumption of memory

P
b) excessive time consumed in the request to be allocated memory

M
c) considerable overhead in computation time

O
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: c

138. A deadlock eventually cripples system throughput and will cause the CPU
utilization to ______
a) increase
b) drop
c) stay still
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

139. Every time a request for allocation cannot be granted immediately, the
detection algorithm is invoked. This will help identify ____________
a) the set of processes that have been deadlocked
b) the set of processes in the deadlock queue
c) the specific process that caused the deadlock
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

140. A computer system has 6 tape drives, with „n‟ processes competing for them.
Each process may need 3 tape drives. The maximum value of „n‟ for which the system
is guaranteed to be deadlock free is?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
Ans: 2

141. A system has 3 processes sharing 4 resources. If each process needs a


maximum of 2 units then, deadlock ____________
a) can never occur
b) may occur
c) has to occur
d) none of the mentioned

A
Ans: a

A H
142. „m‟ processes share „n‟ resources of the same type. The maximum need of

W
each process doesn‟t exceed „n‟ and the sum of all their maximum needs is always

S
less than m+n. In this setup, deadlock ____________

AT
a) can never occur
b) may occur

H
c) has to occur

P
d) none of the mentioned

M
Ans: a

O
143. A deadlock can be broken by ____________
a) abort one or more processes to break the circular wait
b) abort all the process in the system
c) pre-empt all resources from all processes
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

144. The two ways of aborting processes and eliminating deadlocks are
____________
a) Abort all deadlocked processes
b) Abort all processes
c) Abort one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c

145. Those processes should be aborted on occurrence of a deadlock, the


termination of which?
a) is more time consuming
b) incurs minimum cost
c) safety is not hampered
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: b

146. The process to be aborted is chosen on the basis of the following factors?
a) priority of the process
b) process is interactive or batch
c) how long the process has computed
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

147. Cost factors for process termination include ____________


a) Number of resources the deadlock process is not holding
b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock

A
c) Amount of time a deadlocked process has thus far consumed during its execution

H
d) All of the mentioned

A
Ans: c

S W
148. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process cannot continue with its

AT
normal execution and it must be ____________
a) aborted

H
b) rolled back

P
c) terminated

M
d) queued

O
Ans: b

149. To _______ to a safe state, the system needs to keep more information about
the states of processes.
a) abort the process
b) roll back the process
c) queue the process
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

150. If the resources are always preempted from the same process __________ can
occur.
a) deadlock
b) system crash
c) aging
d) starvation
Ans: d

151. Which of the following is NOT a valid deadlock prevention scheme?


(a) Release all resources before requesting a new resource
(b) Number the resources uniquely and never request a lower numbered resource than
the last one requested.
(c) Never request a resource after releasing any resource
(d) Request and all required resources be allocated before execution.
Ans: c

152. consider the 3 processes, P1, P2 and P3 shown in the table

Process Arrival time Time unit required


P1 0 5
P2 1 7
P3 3 4

The completion order of the 3 processes under the policies FCFS and RRS (round
robin scheduling with CPU quantum of 2 time units) are

A
(A) FCFS: P1, P2, P3 RR2: P1, P2, P3

H
(B) FCFS: P1, P3, P2 RR2: P1, P3, P2

A
(C) FCFS: P1, P2, P3 RR2: P1, P3, P2

W
(D) FCFS: P1, P3, P2 RR2: P1, P2, P3

S
Ans: c

AT
153. Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1, r2, … rn to be run on a

H
uniprocessor machine. Which of the following processor scheduling algorithms

P
will result in the maximum throughput?

M
(a) Round-Robin

O
(b) Shortest-Job-First
(c) Highest-Response-Ratio-Next
(d) First-Come-First-Served

Ans: B

154. Consider the following table of arrival time and burst time for three
processes P0, P1 and P2.

Process Arrival time Burst Time


P0 0 ms 9 ms
P1 1 ms 4 ms
P2 2 ms 9 ms

The pre-emptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is used. Scheduling is


carried out only at arrival or completion of processes. What is the average waiting
time for the three processes?
(A) 5.0 ms
(B) 4.33 ms
(C) 6.33 ms
(D) 7.33 ms

Ans: a
(Explanation: Process P0 is allocated processor at 0 ms as there is no other process in
ready queue. P0 is preempted after 1 ms as P1 arrives at 1 ms and burst time for P1 is
less than remaining time of P0. P1 runs for 4ms. P2 arrived at 2 ms but P1 continued
as burst time of P2 is longer than P1. After P1 completes, P0 is scheduled again as the
remaining time for P0 is less than the burst time of P2.
P0 waits for 4 ms, P1 waits for 0 ms and P2 waits for 11 ms. So average waiting time
is (0+4+11)/3 = 5.)

155. In which one of the following page replacement policies, Belady’s


anomaly may occur?
(A) FIFO
(B) Optimal

A
(C) LRU

H
(D) MRU

A
Ans: A

W
(Explanation: Belady‟s anomaly proves that it is possible to have more page faults

S
when increasing the number of page frames while using the First in First Out (FIFO)

AT
page replacement algorithm.)

H
156.

P
In the following process state transition diagram for a uniprocessor system,

M
assume that there are always some processes in the ready state: Now consider the

O
following statements:

I. If a process makes a transition D, it would result in another process making


transition A immediately.
II. A process P2 in blocked state can make transition E while another process P1
is in running state.
III. The OS uses preemptive scheduling.
IV. The OS uses non-preemptive scheduling.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV
Ans: C
(Explanation: I is false. If a process makes a transition D, it would result in another
process making transition B, not A.
II is true. A process can move to ready state when I/O completes irrespective of other
process being in running state or not.
III is true because there is a transition from running to ready state.
IV is false as the OS uses preemptive scheduling.)

157. Which of the following is NOT true of deadlock prevention and deadlock
avoidance schemes?
(A) In deadlock prevention, the request for resources is always granted if the resulting
state is safe
(B) In deadlock avoidance, the request for resources is always granted if the result

A
state is safe

H
(C) Deadlock avoidance is less restrictive than deadlock prevention

A
(D) Deadlock avoidance requires knowledge of resource requirements a priori

W
Ans: A

S
(Explanation: Deadlock prevention scheme handles deadlock by making sure that one

AT
of the four necessary conditions don't occur. In deadlock prevention, the request for a
resource may not be granted even if the resulting state is safe.)

P H
158. Scheduling is done so as to :

M
A. increase the turnaround time

O
B. decrease the turnaround time
C. keep the turnaround time same
D. there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
Ans: B

159. Waiting time is :


A. the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
B. the total time spent in the ready queue
C. the total time spent in the running queue
D. the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Ans: B
UNIT-IV
OPERATING SYSTEMS
1. What is operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) link to interface the hardware and application programs
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

2. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the

A
___________

H
a) System calls

A
b) API

W
c) Library

S
d) Assembly instructions

AT
Ans: a

H
3. Which one of the following is not true?

P
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
b) kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting

M
c) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating

O
system
d) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
Ans: c

4. Which one of the following error will be handling by the operating system?
a) power failure
b) lack of paper in printer
c) connection failure in the network
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

5. By operating system, the resource management can be done via __________


a) time division multiplexing
b) space division multiplexing
c) time and space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

6. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?


a) VxWorks
b) Windows CE
c) RTLinux
d) Palm OS.
Ans: d

7. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called __________
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

8. In operating system, each process has its own __________

A
a) address space and global variables

H
b) open files

A
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers

W
d) all of the mentioned

S
Ans: d

AT
9. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?

H
a) fork

P
b) create

M
c) new

O
d) none of the mentioned.
Ans: a

10. A process can be terminated due to __________


a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

11. What is the ready state of a process?


a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

12. What is inter process communication?


a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

13. A set of processes is deadlock if __________


a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

14. A process stack does not contain __________


a) Function parameters
b) Local variables

A
c) Return addresses

H
d) PID of child process

A
Ans: d

S W
15. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided

AT
by the __________
a) CPU registers

H
b) Program counter

P
c) Process stack

M
d) Pipe.

O
Ans: b

16. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following?
a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
Ans: c

17. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
Ans: b

18. The state of a process is defined by __________


a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
Ans: d
19. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running
Ans: b

20. What is a Process Control Block?


a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) A secondary storage section
d) A Block in memory

A
Ans: b

A H
21. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in __________

W
a) Process Register

S
b) Program Counter

AT
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit

H
Ans: c

M P
22. What is the degree of multiprogramming?

O
a) the number of processes executed per unit time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) the number of processes in memory
Ans: d

23. A single thread of control allows the process to perform __________


a) only one task at a time
b) multiple tasks at a time
c) only two tasks at a time
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

24. What is the objective of multiprogramming?


a) Have some process running at all times
b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
c) To minimize CPU utilization
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

25. What is a short-term scheduler?


a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

26. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes?


a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
Ans: b

A
27. When the process issues an I/O request __________

H
a) It is placed in an I/O queue

A
b) It is placed in a waiting queue

W
c) It is placed in the ready queue

S
d) It is placed in the Job queue

AT
Ans: a

H
28. What will happen when a process terminates?

P
a) It is removed from all queues

M
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue

O
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated
Ans: a

29. What is a long-term scheduler?


a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

30. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______ and the
Short term Scheduler will have a ______ to do.
a) full, little
b) full, lot
c) empty, little
d) empty, lot
Ans: c

31. What is a medium-term scheduler?


a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

32. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler
is __________
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

A
33. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is __________

H
a) block

A
b) wakeup

W
c) dispatch

S
d) none of the mentioned

AT
Ans: a

H
34. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is

P
completed, the process goes from the running state to the __________

M
a) Blocked state

O
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
Ans: b

35. In a multiprogramming environment __________


a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time
Ans: c

36. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the
service is completed, it goes to the __________
a) Running state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
Ans: b

37. The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain __________
a) the value of the CPU registers
b) the process state
c) memory-management information
d) context switch time
Ans: d

38. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between
processes?
a) General purpose registers
b) Translation look aside buffer
c) Program counter
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b

H A
39. Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?

A
a) A device

W
b) Timer

S
c) Scheduler process

AT
d) Power failure
Ans: c

P H
40. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?

M
a) cooperating process

O
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process
Ans: a

41. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the
execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called?
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition
Ans: b

42. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be
executing in their critical section. This condition is called?
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
Ans: a
43. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the __________
a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

44. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively
inverting the relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called __________
a) priority inversion
b) priority removal
c) priority exchange

A
d) priority modification

H
Ans: a

W A
45. Process synchronization can be done on __________

S
a) hardware level

AT
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level

H
d) none of the mentioned

P
Ans: c

O M
46. With _____________ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other
process are waiting for the processor. With ______________ more than one process
can be running simultaneously each on a different processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing
Ans: d

47. In UNIX, each process is identified by its __________


a) Process Control Block
b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

48. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is _____ for the child process and
_____ for the parent process.
a) A Negative integer, Zero
b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer
d) A nonzero integer, Zero
Ans: c

49. The child process can __________


a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it
Ans: a

50. What is Inter process communication?


a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the
same address space

A
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the

H
same address space

A
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication

W
d) none of the mentioned

S
Ans: b

AT
51. Message passing system allows processes to __________

H
a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data

P
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data

M
c) share data

O
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
Ans: a

52. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message
Ans: d

53. Messages sent by a process __________


a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

54. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called
__________
a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

55. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

A
56. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute

H
are kept on a list called _____________

A
a) job queue

W
b) ready queue

S
c) execution queue

AT
d) process queue.
Ans: b

P H
57. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is

M
termed as ____________

O
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput
Ans: b

58. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the
CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

59. In priority scheduling algorithm ____________


a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d) None of the mentioned.
Ans: a
60. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its
priority is compared with the priority of ____________
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process
Ans: b

61. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?


a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm

A
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

H
Ans: b

W A
62. Process are classified into different groups in ____________

S
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm

AT
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm

H
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

P
Ans: d

O M
63. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm ____________
a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

64. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________


a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) larger memory sized systems
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

65. With multiprogramming ______ is used productively.


a) time
b) space
c) money
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a
66. What are the two steps of a process execution?
a) I/O & OS Burst
b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) OS & Memory Burst
Ans: b

67. An I/O bound program will typically have ____________


a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts

A
Ans: c

A H
68. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be

W
executed.

S
a) blocked, short term

AT
b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term

H
d) ready, long term

P
Ans: c

O M
69. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?
a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b

70. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is called
____________
a) process switch
b) task switch
c) context switch
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

71. What is Dispatch latency?


a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping the CPU
idle
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c
72. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase CPU utilization
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

73. Scheduling is done so as to ____________


a) increase the throughput
b) decrease the throughput
c) increase the duration of a specific amount of work
d) none of the mentioned

A
Ans: a

A H
74. What is Turnaround time?

W
a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution

S
b) the total time spent in the ready queue

AT
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process

H
Ans: d

M P
75. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

O
a) increase the turnaround time
b) decrease the turnaround time
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
Ans: b

76. What is Waiting time?


a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Ans: b

77. Scheduling is done so as to ____________


a) increase the waiting time
b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

78. What is Response time?


a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

79. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ____________


a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

A
80. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system ____________

H
a) using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

A
algorithm

W
b) using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling

S
algorithm

AT
c) using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

H
Ans: a

M P
81. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes

O
is concerned with ____________
a) assigning ready processes to CPU
b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c) assigning running processes to blocked queue
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

82. Complex scheduling algorithms ____________


a) are very appropriate for very large computers
b) use minimal resources
c) use many resources
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

83. What is FIFO algorithm?


a) first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b) first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c) first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
Ans:b
84. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called ____________
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served
Ans: b

85. What is Scheduling?


a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned

A
d) none of the mentioned

H
Ans: a

W A
86. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting

S
for an input event in the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-

AT
Robin time sharing method. Which out of the following quantum times is the best
value for small response times, if the processes have a short runtime, e.g. less than

H
10ms?

P
a) tQ = 15ms

M
b) tQ = 40ms

O
c) tQ = 45ms
d) tQ = 50ms.
Ans: a

87. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.
a) earliest due date
b) slack time remaining
c) first come, first served
d) critical ratio
Ans: c

88. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?
a) First come First served
b) Shortest Job First
c) Earliest Deadline First
d) Longest Job First
Ans: b

89. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that
for long jobs is slightly ___________
a) Lengthened; Shortened
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged
Ans: b

90. Which of the following statements are true?

I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation


II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time

a) I only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only

A
d) I, II and III

A H
Ans: d

S W
91. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

AT
a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First

H
c) RR – Round Robin

P
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

O M
92. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is ____________
a) it is too good an algorithm
b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) it is too complex to understand
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

93. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________


a) time sharing systems
b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems
Ans: b

94. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in
milliseconds.

Process Burst time


P1 6
P2 8
P3 7
P4 3
Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm.
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms

Ans: a

95. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is ____________
a) the predicted next CPU burst
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c) the current CPU burst

A
d) anything the user wants

H
Ans: a

A
96. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?

S W
a) it schedules in a very complex manner
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time

AT
c) it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU

H
d) none of the mentioned

P
Ans: c

M
97. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?

O
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority
Ans: b

98. Mutual exclusion implies that ____________


a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be
executing in their critical sections
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be
executing in their critical sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system
must be blocked until it finishes execution
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

99. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?


a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other
resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

100. A system is in the safe state if ____________


a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a
deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

A
101. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________

H
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types

A
b) using thread

W
c) using pipes

S
d) all of the mentioned

AT
Ans: a

H
102. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?

P
a) banker‟s algorithm

M
b) round-robin algorithm

O
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn‟s algorithm
Ans: a

103. What is the drawback of banker‟s algorithm?


a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

104. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?


a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: c

105. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied


necessary resources is called ____________
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging
Ans: b

106. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the
deadlock occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

A
107. To avoid deadlock ____________

H
a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate

A
b) resource allocation must be done only once

W
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted

S
d) inversion technique can be used

AT
Ans: a

H
108. The number of resources requested by a process ____________

P
a) must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system

M
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system

O
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
Ans: c

109. The request and release of resources are ___________


a) command line statements
b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special programs
Ans: c

110. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

111. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________


a) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

112. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail ____________


a) A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and
then request to acquire it
b) A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire additional
resources that are being held by other processes
c) A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional
resources
d) None of the mentioned

A
Ans: b

A H
113. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods ____________

W
a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold

S
b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold

AT
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock

H
Ans: a

M P
114. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion ____________

O
a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

115. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion ____________


a) is required
b) is not required
c) may be or may not be required
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

116. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must
be ensured that ____________
a) whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other resources
b) each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its
execution
c) a process can request resources only when it has none
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d
117. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its
execution is ____________
a) Low CPU utilization
b) Low resource utilization
c) Very high resource utilization
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

118. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another
resource that cannot be immediately allocated to it ____________
a) then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
b) the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it

A
c) the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it

H
d) then all resources currently being held are pre-empted

A
Ans: d

S W
119. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to ____________

AT
a) impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one precedes
another in the ordering

H
b) to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes

P
c) to let a process wait for only one resource at a time

M
d) all of the mentioned

O
Ans: a

120. Each request requires that the system consider the _____________ to decide whether
the current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.
a) resources currently available
b) processes that have previously been in the system
c) resources currently allocated to each process
d) future requests and releases of each process
Ans: a

121. Given a priori information about the ________ number of resources of each type that
maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures
that the system will never enter a deadlock state.
a) minimum
b) average
c) maximum
d) approximate
Ans: c

122. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the __________ to ensure that
a circular wait condition can never exist.
a) resource allocation state
b) system storage state
c) operating system
d) resources
Ans: a

123. A state is safe, if ____________


a) the system does not crash due to deadlock occurrence
b) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a
deadlock
c) the state keeps the system protected and safe
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: b

H A
124. A system is in a safe state only if there exists a ____________

A
a) safe allocation

W
b) safe resource

S
c) safe sequence

AT
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: c

P H
125. All unsafe states are ____________

M
a) deadlocks

O
b) not deadlocks
c) fatal
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

126. A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and 3 processes : P0, P1, and P2.
Process P0 requires 10 tape drives, P1 requires 4 and P2 requires 9 tape drives.
Process
P0
P1
P2

Maximum needs (process-wise: P0 through P2 top to bottom)


10
4
9

Currently allocated (process-wise)


5
2
2
Which of the following sequence is a safe sequence?
a) P0, P1, P2
b) P1, P2, P0
c) P2, P0, P1
d) P1, P0, P2
Ans: d

127. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph ____________


a) then the system will not be in a safe state
b) then the system will be in a safe state
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

128. The resource allocation graph is not applicable to a resource allocation system

A
____________

H
a) with multiple instances of each resource type

A
b) with a single instance of each resource type

W
c) single & multiple instances of each resource type

S
d) none of the mentioned

AT
Ans: a

H
129. The Banker‟s algorithm is _____________ than the resource allocation graph

P
algorithm.

M
a) less efficient

O
b) more efficient
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

130. The data structures available in the Banker‟s algorithm are ____________
a) Available
b) Need
c) Allocation
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

131. The content of the matrix Need is ____________


a) Allocation – Available
b) Max – Available
c) Max – Allocation
d) Allocation – Max
Ans: c

132. A system with 5 processes P0 through P4 and three resource types A, B, C


have A with 10 instances, B with 5 instances, and C with 7 instances. At time t0, the
following snapshot has been taken:
Process
P0
P1
P2
P3
P4

Allocation (process-wise : P0 through P4 top TO bottom)


A B C
0 1 0
2 0 0
3 0 2
2 1 1

A
0 0 2

A H
MAX (process-wise: P0 through P4 top TO bottom)
A B C

W
7 5 3

S
3 2 2

AT
9 0 2
2 2 2

H
4 3 3

P
Available

M
A B C

O
3 3 2

The sequence <P1, P3, P4, P2, P0> leads the system to ____________
a) an unsafe state
b) a safe state
c) a protected state
d) a deadlock

Ans: b

133. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection algorithm that is applicable when
____________
a) all resources have a single instance
b) all resources have multiple instances
c) all resources have a single 7 multiple instances
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

134. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that ____________
a) Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs
b) Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs
c) Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system
d) Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system
Ans: a

135. If the wait for graph contains a cycle ____________


a) then a deadlock does not exist
b) then a deadlock exists
c) then the system is in a safe state
d) either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state
Ans: b

136. If deadlocks occur frequently, the detection algorithm must be invoked


________
a) rarely

A
b) frequently

H
c) rarely & frequently

A
d) none of the mentioned

W
Ans: b

AT S
137. What is the disadvantage of invoking the detection algorithm for every
request?

H
a) overhead of the detection algorithm due to consumption of memory

P
b) excessive time consumed in the request to be allocated memory

M
c) considerable overhead in computation time

O
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: c

138. A deadlock eventually cripples system throughput and will cause the CPU
utilization to ______
a) increase
b) drop
c) stay still
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

139. Every time a request for allocation cannot be granted immediately, the
detection algorithm is invoked. This will help identify ____________
a) the set of processes that have been deadlocked
b) the set of processes in the deadlock queue
c) the specific process that caused the deadlock
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: a

140. A computer system has 6 tape drives, with „n‟ processes competing for them.
Each process may need 3 tape drives. The maximum value of „n‟ for which the system
is guaranteed to be deadlock free is?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
Ans: 2

141. A system has 3 processes sharing 4 resources. If each process needs a


maximum of 2 units then, deadlock ____________
a) can never occur
b) may occur
c) has to occur
d) none of the mentioned

A
Ans: a

A H
142. „m‟ processes share „n‟ resources of the same type. The maximum need of

W
each process doesn‟t exceed „n‟ and the sum of all their maximum needs is always

S
less than m+n. In this setup, deadlock ____________

AT
a) can never occur
b) may occur

H
c) has to occur

P
d) none of the mentioned

M
Ans: a

O
143. A deadlock can be broken by ____________
a) abort one or more processes to break the circular wait
b) abort all the process in the system
c) pre-empt all resources from all processes
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

144. The two ways of aborting processes and eliminating deadlocks are
____________
a) Abort all deadlocked processes
b) Abort all processes
c) Abort one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c

145. Those processes should be aborted on occurrence of a deadlock, the


termination of which?
a) is more time consuming
b) incurs minimum cost
c) safety is not hampered
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: b

146. The process to be aborted is chosen on the basis of the following factors?
a) priority of the process
b) process is interactive or batch
c) how long the process has computed
d) all of the mentioned
Ans: d

147. Cost factors for process termination include ____________


a) Number of resources the deadlock process is not holding
b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock

A
c) Amount of time a deadlocked process has thus far consumed during its execution

H
d) All of the mentioned

A
Ans: c

S W
148. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process cannot continue with its

AT
normal execution and it must be ____________
a) aborted

H
b) rolled back

P
c) terminated

M
d) queued

O
Ans: b

149. To _______ to a safe state, the system needs to keep more information about
the states of processes.
a) abort the process
b) roll back the process
c) queue the process
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: b

150. If the resources are always preempted from the same process __________ can
occur.
a) deadlock
b) system crash
c) aging
d) starvation
Ans: d

151. Which of the following is NOT a valid deadlock prevention scheme?


(a) Release all resources before requesting a new resource
(b) Number the resources uniquely and never request a lower numbered resource than
the last one requested.
(c) Never request a resource after releasing any resource
(d) Request and all required resources be allocated before execution.
Ans: c

152. consider the 3 processes, P1, P2 and P3 shown in the table

Process Arrival time Time unit required


P1 0 5
P2 1 7
P3 3 4

The completion order of the 3 processes under the policies FCFS and RRS (round
robin scheduling with CPU quantum of 2 time units) are

A
(A) FCFS: P1, P2, P3 RR2: P1, P2, P3

H
(B) FCFS: P1, P3, P2 RR2: P1, P3, P2

A
(C) FCFS: P1, P2, P3 RR2: P1, P3, P2

W
(D) FCFS: P1, P3, P2 RR2: P1, P2, P3

S
Ans: c

AT
153. Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1, r2, … rn to be run on a

H
uniprocessor machine. Which of the following processor scheduling algorithms

P
will result in the maximum throughput?

M
(a) Round-Robin

O
(b) Shortest-Job-First
(c) Highest-Response-Ratio-Next
(d) First-Come-First-Served

Ans: B

154. Consider the following table of arrival time and burst time for three
processes P0, P1 and P2.

Process Arrival time Burst Time


P0 0 ms 9 ms
P1 1 ms 4 ms
P2 2 ms 9 ms

The pre-emptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is used. Scheduling is


carried out only at arrival or completion of processes. What is the average waiting
time for the three processes?
(A) 5.0 ms
(B) 4.33 ms
(C) 6.33 ms
(D) 7.33 ms

Ans: a
(Explanation: Process P0 is allocated processor at 0 ms as there is no other process in
ready queue. P0 is preempted after 1 ms as P1 arrives at 1 ms and burst time for P1 is
less than remaining time of P0. P1 runs for 4ms. P2 arrived at 2 ms but P1 continued
as burst time of P2 is longer than P1. After P1 completes, P0 is scheduled again as the
remaining time for P0 is less than the burst time of P2.
P0 waits for 4 ms, P1 waits for 0 ms and P2 waits for 11 ms. So average waiting time
is (0+4+11)/3 = 5.)

155. In which one of the following page replacement policies, Belady’s


anomaly may occur?
(A) FIFO
(B) Optimal

A
(C) LRU

H
(D) MRU

A
Ans: A

W
(Explanation: Belady‟s anomaly proves that it is possible to have more page faults

S
when increasing the number of page frames while using the First in First Out (FIFO)

AT
page replacement algorithm.)

H
156.

P
In the following process state transition diagram for a uniprocessor system,

M
assume that there are always some processes in the ready state: Now consider the

O
following statements:

I. If a process makes a transition D, it would result in another process making


transition A immediately.
II. A process P2 in blocked state can make transition E while another process P1
is in running state.
III. The OS uses preemptive scheduling.
IV. The OS uses non-preemptive scheduling.
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV
Ans: C
(Explanation: I is false. If a process makes a transition D, it would result in another
process making transition B, not A.
II is true. A process can move to ready state when I/O completes irrespective of other
process being in running state or not.
III is true because there is a transition from running to ready state.
IV is false as the OS uses preemptive scheduling.)

157. Which of the following is NOT true of deadlock prevention and deadlock
avoidance schemes?
(A) In deadlock prevention, the request for resources is always granted if the resulting
state is safe
(B) In deadlock avoidance, the request for resources is always granted if the result

A
state is safe

H
(C) Deadlock avoidance is less restrictive than deadlock prevention

A
(D) Deadlock avoidance requires knowledge of resource requirements a priori

W
Ans: A

S
(Explanation: Deadlock prevention scheme handles deadlock by making sure that one

AT
of the four necessary conditions don't occur. In deadlock prevention, the request for a
resource may not be granted even if the resulting state is safe.)

P H
158. Scheduling is done so as to :

M
A. increase the turnaround time

O
B. decrease the turnaround time
C. keep the turnaround time same
D. there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
Ans: B

159. Waiting time is :


A. the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
B. the total time spent in the ready queue
C. the total time spent in the running queue
D. the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Ans: B
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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 3. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

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A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 4. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 8. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

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A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 11. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 12. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 13. Which statement declare the name of macro.

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A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 16. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 17. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

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A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 20. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC
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B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 26. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value


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C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 29. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

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B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 35. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 38. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 41. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 44. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

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A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 51. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier
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B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 54. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 56. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

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A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 1. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language
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B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 6. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 7. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing


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C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 13. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

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C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 16. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 17. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

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C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 21. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 22. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

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C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 25. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 26. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 28. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

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C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 29. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 33. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

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C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 36. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 37. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 38. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

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B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 39. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 40. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

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Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

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Q.no 48. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

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D : General analysis

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 1. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

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D : process queue

Q.no 3. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 4. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 6. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

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D : macro call

Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 12. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

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D : Scheduler

Q.no 13. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 14. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 15. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 16. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 17. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such
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Q.no 18. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 22. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

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Q.no 23. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 26. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

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Q.no 28. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Assembler processes


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A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 36. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications


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B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 39. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

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B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 47. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 48. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

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B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 49. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

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A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 54. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 55. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword
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D : operator

Q.no 58. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

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C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

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C : library

D : shell

Q.no 8. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 9. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 10. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

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C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 15. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

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C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 18. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 19. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 20. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 21. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 22. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

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C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 26. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

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B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 32. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

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B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

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B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 39. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 40. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
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C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 43. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 44. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

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C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

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C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

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B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 60. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced


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C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

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C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 10. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 11. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output


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D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 15. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 16. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 17. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned


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Q.no 18. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 19. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 20. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 21. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 22. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 23. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
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A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 26. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 27. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

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Q.no 28. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 29. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 30. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 31. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 32. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 33. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 35. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 36. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 37. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

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Q.no 38. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 39. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

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Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

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Q.no 48. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 54. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

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B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 59. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

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B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 3. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 6. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

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B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 10. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

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A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 16. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code


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B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 19. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 20. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

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B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 23. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 24. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

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B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 28. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 29. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

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B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 33. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 34. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 35. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

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A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 38. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 39. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 46. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

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Q.no 47. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 48. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 49. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

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Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

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D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 1. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

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B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 3. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 4. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 5. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 6. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

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B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 7. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 8. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return
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C : OP

D : End

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

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C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 18. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

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C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 23. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 24. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 25. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 26. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process
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D : priority Process

Q.no 27. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 28. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 29. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language


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Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 35. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

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Q.no 37. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 38. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 39. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

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D : approximate

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 43. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 44. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator
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Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 49. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 58. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 1. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

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B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 4. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 5. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 6. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

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B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 7. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics
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C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 13. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 14. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 15. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 16. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O
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D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 17. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 18. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 19. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

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C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 22. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 25. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 31. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

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B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 32. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 33. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

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B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 40. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

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B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 43. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists


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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

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B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

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Q.no 1. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 2. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 5. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

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Q.no 6. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 8. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 9. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 10. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

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D : Round Robin

Q.no 11. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 13. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 15. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely


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Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 18. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

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Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 22. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

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Q.no 26. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

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Q.no 31. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 32. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 34. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

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Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

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Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 44. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Q.no 51. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 52. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 53. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 54. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

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D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 5. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

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C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 6. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 7. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.


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D : All

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 14. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 15. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

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D : kill

Q.no 16. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 17. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 18. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

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D : End

Q.no 21. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 23. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 24. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

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D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned


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Q.no 31. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 32. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 34. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

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Q.no 36. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 37. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 38. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 39. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

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Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 44. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

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C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory


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D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 55. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 59. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

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B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 1. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 2. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

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B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

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B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 13. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 14. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 15. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

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B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 16. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 17. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 18. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 19. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

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B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

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B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 27. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 28. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

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B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 32. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 33. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 34. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

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B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 39. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

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B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 47. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

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B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

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A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 60. An assembler is

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A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 1. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 3. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 4. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 5. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls


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B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 6. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 7. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 9. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

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A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 15. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

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A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.

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A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

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A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 26. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 27. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

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A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served


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B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 37. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 40. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

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A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 44. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size
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C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 47. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 48. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

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C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 54. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

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C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 58. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state


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D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 2. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 3. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

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D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place


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Q.no 10. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 11. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 12. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 13. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 14. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

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Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

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Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 22. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 23. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 24. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

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Q.no 25. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 27. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 28. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

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Q.no 30. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 34. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

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Q.no 35. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 36. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

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Q.no 40. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 41. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 44. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

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C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

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C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 50. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

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C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 58. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

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C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 1. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 2. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O
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D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 7. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 8. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

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D : DMA

Q.no 10. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 11. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

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D : Priority

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 18. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 19. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing
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Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 22. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 23. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

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Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 27. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 29. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

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Q.no 30. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 32. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 34. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

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D : high level language

Q.no 35. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 37. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 38. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

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D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 40. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 41. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information


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Q.no 50. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 53. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 54. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 59. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

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B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 60. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 1. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 3. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 4. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

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B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 7. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code
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C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 11. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

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C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 15. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 16. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 17. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 18. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 19. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

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C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility


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D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 26. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 28. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 29. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

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D : function

Q.no 30. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 31. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 32. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 33. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

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C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 35. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 36. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 37. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 38. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 39. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

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C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 41. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 45. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 49. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

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C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

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C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

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B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 1. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 3. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

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B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

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B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 11. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 14. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

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B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 15. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 16. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 17. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 18. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right

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B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

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B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 26. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 29. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

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B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 30. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 32. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 34. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

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B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 35. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 36. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 37. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

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B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 43. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

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B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

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B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 52. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 53. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
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Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

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Q.no 59. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 60. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 1. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 2. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 3. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

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Q.no 4. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 5. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 8. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

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Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 11. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 12. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

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Q.no 14. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 15. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 16. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________
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A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 21. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 22. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 24. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

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A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 25. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system


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B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users


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C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 35. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 39. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First


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D : Longest Job First

Q.no 40. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 43. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

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D : Assembler

Q.no 45. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 48. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 49. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

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D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 54. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

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C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 58. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 59. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

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C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 60. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output


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D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 7. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

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D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

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D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 16. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 17. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 18. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 19. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above


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Q.no 20. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 21. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 22. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

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Q.no 25. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 26. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 27. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

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Q.no 30. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 31. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

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D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 36. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 37. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 38. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 39. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

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C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 43. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 44. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

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Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 52. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Q.no 54. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 55. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 3. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

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D : secondary memory

Q.no 4. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 8. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

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D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 9. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 10. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 11. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 12. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

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D : Loader

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 16. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 17. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used


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Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

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Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 26. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 27. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 28. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

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Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 32. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 33. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 34. What is Scheduling?


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A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 37. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

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A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

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Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 51. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 52. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 53. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

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Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

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C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 5. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

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C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 11. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

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C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 14. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 17. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 18. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis
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D : code optimization

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 21. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 22. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 24. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 25. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 26. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

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C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 31. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 32. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

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C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 34. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

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C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 40. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

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C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 49. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

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C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 58. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

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B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 59. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 1. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 2. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

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B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 6. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 8. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

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B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 11. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 12. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 13. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space


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C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 14. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 18. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

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C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 19. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 20. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 23. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

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C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 27. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory
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D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 33. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

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D : a key & value

Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 37. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems


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Q.no 39. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

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Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -


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A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

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Q.no 54. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 58. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


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C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 59. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 3. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

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B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 4. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 5. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

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B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

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B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 18. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

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B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 22. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 23. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

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A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 26. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

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A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 29. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 30. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of

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A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm


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B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 40. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

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A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The linker is

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A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 51. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 52. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 53. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

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A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

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A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 1. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

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A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 4. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 6. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 7. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

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A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 11. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 12. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at

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A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 15. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 16. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 18. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

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A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 19. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 20. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 21. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 22. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 23. Assembler processes

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A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 24. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 27. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

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A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 32. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

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A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. A self relocating program in one which

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A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 39. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

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Q.no 43. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

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D : resources

Q.no 48. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 49. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler


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Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 54. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 55. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

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D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 2. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping
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B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 3. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 4. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 5. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

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B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 8. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 12. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

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B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 14. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 15. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 16. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 17. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

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B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 20. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

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B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 24. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

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B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 28. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 29. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 32. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First


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C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 33. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 34. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 35. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 36. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 37. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro
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D : expanding macro

Q.no 38. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN


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Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 44. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

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Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 52. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

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Q.no 53. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 55. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 57. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 60. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 2. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

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D : interpreter

Q.no 3. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 6. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 7. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

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D : same as function

Q.no 8. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 11. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 12. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority
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Q.no 13. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 14. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 15. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 16. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm


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A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of

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A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 24. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?

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A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 33. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

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A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 36. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 37. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. in which Swap space exists

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A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 40. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters


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D : Registers

Q.no 43. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 44. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

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D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 48. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 52. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

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C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 53. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 54. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 55. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

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C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 59. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 60. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

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C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 3. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

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C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 12. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

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C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 13. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 14. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 17. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

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C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 18. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 21. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 22. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization
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D : code generation

Q.no 23. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 24. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

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D : a key & value

Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 29. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 30. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 31. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 32. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

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D : Ownership

Q.no 33. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 37. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

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D : not a software

Q.no 38. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 39. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

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B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

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Q.no 47. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 50. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 56. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

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Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 58. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 59. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 60. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 1. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 2. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as


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A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 3. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 6. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

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A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 9. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 12. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

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A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 13. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 16. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 17. process is trash

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A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 18. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 19. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

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A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if

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A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

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A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 34. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 35. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 37. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system


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B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

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B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 43. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 44. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 45. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

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B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

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B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 57. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system

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will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 58. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

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Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 3. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 4. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

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Q.no 7. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 9. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 10. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 11. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

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Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 16. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

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Q.no 17. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 18. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 21. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

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Q.no 22. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 26. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

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Q.no 27. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 28. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

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Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 33. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 34. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 35. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 36. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

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D : something else

Q.no 37. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 38. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 39. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 40. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 41. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

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D : General analysis

Q.no 42. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 43. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information


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Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

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Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 55. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 58. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 60. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

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B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 2. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 3. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 6. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

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B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 7. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 8. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 9. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

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A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

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A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 17. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 20. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date


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B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 23. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 24. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 28. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 31. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
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C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 32. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 33. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 35. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid
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D : access

Q.no 37. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 38. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 39. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 40. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

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D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

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C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

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C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

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C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 2. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 3. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 4. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 5. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging


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D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 8. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call
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Q.no 12. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 13. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 16. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

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Q.no 17. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 18. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 19. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 20. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

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Q.no 22. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

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D : Loader

Q.no 27. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 28. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 31. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

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D : Loader

Q.no 32. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 33. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority
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Q.no 37. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 38. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 39. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 40. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

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Q.no 42. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 43. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 44. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

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D : Access right information

Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 51. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list


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Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 59. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 3. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

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A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 4. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 8. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

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A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 11. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 12. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 13. Which statement declare the name of macro.

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A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 16. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 17. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

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A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 20. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC
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B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 26. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value


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C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 29. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

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B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 35. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 38. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 41. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 44. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

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A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 51. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier
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B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 54. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 56. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

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A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 1. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language
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B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 6. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 7. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing


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C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 13. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

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C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 16. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 17. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

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C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 21. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 22. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

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C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 25. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 26. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 28. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

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C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 29. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 33. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

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C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 36. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 37. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 38. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

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B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 39. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 40. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

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Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

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Q.no 48. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

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D : General analysis

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 1. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

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D : process queue

Q.no 3. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 4. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 6. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

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D : macro call

Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 12. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

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D : Scheduler

Q.no 13. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 14. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 15. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 16. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 17. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such
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Q.no 18. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 22. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

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Q.no 23. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 26. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

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Q.no 28. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Assembler processes


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A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 36. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications


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B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 39. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

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B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 47. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 48. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

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B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 49. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

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A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 54. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 55. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword
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D : operator

Q.no 58. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

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C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

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C : library

D : shell

Q.no 8. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 9. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 10. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

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C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 15. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

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C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 18. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 19. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 20. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 21. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 22. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

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C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 26. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

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B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 32. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

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B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

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B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 39. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 40. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
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C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 43. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 44. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

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C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

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C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

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B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 60. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced


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C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

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C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 10. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 11. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output


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D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 15. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 16. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 17. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned


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Q.no 18. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 19. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 20. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 21. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 22. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 23. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
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A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 26. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 27. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

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Q.no 28. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 29. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 30. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 31. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 32. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 33. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 35. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 36. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 37. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

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Q.no 38. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 39. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

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Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

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Q.no 48. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 54. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

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B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 59. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

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B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 3. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 6. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

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B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 10. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

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A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 16. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code


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B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 19. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 20. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

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B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 23. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 24. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

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B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 28. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 29. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

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B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 33. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 34. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 35. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

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A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 38. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 39. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 46. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

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Q.no 47. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 48. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 49. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

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Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

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D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 1. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

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B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 3. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 4. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 5. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 6. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

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B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 7. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 8. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return
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C : OP

D : End

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

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C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 18. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

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C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 23. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 24. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 25. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 26. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process
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D : priority Process

Q.no 27. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 28. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 29. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language


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Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 35. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

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Q.no 37. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 38. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 39. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

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D : approximate

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 43. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 44. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator
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Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 49. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 58. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 1. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

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B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 4. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 5. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 6. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

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B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 7. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics
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C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 13. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 14. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 15. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 16. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O
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D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 17. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 18. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 19. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

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C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 22. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 25. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 31. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

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B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 32. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 33. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

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B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 40. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

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B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 43. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists


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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

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B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

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Q.no 1. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 2. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 5. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

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Q.no 6. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 8. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 9. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 10. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

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D : Round Robin

Q.no 11. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 13. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 15. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely


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Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 18. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

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Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 22. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

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Q.no 26. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

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Q.no 31. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 32. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 34. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

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Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

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Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 44. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Q.no 51. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 52. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 53. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 54. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

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D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 5. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

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C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 6. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 7. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.


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D : All

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 14. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 15. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

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D : kill

Q.no 16. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 17. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 18. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

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D : End

Q.no 21. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 23. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 24. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

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D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned


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Q.no 31. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 32. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 34. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

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Q.no 36. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 37. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 38. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 39. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

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Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 44. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

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C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory


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D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 55. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 59. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

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B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 1. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 2. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

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B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

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B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 13. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 14. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 15. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

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B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 16. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 17. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 18. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 19. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

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B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

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B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 27. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 28. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

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B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 32. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 33. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 34. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

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B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 39. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

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B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 47. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

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B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

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A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 60. An assembler is

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A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 1. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 3. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 4. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 5. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls


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B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 6. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 7. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 9. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

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A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 15. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

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A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.

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A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

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A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 26. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 27. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

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A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served


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B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 37. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 40. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

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A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 44. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size
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C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 47. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 48. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

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C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 54. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

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C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 58. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state


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D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 2. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 3. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

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D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place


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Q.no 10. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 11. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 12. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 13. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 14. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

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Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

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Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 22. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 23. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 24. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

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Q.no 25. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 27. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 28. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

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Q.no 30. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 34. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

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Q.no 35. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 36. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

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Q.no 40. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 41. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 44. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

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C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

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C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 50. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

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C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 58. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

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C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 1. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 2. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O
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D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 7. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 8. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

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D : DMA

Q.no 10. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 11. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

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D : Priority

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 18. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 19. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing
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Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 22. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 23. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

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Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 27. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 29. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

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Q.no 30. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 32. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 34. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

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D : high level language

Q.no 35. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 37. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 38. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

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D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 40. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 41. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information


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Q.no 50. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 53. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 54. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 59. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

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B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 60. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 1. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 3. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 4. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

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B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 7. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code
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C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 11. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

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C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 15. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 16. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 17. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 18. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 19. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

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C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility


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D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 26. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 28. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 29. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

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D : function

Q.no 30. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 31. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 32. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 33. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

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C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 35. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 36. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 37. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 38. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 39. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

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C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 41. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 45. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 49. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

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C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

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C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

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B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 1. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 3. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

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B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

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B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 11. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 14. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

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B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 15. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 16. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 17. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 18. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right

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B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

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B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 26. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 29. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

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B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 30. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 32. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 34. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

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B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 35. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 36. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 37. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

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B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 43. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

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B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

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B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 52. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 53. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
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Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

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Q.no 59. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 60. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 1. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 2. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 3. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

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Q.no 4. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 5. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 8. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

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Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 11. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 12. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

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Q.no 14. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 15. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 16. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________
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A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 21. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 22. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 24. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

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A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 25. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system


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B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users


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C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 35. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 39. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First


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D : Longest Job First

Q.no 40. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 43. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

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D : Assembler

Q.no 45. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 48. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 49. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

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D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 54. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

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C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 58. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 59. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

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C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 60. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output


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D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 7. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

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D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

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D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 16. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 17. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 18. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 19. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above


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Q.no 20. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 21. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 22. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

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Q.no 25. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 26. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 27. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

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Q.no 30. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 31. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

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D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 36. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 37. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 38. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 39. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

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C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 43. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 44. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

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Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 52. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Q.no 54. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 55. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 3. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

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D : secondary memory

Q.no 4. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 8. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

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D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 9. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 10. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 11. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 12. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

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D : Loader

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 16. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 17. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used


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Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

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Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 26. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 27. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 28. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

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Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 32. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 33. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 34. What is Scheduling?


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A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 37. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

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A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

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Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 51. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 52. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 53. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

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Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

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C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 5. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

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C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 11. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

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C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 14. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 17. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 18. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis
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D : code optimization

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 21. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 22. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 24. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 25. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 26. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

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C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 31. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 32. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

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C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 34. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

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C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 40. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

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C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 49. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

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C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 58. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

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B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 59. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 1. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 2. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

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B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 6. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 8. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

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B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 11. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 12. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 13. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space


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C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 14. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 18. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

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C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 19. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 20. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 23. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

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C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 27. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory
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D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 33. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

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D : a key & value

Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 37. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems


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Q.no 39. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

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Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -


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A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

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Q.no 54. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 58. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


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C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 59. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 3. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

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B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 4. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 5. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

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B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

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B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 18. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

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B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 22. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 23. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

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A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 26. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

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A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 29. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 30. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of

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A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm


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B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 40. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

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A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The linker is

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A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 51. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 52. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 53. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

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A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

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A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 1. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

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A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 4. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 6. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 7. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

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A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 11. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 12. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at

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A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 15. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 16. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 18. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

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A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 19. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 20. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 21. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 22. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 23. Assembler processes

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A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 24. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 27. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

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A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 32. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

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A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. A self relocating program in one which

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A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 39. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

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Q.no 43. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

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D : resources

Q.no 48. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 49. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler


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Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 54. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 55. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

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D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 2. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping
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B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 3. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 4. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 5. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

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B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 8. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 12. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

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B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 14. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 15. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 16. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 17. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

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B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 20. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

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B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 24. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

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B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 28. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 29. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 32. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First


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C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 33. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 34. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 35. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 36. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 37. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro
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D : expanding macro

Q.no 38. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN


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Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 44. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

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Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 52. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

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Q.no 53. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 55. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 57. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 60. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 2. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

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D : interpreter

Q.no 3. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 6. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 7. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

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D : same as function

Q.no 8. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 11. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 12. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority
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Q.no 13. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 14. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 15. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 16. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm


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A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of

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A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 24. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?

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A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 33. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

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A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 36. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 37. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. in which Swap space exists

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A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 40. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters


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D : Registers

Q.no 43. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 44. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

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D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 48. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 52. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

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C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 53. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 54. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 55. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

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C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 59. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 60. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

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C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 3. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

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C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 12. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

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C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 13. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 14. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 17. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

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C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 18. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 21. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 22. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization
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D : code generation

Q.no 23. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 24. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

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D : a key & value

Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 29. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 30. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 31. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 32. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

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D : Ownership

Q.no 33. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 37. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

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D : not a software

Q.no 38. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 39. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

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B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

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Q.no 47. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 50. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 56. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

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Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 58. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 59. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 60. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 1. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 2. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as


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A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 3. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 6. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

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A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 9. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 12. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

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A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 13. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 16. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 17. process is trash

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A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 18. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 19. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

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A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if

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A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

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A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 34. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 35. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 37. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system


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B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

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B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 43. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 44. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 45. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

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B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

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B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 57. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system

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will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 58. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

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Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 3. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 4. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

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Q.no 7. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 9. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 10. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 11. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

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Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 16. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

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Q.no 17. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 18. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 21. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

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Q.no 22. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 26. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

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Q.no 27. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 28. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

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Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 33. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 34. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 35. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 36. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it
_________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

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D : something else

Q.no 37. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 38. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 39. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 40. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 41. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

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D : General analysis

Q.no 42. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 43. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information


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Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

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Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 55. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 58. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 60. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

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B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 2. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 3. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 6. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

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B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 7. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 8. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 9. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

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A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

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A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 17. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 20. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date


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B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 23. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 24. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 28. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 31. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
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C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 32. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 33. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 35. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid
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D : access

Q.no 37. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 38. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 39. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 40. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

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D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

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C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

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C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 1. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

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C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 2. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 3. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 4. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 5. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging


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D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 8. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call
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Q.no 12. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 13. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 16. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

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Q.no 17. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 18. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 19. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 20. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

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Q.no 22. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

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D : Loader

Q.no 27. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 28. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 31. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

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D : Loader

Q.no 32. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 33. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority
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Q.no 37. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 38. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 39. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 40. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

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Q.no 42. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 43. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 44. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

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D : Access right information

Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 51. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list


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Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 59. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c


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Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

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Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b


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Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

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Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a


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Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

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Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c


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Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is b

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Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b


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Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a

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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b


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Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

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Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d


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Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

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Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b


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Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

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Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a


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Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

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Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a


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Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

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Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d


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Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

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Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a


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Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

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Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is c


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Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

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Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a


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Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

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Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b


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Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

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Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c


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Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

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Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b


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Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

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Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d


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Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

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Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c


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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d


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Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

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Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b


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Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

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Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is d

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a


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Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

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Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d


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Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is b

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Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is c


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Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b

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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d


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Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

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Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c


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Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

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Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c


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Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

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Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d


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Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

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Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a


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Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

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Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a


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Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

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Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b


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Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

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Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c


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Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

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Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b


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Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

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Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


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Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

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Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d


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Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

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Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b


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Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

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Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b


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Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

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Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d


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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c


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Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

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Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c


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Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

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Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c


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Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

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Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c


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Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is b

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Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a


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Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

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Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c


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Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is a

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Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c


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Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

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Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b


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Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

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Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c


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Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

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Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is c


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Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

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Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d


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Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

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Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a


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Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

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Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 3. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

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A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 4. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 8. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

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A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 11. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 12. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 13. Which statement declare the name of macro.

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A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 16. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 17. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

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A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 20. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

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B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 26. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

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C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 29. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

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B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 35. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 38. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 41. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 44. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

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A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 51. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

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B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 54. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 56. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

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A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority
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Q.no 6. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 7. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as
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A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 13. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 16. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the


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A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 17. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 21. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

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A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 22. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time


C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 25. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 26. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

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B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 28. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 29. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

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B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 33. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 36. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion


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C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 37. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 38. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation
B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 39. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 40. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


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program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler


Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal


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B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems
Q.no 48. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well


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C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals


Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc
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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis
D : General analysis

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d


Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c


Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue
D : process queue

Q.no 3. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 4. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code
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D : C Language

Q.no 6. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification
D : macro call

Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. Time sharing system is implemented using


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A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 12. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 13. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 14. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 15. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 16. Effective access time is directly proportional to

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A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 17. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such
Q.no 18. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB
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B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 22. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 23. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 26. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor


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C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 28. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

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D : ORG

Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Assembler processes


A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 36. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?


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A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications


B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 39. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain


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B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack
B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 47. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

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B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 48. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement
B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 49. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant
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C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because
A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 54. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 55. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '
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A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword
D : operator

Q.no 58. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b


Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a


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Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

: Linear buffer D

: Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

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B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 8. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 9. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 10. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O
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C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay
C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 15. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex
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D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction


C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 18. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 19. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 20. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 21. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
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translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 22. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK
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Q.no 26. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu
B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

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A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 32. File type can be represented by

A : file extension
B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

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B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START
B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 39. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 40. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 43. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 44. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library


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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader
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D : interpreter

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 60. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

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Answer for Question No 1. is b


Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b

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Answer for Question No 34. is a


Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

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D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling
C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 10. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

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Q.no 11. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 15. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 16. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

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A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 17. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 18. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 19. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 20. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 21. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor


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C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 22. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 23. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 26. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

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C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 27. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 28. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 29. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 30. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 31. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

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D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 32. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


Q.no 33. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 35. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 36. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function
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Q.no 37. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 38. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 39. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for


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A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory


Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

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A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 48. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

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Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language
C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 54. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs


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D : no error occurs

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex
B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 59. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c


Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is d

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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a


Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority


B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 3. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens
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D : A parse tree

Q.no 6. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler
B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 10. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

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D : secondary storage

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called
A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

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Q.no 16. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code


B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 19. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 20. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.
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A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis
B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 23. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 24. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software
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B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served


B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 28. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 29. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

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C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access
B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 33. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 34. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 35. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

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C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because
A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 38. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 39. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

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C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals


Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 46. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system
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D : resources

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Q.no 47. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 48. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 49. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

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Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

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D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d


Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a


Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser
B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 3. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 4. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 5. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 6. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

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A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use
B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 7. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 8. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return
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C : OP

D : End

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

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C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 18. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

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C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 23. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 24. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 25. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 26. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

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D : priority Process

Q.no 27. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 28. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 29. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

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Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 35. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

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Q.no 37. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 38. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 39. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

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D : approximate

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 43. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 44. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 49. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 58. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is d


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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c


Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code
B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 4. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 5. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 6. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

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A : Appending an extra bit of the address
B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 7. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics
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C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 13. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 14. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 15. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 16. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

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D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 17. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 18. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 19. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

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C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 22. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 25. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 31. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

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B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 32. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 33. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

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B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 40. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

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B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 43. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

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B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b


Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is d

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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c


Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 2. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 5. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

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Q.no 6. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 8. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 9. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 10. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

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D : Round Robin

Q.no 11. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 13. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 15. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

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Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 18. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

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Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 22. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

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Q.no 26. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

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Q.no 31. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 32. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 34. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

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Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

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Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 44. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Q.no 51. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 52. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 53. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 54. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

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D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 5. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

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Q.no 6. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 7. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.


D : All

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O
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B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 14. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 15. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork
D : kill

Q.no 16. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

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C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 17. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 18. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 21. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

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C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 23. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 24. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data
D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

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D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 31. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 32. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
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memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 34. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 37. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

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A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 38. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 39. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


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B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 44. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

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A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

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B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 55. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number


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B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 59. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them


B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b


Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b


Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 2. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management
B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

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Q.no 6. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor
B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of
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A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 13. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 14. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 15. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread
B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 16. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time
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B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 17. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 18. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 19. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use


B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language


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C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro
B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords
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D : context free grammar

Q.no 27. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 28. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

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Q.no 32. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 33. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 34. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if


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A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 39. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure
B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement
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B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs


B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 47. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists


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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


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C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?
A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain


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D : PL domain only

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 60. An assembler is


A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a


Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a


Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 3. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 4. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 5. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls


B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 6. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

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A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 7. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 9. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called
A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

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A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 15. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system
A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions
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B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.


A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging
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C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that


A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 26. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP
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D : ORG

Q.no 27. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from


A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In segmentation, each address is specified by


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A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served


B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 37. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

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A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 40. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading
A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.
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A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 44. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size
C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

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D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 47. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 48. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library


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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 54. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well


C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 58. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state


D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 2. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 3. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space


D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

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A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place


Q.no 10. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 11. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices


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C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 12. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 13. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 14. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

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C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies
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D : cylinders

Q.no 22. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 23. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 24. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 25. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

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Q.no 27. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 28. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 30. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
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used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 34. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 35. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 36. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

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A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs


Q.no 40. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 41. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

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A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 44. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?


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A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 50. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for


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A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as
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A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 58. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c


Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a


Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Q.no 1. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 2. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O
D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called
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A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 7. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 8. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O
D : DMA

Q.no 10. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 11. LR stands for

A : Left to right
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B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation
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C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 18. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 19. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

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D : tokens

Q.no 22. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 23. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
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Q.no 27. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 29. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served


Q.no 30. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping
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Q.no 32. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 34. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 35. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging
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Q.no 37. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 38. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 40. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 41. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.
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A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous
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B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 50. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
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physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 53. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 54. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
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no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 59. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex
B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 60. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is b


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a


Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 3. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 4. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e
B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program


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B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 7. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code
C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 11. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

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C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 15. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 16. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

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D : Operating System

Q.no 17. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 18. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 19. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

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D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility


D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 26. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value


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Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 28. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 29. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 30. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 31. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 32. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with
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A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 33. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 35. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 36. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

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Q.no 37. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 38. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 39. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software
C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 41. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 42. Using a pager

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A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 45. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

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A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 49. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. An assembler is


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A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain


C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.
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A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement
B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

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Answer for Question No 1. is b
Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d


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Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 3. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier
B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,


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A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions


B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 11. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

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A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 14. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing


B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 15. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 16. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

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B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 17. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 18. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right
B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis
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C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time
B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 26. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

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D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 29. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 30. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse


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Q.no 32. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 34. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code
B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 35. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 36. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

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Q.no 37. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access
B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?


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A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 43. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader
B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '
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A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack
B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 52. YACC stands for

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A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 53. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system


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Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO


Q.no 59. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 60. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c


Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is c

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a


Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b


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Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 2. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 3. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation
Q.no 4. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 5. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
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as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 8. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 11. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called
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A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 12. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization
Q.no 14. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 15. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 16. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

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B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a


A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 21. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


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D : a key & value

Q.no 22. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 24. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of


A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 25. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

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Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system


B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
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B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 35. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

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C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 39. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First


D : Longest Job First

Q.no 40. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

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D : add-front

Q.no 43. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker
D : Assembler

Q.no 45. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 48. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
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requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 49. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN
D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

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Q.no 53. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 54. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

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Q.no 58. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 59. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 60. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c


Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a


Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
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compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 7. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with
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A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 16. which of the following is not a type of translator?

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A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 17. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 18. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 19. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above


Q.no 20. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 21. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis


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C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 22. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 25. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 26. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time
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D : rotational latency

Q.no 27. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 30. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 31. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

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D : Demand paging

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system


D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 36. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

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C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 37. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 38. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 39. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer
C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


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program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 43. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


Q.no 44. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system


Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

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A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 52. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals


Q.no 54. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 55. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available


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B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b


Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 3. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory
D : secondary memory

Q.no 4. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
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specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 8. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use


D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 9. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 10. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 11. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

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A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 12. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 16. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

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B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 17. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro


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C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs


Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 26. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 27. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 28. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

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Q.no 32. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 33. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 34. What is Scheduling?


A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 37. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

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A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as
A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

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A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous
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B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list


Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 51. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 52. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files
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C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 53. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a


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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a


Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b


Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 5. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
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as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 11. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is


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A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code


C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 14. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread
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B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 17. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 18. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 21. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

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B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 22. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging
C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 24. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 25. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 26. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

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B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code
C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 31. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

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C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 32. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential


C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 34. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP
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D : ORG

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 40. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

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D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant
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Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 49. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
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virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process


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Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 58. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler
B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 59. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

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Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

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Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


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Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 2. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END
B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 6. Virtual memory is


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A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 8. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser
B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 11. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

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B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 12. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 13. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 14. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling
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C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 18. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls


C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 19. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 20. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro
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Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 23. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time


C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 27. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

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A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page


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B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 33. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 37. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name


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D : type & extension

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 39. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

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Q.no 43. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files


Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.
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A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -


A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because
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A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 54. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading
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D : linking

Q.no 58. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 59. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d


Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c


Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 3. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P
B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 4. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 5. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes
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Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time


B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. A macro is


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A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS
B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. LR stands for


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A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 18. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input


B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation
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B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 22. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 23. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?


A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 26. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

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B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system
A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 29. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 30. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

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C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of


A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

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D : rotational latency

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm


B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 40. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


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Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by
A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The linker is


A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 51. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 52. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

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A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 53. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are
A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex
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B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for


A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d


Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a


Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c


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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Q.no 1. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is


A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 4. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

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Q.no 6. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 7. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the


A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 11. Output of pass 1 assembler is


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A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 12. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at


A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 15. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 16. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END
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B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 18. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.


A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 19. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 20. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 21. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

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C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 22. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 23. Assembler processes


A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 24. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

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D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 27. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is
A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping
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Q.no 32. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of
A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue


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B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. A self relocating program in one which


A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 39. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

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B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

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A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system
D : resources

Q.no 48. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 49. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass
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C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler


Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 54. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 55. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 2. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping
B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 3. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 4. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 5. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset
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Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer
B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 8. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?
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A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 12. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype
B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 14. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 15. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 16. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue
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B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 17. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling
B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 20. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

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C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 24. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First


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Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 28. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 29. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 32. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

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A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 33. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 34. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 35. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 36. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 37. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

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B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 38. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

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C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN


Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 44. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

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D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 52. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

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D : the page is not in memory
Q.no 53. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 55. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 57. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 60. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a


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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b


Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d


Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 2. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 3. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

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D : Loader

Q.no 6. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 7. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion


D : same as function

Q.no 8. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 11. A macro can be defined at


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A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 12. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority
Q.no 13. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 14. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 15. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 16. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure


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C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm


A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

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D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of


A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 24. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system
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Q.no 27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?


A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?
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A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 33. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be


A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 36. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 37. What is Scheduling?

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A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. in which Swap space exists


A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 40. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
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Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters


D : Registers

Q.no 43. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 44. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files


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Q.no 47. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well


D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 48. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking
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Q.no 52. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 53. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 54. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 55. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. The linker is


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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is c


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b


Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module


C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 59. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 60. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 1. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices


C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 3. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
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specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a


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A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 12. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 13. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 14. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system
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A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 17. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 18. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 21. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications


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B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 22. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization
D : code generation

Q.no 23. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 24. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 29. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 30. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 31. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data
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D : ASCII data

Q.no 32. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 33. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

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D : priority

Q.no 37. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 38. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 39. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
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D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


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assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
Q.no 47. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 50. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number
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C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 56. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

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C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 58. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 59. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 60. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

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Answer for Question No 1. is b
Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 2. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as


A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 3. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter
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Q.no 6. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.


A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 9. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority


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B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 12. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?
A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 13. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 16. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

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B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 17. process is trash


A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 18. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 19. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called
A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

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D : Loader

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if


A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
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disk arm from its current position is
A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 34. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 35. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 37. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system


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B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

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B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 43. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 44. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 45. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

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B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

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B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 57. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system

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will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 58. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a


Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is a


Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage
Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 3. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 4. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned


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Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 9. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 10. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

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D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 11. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location


Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

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Q.no 16. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader
Q.no 17. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 18. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 21. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

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A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse


Q.no 22. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 26. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

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B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders
Q.no 27. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 28. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


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C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 33. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 34. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 35. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 36. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word


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B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 37. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 38. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 39. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 40. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 41. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis
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B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis
D : General analysis

Q.no 42. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 43. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number


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D : Access right information

Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

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D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 55. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc
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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 58. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 60. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a


Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d


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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b


Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Q.no 1. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code
B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 2. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 3. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code
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Q.no 6. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler
B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 7. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 8. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 9. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix
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Q.no 11. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.
A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?


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A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 17. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 20. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

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B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 23. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 24. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 28. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 31. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

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C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 32. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 33. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 35. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

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D : access

Q.no 37. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 38. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 39. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 40. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

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D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

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C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

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C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a


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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c


Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 2. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 3. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 4. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 5. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

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Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging


D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 8. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype
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B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 12. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 13. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 16. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program
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C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 17. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 18. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 19. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 20. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords
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D : context free grammar
Q.no 22. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

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D : Loader

Q.no 27. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 28. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 31. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

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D : Loader

Q.no 32. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 33. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority
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Q.no 37. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 38. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 39. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 40. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

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Q.no 42. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 43. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 44. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

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D : Access right information

Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 51. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

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Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 59. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b


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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b


Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process
Q.no 3. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 4. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 5. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 6. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 7. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of
3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal
D : Addition Operator

Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 9. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 10. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 11. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 12. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP
D : End

Q.no 13. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 14. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 15. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 16. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 17. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code
D : C Language

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 20. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 21.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 22. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for
it at the time of its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction


C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 23. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 27. File type can be represented by

A : file extension
B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro
B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 33. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 34. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 36. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 37. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 38. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 39. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 40. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called
A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 43. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 45. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because
A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 48. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate
Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 53. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 54. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 55. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent


B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 57. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 58. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 59. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory


Q.no 1. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 3. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 4. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 5. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time
D : throughput

Q.no 6. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction
D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 13. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 14. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 15. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls


C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 16. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 17. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 19. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 20. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call


C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 21. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 22. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 23. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 24. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 25. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token


C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 27. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 28. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 29. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 30. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request


C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 31. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 32. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 35. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 37. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 40. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce
B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 41. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 42. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 43. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 44. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 45. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 46. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 47. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 48. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 49. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 50. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 51. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 55. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 56. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 59. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 1. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 2. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 3. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 4. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled


D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 5. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 6. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 7. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 8. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 9. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler
D : interpreter

Q.no 10. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 11. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 12. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 14. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler
D : Load and Go

Q.no 15. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 16. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 17. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 18. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 19. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program


D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 20. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 21. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 22. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 23. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system

Q.no 24. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table


B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 25. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 26. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 27. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 28. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 29. Format of macro call is


A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 30. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 31. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 32. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 33. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems


Q.no 34. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 35. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 36. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 37. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First


D : Longest Job First

Q.no 39. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 42. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes


D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 45. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 46. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 47. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 48. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language
C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 49. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 50. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 51. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 52. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum
D : approximate

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 55. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 56. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 57. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 58. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 59. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 60. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 1. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of
A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 6. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin
Q.no 7. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 8. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 9. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs


from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 10. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 11. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process


D : entire process

Q.no 12. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 13. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 16. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left
D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 21. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler
D : Loader

Q.no 22. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 24. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 25. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is


unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 26. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse


C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 27. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 28.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 29. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 30. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining


C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 33.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 34. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 35. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 36. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON
C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 37. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 38.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 39. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 40. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 41. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue
C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 42. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 43. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 44. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 48. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 54. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 55. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems
Q.no 56. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 59. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory


Q.no 1. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 2. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 3. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers


Q.no 6. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 7. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 8. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 9. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 10. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue
D : process queue

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 13. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 14. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 15. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program
C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 16. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 19. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 20. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code
C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 21. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 22. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 23. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 24. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement
C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 27. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 28. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users


C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 31. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 33. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 34. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 35. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging
C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 39. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?


A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 42. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 43. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 44. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN


Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 50. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 51. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 54. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution
B : A program that appears to execute a source
program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes


D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 59. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 3. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API
C : library

D : shell

Q.no 4. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 5. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 6. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly


occurs?

A : FIFO
B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 9. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 11. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs
from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 12. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 13. Effective access time is directly proportional to


A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 14. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 15. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 16. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 17. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 18. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in


A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 19. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 20. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 21. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 22. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page
A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 25. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 33. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 37. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.
A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 38. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 40. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 41. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?
A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 43. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 44. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 47. Static memory allocation is typically performed during


A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 48. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 49. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 51. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well


C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 57. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 1. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address


B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 2. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 4. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 5. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin
Q.no 6. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 8. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 9. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 10. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location


Q.no 11. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 12. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 13. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 14. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 15. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call


Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 18. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 19. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 20. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such
Q.no 21. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 22. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 23. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 24. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 25. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 27. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 28. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 29. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader
Q.no 31. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 33. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

Q.no 36. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is


unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 37. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 38. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 39. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 40. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation
B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 41. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter
Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 49. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant
D : data dependant

Q.no 50. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 51. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 52. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number
C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 58. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 59. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 1. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a


program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.


A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 6. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 7. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 8. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 9. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?
A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 10. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 11. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 12. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 13. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter
Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 16. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System
Q.no 19. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 20. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 21. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 22. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code
D : tokens

Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 26. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 27. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 28. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies
D : cylinders

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 31. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 32. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language
D : high level language

Q.no 34. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 35. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 36. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 37. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 38. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner
D : Loader

Q.no 39. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 41. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments


C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 47. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 48. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass
B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 50. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language
D : A program that accepts a program written in
high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 56. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 57. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain


B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 58. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 59. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 2. Literal table stores


A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. The data-in register of I/O port is


A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 12. In priority scheduling algorithm


A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 13. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 14. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 15. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 16. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 17. In memory-mapped I/O


A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 19. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 20. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 21. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups


Q.no 22. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 23. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 24. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 25. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 26. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler


D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 27. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 28. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 29. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation
D : Swapping

Q.no 32. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 33. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 34. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 35. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software
D : Application software

Q.no 37. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 38. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 41. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 45. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist


B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory


B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant
Q.no 56. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 59. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 60. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 1. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 2. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 3. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 4. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor
B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 6. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 7. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 8. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 9. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 10. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls


B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 12. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 15. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?
A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 16. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 17. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 18. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 19. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned


Q.no 20. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 21. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 22. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 24. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process
C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 27. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 29. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent


C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 32.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 33. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 34. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First


C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 35. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 38. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 39. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser
B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 40. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 43. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs
A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 45. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 46. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 48. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 49. Using a pager


A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 50. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking
Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.
A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator
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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 3. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

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A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 4. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 8. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

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A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 11. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 12. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 13. Which statement declare the name of macro.

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A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 16. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 17. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

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A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 20. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

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B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 26. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

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C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 29. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

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B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 35. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 38. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 41. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 44. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

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A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 51. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

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B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 54. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 56. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

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A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language
B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority
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Q.no 6. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 7. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as
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A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 13. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 16. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the


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A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 17. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 21. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

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A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 22. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time


C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 25. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 26. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

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B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 28. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 29. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

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B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 33. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 36. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion


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C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 37. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 38. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation
B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 39. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 40. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


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program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler


Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal


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B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems
Q.no 48. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well


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C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals


Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc
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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis
D : General analysis

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d


Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c


Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue
D : process queue

Q.no 3. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 4. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code
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D : C Language

Q.no 6. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification
D : macro call

Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. Time sharing system is implemented using


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A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 12. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 13. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 14. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 15. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 16. Effective access time is directly proportional to

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A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 17. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such
Q.no 18. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB
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B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 22. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 23. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 26. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor


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C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 28. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

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D : ORG

Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Assembler processes


A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 36. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?


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A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications


B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 39. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain


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B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 43. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack
B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 47. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

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B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 48. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement
B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 49. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant
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C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because
A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 54. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 55. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '
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A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword
D : operator

Q.no 58. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b


Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a


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Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

: Linear buffer D

: Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

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B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 8. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 9. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 10. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O
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C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay
C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 15. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex
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D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction


C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 18. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 19. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 20. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 21. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
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translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 22. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK
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Q.no 26. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu
B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

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A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 32. File type can be represented by

A : file extension
B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

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B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START
B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 39. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 40. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 43. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 44. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library


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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader
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D : interpreter

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 60. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

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Answer for Question No 1. is b


Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b

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Answer for Question No 34. is a


Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

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D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling
C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 10. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

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Q.no 11. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 15. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 16. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

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A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 17. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 18. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 19. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 20. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 21. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor


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C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 22. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 23. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 24. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 25. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 26. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

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C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 27. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 28. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 29. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 30. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 31. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

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D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 32. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


Q.no 33. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 35. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 36. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function
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Q.no 37. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 38. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 39. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for


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A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory


Q.no 43. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

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A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 48. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

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Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language
C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 54. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs


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D : no error occurs

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex
B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 59. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c


Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is d

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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a


Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority


B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 3. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens
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D : A parse tree

Q.no 6. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler
B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 10. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

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D : secondary storage

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called
A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

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Q.no 16. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code


B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 19. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 20. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.
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A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis
B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 23. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 24. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software
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B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served


B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 28. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 29. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 31. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

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C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access
B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 33. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 34. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 35. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 36. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

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C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 37. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because
A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 38. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 39. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

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C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals


Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 46. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system
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D : resources

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Q.no 47. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 48. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 49. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

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Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

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D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d


Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a


Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser
B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 3. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 4. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 5. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 6. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

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A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use
B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 7. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 8. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return
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C : OP

D : End

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

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C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 18. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

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C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 23. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 24. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 25. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 26. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

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D : priority Process

Q.no 27. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 28. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 29. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

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Q.no 32. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 33. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 35. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 36. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

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Q.no 37. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 38. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 39. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 40. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

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D : approximate

Q.no 42. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 43. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 44. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 49. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 58. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is d


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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c


Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code
B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 4. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 5. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 6. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

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A : Appending an extra bit of the address
B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 7. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics
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C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 13. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 14. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 15. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 16. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

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D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 17. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 18. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 19. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

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C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 22. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 25. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 31. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

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B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 32. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 33. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

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B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 40. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

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B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 43. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

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B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

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B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b


Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is d

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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c


Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 2. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 5. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

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Q.no 6. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 8. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 9. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 10. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

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D : Round Robin

Q.no 11. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 13. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 15. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

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Q.no 16. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 17. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 18. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

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Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 22. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 23. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

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Q.no 26. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

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Q.no 31. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 32. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 34. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 35. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

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Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

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Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 44. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 45. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

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Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Q.no 51. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 52. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 53. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 54. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

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D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d

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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 4. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 5. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

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Q.no 6. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 7. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.


D : All

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O
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B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 14. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 15. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork
D : kill

Q.no 16. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

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C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 17. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 18. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 21. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

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C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 23. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 24. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data
D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

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D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 31. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 32. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
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memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 34. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 37. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

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A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 38. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 39. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 40. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


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B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 44. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

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A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

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B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 55. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 57. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number


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B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 59. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them


B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b


Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b


Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 2. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 3. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 4. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management
B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

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Q.no 6. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor
B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of
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A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 12. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 13. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 14. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 15. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread
B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 16. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time
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B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 17. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 18. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 19. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 20. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use


B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language


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C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 23. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro
B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords
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D : context free grammar

Q.no 27. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 28. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 29. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

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Q.no 32. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 33. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 34. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if


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A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 39. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure
B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement
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B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 44. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs


B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 47. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists


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C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


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C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?
A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain


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D : PL domain only

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 60. An assembler is


A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a


Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a


Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 3. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 4. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 5. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls


B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 6. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

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A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 7. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 9. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called
A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. Assembly language programs are written using

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A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 12. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 15. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system
A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions
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B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 19. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 20. It is used as an index into the page table.


A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 21. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging
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C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 24. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that


A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 26. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP
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D : ORG

Q.no 27. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from


A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. In segmentation, each address is specified by


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A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served


B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 37. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

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A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 40. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading
A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.
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A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 44. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size
C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

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D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 47. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 48. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 51. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library


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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 54. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well


C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 55. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 56. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Q.no 57. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 58. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 59. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state


D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 2. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 3. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space


D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

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A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 8. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 9. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place


Q.no 10. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 11. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices


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C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 12. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 13. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 14. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

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C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 19. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies
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D : cylinders

Q.no 22. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 23. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 24. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 25. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

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Q.no 27. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 28. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 30. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
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used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 34. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 35. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 36. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 37. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

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A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs


Q.no 40. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 41. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

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A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 44. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 45. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 46. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 47. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?


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A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 50. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for


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A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 56. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 57. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as
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A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 58. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 59. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 60. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c


Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a


Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Q.no 1. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 2. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 3. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O
D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 5. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called
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A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 7. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 8. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O
D : DMA

Q.no 10. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 11. LR stands for

A : Left to right
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B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 12. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 14. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 16. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation
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C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 17. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 18. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 19. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 20. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 21. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

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D : tokens

Q.no 22. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 23. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
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Q.no 27. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 29. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served


Q.no 30. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping
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Q.no 32. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 34. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 35. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging
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Q.no 37. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 38. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 40. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 41. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 42. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.
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A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous
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B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 50. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 51. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
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physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 53. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 54. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
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no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 59. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex
B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 60. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is b


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a


Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 3. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 4. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e
B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 6. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program


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B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 7. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code
C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 11. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

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C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 15. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 16. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

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D : Operating System

Q.no 17. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 18. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 19. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 20. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

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D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility


D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 26. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value


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Q.no 27. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 28. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 29. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 30. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 31. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 32. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with
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A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 33. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 35. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 36. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

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Q.no 37. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 38. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 39. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software
C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 41. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 42. Using a pager

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A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 45. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

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A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 48. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 49. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. An assembler is


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A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain


C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 56. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.
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A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement
B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

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Answer for Question No 1. is b
Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d


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Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 3. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier
B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,


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A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 8. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions


B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 11. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

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A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 14. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing


B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 15. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 16. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

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B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 17. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 18. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 19. LR stands for

A : Left to right
B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 20. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis
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C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 23. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 24. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time
B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 25. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 26. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

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D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 29. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 30. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse


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Q.no 32. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 33. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 34. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code
B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 35. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 36. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

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Q.no 37. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access
B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?


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A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 43. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader
B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '
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A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack
B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 52. YACC stands for

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A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 53. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system


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Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO


Q.no 59. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 60. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c


Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is c

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a


Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b


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Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 2. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 3. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation
Q.no 4. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 5. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
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as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 8. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 11. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called
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A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 12. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization
Q.no 14. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 15. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 16. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

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B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a


A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 21. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


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D : a key & value

Q.no 22. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 24. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of


A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 25. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 26. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

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Q.no 27. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system


B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
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B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 35. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 36. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 37. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

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C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 39. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First


D : Longest Job First

Q.no 40. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

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D : add-front

Q.no 43. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker
D : Assembler

Q.no 45. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 48. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
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requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 49. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN
D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 50. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 51. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

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Q.no 53. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 54. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

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Q.no 58. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 59. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 60. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c


Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a


Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 2. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
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compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 7. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 11. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with
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A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 12. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 13. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 16. which of the following is not a type of translator?

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A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 17. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 18. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 19. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above


Q.no 20. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 21. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis


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C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 22. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 25. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 26. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time
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D : rotational latency

Q.no 27. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 30. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 31. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

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D : Demand paging

Q.no 32. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 33. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 34. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system


D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 35. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 36. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

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C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 37. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 38. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 39. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer
C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 40. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


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program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 42. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 43. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


Q.no 44. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 46. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 47. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 48. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system


Q.no 49. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 50. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 51. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

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A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 52. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals


Q.no 54. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 55. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available


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B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b


Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a


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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 3. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory
D : secondary memory

Q.no 4. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
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specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 8. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use


D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 9. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 10. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 11. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

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A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 12. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 14. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 15. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 16. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

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B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 17. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 18. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 19. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 20. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro


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C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 22. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 23. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs


Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 26. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

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D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 27. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 28. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 29. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

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Q.no 32. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 33. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 34. What is Scheduling?


A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 37. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

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A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 38. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as
A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

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A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 47. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous
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B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 48. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list


Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 51. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 52. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files
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C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 53. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 54. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 55. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 56. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a


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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a


Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b


Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 2. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 5. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
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as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 11. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is


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A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code


C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 14. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 15. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 16. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread
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B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 17. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 18. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 21. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

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B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 22. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging
C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 24. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 25. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 26. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

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B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code
C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 29. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 30. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 31. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

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C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 32. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 33. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential


C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 34. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 35. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP
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D : ORG

Q.no 37. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 38. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 39. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 40. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

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D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 44. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 45. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 46. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant
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Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 49. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 50. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 52. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
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virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 55. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process


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Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 58. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler
B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 59. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

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Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

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Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


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Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 2. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 3. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END
B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 6. Virtual memory is


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A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 7. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 8. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser
B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 11. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

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B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 12. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 13. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 14. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 15. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling
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C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 18. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls


C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 19. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 20. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 21. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro
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Q.no 22. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 23. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time


C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 24. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 27. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

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A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 28. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page


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B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 33. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

Q.no 34. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 35. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 36. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 37. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name


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D : type & extension

Q.no 38. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 39. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 40. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 41. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

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Q.no 43. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files


Q.no 44. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.
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A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 49. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -


A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 50. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because
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A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 54. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading
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D : linking

Q.no 58. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers


C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 59. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d


Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c


Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 3. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P
B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 4. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 5. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes
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Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time


B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 10. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 11. A macro is


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A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 12. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 13. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS
B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 14. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority
is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. LR stands for


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A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 18. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input


B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 21. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation
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B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 22. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system

Q.no 23. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?


A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 26. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

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B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 27. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 28. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system
A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 29. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 30. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 31. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

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C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. Shell is the exclusive feature of


A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

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D : rotational latency

Q.no 37. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm


B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 40. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 41. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List


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Q.no 42. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 43. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by
A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 44. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 45. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 47. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 48. The linker is


A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 51. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 52. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

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A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 53. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are
A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 54. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 55. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 56. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 57. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex
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B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for


A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 59. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d


Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a


Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c


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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Q.no 1. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is


A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 4. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

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Q.no 6. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 7. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 8. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the


A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 9. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 10. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 11. Output of pass 1 assembler is


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A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 12. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 13. A macro can be defined at


A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 14. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 15. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 16. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END
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B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 18. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.


A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 19. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 20. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 21. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

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C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 22. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 23. Assembler processes


A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 24. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

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D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 27. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is
A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping
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Q.no 32. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 33. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of
A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 34. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 37. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue


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B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 38. A self relocating program in one which


A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 39. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

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B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 43. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 44. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 47. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

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A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system
D : resources

Q.no 48. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 49. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 52. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass
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C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler


Q.no 53. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 54. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 55. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

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C : then the system is in a safe state
D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 2. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping
B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 3. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 4. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 5. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset
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Q.no 6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 7. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer
B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 8. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 9. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?
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A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 12. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype
B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 13. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 14. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 15. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 16. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue
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B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 17. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling
B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 20. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 21. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

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C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 22. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling
B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 23. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 24. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First


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Q.no 27. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 28. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 29. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 32. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

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A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 33. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 34. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 35. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 36. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 37. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

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B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 38. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 39. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 40. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 41. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 42. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

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C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN


Q.no 43. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 44. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

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D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 48. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 49. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 50. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 51. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 52. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

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D : the page is not in memory
Q.no 53. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 55. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 56. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 57. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 58. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 59. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 60. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a


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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b


Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d


Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 2. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 3. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends
a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 4. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

Q.no 5. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

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D : Loader

Q.no 6. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 7. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion


D : same as function

Q.no 8. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 11. A macro can be defined at


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A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 12. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority
Q.no 13. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 14. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 15. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 16. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure


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C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 17. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 18. In priority scheduling algorithm


A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 19. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 20. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 21. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

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D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 22. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 23. Shell is the exclusive feature of


A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 24. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 25. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 26. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With dynamic loading, a
routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system
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Q.no 27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 28. What is FIFO algorithm?


A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 30. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?
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A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 33. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be


A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 36. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 37. What is Scheduling?

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A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. in which Swap space exists


A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 40. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 41. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
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Q.no 42. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters


D : Registers

Q.no 43. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 44. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files


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Q.no 47. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well


D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 48. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 49. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking
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Q.no 52. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 53. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 54. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 55. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 56. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 57. The linker is


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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is c


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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b


Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

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Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module


C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 58. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 59. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 60. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Q.no 1. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 2. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices


C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 3. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 4. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 5. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 6. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the operations that can be
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specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 8. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 11. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a


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A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 12. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 13. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 14. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 15. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 16. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system
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A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 17. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 18. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 19. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 20. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 21. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications


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B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 22. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization
D : code generation

Q.no 23. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the arm is returned
to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 24. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 26. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

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C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 27. In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

Q.no 28. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 29. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 30. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 31. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data
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D : ASCII data

Q.no 32. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 33. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level index for each
file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 34. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 35. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

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D : priority

Q.no 37. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 38. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 39. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 41. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
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D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 43. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 46. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


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assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program
Q.no 47. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 48. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 50. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 51. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number
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C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 52. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 56. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

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C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 57. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 58. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 59. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 60. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

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Answer for Question No 1. is b
Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Q.no 1. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 2. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as


A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 3. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 4. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 5. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter
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Q.no 6. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.


A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 9. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 10. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 11. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority


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B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 12. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?
A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 13. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 16. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute
are kept on a list called

A : job queue

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B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 17. process is trash


A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 18. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 19. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 21. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

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C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 22. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called
A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 25. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

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D : Loader

Q.no 27. A process is thrashing if


A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 28. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 31. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 32. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the
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disk arm from its current position is
A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 33. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 34. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 35. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 37. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system


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B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 38. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 39. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 42. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

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B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 43. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 44. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 45. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

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B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 48. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 51. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 52. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

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B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 53. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 54. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 57. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system

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will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 58. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 59. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 60. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a


Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a

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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is a


Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing store or in
memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage
Q.no 2. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 3. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 4. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 5. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned


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Q.no 6. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 7. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is
called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 9. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 10. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

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D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 11. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location


Q.no 12. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 13. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 14. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a buffer in the
system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 15. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal

D : Addition Operator

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Q.no 16. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader
Q.no 17. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 18. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 21. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

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A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse


Q.no 22. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 23. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary
memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 24. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 25. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 26. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

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B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders
Q.no 27. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 28. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for
translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 29. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 30. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 31. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


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C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 32. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. This is

A : Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 33. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 34. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is unavailable the
object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 35. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for it at the time of
its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction

C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 36. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a reserved word,it

A : overwrites the word


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B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 37. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 38. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 39. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily
suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 40. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 41. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis
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B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis
D : General analysis

Q.no 42. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 43. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number


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D : Access right information

Q.no 47. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 48. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 49. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 50. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

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D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 55. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 56. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc
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C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 57. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 58. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 60. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a


Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b

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Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d


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Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b


Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Q.no 1. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code
B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 2. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 3. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code
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Q.no 6. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a
form suitable for execution ?

A : Assembler
B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 7. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 8. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are
kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 9. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 10. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to create,edit and
print document ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix
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Q.no 11. Output file of Lex is , if the input file is Myfile.
A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 13. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory
of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 14. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 15. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 16. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?


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A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 17. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 20. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 21. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences the jobs.

A : earliest due date

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B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 22. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 23. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C : file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 24. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 26. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program, then what is to be
used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

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B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 27. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 28. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 29. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 30. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 31. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm

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C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 32. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 33. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 35. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 36. Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

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D : access

Q.no 37. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 38. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 39. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 40. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 41. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

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D : Free Block List

Q.no 42. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page replacement algorithms
because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed length records
are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

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D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 47. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 48. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure
becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type that maybe
requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm that ensures that the system
will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 51. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from the buffer as soon
as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

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C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 52. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to ensure that a
circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 53. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 54. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 55. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 56. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

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C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 57. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be implemented
in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 59. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 60. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is a


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Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c


Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b


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Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a


Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Q.no 1. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 2. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 3. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 4. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process

D : entire process

Q.no 5. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

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Q.no 6. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging


D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 7. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 8. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 10. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 11. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype
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B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 12. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 13. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which the device
sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 14. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 15. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 16. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program
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C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 17. Which module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not concerned with the
details of actually controlling the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 18. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 19. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 20. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords
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D : context free grammar
Q.no 22. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 23. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is
concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 24. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 25. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward the
other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the other end, the direction is
reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 26. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

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D : Loader

Q.no 27. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 28. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 29. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 30. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 31. a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters and produces
output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

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D : Loader

Q.no 32. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 33. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 34. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 35. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 36. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority
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Q.no 37. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 38. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 39. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 40. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 41. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

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Q.no 42. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 43. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 44. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the current request
can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 45. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead because there is
no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the beginning of the chain and the
length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

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D : Access right information

Q.no 47. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 51. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

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Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a reserved portion
of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

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C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 57. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but not loaded in
physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 58. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 59. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to find one or a
contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

Answer for Question No 17. is b


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Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b


Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c


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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

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Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10886_SYSTEMS PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process
Q.no 3. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 4. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 5. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 6. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 7. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of
3

A : Identifier

B : Assignment operator

C : Integer Literal
D : Addition Operator

Q.no 8. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 9. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 10. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 11. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 12. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP
D : End

Q.no 13. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 14. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 15. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 16. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 17. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code
D : C Language

Q.no 18. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 19. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 20. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 21.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 22. A self relocating program in one which

A : can not be made to exercise in any area of storage other than the one designated for
it at the time of its coding or translation

B : consists of a program and relevent information for its reloaction


C : one itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive positions

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 23. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 24. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 25. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 27. File type can be represented by

A : file extension
B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 29. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 30. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 31. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro
B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 33. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 34. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 36. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 37. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 38. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 39. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 40. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 41. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 42. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called
A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 43. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 45. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because
A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 48. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 50. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 51. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate
Q.no 52. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 53. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 54. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 55. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 56. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent


B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 57. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 58. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 59. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory


Q.no 1. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 3. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 4. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 5. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time
D : throughput

Q.no 6. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 9. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 10. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction
D : Opcodes

Q.no 11. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 13. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 14. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 15. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls


C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 16. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 17. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 19. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 20. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call


C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 21. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 22. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 23. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 24. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 25. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token


C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 27. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 28. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 29. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 30. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request


C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 31. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 32. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 34. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 35. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue


C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 36. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 37. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 38. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 39. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 40. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce
B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 41. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 42. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 43. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 44. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 45. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time


B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 46. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 47. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 48. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 49. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 50. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 51. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 54. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned


Q.no 55. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 56. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 57. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 58. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 59. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 1. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 2. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 3. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 4. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled


D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 5. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 6. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 7. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 8. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 9. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler
D : interpreter

Q.no 10. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 11. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 12. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 13. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 14. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler
D : Load and Go

Q.no 15. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 16. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 17. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 18. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 19. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program


D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 20. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 21. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 22. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 23. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system

Q.no 24. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table


B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 25. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 26. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 27. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 28. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 29. Format of macro call is


A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 30. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 31. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 32. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 33. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems


Q.no 34. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 35. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 36. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 37. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First


D : Longest Job First

Q.no 39. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 42. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes


D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 45. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 46. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 47. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 48. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language
C : A program that automate the translation of
assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 49. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 50. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 51. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 52. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum
D : approximate

Q.no 53. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 54. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 55. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 56. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 57. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 58. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 59. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 60. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 1. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 2. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of
A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 5. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 6. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin
Q.no 7. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 8. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 9. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs


from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 10. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 11. The pager concerns with the

A : entire thread

B : first page of a process

C : individual page of a process


D : entire process

Q.no 12. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 13. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address

B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 16. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left
D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 17. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 18. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 19. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 21. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler
D : Loader

Q.no 22. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 24. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 25. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is


unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 26. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse


C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 27. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 28.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 29. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 30. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 31. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining


C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 32. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 33.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 34. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation

B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 35. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 36. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON
C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 37. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 38.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number

D : a key & value

Q.no 39. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 40. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 41. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue
C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 42. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 43. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 44. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 45. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 46. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 47. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 48. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 49. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 50. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?
A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 54. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 55. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems
Q.no 56. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 57. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 58. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 59. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory


Q.no 1. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 2. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls

B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 3. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers


Q.no 6. In priority scheduling algorithm

A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 7. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 8. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 9. A process is moved to wait queue when I/O request is made with

A : non-blocking I/O

B : blocking I/O

C : asynchronous I/O

D : synchronous I/O

Q.no 10. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue
D : process queue

Q.no 11. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 12. It is used as an index into the page table.

A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 13. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 14. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 15. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program
C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 16. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System

Q.no 19. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 20. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code
C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 21. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 22. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 23. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language

D : high level language

Q.no 24. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 25. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement
C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 26. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 27. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 28. What is Scheduling?

A : allowing a job to use the processor

B : making proper use of processor

C : all of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 29. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 30. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users


C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 31. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 32. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 33. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 34. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 35. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging
C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is use With
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is calle For implementing
dynamic loading

A : special support from hardware is required

B : special support from operating system is essential

C : special support from both hardware and operating system is essential

D : user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 39. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code

D : tokens

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?


A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 41. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 42. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 43. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 44. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN


Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 47. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 50. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 51. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 52. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant

Q.no 53. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 54. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution
B : A program that appears to execute a source
program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 55. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 56. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 57. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 58. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes


D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 59. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 60. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 1. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 2. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 3. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API
C : library

D : shell

Q.no 4. Literal table stores

A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 5. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 6. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 7. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 8. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly


occurs?

A : FIFO
B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 9. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 11. Which technique is used for temporarily removing inactive programs
from the memory of computer system

A : Swapping

B : Spooling

C : Semaphore

D : Scheduler

Q.no 12. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 13. Effective access time is directly proportional to


A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 14. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 15. LRU stands for?

A : Less Recently used

B : Least Recurrently used

C : Least Randomly used

D : Least Recently used

Q.no 16. The data-in register of I/O port is

A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 17. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 18. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in


A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 19. In memory-mapped I/O

A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 20. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 21. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

A : it is too good an algorithm

B : knowing the length of the next CPU request

C : it is too complex to understand

D : it is too complex to implement

Q.no 22. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software

D : Application software

Q.no 23. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page
A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 24. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 25. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is
performed by

A : Lexical analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : . Semantic analysis

D : Structure analysis

Q.no 27. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm
C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 28. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler

D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 29. A process is thrashing if

A : it is spending more time paging than executing

B : it is spending less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 30. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 31. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 32. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location


B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process

C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 33. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 35. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 36. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

A : Attributes

B : Protocol

C : Location

D : Ownership

Q.no 37. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.
A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation

D : Swapping

Q.no 38. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 40. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 41. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 42. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?
A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 43. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 44. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 45. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 46. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 47. Static memory allocation is typically performed during


A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 48. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 49. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 50. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 51. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing
D : Free Block List

Q.no 52. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 53. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 54. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 55. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 56. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well


C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 57. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 58. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 59. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 60. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 1. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

A : Appending an extra bit of the address


B : Enabling the read or write bits of the devices

C : Raising an appropriate interrupt signal

D : Sending a special signal along the BUS

Q.no 2. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor

B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 3. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 4. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 5. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin
Q.no 6. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 7. Virtual memory is

A : An extremely large main memory

B : An extremely large secondary memory

C : An illusion of extremely large main memory

D : A type of memory used in super computers

Q.no 8. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 9. Assembly language programs are written using

A : Hex code

B : Mnenonics

C : ASCII code

D : C Language

Q.no 10. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location


Q.no 11. Task of the lexical analysis phase is

A : to parse the source program into basic elements or tockens of the language

B : checks that given statement is syntactically correct or not

C : removes comments and white spaces

D : Both 1 & 3

Q.no 12. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 13. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 14. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 15. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call


Q.no 16. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 17. The end of a macro can be represented by the directive

A : END

B : ENDS

C : MEND

D : ENDD

Q.no 18. which of the following is not a type of translator?

A : assembler

B : compiler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 19. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 20. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such
Q.no 21. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 22. What is FIFO algorithm?

A : first executes the job that came in last in the queue

B : first executes the job that came in first in the queue

C : first executes the job that needs minimal processor

D : first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Q.no 23. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 24. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 25. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency
Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 27. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 28. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 29. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader
Q.no 31. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with

A : assigning ready processes to CPU

B : assigning ready processes to waiting queue

C : assigning running processes to blocked queue

D : assign prcess from wating to ready queue

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 33. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 34. The policy used to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position is

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : Priority by process

D : Random scheduling

Q.no 35.  In segmentation, each address is specified by

A : a segment number & offset

B : an offset & value

C : a value & segment number


D : a key & value

Q.no 36. Disadvantage of compile and go loading scheme is that

A : a position of memory is wasted because the case occupied by the assembler is


unavailable the object program

B : it is necessary to retranslate the users program check every time it is run

C : Easily handles multiple segments of code

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 37. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 38. on free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit table

B : Chained Free Portion

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 39. a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory

A : Swapping

B : Paging

C : Segmentation

D : Demand paging

Q.no 40. In which method, the file allocation table contains a separate one level
index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated to the file.

A : Chained allocation
B : Indexed allocation

C : Contiguous allocation

D : Variable allocation

Q.no 41. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter
Q.no 45. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 46. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 47. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 48. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist

B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 49. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant
D : data dependant

Q.no 50. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 51. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 52. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number
C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 55. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 56. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 57. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory

B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 58. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler

C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 59. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables
B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 1. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler

A : semantic analysis

B : code generation

C : syntax analysis

D : code optimization

Q.no 2. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called

A : Double buffer

B : Single buffer

C : Linear buffer

D : Circular buffer

Q.no 3. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a


program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 4. It is used as an index into the page table.


A : frame bit

B : page number

C : page offset

D : frame offset

Q.no 5. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is

A : Star BUS structure

B : Multiple BUS structure

C : Single BUS structure

D : Node to Node BUS structure

Q.no 6. Which command gives dynamic veiw of process states

A : PS

B : TOP

C : fork

D : kill

Q.no 7. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is,

A : To indicate the purpose of the code

B : To indicate the starting of the computation code

C : To indicate the starting position in memory, where the program block is to be stored

D : To list the locations of all the registers used

Q.no 8. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called

A : job queue

B : ready queue

C : execution queue

D : process queue

Q.no 9. Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?
A : LRU policy (Least Recently Use

B : FIFO policy (First in first out)

C : RU policy (Recurrently use

D : Optimal page replacement policy

Q.no 10. Which layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A : Physical organization

B : File system

C : Directory management

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 11. what consists of all processes whose memory images are in the backing
store or in memory and are ready to run.

A : wait queue

B : ready queue

C : cpu

D : secondary storage

Q.no 12. SJF can be

A : preemptive only

B : nonpreemptive only

C : either preemptive or nonpreemptive

D : sequential

Q.no 13. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?

A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter
Q.no 14. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

A : processes tend to the I/O-bound

B : size of pages is reduced

C : processes tend to be CPU-bound

D : locality of reference is applicable to the process

Q.no 15. Effective access time is directly proportional to

A : memory access time

B : page-fault rate

C : hit ratio

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 16. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 17. Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

A : FIFO rule (First in first out)

B : LIFO (Last in First out)

C : FILO rule (First in last out)

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Examples of system program includes

A : Ticket booking system

B : Banking software

C : Online shopping program

D : Operating System
Q.no 19. In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly
occurs?

A : FIFO

B : LRU

C : LFU

D : NRU

Q.no 20. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 21. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

A : Non-preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : All of the mentioned

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 22. File type can be represented by

A : file extension

B : file identifier

C :  file name

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Input to code generator is

A : Source code

B : Intermediate code

C : Target code
D : tokens

Q.no 24. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 25.  Bit used for Illegal addresses are trapping are called as

A : error

B : protection

C : valid – invalid

D : access

Q.no 26. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be

A : greater than segment limit

B : between 0 and segment limit

C : between 0 and the segment number

D : greater than the segment number

Q.no 27. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 28. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies
D : cylinders

Q.no 29. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 30. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if , this rule sequences
the jobs.

A : earliest due date

B : slack time remaining

C : first come, first served

D : critical ratio

Q.no 31. The file name is generally split into two parts :

A : name & identifier

B : identifier & type

C : extension & name

D : type & extension

Q.no 32. Way of specifying arguments in instruction is

A : instruction format

B : addressing modes

C : both 1 & 2

D : function

Q.no 33. Assembler processes

A : any language

B : assembly language

C : c language
D : high level language

Q.no 34. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 35. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First

C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 36. The time taken to move the disk arm to the desired cylinder is called the

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 37. The process of assigning a label or macroname to the string is called

A : initialising macro

B : initialising string macro

C : defining a string macro

D : defining a macro

Q.no 38. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser

B : Optimizer

C : Scanner
D : Loader

Q.no 39. in which Swap space exists

A : cpu

B : primary memory

C : secondary memory

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 40. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called

A : Non preemptive scheduling

B : Preemptive scheduling

C : Shortest job first

D : First come First served

Q.no 41. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 42. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 43. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments


C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 44. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 45. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 46. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 47. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.

A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 48. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass
B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 49. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 50. Using a pager

A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 51. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs

A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 52. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language
D : A program that accepts a program written in
high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 53. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking

Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 56. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader

C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 57. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain


B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 58. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 59. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 60. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 1. Output of pass 1 assembler is

A : object code

B : intermediate code

C : assembly language code

D : machine code

Q.no 2. Literal table stores


A : Numbers from code

B : variables from code

C : instruction

D : Opcodes

Q.no 3. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

A : segmentation

B : swapping

C : pure demand paging

D : multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Q.no 4. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

A : Interrupts

B : Memory mapping

C : Program-controlled I/O

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?

A : first-come, first-served scheduling

B : shortest job scheduling

C : priority scheduling

D : Round Robin

Q.no 6. Time sharing system is implemented using

A : FCFS

B : SJF

C : RR

D : priority

Q.no 7. The data-in register of I/O port is


A : Read by host to get input

B : Read by controller to get input

C : Written by host to send output

D : Written by host to start a command

Q.no 8. process is trash

A : it spends more time paging than executing

B : it spends less time paging than executing

C : page fault occurs

D : swapping can not take place

Q.no 9. To access services from OS, an interface is provided Called as

A : System call

B : API

C : library

D : shell

Q.no 10. In assembler design memory allocation to symbols is done in

A : pass 1 of assembler

B : pass 2 of assembler

C : In both the passes

D : at the time of synthesis

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A : Postfix notation

B : Syntax trees

C : Three address codes

D : Prefix notation

Q.no 12. In priority scheduling algorithm


A : CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority

B : CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority

C : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled

D : Equal priority processes can not be scheduled parallely

Q.no 13. A model statement contains call for another macro is called as

A : referential macro call

B : nested macro call

C : inbuilt macro call

D : inherited macro call

Q.no 14. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?

A : Parser

B : Code optimization

C : Code generator

D : Lexical analyser

Q.no 15. LR stands for

A : Left to right

B : Left to right reduction

C : Right to left

D : Left to right and right most derivation in reverse

Q.no 16. which algo. Is nonpreemptive

A : SJF-P

B : FCFS

C : RR

D : Priority

Q.no 17. In memory-mapped I/O


A : The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space

B : The I/O devices have a separate address space

C : The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space

D : A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Q.no 18. A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely
in memory is called

A : demand paging

B : virtual memory

C : auxiliary memory

D : secondary memory

Q.no 19. A macro can be defined at

A : beginning of a program

B : end of a program

C : after initialisation of program

D : anywhere in a program

Q.no 20. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as

A : waiting time

B : turnaround time

C : response time

D : throughput

Q.no 21. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent

C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups


Q.no 22. Loader is a program that

A : places programs into memory and prepares them for execution

B : automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

C : accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program

D : appers to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q.no 23. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

A : kernel level thread

B : user level thread

C : process

D : priority Process

Q.no 24. Which of the following derivation a top-down parser use while parsing
an input string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order ?

A : Leftmost derivation

B : Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse

C : Rightmost derivation

D : ightmost derivation traced out in reverse

Q.no 25. If the lexical analyser finds a lexeme with the same name as that of a
reserved word,it _________

A : overwrites the word

B : overwrites the functionality

C : generates an error

D : something else

Q.no 26. Absolute loader loads object code in memory from

A : Fixed location given by proframmer

B : Any location which is free

C : Fixed location given by assembler


D : Any location and overwrites existing contents

Q.no 27. Format of macro call is

A : <macro name> [<actual parameter spec>,…]

B : <macro name> [<formal parameter spec>,…]

C : <macro name>

D : <call macro>

Q.no 28. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by

A : protection algorithm with each page

B : restricted access rights to users

C : restriction on page visibility

D : protection bit with each page

Q.no 29. Translator for low level programming language were termed as

A : Compiler

B : Interpreter

C : Assembler

D : Loader

Q.no 30. Yacc resolves conflicts by of type ?

A : Reduce - Reduce

B : Shift - Reduce

C : Shift - Shift

D : Both A and B

Q.no 31. The concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

A : Paging

B : Demand paging

C : Segmentation
D : Swapping

Q.no 32. The time taken for the desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called

A : positioning time

B : random access time

C : seek time

D : rotational latency

Q.no 33. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?

A : First come First served

B : Shortest Job First

C : Earliest Deadline First

D : Longest Job First

Q.no 34. Linking is process of binding

A : Internal part of a program

B : external functional call

C : External reference to the correct link time address

D : None of the above

Q.no 35. Which one is a lexer Generator

A : YACC

B : BISON

C : FLEX

D : Iburg

Q.no 36. Shell is the exclusive feature of

A : Dos

B : Unix

C : System software
D : Application software

Q.no 37. Machine independent phase of the compiler is

A : syntax analysis and Lexical analysis

B : only lexical analysis

C : Code optimization

D : code generation

Q.no 38. In this policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction, the
arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A : Last in first out

B : Shortest service time first

C : SCAN

D : Circular SCAN

Q.no 39. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user,
the OS or file management system must enforce discipline. This is

A :  Simultaneous access

B : Compaction

C : External Fragmentation

D : Division

Q.no 40. Pass-1 of two pass assmbler is used for

A : synthesizing code

B : gathering information

C : processing macro

D : expanding macro

Q.no 41. YACC stands for

A : yet accept compiler constructs

B : yet accept compiler compiler


C : yet another compiler constructs

D : yet another compiler compiler

Q.no 42. Given a priori information about the number of resources of each type
that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an algorithm
that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.

A : minimum

B : average

C : maximum

D : approximate

Q.no 43. The linker is

A : is same as the loader

B : is required to create a load module

C : is always used before programs are executed

D : translator

Q.no 44. The translator which translates high level language to machine code is

A : compiler

B : assembler

C : loader

D : interpreter

Q.no 45. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called

A : Ambiguous

B : Unambiguous

C : Regular

D : None of these

Q.no 46. If the wait for graph contains a cycle

A : then a deadlock does not exist


B : then a deadlock exists

C : then the system is in a safe state

D : either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state

Q.no 47. which directive sets the LC with address specified with address
specification.

A : START

B : END

C : ORIGIN

D : Both START and ORIGIN

Q.no 48. The valid – invalid bit, in this case, when valid indicates?

A : the page is not legal

B : the page is illegal

C : the page is in memory

D : the page is not in memory

Q.no 49. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 50. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that

A : Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs

B : Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs

C : Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system

D : Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system

Q.no 51. RLD in Direct linking loader stands for

A : Redirection and Load Directory


B : Relocation & Linkage Directory

C : Relocation and Load Directory

D : Redirection and Linkage Directory

Q.no 52. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can
be implemented in hardware?

A : Counters

B : RAM & Registers

C : Stack & Counters

D : Registers

Q.no 53. An imperative statement

A : Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

B : Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

C : Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

D : allocate space for literals

Q.no 54. These file are often used where very rapid access is required, where
fixed length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a
time.

A : Indexed files

B : Direct files

C : Sequential files

D : Indexed Sequential files

Q.no 55. An assembler is

A : programming language dependent

B : syntax dependant

C : machine dependant

D : data dependant
Q.no 56. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator

Q.no 57. Each request requires that the system consider to decide whether the
current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a future possible deadlock.

A : resources currently available

B : processes that have previously been in the system

C : resources currently allocated to each process

D : future requests and releases of each process

Q.no 58. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the state to


ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.

A : resource allocation state

B : system storage state

C : operating system

D : resources

Q.no 59. A compiler bridges the semantic gap between …………

A : PL domain and storage domain

B : execution domain and syntax domain

C : PL domain and execution domain

D : PL domain only

Q.no 60. If linked origin is not equal to translated address then relocation is
performed by

A : Absolute Loader

B : Loader
C : Linker

D : Assembler

Q.no 1. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always ?

A : Text editor

B : Assembler

C : Linker

D : Loader

Q.no 2. Which   module deals with the device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling  the device.

A : Directory Management

B : Logical I/O

C : Device I/O

D : Scheduling and control

Q.no 3. A macro is

A : a small program inside a program

B : set of special instructions

C : a unit of specification for program generation through expansion

D : same as function

Q.no 4. The method of synchronizing the processor with the I/O device in which
the device sends a signal when it is ready is?

A : Exceptions

B : Signal handling

C : Interrupts

D : DMA

Q.no 5. Which of the following type of software should be used if you need to
create,edit and print document  ?

A : word proccessor
B : spreadsheet

C : desktop publishing

D : Unix

Q.no 6. Output file of Lex is _____ , if the input file is Myfile.

A : Myfile.e

B : Myfile.yy.c

C : Myfile.lex

D : Myfile.obj

Q.no 7. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready


queue, its priority is compared with the priority of

A : all process

B : currently running process

C : parent process

D : init process

Q.no 8. Which statement declare the name of macro.

A : macro prototype

B : macro definition

C : macro identification

D : macro call

Q.no 9. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is

A : The former offers faster transfer of data

B : The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

C : The devices have to deal with fewer address lines

D : No advantage as such

Q.no 10. Expansion time variables are used

A : Before expansion of macro calls


B : only during expansion of macro calls

C : After expansion of macro calls

D : Any one of the above

Q.no 11. The last statement of the source program should be

A : Stop

B : Return

C : OP

D : End

Q.no 12. The function of OS

A : Resource allocator

B : control program

C : create user friendly env.

D : All

Q.no 13. Relocatable programs

A : cannot be used with fixed partitions

B : can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

C : do not need a linker

D : can be loaded only at one specific location

Q.no 14. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as

A : seek time

B : rotational delay

C : access time

D : Transfer time

Q.no 15. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?
A : Dispatcher

B : interrupt

C : scheduler

D : interpreter

Q.no 16. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

A : shortest job scheduling algorithm

B : round robin scheduling algorithm

C : priority scheduling algorithm

D : multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Q.no 17. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is
called as

A : Polling

B : Inspection

C : Reviewing

D : Echoing

Q.no 18. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a
program into a form suitable for execution  ?

A : Assembler

B : Linking loader

C : Cross compiler

D : Load and Go

Q.no 19. syntax analyzer or parser takes the input from a ______________

A : Lexical analyser

B : Syntactic Analyser

C : Semantic Analyser

D : None of the mentioned


Q.no 20. The output of a lexical analyzer is

A : Machine code

B : Intermediate code

C : A stream of tokens

D : A parse tree

Q.no 21. Input of Lex is ?

A : set to regular expression

B : statement

C : Numeric data

D : ASCII data

Q.no 22. If a number of instructions are repeating through the main program,
then what is to be used to reduce the length of the program

A : procedure

B : subroutine

C : macro

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 23. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A : using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

B : using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling
algorithm

C : using extremely small time slices increases performance

D : using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm

Q.no 24. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to physical address because

A : it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location

B : it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address
space of a process
C : it is required by the translation lookaside buffer

D : it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms

Q.no 25. In which disk information is recorded magnetically on platters.

A : magnetic disks

B : electrical disks

C : assemblies

D : cylinders

Q.no 26. System programmer needs

A : knowledge of only system

B : knowledge of only programming

C : knowledge of both system and application programming

D : knowledge of hardware

Q.no 27. Lexemes can be referred to as

A : elements of lexicography

B : sequence of alphanumeric characters in a token

C : lexical errors

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 28. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated
page

A : is in the TLB

B : has data in it

C : is in the process’s logical address space

D : is the system’s physical address space

Q.no 29. Process are classified into different groups in

A : a process can move to a different classified ready queue

B : classification of ready queue is permanent


C : processes are not classified into groups

D : processes are classified into groups

Q.no 30. START pseudo code is used for

A : setting initial value of LC and specifies start of program

B : Specifying start of a Register Table

C : specifies start of literal table

D : specifies start of symbol table

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Lexemes?

A : Identifiers

B : Constants

C : Keywords

D : context free grammar

Q.no 32.  Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TL consists of

A : key

B : value

C : bit value

D : constant

Q.no 33. Which of the following table is used to identify macro calls?

A : Macro Name table

B : Actual Parameter Table

C : Parameter Default table

D : Exapansion time variable Table

Q.no 34. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

A : FCFS – First come First served

B : SJF – Shortest Job First


C : RR – Round Robin

D : priority

Q.no 35. The beginning of the macro definition can be represented as

A : START

B : BEGIN

C : MACRO

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 36. which of these is not a pseudocode/assembler directive

A : USING

B : BALR

C : DROP

D : ORG

Q.no 37. Operating system is

A : system software

B : application software

C : both 1 & 2

D : not a software

Q.no 38. In which algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves
toward the other end, servicing requests till the other end of the disk. At the
other end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.

A : LOOK

B : SCAN

C : C-SCAN

D : C-LOOK

Q.no 39. __________ a part of a compiler that takes as input a stream of characters
and produces output as a meaningful token .

A : Parser
B : Optimizer

C : Scanner

D : Loader

Q.no 40. System softwares are used to

A : bridge gap between different applications

B : bridge gap between different users

C : bridge gap between programmer and system

D : bridge gap between different systems

Q.no 41. In the optimized technique for sequential access removes a page from
the buffer as soon as the next page is requested.

A : write ahead

B : read ahead

C : free-behind

D : add-front

Q.no 42. Which of the following software tool is parser generator ?

A : Lex

B : Yacc

C : Iburg

D : both 1 & 3

Q.no 43. In a two pass assembler the object code generation is done during the ?

A : Second pass

B : First pass

C : Zeroth pass

D : Not done by assembler

Q.no 44. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space
but not loaded in physical memory, then what occurs
A : page fault occurs

B : fatal error occurs

C : segmentation fault occurs

D : no error occurs

Q.no 45. Forward reference table(FRT) is arranged like -

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked list

D : Double linked list

Q.no 46. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex than page
replacement algorithms because

A : Segments are better than pages

B : Pages are better than segments

C : Segments have variable sizes

D : Segments have fixed sizes

Q.no 47. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

A : time sharing systems

B : multiprogramming systems

C : multiprocessor systems

D : operating systems

Q.no 48. Libraries that are loaded and unloaded as and when needed is called as

A : Static Linking library

B : Dynamic linking library

C : load time linking library

D : Both 1 & 2

Q.no 49. Using a pager


A : increases the swap time

B : decreases the swap time

C : decreases the swap time & amount of physical memory needed

D : increases the amount of physical memory needed

Q.no 50. s free space management has the advantages that it relatively easy to
find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 51. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady’s Anomaly?

A : Optimal replacement

B : LRU

C : FIFO

D : Both optimal replacement and FIFO

Q.no 52. Which method on free space management, each block is assigned in a
reserved portion of the disk.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 53. Static memory allocation is typically performed during

A : compilation

B : execution

C : loading

D : linking
Q.no 54. Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its
grammatical structure becomes known is termed as

A : Semantic analysis

B : Syntax analysis

C : Regular analysis

D : General analysis

Q.no 55. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a
running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by

A : the instruction set architecture

B : page size

C : physical memory size

D : number of processes in memory

Q.no 56. In free space management, which method has negligible space overhead
because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a pointer to the
beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A : Bit tables

B : Chained Free Portions

C : Indexing

D : Free Block List

Q.no 57. An interpreter is

A : A program that places programs into


memory an prepares them for execution

B : A program that appears to execute a source


program as if it were machine language

C : A program that automate the translation of


assembly language into machine language

D : A program that accepts a program written in


high level language and produces an object
program

Q.no 58. How Sequential access method works on random access devices.
A : works well

B : doesnt work well

C : maybe works well and doesnt work well

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 59. The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are

A : Virtual page number

B : Page frame number

C : Both virtual page number and page frame number

D : Access right information

Q.no 60. When expression "int var1,var2;' is tokenized then what is the token
category of 'var1 '

A : Identifier

B : Number

C : Keyword

D : operator
TatyaVinchu Original

TatyaVinchu s'
System Programing Operating System 
          Viva Questions         

A list of top frequently asked SPOS viva questions and


answers are given below.
1) What is an operating system?
The operating system is a software program that
facilitates computer hardware to communicate and
operate with the computer software. It is the most
important part of a computer system without it
computer is just like a box.
2) What is the main purpose of an operating system?
There are two main purposes of an operating system:
It is designed to make sure that a computer system
performs well by managing its computational
activities.
It provides an environment for the development and
execution of programs.
3) What are the different operating systems?
Batched operating systems
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Distributed operating systems


Timesharing operating systems
Multi-programmed operating systems
Real-time operating systems
4) What is a socket?
A socket is used to make connection between two
applications. Endpoints of the connection are called
socket.
5) What is a real-time system?
Real-time system is used in the case when rigid-time
requirements have been placed on the operation of a
processor. It contains a well defined and fixed time
constraints.
6) What is kernel?
Kernel is the core and most important part of a
computer operating system which provides basic
services for all parts of the OS.
7) What is monolithic kernel?
A monolithic kernel is a kernel which includes all
operating system code is in single executable image.
8) What do you mean by a process?
An executing program is known as process. There are
two types of processes:
Operating System Processes
User Processes
9) What are the different states of a process?
A list of different states of process:
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New Process
Running Process
Waiting Process
Ready Process
Terminated Process
10) What is the difference between micro kernel and
macro kernel?
Micro kernel: micro kernel is the kernel which runs
minimal performance affecting services for operating
system. In micro kernel operating system all other
operations are performed by processor.
Macro Kernel: Macro Kernel is a combination of
micro and monolithic kernel.
11) What is the concept of reentrancy?
It is a very useful memory saving technique that is
used for multi-programmed time sharing systems. It
provides functionality that multiple users can share a
single copy of program during the same period.
It has two key aspects:
The program code cannot modify itself.
The local data for each user process must be stored
separately.
12) What is the difference between process and
program?
A program while running or executing is known as a
process.
13) What is the use of paging in operating system?
Paging is used to solve the external fragmentation
problem in operating system. This technique ensures
TatyaVinchu Original

that the data you need is available as quickly as


possible.
14) What is the concept of demand paging?
Demand paging specifies that if an area of memory is
not currently being used, it is swapped to disk to
make room for an application's need.
15) What is the advantage of a multiprocessor
system?
As many as processors are increased, you will get the
considerable increment in throughput. It is cost
effective also because they can share resources. So,
the overall reliability increases.
16) What is virtual memory?
Virtual memory is a very useful memory
management technique which enables processes to
execute outside of memory. This technique is
especially used when an executing program cannot fit
in the physical memory.
17) What is thrashing?
Thrashing is a phenomenon in virtual memory
scheme when the processor spends most of its time in
swapping pages, rather than executing instructions.
18) What are the four necessary and sufficient
conditions behind the deadlock?
These are the 4 conditions:
1) Mutual Exclusion Condition: It specifies that the
resources involved are non-sharable.
2) Hold and Wait Condition: It specifies that there
must be a process that is holding a resource already
allocated to it while waiting for additional resource
that are currently being held by other processes.
TatyaVinchu Original

3) No-Preemptive Condition: Resources cannot be


taken away while they are being used by processes.
4) Circular Wait Condition: It is an explanation of the
second condition. It specifies that the processes in the
system form a circular list or a chain where each
process in the chain is waiting for a resource held by
next process in the chain.
19) What is a thread?
A thread is a basic unit of CPU utilization. It consists
of a thread ID, program counter, register set and a
stack.
20) What is FCFS?
FCFS stands for First Come, First Served. It is a type of
scheduling algorithm. In this scheme, if a process
requests the CPU first, it is allocated to the CPU first.
Its implementation is managed by a FIFO queue.
21) What is SMP?
SMP stands for Symmetric MultiProcessing. It is the
most common type of multiple processor system. In
SMP, each processor runs an identical copy of the
operating system, and these copies communicate with
one another when required.
22) What is RAID? What are the different RAID levels?
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent
Disks. It is used to store the same data redundantly to
improve the overall performance.
Following are the different RAID levels:
RAID 0 - Stripped Disk Array without fault tolerance
RAID 1 - Mirroring and duplexing
RAID 2 - Memory-style error-correcting codes
TatyaVinchu Original

RAID 3 - Bit-interleaved Parity


RAID 4 - Block-interleaved Parity
RAID 5 - Block-interleaved distributed Parity
RAID 6 - P+Q Redundancy
23) What is deadlock? Explain.
Deadlock is a specific situation or condition where
two processes are waiting for each other to complete
so that they can start. But this situation causes hang
for both of them.
24) Which are the necessary conditions to achieve a
deadlock?
There are 4 necessary conditions to achieve a
deadlock:
Mutual Exclusion: At least one resource must be held
in a non-sharable mode. If any other process requests
this resource, then that process must wait for the
resource to be released.
Hold and Wait: A process must be simultaneously
holding at least one resource and waiting for at least
one resource that is currently being held by some
other process.
No preemption: Once a process is holding a resource (
i.e. once its request has been granted ), then that
resource cannot be taken away from that process
until the process voluntarily releases it.
Circular Wait: A set of processes { P0, P1, P2, . . ., PN }
must exist such that every P[ i ] is waiting for P[ ( i + 1
) % ( N + 1 ) ].
Note: This condition implies the hold-and-wait
condition, but it is easier to deal with the conditions if
the four are considered separately.
TatyaVinchu Original

25) What is Banker's algorithm?


Banker's algorithm is used to avoid deadlock. It is the
one of deadlock-avoidance method. It is named as
Banker's algorithm on the banking system where
bank never allocates available cash in such a manner
that it can no longer satisfy the requirements of all of
its customers.
26) What is the difference between logical address
space and physical address space?
Logical address space specifies the address that is
generated by CPU. On the other hand physical
address space specifies the address that is seen by the
memory unit.
27) What is fragmentation?
Fragmentation is a phenomenon of memory wastage.
It reduces the capacity and performance because
space is used inefficiently.
28) How many types of fragmentation occur in
Operating System?
There are two types of fragmentation:
Internal fragmentation: It is occurred when we deal
with the systems that have fixed size allocation units.
External fragmentation: It is occurred when we deal
with systems that have variable-size allocation units.
29) What is spooling?
Spooling is a process in which data is temporarily
gathered to be used and executed by a device,
program or the system. It is associated with printing.
When different applications send output to the
printer at the same time, spooling keeps these all jobs
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into a disk file and queues them accordingly to the


printer.
30) What is the difference between internal
commands and external commands?
Internal commands are the built-in part of the
operating system while external commands are the
separate file programs that are stored in a separate
folder or directory.
31) What is semaphore?
Semaphore is a protected variable or abstract data
type that is used to lock the resource being used. The
value of the semaphore indicates the status of a
common resource.
There are two types of semaphore:
Binary semaphores
Counting semaphores
32) What is a binary Semaphore?
Binary semaphore takes only 0 and 1 as value and
used to implement mutual exclusion and synchronize
concurrent processes.
33) What is Belady's Anomaly?
Belady's Anomaly is also called FIFO anomaly.
Usually, on increasing the number of frames allocated
to a process virtual memory, the process execution is
faster, because fewer page faults occur. Sometimes,
the reverse happens, i.e., the execution time increases
even when more frames are allocated to the process.
This is Belady's Anomaly. This is true for certain page
reference patterns.
34) What is starvation in Operating System?
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Starvation is Resource management problem. In this


problem, a waiting process does not get the resources
it needs for a long time because the resources are
being allocated to other processes.
35) What is aging in Operating System?
Aging is a technique used to avoid the starvation in
resource scheduling system.
36) What are the advantages of multithreaded
programming?
A list of advantages of multithreaded programming:
Enhance the responsiveness to the users.
Resource sharing within the process.
Economical
Completely utilize the multiprocessing architecture.
37) What is the difference between logical and
physical address space?
Logical address specifies the address which is
generated by the CPU whereas physical address
specifies to the address which is seen by the memory
unit.
After fragmentation
38) What are overlays?
Overlays makes a process to be larger than the
amount of memory allocated to it. It ensures that only
important instructions and data at any given time are
kept in memory.
39) When does trashing occur?
Thrashing specifies an instance of high paging
activity. This happens when it is spending more time
TatyaVinchu Original

paging instead of executing.


Basic OS Interview Questions
1. Why is the operating system important?
OS is the most essential and vital part of a computer
without which it is considered useless. It enables an
interface or acts like a link for interaction between
computer software that is installed on OS and users.
It also helps to communicate with hardware and also
maintains balance among hardware and CPU. It also
provides services to users and a platform for
programs to run on. It performs all common tasks
applications require. 
2. What's the main purpose of an OS? What are the
different types of OS?
The main purpose of an OS is to execute user
programs and make it easier for users to understand
and interact with computers as well as run
applications. It is specially designed to ensure that the
computer system performs better by managing all
computational activities. It also manages computer
memory, processes, and operation of all hardware
and software.
Types of OS:
Batched OS (Example: Payroll System, Transactions
Process, etc.)
Multi-Programmed OS (Example: Windows O/S, UNIX
O/S, etc.)
Timesharing OS (Example: Multics, etc.)
Distributed OS (LOCUS, etc.)
Real-Time OS (PSOS, VRTX, etc.)
3. What are the benefits of a multiprocessor system?
TatyaVinchu Original

A Multiprocessor system is a type of system that


includes two or more CPUs. It involves the processing
of different computer programs at the same time
mostly by a computer system with two or more CPUs
that are sharing single memory. 
Benefits:
Such systems are used widely nowadays to improve
performance in systems that are running multiple
programs concurrently. 
By increasing the number of processors, a greater
number of tasks can be completed in unit time. 
One also gets a considerable increase in throughput
and is cost-effective also as all processors share the
same resources.
It simply improves the reliability of the computer
system.
4. What is RAID structure in OS? What are the
different levels of RAID configuration?
RAID (Redundant Arrays of Independent Disks) is a
method used to store data on Multiple hard disks
therefore it is considered as data storage
virtualization technology that combines multiple
hard disks. It simply balances data protection, system
performance, storage space, etc. It is used to improve
the overall performance and reliability of data
storage. It also increases the storage capacity of the
system and its main purpose is to achieve data
redundancy to reduce data loss. 
Different levels of RAID
Nowadays, RAID is available in various schemes or
RAID level as given below:
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RAID 0 - Non-redundant striping: This level is used to


increase the performance of the server.
RAID 1 - Mirroring and duplexing: This level is also
known as disk mirroring and is considered the
simplest way to implement fault tolerance.
RAID 2 - Memory-style error-correcting codes: This
level generally uses dedicated hamming code parity
I.e., a liner form of error correction code.
RAID 3 - Bit-interleaved Parity: This level requires a
dedicated parity drive to store parity information.
RAID 4 - Block-interleaved Parity: This level is similar
to RAID 5 but the only difference is that this level
confines all parity data to a single drive.
RAID 5 - Block-interleaved distributed Parity: This
level provides far better performance than disk
mirroring and fault tolerance.
RAID 6 - P+Q Redundancy: This level generally
provides fault tolerance for two drive failures.
5. What is GUI?
GUI (Graphical User Interface) is basically a type of
user interface that allows users to use graphics to
interact with OS. GUI is created because it is more
user-friendly, less complex, and easier to understand
rather than a command-line interface. Its main goal is
to increase efficiency and ease of use. Instead of
having to memorize commands, users can just click
on a button to simply execute the procedure.
Examples of GUI include Microsoft Windows, macOS,
Apple’s iOS, etc.
6. What is a Pipe and when it is used?
The pipe is generally a connection among two or
more processes that are interrelated to each other. It
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is a mechanism that is used for inter-process


communication using message passing.  One can
easily send information such as the output of one
program process to another program process using a
pipe. It can be used when two processes want to
communicate one-way i.e., inter-process
communication (IPC).
7. What are the different kinds of operations that are
possible on semaphore?
There are basically two atomic operations that are
possible:
Wait()
Signal()
8. What is a bootstrap program in OS?
It is generally a program that initializes OS during
startup i.e., first code that is executed whenever
computer system startups. OS is loaded through a
bootstrapping process or program commonly known
as booting. Overall OS only depends on the bootstrap
program to perform and work correctly. It is fully
stored in boot blocks at a fixed location on the disk. It
also locates the kernel and loads it into the main
memory after which the program starts its execution.
9. Explain demand paging?
Demand paging is a method that loads pages into
memory on demand. This method is mostly used in
virtual memory. In this, a page is only brought into
memory when a location on that particular page is
referenced during execution. The following steps are
generally followed:
Attempt to access the page.
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If the page is valid (in memory) then continue


processing instructions as normal.
If a page is invalid then a page-fault trap occurs.
Check if the memory reference is a valid reference to
a location on secondary memory. If not, the process is
terminated (illegal memory access). Otherwise, we
have to page in the required page.
Schedule disk operation to read the desired page into
main memory.
Restart the instruction that was interrupted by the
operating system trap.
10. What do you mean by RTOS?
Real Time Operating System (RTOS) is an operating
system that is used for real-time applications i.e., for
those applications where data processing should be
done in a fixed and small measure of time. It
performs much better on tasks that are needed to be
executed within a short time. It also takes care of
execution, monitoring, and all-controlling processes.
It also occupies less memory and consumes fewer
resources. 
Types of RTOS:
Hard Real-Time
Firm Real-Time
Soft Real-Time
RTOS is used in Air traffic control systems, Anti-lock
Brake Systems, and Heart pacemakers.
11. What do you mean by process synchronization?
Process synchronization is basically a way to
coordinate processes that use shared resources or
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data. It is very much essential to ensure synchronized


execution of cooperating processes so that will
maintain data consistency. Its main purpose is to
share resources without any interference using
mutual exclusion. There are two types of process
synchronization:
Independent Process
Cooperative Process
12. What is IPC? What are the different IPC
mechanisms?
IPC (Interprocess Communication) is a mechanism
that requires the use of resources like a memory that
is shared between processes or threads. With IPC, OS
allows different processes to communicate with each
other. It is simply used for exchanging data between
multiple threads in one or more programs or
processes. In this mechanism, different processes can
communicate with each other with the approval of
the OS.
Different IPC Mechanisms:
Pipes
Message Queuing
Semaphores
Socket
Shared Memory
Signals
13. What is different between main memory and
secondary memory.
Main memory: Main memory in a computer is RAM
(Random Access Memory). It is also known as
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primary memory or read-write memory or internal


memory. The programs and data that the CPU
requires during the execution of a program are
stored in this memory.
Secondary memory: Secondary memory in a
computer are storage devices that can store data and
programs. It is also known as external memory or
additional memory or backup memory or auxiliary
memory. Such storage devices are capable of storing
high-volume data. Storage devices can be hard drives,
USB flash drives, CDs, etc. 
Primary MemorySecondary MemoryData can be
directly accessed by the processing unit.Firstly, data is
transferred to primary memory and after then routed
to the processing unit.It can be both volatile and non-
volatile in nature.It is non-volatile in nature.It is more
costly than secondary memory.It is more cost-
effective or less costly than primary memory.It is
temporary because data is stored temporarily.It is
permanent because data is stored permanently.In this
memory, data can be lost whenever there is a power
failure.In this memory, data is stored permanently
and therefore cannot be lost even in case of power
failure.It is much faster than secondary memory and
saves data that is currently used by the computer.It is
slower as compared to primary memory and saves
different kinds of data in different formats.It can be
accessed by data.It can be accessed by I/O channels.
14. What do you mean by overlays in OS?
Overlays is basically a programming method that
divides processes into pieces so that instructions that
are important and need can be saved in memory. It
does not need any type of support from the OS. It can
run programs that are bigger in size than physical
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memory by only keeping only important data and


instructions that can be needed at any given time. 
15. Write top 10 examples of OS?
Some of the top OS’s that are used mostly are given
below:
MS-Windows
Ubuntu
Mac OS
Fedora
Solaris
Free BSD
Chrome OS
CentOS
Debian
Android
Intermediate OS Interview Questions
16. What is virtual memory?
It is a memory management technique feature of OS
that creates the illusion to users of a very large (main)
memory. It is simply space where a greater number of
programs can be stored by themselves in the form of
pages. It enables us to increase the use of physical
memory by using a disk and also allows us to have
memory protection. It can be managed in two
common ways by OS i.e., paging and segmentation. It
acts as temporary storage that can be used along with
RAM for computer processes. 
17. What is thread in OS?
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Thread is a path of execution that is composed of a


program counter, thread id, stack, and set of registers
within the process. It is a basic unit of CPU utilization
that makes communication more effective and
efficient, enables utilization of multiprocessor
architectures to a greater scale and greater efficiency,
and reduces the time required in context switching. It
simply provides a way to improve and increase the
performance of applications through parallelism.
Threads are sometimes called lightweight
processes because they have their own stack but can
access shared data. 
Multiple threads running in a process share: Address
space, Heap, Static data, Code segments, File
descriptors, Global variables, Child processes,
Pending alarms, Signals, and signal handlers. 
Each thread has its own: Program counter, Registers,
Stack, and State.
18. What is a process? What are the different states of
a process?
The process is basically a program that is currently
under execution. The main function of an OS is to
manage and handle all of these processes. When a
program is loaded into the memory and it becomes a
process, it can be divided into four sections ─ stack,
heap, text, and data. There are two types of processes:
Operating System Processes
User Processes

States of Process:
Different states of the process through which process
goes are given below:
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New State: In this state, a process is just created.


Running: In this state, the CPU starts working on the
process’s instructions.
Waiting: In this state, the process cannot run because
it just waits for some event to occur
Ready: In this state, the process has all resources
available that are required to run but it waits to get
assigned to a processor because CPUs are not working
currently on instructions passed by the process.
Terminate: In this state, the process is completed I.e.,
the process has finished execution.
19. What do you mean by FCFS?
FCFS (First Come First Serve) is a type of OS
scheduling algorithm that executes processes in the
same order in which processes arrive. In simple
words, the process that arrives first will be executed
first. It is non-preemptive in nature. FCFS scheduling
may cause the problem of starvation if the burst time
of the first process is the longest among all the jobs.
Burst time here means the time that is required in
milliseconds by the process for its execution. It is also
considered the easiest and simplest OS scheduling
algorithm as compared to others. Implementation of
FCFS is generally managed with help of the FIFO
(First In First Out) queue. 
20. What is Reentrancy?
Reentrant is simply a function in which various
clients can use and shares a single copy of a program
during a similar period. This concept is generally
associated with OS code and does not deal with
concurrency. It has two major functions:
Program code cannot change or modify itself.
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Local data for every client process needs to be stored


in different disks.
21. What is a Scheduling Algorithm? Name different
types of scheduling algorithms.
A scheduling algorithm is a process that is used to
improve efficiency by utilizing maximum CPU and
providing minimum waiting time to tasks. It simply
deals with the problem of deciding which of
outstanding requests is to be allocated resources. Its
main aim is to reduce resource starvation and to
ensure fairness amongst parties that are utilizing the
resources. In simple words, it is used to allocate
resources among various competing tasks. 
Types of Scheduling Algorithm
There are different types of scheduling algorithms as
given below:
First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) Scheduling
Shortest-Job-Next (SJN) Scheduling
Priority Scheduling
Shortest Remaining Time
Round Robin(RR) Scheduling
Multiple-Level Queues Scheduling
First Come First Serve (FCFS)
Jobs are executed on first come, first serve basis.
It is a non-preemptive, pre-emptive scheduling
algorithm.
Easy to understand and implement.
Its implementation is based on FIFO queue.
Poor in performance as average wait time is high.
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Shortest Job Next (SJN)


This is also known as shortest job first, or SJF
This is a non-preemptive, pre-emptive scheduling
algorithm.
Best approach to minimize waiting time.
Easy to implement in Batch systems where required
CPU time is known in advance.
Impossible to implement in interactive systems
where required CPU time is not known.
The processer should know in advance how much
time process will take.
Priority Based Scheduling
Priority scheduling is a non-preemptive algorithm
and one of the most common scheduling algorithms
in batch systems.
Each process is assigned a priority. Process with
highest priority is to be executed first and so on.
Processes with same priority are executed on first
come first served basis.
Priority can be decided based on memory
requirements, time requirements or any other
resource requirement.
Shortest Remaining Time
Shortest remaining time (SRT) is the preemptive
version of the SJN algorithm.
The processor is allocated to the job closest to
completion but it can be preempted by a newer ready
job with shorter time to completion.
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Impossible to implement in interactive systems


where required CPU time is not known.
It is often used in batch environments where short
jobs need to give preference.
Round Robin Scheduling
Round Robin is the preemptive process scheduling
algorithm.
Each process is provided a fix time to execute, it is
called a quantum.
Once a process is executed for a given time period, it
is preempted and other process executes for a given
time period.
Context switching is used to save states of preempted
processes.
Multiple-Level Queues Scheduling
Multiple-level queues are not an independent
scheduling algorithm. They make use of other
existing algorithms to group and schedule jobs with
common characteristics.
Multiple queues are maintained for processes with
common characteristics.
Each queue can have its own scheduling algorithms.
Priorities are assigned to each queue.
For example, CPU-bound jobs can be scheduled in one
queue and all I/O-bound jobs in another queue. The
Process Scheduler then alternately selects jobs from
each queue and assigns them to the CPU based on the
algorithm assigned to the queue.
22. What is the difference between paging and
segmentation?
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Paging: It is generally a memory management


technique that allows OS to retrieve processes from
secondary storage into main memory. It is a non-
contiguous allocation technique that divides each
process in the form of pages. 
Segmentation: It is generally a memory management
technique that divides processes into modules and
parts of different sizes. These parts and modules are
known as segments that can be allocated to process. 
PagingSegmentationIt is invisible to a programmer.It
is visible to a programmer.In this, the size of pages is
fixed.In this, the size of segments is not
fixed.Procedures and data cannot be separated in
paging.Procedures and data can be separated in
segmentation.It allows a cumulative total of virtual
address spaces to cross physical main memory.It
allows all programs, data, and codes to break up into
independent address spaces.It is mostly available on
CPUs and MMU chips.It is mostly available on
Windows servers that may support backward
compatibility, while Linux has limited support.It is
faster for memory access as compared to
segmentation.It is slower as compared to paging.In
this, OS needs to maintain a free frame.In this, OS
needs to maintain a list of holes in the main
memory.In paging, the type of fragmentation is
internal.In segmentation, the type of fragmentation is
external.The size of the page is determined by
available memory.The size of the page is determined
by the user.
23. What is thrashing in OS?
It is generally a situation where the CPU performs less
productive work and more swapping or paging work.
It spends more time swapping or paging activities
rather than its execution. By evaluating the level of
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CPU utilization, a system can detect thrashing. It


occurs when the process does not have enough pages
due to which the page-fault rate is increased. It
inhibits much application-level processing that causes
computer performance to degrade or collapse. 
24. What is the main objective of multiprogramming?
It refers to the ability to execute or perform more
than one program on a single processor machine.
This technique was introduced to overcome the
problem of underutilization of CPU and main
memory. In simple words, it is the coordination of
execution of various programs simultaneously on a
single processor (CPU). The main objective of
multiprogramming is to have at least some processes
running at all times. It simply improves the
utilization of the CPU as it organizes many jobs where
the CPU always has one to execute. 

25. What do you mean by asymmetric clustering?


Asymmetric Clustering is generally a system in which
one of the nodes among all nodes is in hot standby
mode whereas the rest of all nodes run different
applications. It simply uses whole or entire hardware
resources therefore it is considered a more reliable
system as compared to others. 
26. What is the difference between multitasking and
multiprocessing OS?
Multitasking: It is a system that allows more efficient
use of computer hardware. This system works on
more than one task at one time by rapidly switching
between various tasks. These systems are also known
as time-sharing systems. 
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Multiprocessing: It is a system that allows multiple or


various processors in a computer to process two or
more different portions of the same program
simultaneously. It is used to complete more work in a
shorter period of time. 
 
MultitaskingMultiprocessingIt performs more than
one task at a time using a single processor.It performs
more than one task at a time using multiple
processors.In this, the number of CPUs is only one.In
this, the number of CPUs is more than one.It is more
economical.It is less economical.It is less efficient
than multiprocessing.It is more efficient than
multitasking.It allows fast switching among various
tasks.It allows smooth processing of multiple tasks at
once.It requires more time to execute tasks as
compared to multiprocessing.It requires less time for
job processing as compared to multitasking.
27. What do you mean by Sockets in OS?
The socket in OS is generally referred to as an
endpoint for IPC (Interprocess Communication). Here,
the endpoint is referred to as a combination of an IP
address and port number.  Sockets are used to make
it easy for software developers to create network-
enabled programs. It also allows communication or
exchange of information between two different
processes on the same or different machines. It is
mostly used in client-server-based systems. 
Types of Sockets
There are basically four types of sockets as given
below:
Stream Sockets
Datagram Sockets
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Sequenced Packet Sockets


Raw Sockets
28. Explain zombie process?
Zombie process, referred to as a defunct process, is
basically a process that is terminated or completed
but the whole process control block is not cleaned up
from the main memory because it still has an entry in
the process table to report to its parent process. It
does not consume any of the resources and is dead,
but it still exists. It also shows that resources are held
by process and are not free.
29. What do you mean by cascading termination?
Cascading termination is a process termination in
which if the parent process is exiting or terminating
then the children process will also get terminated. It
does not allow the child to continue processing as its
parent process terminates. It is generally initiated by
OS.
30. What is starvation and aging in OS?
Starvation: It is generally a problem that usually
occurs when a process has not been able to get the
required resources it needs for progress with its
execution for a long period of time. In this condition,
low priority processes get blocked and only high
priority processes proceed towards completion
because of which low priority processes suffer from
lack of resources. 
Aging: It is a technique that is used to overcome the
situation or problem of starvation. It simply increases
the priority of processes that wait in the system for
resources for a long period of time. It is considered
the best technique to resolve the problem of
starvation as it adds an aging factor to the priority of
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each and every request by various processes for


resources. It also ensures that low-level queue jobs or
processes complete their execution. 
Advanced OS Interview Questions
31. What do you mean by Semaphore in OS? Why is it
used?
Semaphore is a signaling mechanism. It only holds
one positive integer value. It is simply used to solve
the problem or issue of critical sections in the
synchronization process by using two atomic
operations i.e., wait() and signal(). 
Types of Semaphore
There are usually two types of semaphores as given
below:
Binary Semaphore
Counting Semaphore
Binary SemaphoreMutexIt allows various process
threads to get the finite instance of the resource until
resources are available.It allows various process
threads to get single shared resource only at a time.Its
functions are based upon signaling mechanisms.Its
functions are based upon a locking
mechanism.Binary semaphores are much faster as
compared to Mutex.Mutex is slower as compared to
binary semaphores.It is basically an integer.It is
basically an object.
32. What is Kernel and write its main functions?
The kernel is basically a computer program usually
considered as a central component or module of OS.
It is responsible for handling, managing, and
controlling all operations of computer systems and
hardware. Whenever the system starts, the kernel is
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loaded first and remains in the main memory. It also


acts as an interface between user applications and
hardware.

Functions of Kernel:
It is responsible for managing all computer resources
such as CPU, memory, files, processes, etc.
It facilitates or initiates the interaction between
components of hardware and software.
It manages RAM memory so that all running
processes and programs can work effectively and
efficiently.
It also controls and manages all primary tasks of the
OS as well as manages access and use of various
peripherals connected to the computer.
It schedules the work done by the CPU so that the
work of each user is executed as efficiently as
possible.
33. What are different types of Kernel?
There are basically five types of Kernels as given
below:
Monolithic Kernel
MicroKernel
Hybrid Kernel 
Nano Kernel
Exo Kernel
34. Write difference between micro kernel and
monolithic kernel?
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MicroKernel: It is a minimal OS that executes only


important functions of OS. It only contains a near-
minimum number of features and functions that are
required to implement OS. 
Example: QNX, Mac OS X, K42, etc.
Monolithic Kernel: It is an OS architecture that
supports all basic features of computer components
such as resource management, memory, file, etc. 
Example: Solaris, DOS, OpenVMS, Linux, etc. 
MicroKernelMonolithic KernelIn this software or
program, kernel services and user services are
present in different address spaces.In this software or
program, kernel services and user services are
usually present in the same address space.It is
smaller in size as compared to the monolithic
kernel.It is larger in size as compared to a
microkernel.It is easily extendible as compared to a
monolithic kernel.It is hard to as extend as compared
to a microkernel.If a service crashes, it does affect on
working of the microkernel.If a service crashes, the
whole system crashes in a monolithic kernel.It uses
message queues to achieve inter-process
communication.It uses signals and sockets to achieve
inter-process communication.
35. What is SMP (Symmetric Multiprocessing)?
SMP is generally referred to as computer architecture
in which the processing of programs is done by
multiple processors that share a common OS and
memory. SMP is very much required if you want to
take advantage of multiprocessor hardware. It simply
enables any processor to work on any of the tasks no
matter where data or resources for that particular
task are located in memory. These systems are more
reliable than single-processor systems. 
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36. What is a time-sharing system?


It is a system that allows more than one user to access
the resources of a particular system in many
locations. In simple words, it performs multiple tasks
on a single processor or CPU. As the name suggests, it
means to share time into multiple slots in several
processes. It also allows different users from different
locations to use a particular computer system at the
same time therefore it is considered one of the
important types of OS.
37. What is Context Switching?
Context switching is basically a process of saving the
context of one process and loading the context of
another process. It is one of the cost-effective and
time-saving measures executed by CPU the because it
allows multiple processes to share a single CPU.
Therefore, it is considered an important part of a
modern OS. This technique is used by OS to switch a
process from one state to another i.e., from running
state to ready state. It also allows a single CPU to
handle and control various different processes or
threads without even the need for additional
resources.
38. What is difference between Kernel and OS?
Kernel: Kernel is a system program that controls all
programs running on the computer. The kernel is
basically a bridge between the software and
hardware of the system.
Operating System: Operating system is a system
program that runs on the computer to provide an
interface to the computer user so that they can easily
operate on the computer.
KernelOSIt is considered a central component of OSIt
is considered system software.It is generally
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responsible for converting user commands into


machine-level commands.It is generally responsible
for managing the resources of system.It simply acts as
an interface between hardware and applications.It
simply acts as an interface between hardware and
user.It also performs functions like process
management, file management, device management,
I/O communication, etc.It also performs functions like
providing security to data and files in the the system,
providing access controls to users, maintaining the
system privacy, etc.Its type includes Microkernel,
Monolithic kernel, etc.Its type includes Single and
Multiprogramming batch systems, Distributed OS,
Real-time OS.
39. What is difference between process and thread?
Process: It is basically a program that is currently
under execution by one or more threads. It is a very
important part of the modern-day OS.
Thread: It is a path of execution that is composed of
the program counter, thread id, stack, and set of
registers within the process.
ProcessThreadIt is a computer program that is under
execution.It is the component or entity of the process
that is the smallest execution unit.These are heavy-
weight operators.These are lightweight operators.It
has its own memory space.It uses the memory of the
process they belong to.It is more difficult to create a
process as compared to creating a thread.It is easier
to create a thread as compared to creating a process.It
requires more resources as compared to thread.It
requires fewer resources as compared to processes.It
takes more time to create and terminate a process as
compared to a thread.It takes less time to create and
terminate a thread as compared to a process.It
usually run-in separate memory space.It usually run-
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in shared memory space.It does not share data.It


shares data with each other.It can be divided into
multiple threads.It can’t be further subdivided.
40. What are various sections of the process?
There are basically four sections in the process as
given below:
Stack: It is used for local variables and returns
addresses. 
Heap: It is used for dynamic memory allocation.
Data: It stores global and static variables.
Code or text: It comprises compiled program code.
41. What is a deadlock in OS? What are the necessary
conditions for a deadlock?
Deadlock is generally a situation where a set of
processes are blocked as each process is holding
resources and waits to acquire resources held by
another process. In this situation, two or more
processes simply try to execute simultaneously and
wait for each to finish their execution because they
are dependent on each other. We can see a hand
problem in our system whenever a deadlock occurs
in a program. It is one of the common problems you
can see in multiprocessing. 
Necessary Conditions for Deadlock
There are basically four necessary conditions for
deadlock as given below:
Mutual Exclusion
Hold and Wait
No Pre-emption
Circular Wait or Resource Wait
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42. What do you mean by Belady’s Anomaly?


In the Operating System, process data is loaded in
fixed-sized chunks and each chunk is referred to as a
page. The processor loads these pages in the fixed-
sized chunks of memory called frames. Belady’s
Anomaly is a phenomenon in which if we increase
the number of frames in memory, then the number of
page faults also increases. It is generally experienced
when we use FIFO (First in First out) page
replacement algorithm. 
43. What is spooling in OS?
Spooling simply stands for Simultaneous peripheral
operations online. It is referred to as putting data of
various I/O jobs in a buffer. Here, buffer means a
special area in memory or hard disk that can be
accessible to an I/O device. It is used for mediation
between a computer application and a slow
peripheral. It is very useful and important because
devices access or acquire data at different rates. This
operation also uses disk as a very large buffer and is
capable of overlapping I/O operations for one task
with processor operations for another task.
Question: What is an operating system?
Answer: It is a program that provides an interface
between the software and hardware of a computer.
In other words, an OS offers an environment for the
user to execute software using hardware.
Question: Name some functions of the operating
system.
Answer:
Memory management
Processor management
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Device management
File management
Security
Job accounting
Control over system performance
Error detection
Communicate between user and software
Communication between software and hardware.
Question: Name the different operating systems.
Answer:
Batched operating system.
Interactive operating system
Multi-processing operating system
Multitasking operating system
Distributed operating system
Multi-programmed operating system
Real-Time operating system
Timesharing operating system
Question: List the basic functions of OS file
management.
Answer:
Create and delete directories and files.
Use secondary storage for creating backup files.
Map file in secondary storage.
Give support to file modification.
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Question: What is booting?


Answer: It is a procedure of turning on the computer
by loading the kernel.
Question: What is the bootstrap program?
Answer: It is a program that resides in the kernel of
an operating system, and when we boot the system, it
is the first program that executes and stores the read-
only memory (ROM).
Question: What is the use of an operating system?
Answer: An operating system acts as a management
system between the system software and hardware,
and guides hardware to act according to the provided
software. It also controls the flow of the program and
provides an environment so the software can
communicate with system hardware.
Question: Define a multi-programming system.
Answer: In the multi-programming system, the
system keeps different programs in different parts of
the main memory simultaneously, and executes each
of those concurrently.
Question: Define multitasking systems.
Answer: In a multitasking system, programs are kept
in the main memory so the system can execute them
simultaneously.
Question: What are the time-sharing systems?
Answer: In time-sharing systems, multiple users can
use a specific program from different terminals at the
same time.
Operating System Interview Questions Set-II [11 to 20]
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Question: Give the advantages of a multiprocessor


system.
Answer: Multi-processor, as the name suggests, uses
more than one processor. With an increase in the
processor count, the processing capability of the
system increases too.
Question: What is virtual memory?
Answer: Virtual memory is a memory management
method that helps to execute a process using primary
and secondary memories. Though the program gets
executed using the main memory, the resources and
pages load from the secondary memory.
Question: What is a kernel in an operating system?
Answer: It is an essential part of the operating
system, also known as the core of the OS. It is present
in the main memory of the system and loads before
any other part of the operating system. Every OS
consists of a kernel. For example, the Linux kernel is
one of the famous kernels, and Android also uses this
kernel.
Question: What are the main functions of a kernel in
an operating system?
Answer:
Process management
Resource management
Disk management
Memory management
Device management
Facilitate communication between hardware and
software.
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Question: Define the 2 most popular types of kernels.


Answer: Though there are many types of kernels,
only 2 of them are the most popular:
Monolithic Kernel
MicroKernel
Monolithic Kernel: In this type of OS kernel, all the
user services and kernel services reside in the same
memory space. Old operating systems would use this
type of kernel. Some examples are Windows 95, 98,
and Unix. Linux also uses it.
MicroKernel: This type of kernel is small in size, and
all the user and kernel services reside in different
memory addresses. Operating systems like macOS
and Windows use microkernel.
Question: Give some disadvantages of Microkernel.
Answer:
Complex process management.
Debugging the messaging is complex.
Loss in performance because of the requirement of
more software.
Question: What is SMP?
Answer: It stands for Symmetric Multiprocessing
(SMP), and it is an architecture that contains multiple
processors to complete the process. All the processors
share a single memory.
Question: What is asymmetric clustering?
Answer: Asymmetric clustering occurs when the
server running the application finds some kind of
cluster. In asymmetric clustering, one server tries to
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run the server application while others remain on


standby mode.
Question: Explain a thread?
Answer: It is a flow of execution through the process
code. A thread deals with the instruction to be
executed.
Question: What is demanding paging?
Answer: Demanding pages is a concept used by the
virtual machine. Only a part of the process needs to
be present in the main memory to execute some
process, which means that only a few pages will only
be present in the main memory at any time, and the
rest will be kept in the secondary memory.
Operating System Interview Questions Set-III [21 to
30]
Question: What is a process?
Answer: A program in execution is known as a
process.
Question: Name all the states of a Process.
Answer:
New
Running
Waiting
Ready
Terminate
Question: How is a thread different from a process?
Answer:
The process is independent, whereas a thread is not.
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A thread can assist other threads, whereas the


process can not.
If one thread stops, the next thread starts executing,
but this is not the case with a process.
Question: What is a deadlock?
Answer: When 2 processes are trying to execute
simultaneously, and they are waiting for each other to
finish the execution, as they are dependent on each
other, this halt in execution is known as a deadlock.
When the deadlock occurs in the program, the system
usually freezes.
Question: What are the necessary conditions for a
deadlock?
Answer:
Mutual Exclusion
Hold and wait
No preemption
Circular wait
Question: What is starvation?
Answer: When a program is in process, and it does
not get all the resources to execute, because other
processes are using the same resources then this
problem of not getting all needed resources is known
as starvation.
Question: What is the difference between
multitasking and multi-processing operating systems?
Answer:
Multi-TaskingMulti-ProcessingThe operating system
executes more than one task simultaneously using a
single processor.The operating system executes more
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than one task using multiple processors.Only one


processor executes the tasks.More than one processor
executes tasks.It takes a moderate amount of time to
execute all the tasks.It generally takes very little time
to execute all tasks.The processor shifts from one task
to another, which makes it look like it is executing
multiple tasks simultaneously, but, actually, here we
only have one processor for task execution.Here, we
have more than one processor. So multiple processes
can be executed at the same time.
Question: Differentiate between paging and
segmentation.
Answer:
PagingSegmentationDivides the virtual memory into
physical memory.Divides the physical memory to the
logical memory.Paging divides the memory into fixed
length.Segmentation divides the memory into
arbitrary memory length.Only loads information
about the process.Loads the full logical portion of the
page.Pages are smaller than segments.Segments are
generally larger.It’s the hardware that divides the
paging memory.The software divides the
segmentation memory.
Question: What is a command interpreter?
Answer: It is a text field I/O interface between the
user and the operating system. In the command
interpreter, the user gives input through the
keyboard using CLI commands. Command Prompt in
Windows and Terminal in Linux and macOS are
examples of the command interpreter.
Question: What is a daemon?
Answer: It stands for Disk and Execution monitor,
and it is a long-running background process that acts
on the request. The life cycle of the daemon
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commences with the system booting and continues


until the system shuts down.
Operating System Interview Questions Set-IV [31 to
40]
Question: From where does the daemon originate and
how we classify it?
Answer: The term daemon originated with UNIX.
In UNIX, the daemon conventionally ends with ‘d’, for
example ‘inetd’, ‘nfsd’, httpd’, and ‘lpd’.
Question: What is the race condition?
Answer: It is a situation that occurs when different
operations are performed on the same data
simultaneously, and the outcome of the execution
depends on the order of the operations performed on
the data. Evidently, the race condition can provide an
undesirable outcome.
Question: What is process synchronization?
Answer: When the race condition occurs, it can lead
to an undesirable outcome. So to prevent the race
condition, we follow a process known as
synchronization. Here, we ensure that only one
process executes at a time.
Question: Explain PCB?
Answer: PCB stands for Process Control Block, and it
an operating system data structure, which can collect
and store information about the processes. It is also
known as the process descriptor.
As soon as a process gets created, the OS creates a
corresponding PCB to store the process status and
information. With each transition, OS updates the
PCB data structure.
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Question: What is Semaphore?


Answer: It is a variable that is used to create a
synchronized process. There are 2 types of
semaphores:
Counting semaphore.
Binary semaphore.
Counting semaphore can have positive integer values,
and Binary semaphore can only have 1 and 0 as
variables.
Question: Explain FCFS and the main problem it
causes.
Answer: It stands for First Come First Serve (FCFS),
and it is a scheduling algorithm. According to this
algorithm, the CPU serves that process first, which
approaches it first. FCFS can cause the starvation
problem in which the process does not get the proper
resources.
Question: Name the different RAID levels.
Answer:
0 – Non-redundant striping
1 – Mirrored Disks
2 – Memory-style error-correcting codes
3 – Bit-interleaved Parity
4 – Block-interleaved Parity
5 – Block-interleaved distributed Parity
6 – P+Q Redundancy
Question: What is cache memory?
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Answer: It is a volatile computer memory directly


attached to the register, which provides high-speed
data access to the processor.
Question: What is IPC?
Answer: IPC stands for Inter-Process Communication,
and it is a mechanism, in which various processes can
communicate with each other with the approval of
the OS.
Question: Name the Various IPC mechanisms.
Answer:
Sockets
Pipe
Shared Memory
Signals
Message Queues
Operating System Interview Questions Set-V [41 to 50]
Question: What is a context switch?
Answer: Context can be referred to as the data in the
register. A context switch is a procedure in which the
CPU changes from one task to another task.
Question: Give the difference between compiler and
Interpreter.
Answer: A compiler first reads all the code at once
and then tries to execute it, whereas an interpreter
reads the code line by line and simultaneously
executes it.
Question: What are sockets?
Answer: Sockets are the Inter-process
Communication mechanisms that are used to provide
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point-to-point communication between 2 processes.


Sockets are often utilized in client-server applications
because many protocols, such as FTP, SMTP, and POP3
use sockets to implement the connection between
server and client.
Question: What do you understand by the main
memory and secondary memory?
Answer: Main memory is directly connected to the
computer processor, and it acts as a bridge between
computer processors and secondary memory. The
main objective of the main memory is to get the data
from the secondary memory and feed it to the
processor so that the appropriate actions could be
performed.
RAM and ROM are the 2 main memories used by the
system, whereas hard disk and other large-sized
memories form the secondary memory.
As compared to the secondary memory, the main
memory is straightforward and it is fast to access data
from the main memory. That’s why processors
directly communicate with the main memory.
Generally, the main memory does not store data
permanently. Instead, it only holds data for a specific
time and tries to give it to the processor for the
further execution process.
Question: Can there be a deadlock situation with a
single process?
Answer: No, to occur a deadlock situation, we need at
least 2 dependent processes. A deadlock situation can
only arise when these 4 conditions coincide:
Hold and Wait
No Preemption
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Mutual Exclusion
Circular wait.
Question: What are interrupts?
Answer: These are the signals generated by the
external input devices to stop the ongoing active
process of the CPU. Interrupts use context switching
so the CPU can switch between the current process
and the new signal generated by the external device.
Interrupts help in prioritizing the process execution
of the CPU.
Question: What are zombie processes?
Answer: Formally, these processes are known
as defunct processes. If a child process is still in the
process table even after the parent process has been
executed, this scenario could cause a zombie process.
Even the kill commands do not have any effect on
these processes. If the Wait System Call read the exit
status of the process, then the zombie process would
remove from the process table.
Question: Explain pipe in OS?
Answer: Pipe is the method for exchanging
information between processes. Generally, pipe forms
a one-way communication, which means by using a
pipe, a process can only send information, such as
output or other parameters of the process to another
process.
For setting a two-way communication between 2
processes, we require 2 pipes for both directions.
Question: What is the limitation of pipes for two-way
communication between 2 processes?
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Answer: If both the processes are the child process of


the same parent, then only two-way pipe
communication could be set between the processes.
Question: What do you know about the named pipe?
Answer: Generally, we use the un-named pipe to set
communication between the related process, but if
we want to communicate unrelated processes, then
we need to use named pipes. Like a traditional
unnamed pipe, named pipe is also a part of IPC
(Interprocess Communication), and its life remains
until the system is on.
Operating System Interview Questions Set-VI [51 to
60]
Question: Name the operations which are possible on
a semaphore.
Answer: We can only perform 2 operations on a
semaphore:
Wait, and
Signal.
Question: What do you know about mutex?
Answer: It is an abbreviation for Mutual Exclusion. It
is a userspace program object that helps multiple
threads to access the same resource, but not
simultaneously. The sole purpose of a mutex is to lock
a thread with a resource so the other threads can not
use the same resource until the first thread finish
executing.
Question: What is a critical section?
Answer: The program will behave oddly if program
parts perform concurrent access to the shared
resources. So to protect the shared resources of a
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program, we create a protected section, which is


known as the critical section or critical region.
A critical section can only execute one process at a
time, and this eliminates the problems that can be
caused by concurrent accessing resources.
Question: What is process scheduling?
Answer: It is a routine followed by the process
manager of the system. In this, the process manager
can use different methods and strategies to remove a
particular running process or select another process
for the CPU.
Question: What is the difference between preemptive
and non-preemptive scheduling?
Answer: Scheduling is divided into 2 categories;
preemptive scheduling and non-preemptive
scheduling.
Preemptive SchedulingNon-Preemptive
SchedulingProcesses are allocated to the CPU for a
limited period.A process remains in the CPU till it gets
entirely executed.If there is a new process that comes
with high priority, then the ongoing CPU process has
to stop.Here the priority of the process does not
matter. The new process has to wait until the first
process finishes execution.There is a continuous
switching between the running and ready states of
the processes.This is not the case in non-preemptive
scheduling.Preemptive schedules the process on the
basis of their priority.Non-preemptive uses the
process burst time.There is a high probability that the
process with less priority will starve.Here process
with less burst time will starve.
Question: Name the various scheduling algorithms.
Answer:
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First Come First Serve (FCFS).


Shortest Job First (SJF).
Priority Scheduling
Round Robin Scheduling
First Come First Serve: It follows the non-preemptive
scheduling, and here the process requesting first gets
the CPU.
Shortest Job First: It could be preemptive or non-
preemptive. In this algorithm, that process gets the
CPU that is closest to its execution. Here, CPU gives
priority to those jobs which have a low execution
time.
Priority Based Scheduling: It is also a preemptive
algorithm, and here CPU is allocated to those
processes first that have a high priority.
Round Robin Scheduling: It is a preemptive
scheduling algorithm, and here each process gets
equal time for execution.
Question: What are condition variables?
Answer: These are the synchronization objects, which
can set some conditions for threads, and if the
condition occurs then only the appropriate
operations can be performed by the threads.
If the situation does not arise, then the threads have
to wait for further execution. A condition variable is
often used with critical sections and slim readers,
where they help in binding and holding the threads.
Question: What is the reader-writer lock?
Answer: Reader-writer lock is used to prevent data
integrity. This lock allows concurrent access to read
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operation, which means multiple threads can read


data simultaneously.
But it does not allow concurrent write, and if one
thread wants to modify data via writing, then all the
other threads will be blocked from reading or writing
data.
Question: What are the different types of memory
used by the system?
Answer:
Main memory, such as RAM and ROM.
Secondary memory, such as hard disk and e-drives.
Cache.
Internal process memory, such as registers.
Question: What is compaction?
Answer: The free memory of the system gets split into
smaller pieces when a process loads or is removed
from the memory. Compaction helps in accumulating
these small loose pieces of memory into one
substantial chunk so that more memory can be
allocated to other processes.
Operating System Interview Questions Set-VII [61 to
70]
Question: What is a page in OS?
Answer: A page can be defined as the smallest unit of
data, and it is a fixed-length contiguous block of
virtual memory.
Question: Explain page frames.
Answer: When a page is transferred from the
secondary memory to the main memory, then it
requires a fixed length of a continuous physical
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memory block, known as a page frame. It is the job of


the operating system to map the pages in the page
frames.
Question: What is the difference between logical and
physical addresses?
Answer:
Logical AddressPhysical AddressThe CPU generates
it.It is the real address of the program in the
memory.A user can access the logical address of the
program.The physical address can be accessed
directly.CPU generates a logical address at the
execution time.It is generated by the Memory
Management Unit(MMU) at the creation time.
Question: What is the page fault?
Answer: It is an error that occurs when the CPU tries
to access a specific block of memory address that is
not present in the physical memory (RAM).
Question: What is thrashing?
Answer: It is a scenario when continuous page fault
and paging activities occur. Thrashing could lead to a
program collapse and degraded CPU performance.
Question: What do you know about the library?
Answer: A library is a collection of files that contains
subroutines, data, and other objects that can be used
by other programs.
Question: What is the difference between a program
and a process?
Answer:
ProgramProcessIt is a set of instructions that are
written in a specific programming language.It is an
instance of a program that is about to be executed by
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one or many threads.A program is static in nature


that is present in the file.Processes are dynamic and
generated during execution time.Programs are
generally stored in secondary memory, which makes
them portable.Processes are not portable and they
reside in the main memory.The program can live in
the main memory for eternity.A process time period
is limited and it either executes or fails.Programs are
passives entities.Processes are active entities.
Question: What are APIs?
Answer: API stands for Application Program
Interface, and it is a collection of libraries and
subprograms. APIs are used to set communication
between 2 programs i.e. API provides a general way
of sending and receiving data between applications.
Question: What is Belady’s anomaly?
Answer: It is a situation that occurs in the OS when
there is an increase in page faults by the CPU because
additional memory has been introduced to the
system, which results in increasing page frames.
Question: What do you know about cascading
termination?
Answer: When a process finishes execution, then the
OS terminates the process via the exit system call.
Only the parent process can cause the termination of
its child processes, so when the parent process gets
entirely executed and terminated, then its child
process also gets terminated automatically.
This phenomenon of a process triggering termination
of another process is known as cascading termination
System Software LAB Viva Questions :-
1. Explain system software.
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It consists of variety of programs that supports the


operation of the
computer. This software makes it possible for the
user to focus on the other problems to be solved with
out needing to know how the machine works
internally.
Eg: operating system, assembler, loader.
2. Give some applications of operating system.
to make the computer easier to use
to manage the resources in computer
process management
data and memory management
to provide security to the user.
Operating system acts as an interface between the
user and the system
Eg:windows,linux,unix,dos
3. Explain compiler and interpreter.
Compiler is a set of program which converts the
whole high level
language program to machine language program.
Interpreter is a set of programs which converts high
level language program to machine
language program line by line.
4. Explain loader.
Loader is a set of program that loads the machine
language translated by the translator into the main
memory and makes it ready for execution.
5. What is the need of MAR register?
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MAR (memory address register) is used to store the


address of the
memory from which the data is to be read or to
which the data is to be written.
6. Draw SS instruction format.
opcode L B1 D1 B2 D2
0 7 8 15 16 19 20 31 32 35 36 47
It is a 6 byte instruction used to move L+I bytes data
fro the storage
location1 to the storage location2.
Storage location1 = D1+[B1]
Storage location2 = D2+[B2]
Eg: MOV 60,400(3),500(4)
7. Give any two differences between base relative
addressing and program counter
relative addressing used in SIC/XE.
8. Explain indirect addressing
In the case of immediate addressing the operand field
gives the memory
location. The word from the given address is fetched
and it gives the address of the operand.
Eg:ADD R5, [600]
Here the second operand is given in indirect
addressing mode. First the word in memory location
600 is fetched and which will give the address of the
operand.
9. Explain immediate addressing.
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In this addressing mode the operand value is given


directly. There is no need to refer memory. The
immediate addressing is indicated by the prefix ‘#’.
Eg: ADD #5
In this instruction one operand is in accumulator and
the second operand is an immediate value the value 5
is directly added with the accumulator content and
the result is stored in accumulator.
10. List out any two CISC and RISC machine.
CISC –Power PC, Cray T3E
RISC – VAX,Pentium Pro architecture
11. Following is a memory configuration:
Address Value Register R
155
57
65
12. Following is a memory configuration:
Address Value Register R
496
57
62
13. What is the name of A and L register in SIC
machine and also specify its use.
A-accumulator: Used for arithmetic operation. i.e., in
the case of arithmetic operations one operand is in
the accumulator, and other operand may be an
immediate value, register operand or memory
content. The operation given in the instruction is
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performed and the result is stored in the accumulator


register.
L-linkage register: It is used to store the return
address in the case of jump to subroutine (JSUB)
instructions.
14. What are the instruction formats used in SIC/XE
architecture? Give any one format.
Format 1 (1 byte), Format 2 (2 bytes), Format 3 (3
bytes) & Format 4(4
bytes)
Format 2:
844
OPCODE R1 R2
15. Consider the instructions in SIC/ XE programming
10 1000 LENGTH RESW 4
22
20 —– NEW WORD 3
16. What is the difference between the instructions
LDA # 3 and LDA THREE?
In the first instruction immediate addressing is used.
Here the value 3 is directly loaded into the
accumulator register. In the second instruction the
memory reference is used. Here the address(address
assigned for the symbol THREE) is loaded into the
accumulator register.
17. Differentiate trailing numeric and leading
separate numeric.
The numeric format is used to represent numeric
values with one digit per byte. In the numeric format
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if the sign appears in the last byte it is known as the


trailing numeric. If the sign appears in a separate
byte preceding the first digit then it is called as
leading separate
numeric.
18. What are the addressing modes used in VAX
architecture?
Register direct; register deferred, auto increment and
decrement,
program counter relative, base relative, index
register mode and indirect addressing are the various
addressing modes in VAX architecture.
19. How do you calculate the actual address in the
case of register indirect with immediate index mode?
Here the target address is calculated using the
formula
T.A =(register) + displacement.
20. Write the sequence of instructions to perform the
operation BETA = ALPHA + 1 using SIC instructions.
LDA ALPHA
ADD ONE
STA BETA
…. ….
ALPHA RESW 1
BETA RESW 1
ONE RESW 1
21. Write the sequence of instructions to perform the
operation
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BETA = ALPHA+5
using SIC/XE instructions.
23
LDA ALPHA
ADD #1
STA BETA
…. ….
ALPHA RESW 1
BETA RESW 1
22. What is the use of TD instruction in SIC
architecture?
The test device (TD) instruction tests whether the
addressed device is
ready to send or receive a byte of data. The condition
code is set to indicate the result of this test. Setting of
< means the device is ready to send or receive, and =
means the device is not ready.
23. What is the result of the following statement?
SUB 4(direct) to R (direct)
Here one operand is in the address location 4(direct
addressing) and the next operand is in the register
(register direct).
The resultant value is 9 –6 =3.
24. What is the result of the following statement?
Base relative addressing PC relative addressing Here
the Target address is calculated using the formula
Target address = Displacement + [B] B-base register
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Here the target address is calculated using the


formula Target address = Displacement + [PC]
PC-program counter
Displacement lies between 0 to 4095 Displacement
lies between –2048 to
2047
21
ADD 6(immediate) to R (indirect)
Here 6 is the immediate data and the next value is
indirect data. ie, the register contains the address of
the operand. Here the address of the operand is 5 and
its corresponding value is 7.
6 + [R] = 6+ [5] = 6+ 7 =13
25. What is the value assign to the symbol NEW?
In the line 10 the address is 1000 and the instruction
is RESW 4.It
reserves 4 word (3 x 4 =12) areas for the symbol
LENGTH. hence 12 is added to the LOCCTR. Thus the
value of the symbol NEW is 1000+12 =100C.
ASSEMBLERS ::
26. Define the basic functions of assembler.
* Translating mnemonic operation codes to their
machine language
equivalents.
* Assigning machine addresses to symbolic labels
used by the
programmer.
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27. What is meant by assembler directives? Give


example.
These are the statements that are not translated into
machine instructions, but they provide instructions to
assembler itself.
example START,END,BYTE,WORD,RESW and RESB.
28. What are forward references?
It is a reference to a label that is defined later in a
program.
Consider the statement
10 1000 STL RETADR
....
....
80 1036 RETADR RESW 1
The first instruction contains a forward reference
RETADR. If we attempt to translate the program line
by line, we will unable to process the statement in
line10 because we do not know the address that will
be assigned to RETADR .The address is assigned
later(in line 80) in the program.
29. What are the three different records used in
object program?
The header record, text record and the end record are
the three different records used in object program.
The header record contains the program name,
starting address and
length of the program.
Text record contains the translated instructions and
data of the program.
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End record marks the end of the object program and


specifies the address in the program where execution
is to begin.
30. What is the need of SYMTAB (symbol table) in
assembler?
The symbol table includes the name and value for
each symbol in the
source program, together with flags to indicate error
conditions. Some times it may contain details about
the data area. SYMTAB is usually organized as a hash
table for efficiency of insertion and retrieval.
31. What is the need of OPTAB (operation code table)
in assembler?
The operation code table contains the mnemonic
operation code and its
machine language equivalent. Some assemblers it
may also contain information about instruction
format and length. OPTAB is usually organized as a
hash table, with mnemonic operation code as the key.
32. What are the symbol defining statements
generally used in assemblers?
‘EQU’-it allows the programmer to define symbols and
specify their
values directly. The general format is Symbol EQU
value
‘ORG’-it is used to indirectly assign values to symbols.
When this
statement is encountered the assembler resets its
location counter to the specified value. The general
format is ORG value
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In the above two statements value is a constant or an


expression
involving constants and previously defined symbols.
33. Explain relocatable program.
An object program that contains the information
necessary to perform
required modification in the object code depends on
the starting location of the program during load time
is known as relocatable program.
34. Differentiate absolute expression and relative
expression.
If the result of the expression is an absolute value
(constant) then it is known as absolute expression.
Eg: BUFEND – BUFFER
If the result of the expression is relative to the
beginning of the program then it is known as relative
expression. label on instructions and data areas and
references to the location counter values are relative
terms.
Eg: BUFEND + BUFFER
35. Write the steps required to translate the source
program to object program.
Convert mnemonic operation codes to their machine
language
equivalents.
Convert symbolic operands to their equivalent
machine addresses
Build the machine instruction in the proper format.
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Convert the data constants specified in the source


program into their internal machine representation
Write the object program and assembly listing.
36. What is the use of the variable LOCCTR (location
counter) in assembler?
This variable is used to assign addresses to the
symbols. LOCCTR is
initialized to the beginning address specified in the
START statement. After each source statement is
processed the length of the assembled instruction or
data area to be generated is added to LOCCTR and
hence whenever we reach a label in the source
program the current value of
LOCCTR gives the address associated with the label.
37. Define load and go assembler.
One pass assembler that generates their object code
in memory for
immediate execution is known as load and go
assembler. Here no object programmer is written out
and hence no need for loader.
38. What are the two different types of jump
statements used in MASM assembler?
Near jump
A near jump is a jump to a target in the same segment
and it is assembled by using a current
code segment CS.
Far jump
A far jump is a jump to a target in a different code
segment and it is assembled by using different
segment registers .
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39. What is the use of base register table in AIX


assembler?
A base register table is used to remember which of
the general purpose
registers are currently available as base registers and
also the base addresses they contain.
.USING statement causes entry to the table and .DROP
statement
removes the corresponding table entry.
40. Differentiate the assembler directives RESW and
RESB.
RESW –It reserves the indicated number of words for
data area.
Eg: 10 1003 THREE RESW 1
In this instruction one word area (3 bytes) is reserved
for the symbol
THREE. If the memory is byte addressable then the
address assigned for the next symbol is 1006.
RESB –It reserves the indicated number of bytes for
data area.
Eg: 10 1008 INPUT RESB 1
In this instruction one byte area is reserved for the
symbol INPUT .Hence the address assigned for the
next symbol is 1009.
41. Define modification record and give its format.
This record contains the information about the
modification in the object code during program
relocation. the general format is Col 1 M
TatyaVinchu Original

Col 2-7 Starting location of the address field to be


modified relative to the beginning of the program
Col 8-9 length of the address field to be modified in
half bytes.
42. Write down the pass numbers (PASS 1/ PASS 2) of
the following activities that occur in a two pass
assembler:
a. Object code generation
b. Literals added to literal table
c. Listing printed
d. Address location of local symbols
Answer:
a. Object code generation – PASS 2
b. Literals added to literal table – PASS 1
c. Listing printed – PASS2
d. Address location of local symbols – PASS1
43. What is meant by machine independent
assembler features?
The assembler features that do not depend upon the
machine
architecture are known as machine independent
assembler features.
Eg: program blocks, Literals.
44. How the register to register instructions are
translated in assembler?
In the case of register to register instructions the
operand field contains the register name. During the
translation first the object code is converted into its
TatyaVinchu Original

corresponding machine language equivalent with the


help of OPTAB. Then the SYMTAB is searched for the
numeric equivalent of register and that value is
inserted into the operand field.
Eg: 125 1036 RDREC CLEAR X B410
B4-macine equivalent of the opcode CLEAR
10-numeric equivalent of the register X.
45. What is meant by external references?
Assembler program can be divided into many
sections known as control
sections and each control section can be loaded and
relocated independently of the others. If the
instruction in one control section need to refer
instruction or data in another control section.the
assembler is unable to process these references in
normal way. Such
references between control are called external
references.
46. Define control section.
A control section is a part of the program that
maintains its identity after assembly; each control
section can be loaded and relocated independently of
the others. Control sections are most often used for
subroutines. The major benefit of using control
sections is to increase flexibility.
47. What is the difference between the assembler
directive EXTREF and EXTDEF.
EXTDEF names external symbols that are defined in a
particular control
TatyaVinchu Original

section and may be used in other sections. EXTREF


names external symbols that are referred in a
particular control section and defined in another
control section.
48. Give the general format of define record.
This record gives information about external symbols
that are defined in a particular control section. The
format is
Col 1 D
Col 2-7 name of external symbol defined in this
control section
Col 8-13 relative address of the symbol with in this
control section
Col 14-73 name and relative address for other
external symbols.
49. Give the use of assembler directive CSECT and USE
CSECT – used to divide the program into many control
sections
USE – used to divide the program in to many blocks
called program blocks
50. What is the use of the assembler directive START?
The assembler directive START gives the name and
starting address of
the program.
The format is
PN START 1000
Here
PN – Name of the program
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1000 – Starting address of the program.


SS LAB VIVA Questions ::
LOADERS AND LINKERS ::
1. What are the basic functions of loaders?
Loading – brings the object program into memory for
execution
Relocation – modifies the object program so that it
can be loaded at an address different from the
location originally specified
Linking – combines two or more separate object
programs and also
supplies the information needed to reference them.
2. Define absolute loader.
The loader, which is used only for loading, is known
as absolute loader.
e.g. Bootstrap loader
3. What is meant by bootstrap loader?
This is a special type of absolute loader which loads
the first program to be run by the computer. (usually
an operating system)
4. What are relative (relocative) loaders?
Loaders that allow for program relocation are called
relocating
(relocative) loaders.
5. What is the use of modification record?
Modification record is used for program relocation.
Each modification
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record specifies the starting address and the length of


the field whose value is to be altered and also
describes the modification to be performed.
6. What are the 2 different techniques used for
relocation?
Modification record method and relocation bit
method.
7. Define Relocation bit method.
If the relocation bit corresponding to a word of object
code is set to 1, the program’s starting address is to be
added to this word when the program is relocated. Bit
value 0 indicates no modification is required.
8. Define bit mask.
The relocation bits are gathered together following
the length indicator in each text record and which is
called as bit mask. For e.g. the bit mask
FFC(111111111100) specifies that the first 10 words of
object code are to be modified during relocation.
9. What is the need of ESTAB?
It is used to store the name and address of the each
external symbol. It also indicates in which control
section the symbol is defined.
10. What is the use of the variable PROGADDR?
It gives the beginning address in memory where the
linked program is to be loaded. The starting address is
obtained from the operating system.
11. Write the two passes of a linking loader.
Pass1: assigns address to all external symbols
Pass2: it performs actual loading, relocation and
linking.
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12. Define automatic library search.


In many linking loaders the subroutines called by the
program being
loaded are automatically fetched from the library,
linked with the main program and loaded. This
feature is referred to as automatic library search.
13. List the loader options INCLUDE &DELETE.
The general format of INCLUDE is INCLUDE
program_name (library name)
This command direct the loader to read the
designated object program
from a library and treat it as the primary loader
input.
The general format of DELETE command is
DELETE Csect-name
It instructs the loader to delete the named control
sections from the sets of programs loaded.
14. Give the functions of the linking loader.
The linking loader performs the process of linking
and relocation. It
includes the operation of automatic library search
and the linked programs are directly loaded into the
memory.
15. Define dynamic linking.
If the subroutine is loaded and linked to the program
during its first call (run time), then it is called as
dynamic loading or dynamic linking.
16. Write the advantage of dynamic linking.
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It has the ability to load the routine only when they


are needed.
The dynamic linking avoids the loading of entire
library for each execution.
17. What is meant by static executable and dynamic
executable?
In static executable, all external symbols are bound
and ready to run. In dynamic executables some
symbols are bound at run time.
18. What is shared and private data?
The data divided among processing element is called
shared data. If the data is not shared among
processing elements then it is called private data.
19. Write the absolute loader algorithm.
Begin
Read Header record
Verify program name and length
Read first text record
While record type != ‘E’ do
Begin
Moved object code to specified location in memory
Read next object program record
End
Jump to address specified in End record
MACRO PROCESSORS ::
1. Define macro processor.
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Macro processor is system software that replaces


each macro instruction with the corresponding group
of source language statements. This is also called as
expanding of macros.
2. What do macro expansion statements mean?
These statements give the name of the macro
instruction being invoked
and the arguments to be used in expanding the
macros. These statements are also known as macro
call.
3. What are the directives used in macro definition?
MACRO – it identifies the beginning of the macro
definition
MEND – it marks the end of the macro definition
4. What are the data structures used in macro
processor?
DEFTAB – the macro definitions are stored in a
definition table i.e. it contains a macro prototype and
the statements that make up the macro body.
NAMTAB – it is used to store the macro names and it
contains two
pointers for each macro instruction which indicate
the starting and end location of macro definition in
DEFTAB. it also serves as an index to DEFTAB
ARGTAB – it is used to store the arguments during the
expansion of macro invocations.
5. Define conditional macro expansion.
If the macro is expanded depends upon some
conditions in macro
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definition (depending on the arguments supplied in


the macro expansion) then it is called as conditional
macro expansion.
6. What is the use of macro time variable?
Macro time variable can be used to store working
values during the macro expansion. Any symbol that
begins with the character & and then is not a macro
instruction parameter is assumed to be a macro time
variable.
7. What are the statements used for conditional
macro expansion?
IF-ELSE-ENDIF statement
WHILE-ENDW statement
8. What is meant by positional parameters?
If the parameters and arguments were associated
with each other
according to their positions in the macro prototype
and the macro invocation statement, then these
parameters in macro definitions are called as
positional parameters.
9. Consider the macro definition
#define DISPLAY (EXPR) Printf (“EXPR = %d\n”, EXPR)
Expand the macro instruction DISPLAY (ANS)
Ans.: Printf (“EXPR = %d\n”, ANS)
10. What are known as nested macro call?
The statement, in which a macro calls on another
macro, is called nested macro call. In the nested
macro call, the call is done by outer macro and the
macro called is the inner macro.
11. How the macro is processed using two passes?
TatyaVinchu Original

Pass1: processing of definitions


Pass2:actual-macro expansion.
12. Give the advantage of line by line processors.
It avoids the extra pass over the source program
during assembling.
It may use some of the utility that can be used by
language translators so that can be loaded once.
13. What is meant by line by line processor?
This macro processor reads the source program
statements, process the
statements and then the output lines are passed to the
language translators as they are generated, instead of
being written in an expanded file.
14. Give the advantages of general-purpose macro
processors.
The programmer does not need to learn about a
macro facility for each compiler.
Overall saving in software development cost and
maintenance cost.
15. What is meant by general-purpose macro
processors?
The macro processors that are not dependent on any
particular
programming language, but can be used with a
variety of different languages are known as general
purpose macro processors.
Eg. The ELENA macro processor.
16. What are the important factors considered while
designing general purpose macro processors?
TatyaVinchu Original

• comments
• grouping of statements
• tokens
• syntax used for macro definitions
17. What is the symbol used to generate unique
labels?
$ symbol is used in macro definition to generate
unique symbols. Each
macro expansion the $ symbol is replaced by $XX,
where XX is the alpha
numeric character.
18. How the nested macro calls are executed?
The execution of nested macro call follows the LIFO
rule. In case of nested macro calls the expansion of
the latest macro call is completed first.
19. Mention the tasks involved in macro expansion.
identify the macro calls in the program
the values of formal parameters are identified
maintain the values of expansion time variables
declared in a macro
expansion time control flow is organized
determining the values of sequencing symbols
expansion of a model statement is performed
20. How to design the pass structure of a macro
assembler?
To design the structure of macro-assembler, the
functions of macro
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preprocessor and the conventional assembler are


merged. After merging, the functions are structured
into passes of the macro assembler.
TEXT EDITORS ::
1. Define interactive editor?
An interactive editor is a computer program that
allows a user to create and revise a target document.
The term document includes objects such as
computer programs, text, equations, tables, diagrams,
line art, and photographs any thing that one might
find on a printed page.
2. What are the tasks performed in the editing
process?
4 tasks
Select the part of the target document to be viewed
and manipulated.
Determine how to format this view on-line and how
to display it.
Specify and execute operations that modify the target
document.
Update the view appropriately.
3. What are the three categories of editor’s devices?
Text device/ String devices
Button device/Choice devices
Locator device
4. What is the function performed in editing phase?
In the actual editing phase, the target document is
created or altered with a set of operations such as
insert, delete, replace, move and copy.
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5. Define Locator device?


Locator devices are two-dimensional analog-to-digital
converters that
position a cursor symbol on the screen by observing
the user’s movement of the device. The most common
such devices for editing applications are the mouse
and the data tablet.
6. What is the function performed in voice input
device?
Voice-input devices, which translate spoken words to
their textual
equivalents, may prove to be the text input devices of
the future. Voice recognizers are currently available
for command input on some systems.
7. What are called tokens?
The lexical analyzer tracks the source program one
character at a time by making the source program
into sequence of atomic units is called tokens.
8. Name some of typical tokens.
Identifiers, keywords, constants, operators and
punctuation symbols such as commas and
parentheses are typical tokens.
9. What is meant by lexeme?
The character that forms a token is said to be a
lexeme.
10. Mention the main disadvantage of interpreter.
The main disadvantage of interpreter is that the
execution time of
interpreted program is slower than that of a
corresponding compiled object program.
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11. What is meant by code optimization?


The code optimization is designed to improve the
intermediate code,
which helps the object program to run faster and
takes less space.
12. What is error handler?
The error handler is used to check if there is an error
in the program. If any error, it should warn the
programmer by instructions to proceed from phase to
phase.
13. Name some of text editors.
line editors
stream editors
screen editors
word processors
structure editors
14. What for debug monitors are used?
Debug monitors are used in obtaining information for
localization of
errors.
15. Mention the features of word processors.
moving text from one place to another
merging of text
searching
word replacement
16. What are the phases in performing editing
process?
TatyaVinchu Original

Traveling phase
Filtering phase
Formatting phase
Editing phase
17. Define traveling phase.
The phase specifies the region of interest. Traveling is
achieved using operations such as next screenful,
bottom, find pattern.
18. Filtering phase.
The selection of what is to be viewed and
manipulated in given by
filtering.
19. Editing phase
In this phase, the target document is altered with the
set of operations such as insert, delete, replace, move
and copy.
20. Define user interface?
User interface is one, which allows the user to
communicate with the
system in order to perform certain tasks. User
interface is generally designed in a computer to make
it easier to use.
21. Define input device?
Input device is an electromechanical device, which
accepts data from the outside world and translates
them into a form, which the computer can interpret.
22.Define output devices
TatyaVinchu Original

Output devices the user to view the elements being


edited and the results of the editing operations.
23. What are the methods in Interaction language of a
text editor?
Typing –oriented or text command oriented method
Function key interfaces
menu oriented method
24. Define interactive debugging systems.
An interactive debugging system provides
programmers with facilities
that aid in the testing and debugging of programs.
Debugging functions and capabilities
Relationship with other parts of the system
User interface criteria.
25. Define editor structure.
The command language processor accepts input from
the users input
devices and analyzes the tokens and syntactic
structure of the commands.
26. Give the components of editor structure 4
components
Editing component
Traveling component
Viewing component
Display component
27. What are the basic types of computing
environments used in editor’s functions?
TatyaVinchu Original

Editor’s function in three basic types of computing


environments
Time sharing
Stand-alone
Distributed
1. Define lex and yacc tools
Lex:- scanner that can identify those tokens
Yacc:- parser.yacc takes a concise description of a
grammar and produces a C routine that can parse
that grammar.
2. Give the structure of the lex program
Definition section- any intitial ‘c’ program code % %
Rules section- pattern and action separated by white
space %%
User subroutines section-concsit of any legal code.
3. The lexer produced by lex in a ‘c’ routine is called
yylex()
4. Explain yytext?
contains the text that matched the pattern.
5. The yacc produced by parser is called yyparse().
6. Why we have to include ‘y.tab.h’ in lex?
y.tab.h contains token definitions eg:- #define letter
258.
7. Explain the structure of a yacc program?
Defn section- declarations of the tokens used in the
grammar %%
The rules section-pattern action %%
TatyaVinchu Original

Users subroutines section


8. Explain yyleng?
Yyleng-contains the length of the string our lexer
recognizes.
9. Features of unix
multitasking,mutiuser,online help facility,security,file
& process.
10. What is an internal command?give an example?
Command which is shell built-in eg:echo
11. What is an external command?give a example?
Command which resides in other directories-eg:cd in
/bin
12. What is an absolute path name?give an example?
A file name identification with respect to the root. Eg:-
/home/kumar/f1
13. Differentiate the commands cp and mv?
Cp- copy the files
mv- renaming the file.
14. Explain mkdir command?
Used to create a directory
Eg:mkdir m1,m2
15. What are tokens or terminal symbols?
Symbols that appear in the input are returned by the
lexer are terminal symbols.
SYSTEM Programming Viva Questions ::
TatyaVinchu Original

16. What type of data structures is used by


shift/reduce parsing?
Stack.
17. Shell- it is a command interpreter
kernel- is the core of the operating system.
18. What is lexical analyzer?
Lex taking a set of descriptions of possible tokensand
producing a ‘C” routine is called a lexical analyzer
(or) lexer (or) scanner.
19. Define grammer?
The list of rules that define the relationship that the
program understands is a grammar.
20. What is symbol table?
The table of words is a simple symbol table,a
common structure in lex and yacc applications.
21. What is pseudo token
A pseudo token standing for unary minus, has no
associativity is at the highest precedence.
22. What does $$ represents?
$$ represents the value of the left hand side.
23. What are shell scripts?
Using a program, we can run more than one
command.
24. What is the usage of grep command?
Grep command is used to search a pattern in a
database.
25. What is exit status command?
TatyaVinchu Original

Exit 0- return success,command executed


successfully.
Exit 1 – return failure.
26. What are daemons?
They are one system processes
27. Uname
tells you the name of the unix system you are using.
28. Umask
tells unix which permissions to give to files and
directories you create.
29. tty
displays the device name of your terminal
30. Vi editor
(visual editor)- used to write programs.
31. $ls-l
lists the attributes of a file.
32. What is an relative path name?
A file identification not with respect to the root.
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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 2. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 3. With minimal weighted external path length obtained by an optimal set Huffman codes
are the applications of?
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A : BST

B : MST

C : Binary Tree

D : Weighted Graph

Q.no 4. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are 1)time 2) space 3) lines of code

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 5. Algorithm can be represented as

A : Pseudocode

B : Flowchart

C : None of the above

D : both 1and 2

Q.no 6. Example of O(n) algorithms is______________

A : Multiplying two numbers.

B : linear search

C : assigning a value to a variable

D : displaying some integer on console

Q.no 7. _____is the average number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 8. In the absence of a exit condition in a recursive function, the following error is given by?

A : Compile time error


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B : Run time error

C : Logical error

D : No error

Q.no 9. Master theorem applies to recurrences of the form (a=1 and b>1) are two constants.
Select one:

A : T(N)=A.T(N/B)+F(N)

B : T(n)=n.T(n/2)+b.f(n)

C : T(N)=A.T(N-1)+B

D : T(N)=N.T(N-3)+B

Q.no 10. If a problem X is in NP and a polynomial time algorithm for X could also be used to
solve problem Y in polynomial time, then Y is also in NP

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 11. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve ………. problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 12. Fill in the blank. The notion of correctness for approximation algorithms is
…………...straightforward
than it is for exact algorithms

A : More

B : Less

C:

D:

Q.no 13. 0 1 knapsack is based on which method?

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A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 14. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Brute force algorithm

B : Recursion

C : Dynamic programming

D : Brute force, Recursion and Dynamic Programming

Q.no 15. What approach is being followed in Floyd Warshall Algorithm?

A : Greedy Technique

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Linear Programming

D : Backtracking

Q.no 16. If t1 (n) = O(f(n)), t2 (n)= O(g(n)). Then t1 (n).t2 (n)=_____

A : O(f(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : O(f(n)g(n))

D : O(f(n)+ g(n))

Q.no 17. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Mergesort

B : Binary search

C : Longest Common Subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 18. Which of the following standard algorithms is not a Greedy algorithm?

A : Dijkstra's shortest path algorithm


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B : Prim's algorithm

C : Kruskal algorithm

D : Bellmen Ford Shortest path algorithm

Q.no 19. When an algorithm is written in the form of a specific programming language, it
becomes a _________

A : Pseudocode

B : Programme

C:

D:

Q.no 20. Recursion is similar to which of the following?

A : Switch Case

B : Loop

C : If else

D : if elif else

Q.no 21. what are the basic rules of recursion

A : Each recursive call should be on a smaller instance of the same problem, that is, a smaller
subproblem

B : The recursive calls must eventually reach a base case, which is solved without further recursion.

C : both 1 and 2

D : Either 1 or 2

Q.no 22. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of knapsack is
40. Find the maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 100, 80

B : 110, 70

C : 130, 110

D : 110, 80

Q.no 23. we can refere to the common sense/ intution while specifing the algorithm

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A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 24. A problem in NP is NP-complete if

A : It can be reduced to the 3-SAT problem in polynomial time

B : The 3-SAT problem can be reduced to it in polynomial time

C : It can be reduced to any other problem in NP in polynomial time

D : some problem in NP can be reduced to it in polynomial time

Q.no 25. Which of the following branch and bound strategy leads to breadth first search?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 26. What is the basic principle in Rabin Karp algorithm?

A : Sorting

B : Hashing

C : Augmenting

D : Dynamic Programming

Q.no 27. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : Branch And Bound Isworst Method

B : Branch And Bound Is Not Suitable Where A Greedy Algorithm Is Not Applicable

C : Branch And Bound Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

D : Backtracking Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

Q.no 28. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{40,20},{30,10},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=20. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible.

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A : 60

B : 80

C : 100

D : 40

Q.no 29. Arrange following from lowest to highest order by complexity wise A log n B n! C nlogn

A : A,B, C

B : B, C, A

C : A, C, B

D : B,A, C

Q.no 30. The number of trees in a binomial heap with n nodes is

A : log n

B:n

C : n log n

D : n/2

Q.no 31. Which data structure has a better amortized running time than others?

A : Queue

B : Stack

C : Priority Queue

D : List

Q.no 32. What is the purpose of using randomized quick sort over standard quick sort?

A : To reduce worst case space complexity

B : To reduce worst case time complexity

C : To improve average case time complexity

D : To improve accuracy

Q.no 33. The first step of the genetic algorithm is

A : Applying Selection Of Letter


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B : Applying Crossover Operator

C : Applying Nutrition Operator

D : Generated Initial Population

Q.no 34. In the development of dynamic programming the value of an optimal solution is
computed in Select one:

A : Top Up Fashion

B : Bottom Up Fashion

C : In Any Way

D : Random

Q.no 35. Genetic algorithm uses

A : No Population

B : Chromosomes

C : Not Gene,

D : Not Allele

Q.no 36. Which of the following problems can’t be solved using recursion?

A : Factorial of a number

B : Nth fibonacci number

C : Length of a string

D : Problems without base case

Q.no 37. A binomial heap with n nodes contains not more than ………. binomial trees.

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n+1)

D : O(n-1)

Q.no 38. Consider the following three claims

1. (n + k)m = Θ(nm), where k and m are constants


2. 2n + 1 = O(2n)

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3. 22n + 1 = O(2n)
Which of these claims are correct ?

A : 1 and 2

B : 1 and 3

C : 2 and 3

D : 1, 2, and 3

Q.no 39. Why can’t we design a perfect neural network?

A : Full Operation Is Still Known Of Biological Neurons

B : Number Of Neuron Is Itself Not Precisely Known

C : Number Of Interconnection Is Very Less & Is Very Easy

D : Easy Network

Q.no 40. In dynamic programming, the technique of storing the previously calculated values is
called ___________

A : Saving Value Property

B : Storing Value Property

C : Memoization

D : Mapping

Q.no 41. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time complexity in
Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

D : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

Q.no 42. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

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D:

Q.no 43. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a
polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 44. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 45. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=40. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 10080

B : 11070

C : 130110

D : 11080

Q.no 46. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 47. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.
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A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

Q.no 48. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 49. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 50. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 51. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

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D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 52. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 53. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 54. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

Q.no 55. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 56. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

C : Inappropriate

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D : Not In Iterative Nature

Q.no 57. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

Q.no 58. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers " is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n(n-1)/2

D:

Q.no 59. How many times is the recursive function called, when the following code is executed?

A:7

B:9

C : 11

D : 13

Q.no 60. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is flowchart ?

A : Representation of memory usage in algorithm

B : Representation of Time required to execute algorithm

C : visual representaion of algorithm

D:

Q.no 2. In a max-heap, element with the greatest key is always in the which node?

A : Leaf node

B : First node of left sub tree

C : Root node

D : First node of right sub tree

Q.no 3. O(2^n) means computing time is ____

A : Linear
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B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

Q.no 4. In recursion, the condition for which the function will stop calling itself is

A : Best case

B : Worst case

C : Base case

D : There is no such condition

Q.no 5. The best suited algorithm could be decided using proof technique

A : false

B : true

C:

D:

Q.no 6. In Huffman coding, data in a tree is always present at?

A : Roots

B : Leafs

C : Left Sub Trees

D : Right Sub Trees

Q.no 7. Matrix chain multiplication problem is solved by which approach?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Approach

Q.no 8. What does the algorithmic analysis count?

A : The number of arithmetic and the operations that are required to run the program

B : The number of lines required by the program


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C : The number of seconds required by the program to execute

D : The size of the input

Q.no 9. When an algorithm is written in the form of a specific programming language, it becomes
a _________

A : Pseudocode

B : Programme

C:

D:

Q.no 10. What is best case complexity of selection sort

A:n

B : n^2

C : nlogn

D:

Q.no 11. which of the following is not a proof technique

A : Contradiction

B : Approximation

C : Mathematical induction

D:

Q.no 12. In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur?

A : roots

B : leaves

C : left sub trees

D : right sub trees

Q.no 13. if x and y are Irrational numbers then x**y is

A : Rational

B : Irrational

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C:

D:

Q.no 14. What is the time complexity of following code: int a = 0;


for (i = 0; i < N; i++) {
for (j = N; j > i; j--) {
a = a + i + j;
}
}

A : O(N)

B : O(N*log(N))

C : O(N * Sqrt(N))

D : O(N*N)

Q.no 15. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory?

A : Best case

B : Average case

C : Null case

D : Worst case

Q.no 16. What is tail recursion?

A : A recursive function that has two base cases

B : A function where the recursive functions leads to an infinite loop

C : A recursive function where the function doesn’t return anything and just prints the values

D : A function where the recursive call is the last thing executed by the function

Q.no 17. What is the time complexity of following code: int a = 0, i = N;


while (i > 0) {
a += i;
i /= 2;
}

A : O(n)

B : O(Logn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^2Logn)
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Q.no 18. _____is the minimum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 19. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Mergesort

B : Binary search

C : Longest Common Subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 20. What is the average case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 21. Consider the following three claims

1. (n + k)m = Θ(nm), where k and m are constants


2. 2n + 1 = O(2n)
3. 22n + 1 = O(2n)
Which of these claims are correct ?

A : 1 and 2

B : 1 and 3

C : 2 and 3

D : 1, 2, and 3

Q.no 22. From the following choose the one which belongs to the algorithm paradigm other than
to which others from the following belongs to.

A : Minimum & Maximum problem

B : Knapsack problem

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C : Selection problem

D : Merge sort

Q.no 23. The first step of the genetic algorithm is

A : Applying Selection Of Letter

B : Applying Crossover Operator

C : Applying Nutrition Operator

D : Generated Initial Population

Q.no 24. One important class of concurrency platform is

A : Parallel Programming

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Serial Programming

D : Multiprogramming

Q.no 25. Crossover operator of genetic algorithms is

A : Join Operator

B : Two Point Crossover

C : Selection

D : Multiplication

Q.no 26. If T= abcabaabc & P= abaa then what will be the value of s?

A:4

B:2

C:3

D:1

Q.no 27. Dynamic programming is used to find:

A : All Optimal Solution Is Generated

B : One Solution Is Generated

C : No Optimal Solution Is Generated


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D : Partial Solution Is Generated

Q.no 28. What is the time, space complexity of following code: int a = 0, b = 0;
for (i = 0; i < N; i++) {
a = a + rand();
}
for (j = 0; j < M; j++) {
b = b + rand();
}

A : O(N * M) time, O(1) space

B : O(N + M) time, O(N + M) space

C : O(N + M) time, O(1) space

D : O(N * M) time, O(N + M) space

Q.no 29. Many multithreaded algorithms involving nested parallelism follow naturally from

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Divide and conquer

C : Greedy Method

D : Branch and Bound Method

Q.no 30. Which of the following is false in the case of a spanning tree of a graph G?

A : It is tree that spans G

B : It is a subgraph of the G

C : It includes every vertex of the G

D : It can be either cyclic or acyclic

Q.no 31. What is base case in the given code?

A : Fn(10)

B : return

C : if (n==0)

D : Fn(n-1)

Q.no 32. Why can’t we design a perfect neural network?

A : Full Operation Is Still Known Of Biological Neurons

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B : Number Of Neuron Is Itself Not Precisely Known

C : Number Of Interconnection Is Very Less & Is Very Easy

D : Easy Network

Q.no 33. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of knapsack is
40. Find the maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 100, 80

B : 110, 70

C : 130, 110

D : 110, 80

Q.no 34. 0/1 knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 35. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch and bound

D : Greedy method

Q.no 36. subjective decision is important aspect of algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 37. An algorithm that always runs in polynomial time but possibly returns erroneous
answers is called a …………

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

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B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 38. Arrange following from lowest to highest order by complexity wise A log n B n! C nlogn

A : A,B, C

B : B, C, A

C : A, C, B

D : B,A, C

Q.no 39. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 40. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 41. How many times is the recursive function called, when the following code is executed?

A:7

B:9

C : 11

D : 13

Q.no 42. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

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A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 43. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 44. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

Q.no 45. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 46. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

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Q.no 47. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 48. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 49. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 50. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

C : Inappropriate

D : Not In Iterative Nature

Q.no 51. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

C : 38.3

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D : 45

Q.no 52. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=40. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 10080

B : 11070

C : 130110

D : 11080

Q.no 53. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

Q.no 54. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 55. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 56. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

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B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 57. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 58. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 59. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

C : actual time required

D : actual memory required

Q.no 60. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What are dendrites?

A : Fibers Of Nerves

B : nuclear projections

C : Other Name For Nucleus

D : Twisted Network

Q.no 2. The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has balanced
parentheses is a

A : queue

B : stack

C : tree

D : list

Q.no 3. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?

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A : Backtracking

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Divide And Conquer

Q.no 4. which of the following is not a proof technique

A : Contradiction

B : Approximation

C : Mathematical induction

D:

Q.no 5. What does the algorithmic analysis count?

A : The number of arithmetic and the operations that are required to run the program

B : The number of lines required by the program

C : The number of seconds required by the program to execute

D : The size of the input

Q.no 6. What’s happen if base condition is not defined in recursion ?

A : stack underflow

B : stack overflow

C : both

D:

Q.no 7. O(n^3) means computing time is ____

A : Linear

B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

Q.no 8. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : NP class
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B : P class

C : NP Complete

D : NP Hard

Q.no 9. What is tail recursion?

A : A recursive function that has two base cases

B : A function where the recursive functions leads to an infinite loop

C : A recursive function where the function doesn’t return anything and just prints the values

D : A function where the recursive call is the last thing executed by the function

Q.no 10. Fractional knapsack problem is also known as

A : 0/1 knapsack problem

B : Continuous knapsack problem

C : Divisible knapsack problem

D : Non continuous knapsack problem

Q.no 11. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c, n0 such that 0 ≤ c.g(n) ≤ f(n), for
all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 12. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Mergesort

B : Binary search

C : Longest Common Subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 13. The goal of structured programming is to

A : have well indented programs

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B : be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code

C : be able to infer the flow of control from the program text

D : avoid the use of GOTO statements

Q.no 14. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 15. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?

A : Exhaustive Search

B : Greedy Algorithm

C : Brute Force Algorithm

D : Divide And Conquer Algorithm

Q.no 16. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are 1)time 2) space 3) lines of code

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 17. Which is a condition about the relationship between the variables of our program which
is definitely true immediately before and immediately after each iteration of the loop?

A : For condition

B : Loop invariant condition

C : Both a and b

D : If condition

Q.no 18. Floyd-Warshall algorithm, which finds shortest paths between all pairs of vertices, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

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B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 19. Which is the process of executing a correct program on data sets and
measuring the time and space it takes tocompute the results.

A : Debugging

B : Profiling

C : Conquer

D : Combining

Q.no 20. State whether True or False An algorithm is said to be correct if, for every input
instance, it halts with the correct output

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 21. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Priority Queue

D : Linked List

Q.no 22. Genetic algorithm uses

A : No Population

B : Chromosomes

C : Not Gene,

D : Not Allele

Q.no 23. Running the program many times is sufficient to prove the correctness of program

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A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 24. Which of the following is/are property/properties of a dynamic programming problem?

A : Evolutionary Approach

B : Require More Time

C : Greedy Approach

D : Optimal Substructure And Overlapping Subproblems

Q.no 25. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 26. subjective decision is important aspect of algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 27. Which of the following problems is NOT solved using dynamic programming?

A : 0/1 Knapsack Problem

B : Matrix Chain Multiplication Problem

C : Edit Distance Problem

D : Fractional Knapsack Problem

Q.no 28. The time taken by nondeterministic sorting algorithm is ______

A : O(1)
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B : O(log n)

C : O(n)

D : O(n^2)

Q.no 29. What is work?

A : Execution time of single thread

B : Average of all threads

C : Sum of the times taken by each thread

D : Sum of the times taken by child threads only

Q.no 30. What are desirable characteristics of Algorithm with efficiency 1)Generality 2)
Availability 3) Simplicity

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 31. Consider the following function f:


int f(int n)
{
int s = 0;
while(n > 1)
{
n = n/2;
s++;
}
return s;
}
What is the asymptotic complexity in terms of n? (Pick the smallest correct answer)

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

C : O(n)

D : O(log n )

Q.no 32. What is the basic principle in Rabin Karp algorithm?

A : Sorting

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B : Hashing

C : Augmenting

D : Dynamic Programming

Q.no 33. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 34. Which of these is false about recursion?

A : Recursive function can be replaced by a non-recursive function

B : Recursive functions usually take more memory space than non-recursive function

C : Recursive functions run faster than non-recursive function

D : Recursion makes programs easier to understand

Q.no 35. If T= abcabaabc & P= abaa then what will be the value of s?

A:4

B:2

C:3

D:1

Q.no 36. Simulated annealing (SA) is

A : A Probabilistic Technique For Approximating The Global Optimum Of A Given Function

B : It Is A Exact Local Optimization In A Small Search Space For Problem

C : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

D : It Is Not Used When The Search Space Is Discrete

Q.no 37. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is______

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic Programming
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C : Back Tracking

D : Branch & Bound

Q.no 38. The number of trees in a binomial heap with n nodes is

A : log n

B:n

C : n log n

D : n/2

Q.no 39. When a thread u spawns a new thread v, then (u,v) is called a

A : Simple edge

B : Return edge

C : Continuation edge

D : spawn edge

Q.no 40. Crossover operator of genetic algorithms is

A : Join Operator

B : Two Point Crossover

C : Selection

D : Multiplication

Q.no 41. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 42. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

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C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

Q.no 43. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 44. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a
polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 45. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 46. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 47. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

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B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 48. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 49. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 50. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 51. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 52. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

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A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 53. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 54. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 55. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 56. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

Q.no 57. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

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A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 58. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 59. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 60. How many times is the recursive function called, when the following code is executed?

A:7

B:9

C : 11

D : 13

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Pseudocode is______________

A : Language dependent

B : Language independent

C:

D:

Q.no 2. Which of the following problems is NOT NP complete?

A : Hamiltonian circuit

B : Bin packing

C : Partition problem

D : Halting problem

Q.no 3. The space factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by

A : Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm


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B : Counting the minimum memory needed by the algorithm

C : Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm

D : Counting the maximum disk space needed by the algorithm

Q.no 4. Fill in the blank. The notion of correctness for approximation algorithms is
…………...straightforward
than it is for exact algorithms

A : More

B : Less

C:

D:

Q.no 5. Recursion is similar to which of the following?

A : Switch Case

B : Loop

C : If else

D : if elif else

Q.no 6. Dijkstra’s Algorithm cannot be applied on ………….

A : Directed and weighted graphs

B : Graphs having negative weight function

C : Unweighted graphs

D : Undirected and unweighted graphs

Q.no 7. In a max-heap, element with the greatest key is always in the which node?

A : Leaf node

B : First node of left sub tree

C : Root node

D : First node of right sub tree

Q.no 8. Fractional knapsack problem is solved most efficiently by which of the following
algorithm?

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A : Divide And Conquer

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Greedy Algorithm

D : Backtracking

Q.no 9. Which algorithm design strategy is followed by Dijkstra’s Algorithm?

A : Greedy strategy

B : Branch and bound

C : Backtracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 10. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c, n0 such that 0 ≤ c.g(n) ≤ f(n), for
all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 11. What is tail recursion?

A : A recursive function that has two base cases

B : A function where the recursive functions leads to an infinite loop

C : A recursive function where the function doesn’t return anything and just prints the values

D : A function where the recursive call is the last thing executed by the function

Q.no 12. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Branch And Bound

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 13. Halting problem is an example for?

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A : decidable problem

B : undecidable problem

C : complete problem

D : trackable problem

Q.no 14. Which of the following standard algorithms is not a Greedy algorithm?

A : Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm

B : Prim’s algorithm

C : Huffman Coding

D : Bellmen Ford Shortest path algorithm

Q.no 15. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Mergesort

B : Binary search

C : Longest Common Subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 16. In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur?

A : roots

B : leaves

C : left sub trees

D : right sub trees

Q.no 17. What is best case complexity of Insertion sort

A:n

B : n^2

C : nlogn

D:

Q.no 18. Algorithm must produce one output

A : true
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B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 19. In Huffman coding, data in a tree is always present at?

A : Roots

B : Leafs

C : Left Sub Trees

D : Right Sub Trees

Q.no 20. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is___

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O( n^2)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 21. Genetic algorithm is

A : A Intelligent Simple Specified Search Technique

B : Used To Solve Non Optimization Problem

C : Is A Part Of Evolutionary Computing

D : Simulated Annealing

Q.no 22. In analysis of algorithm, approximate relationship between the size of the job and the
amount of work required to do is expressed by using

A : Central tendency

B : Differential equation

C : Order of execution

D : Order of Storage

Q.no 23. Given an array of elements 5, 7, 9, 1, 3, 10, 8, 4. Which of the following is the correct
sequences of elements after inserting all the elements in a min-heap?

A : 1,3,4,5,7,8,9,10

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B : 1,4,3,9,8,5,7,10

C : 1,3,4,5,8,7,9,10

D : 1,3,7,4,8,5,9,10

Q.no 24. To prove the statement " There are infinitely many prime numbers" by contradiction
what is the assumption for P?

A : P is infinite set

B : P is finite set

C:

D:

Q.no 25. Simulated annealing (SA) is

A : A Probabilistic Technique For Approximating The Global Optimum Of A Given Function

B : It Is A Exact Local Optimization In A Small Search Space For Problem

C : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

D : It Is Not Used When The Search Space Is Discrete

Q.no 26. Which of the following statement about 0/1 knapsack and fractional knapsack problem
is correct?

A : In 0/1 Knapsack Problem Items Are Divisible And In Fractional Knapsack Items Are Indivisible

B : Both Are The Same

C : 0/1 Knapsack Is Solved Using A Greedy Algorithm And Fractional Knapsack Is Solved Using
Dynamic Programming

D : In 0/1 Knapsack Problem Items Are Indivisible And In Fractional Knapsack Items Are Divisible

Q.no 27. If txt[] = "THIS IS A TEST TEXT" and pat[] = "TEST", what will be the index of
pattern?

A:9

B : 13

C : 11

D : 10

Q.no 28. A strand of maximal length is called as ______________

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A : Process

B : Work

C : Thread

D : Span

Q.no 29. In the development of dynamic programming the value of an optimal solution is
computed in Select one:

A : Top Up Fashion

B : Bottom Up Fashion

C : In Any Way

D : Random

Q.no 30. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

Q.no 31. Choose the correct steps required to prove that a problem is NP complete?

A : 1. prove that problem is in P 2. Prove that every problem in P is reducible to the problem in
question in polynomial time.

B : 1.prove that problem is in P 2. Prove that the problem in question is reducible to any problem in P
in polynomial time.

C : 1.prove that problem is in NP 2. Prove that every problem in NP is reducible to the problem in
question in polynomial time.

D : 1.prove that problem is P 2. Prove that the problem in question is reducible to any problem in P in
polynomial time.

Q.no 32. What is worst case in Naive Pattern matching algorithm.

A : The first character of the pattern is not present in text at all.

B : When all characters of the text and pattern are same.

C : when only the last character is different.

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D : Both B and C

Q.no 33. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : Branch And Bound Isworst Method

B : Branch And Bound Is Not Suitable Where A Greedy Algorithm Is Not Applicable

C : Branch And Bound Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

D : Backtracking Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

Q.no 34. which is not the important aspect of Loop

A : Initial condition

B : nested loop

C : invariant relation

D : termination

Q.no 35. loop termination condition along with what makes loop correct

A : loop condition

B : loop increment variable

C : loop invariant

D : none of these

Q.no 36. Proof by contradiction is also known as

A : inverse proof

B : indirect proof

C : reverse proof

D:

Q.no 37. For a good loop invariant, following property is not important

A : Initialization

B : Maintenance

C : Termination:

D : loop condition
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Q.no 38. Which of the following is false in the case of a spanning tree of a graph G?

A : It is tree that spans G

B : It is a subgraph of the G

C : It includes every vertex of the G

D : It can be either cyclic or acyclic

Q.no 39. subjective decision is important aspect of algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 40. In amortized analysis, which method overcharges for operations early to compensate for
under-charges later?

A : Aggregate method

B : Accounting method

C : Potential method

D : Both aggregate and potential method

Q.no 41. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 42. What are requirements should a problem satisfy in order to be suitable for solving it by
a Genetic Algorithm?

A : The Fitness Function Cannot Be Well–Defined.

B : Solutions Should Be Decomposable Into Steps (Building Blocks) Which Could Be Then Encoded
As Chromosomes.

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C : The Member Function Can Be Well–Defined.

D : Minimize Functions

Q.no 43. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 44. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a
polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 45. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 46. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

Q.no 47. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

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A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

Q.no 48. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 49. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 50. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 51. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 52. Fill in the blank. Proof by induction is a technique used to prove statements about
objects that can be defined using …………………

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A : recursive functions.

B : iterative function

C : built in function

D:

Q.no 53. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 54. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 55. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 56. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

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D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 57. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

Q.no 58. What is time complexity of fun()? int fun(int n)


{
int count = 0;
for (int i = n; i > 0; i /= 2)
for (int j = 0; j < i; j++)
count += 1;
return count;
}

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

C : O( n)

D : O(log n)

Q.no 59. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

C : Inappropriate

D : Not In Iterative Nature

Q.no 60. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Algorithm can be represented as

A : Pseudocode

B : Flowchart

C : None of the above

D : both 1and 2

Q.no 2. Fractional knapsack problem is also known as

A : 0/1 knapsack problem

B : Continuous knapsack problem

C : Divisible knapsack problem

D : Non continuous knapsack problem

Q.no 3. Uniprocessor executes____instruction at a time

A : Many
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B : Two

C : One

D : Three

Q.no 4. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c1, c2, n0 such that 0 ≤ c1.g(n) ≤ f(n)
≤ c2.g(n), for all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 5. Pseudocode is______________

A : Language dependent

B : Language independent

C:

D:

Q.no 6. What are dendrites?

A : Fibers Of Nerves

B : nuclear projections

C : Other Name For Nucleus

D : Twisted Network

Q.no 7. Which of the following algorithms has better time complexity?

A : insertion sort

B : binary search

C : linear search

D : merge sort

Q.no 8. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic Programming

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B : Branch And Bound

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 9. Which data structure is used for implementing a FIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Array

D : Linked List

Q.no 10. Keywords________indicates that iteration of the loop may run concurrently.

A : Parallel loop

B : Thread

C : Parallel for

D : Multithreading

Q.no 11. The main distinguishable characteristic of a binomial heap from a binary heap is that

A : It allows union operations very efficiently.

B : It does not allow union operations that could easily be implemented in binary heap.

C : The heap structure is not similar to complete binary tree.

D : The location of child node is not fixed.

Q.no 12. O(n^3) means computing time is ____

A : Linear

B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

Q.no 13. The Data structure used in standard implementation of Breadth First search
is___________

A : Stack

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B : Queue

C : Linked List

D : Tree

Q.no 14. In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur?

A : roots

B : leaves

C : left sub trees

D : right sub trees

Q.no 15. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 16. What is best case complexity of selection sort

A:n

B : n^2

C : nlogn

D:

Q.no 17. 0 1 knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 18. When an algorithm is written in the form of a specific programming language, it
becomes a _________

A : Pseudocode

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B : Programme

C:

D:

Q.no 19. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : Backtracking

B : Greedy Algorithm

C : Divide And Conquer

D : Dynamic Programming

Q.no 20. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c, n0 such that 0 ≤ f(n) ≤ c.g(n), for
all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : Little o(g(n))

Q.no 21. Why can’t we design a perfect neural network?

A : Full Operation Is Still Known Of Biological Neurons

B : Number Of Neuron Is Itself Not Precisely Known

C : Number Of Interconnection Is Very Less & Is Very Easy

D : Easy Network

Q.no 22. A problem in NP is NP-complete if

A : It can be reduced to the 3-SAT problem in polynomial time

B : The 3-SAT problem can be reduced to it in polynomial time

C : It can be reduced to any other problem in NP in polynomial time

D : some problem in NP can be reduced to it in polynomial time

Q.no 23. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the matrix chain multiplication
problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

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B : Greedy

C : Backtracking

D : Dynamic Programming, Brute Force, Recursion

Q.no 24. Multithreaded computation can be better understood with the help of a

A : Computation undirected acyclic graph

B : Computation directed cyclic graph

C : Computation directed acyclic graph

D : Computation undirected cyclic graph

Q.no 25. Which of the given options provides the increasing order of asymptotic complexity of
functions f1, f2, f3 and f4?
f1(n) = 2^n
f2(n) = n^(3/2)
f3(n) = nLogn
f4(n) = n^(Logn)

A : f3, f2, f4, f1

B : f3, f2, f1, f4

C : f2, f3, f1, f4

D : None of these

Q.no 26. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 27. A strand of maximal length is called as ______________

A : Process

B : Work

C : Thread

D : Span

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Q.no 28. Loop invariant is inert assertion and not useful in analysis of program.

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 29. When the proof of a statement is started by assuming the statement is false the type of
proof is called _________.

A : proof by induction

B : proof by deduction

C : proof by contradiction

D:

Q.no 30. Let X be a problem that belongs to the class NP. Then which one of the following is
TRUE?

A : There is no polynomial time algorithm for X.

B : If X can be solved deterministically in polynomial time, then P = NP.

C : If X is NP-hard, then it is NP-complete.

D : X may be undecidable.

Q.no 31. Parallel loops are like an ordinary_______________except that the iterations of the loop
can execute concurrently.

A : While loop

B : For Loop

C : Do while loop

D : If statement

Q.no 32. Proof by contradiction is also known as

A : inverse proof

B : indirect proof

C : reverse proof

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D:

Q.no 33. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as ……… problems.

A : Intractable

B : Tractable

C : Undecidable

D : Decidable

Q.no 34. we can refere to the common sense/ intution while specifing the algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 35. What is worst case in Naive Pattern matching algorithm.

A : The first character of the pattern is not present in text at all.

B : When all characters of the text and pattern are same.

C : when only the last character is different.

D : Both B and C

Q.no 36. In analysis of algorithm, approximate relationship between the size of the job and the
amount of work required to do is expressed by using

A : Central tendency

B : Differential equation

C : Order of execution

D : Order of Storage

Q.no 37. If txt[] = "THIS IS A TEST TEXT" and pat[] = "TEST", what will be the index of
pattern?

A:9

B : 13

C : 11

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D : 10

Q.no 38. The type of encoding where no character code is the prefix of another character code is
called?

A : optimal encoding

B : prefix encoding

C : Fequency encoding

D : Trie encoding

Q.no 39. Consider the strings “PQRSTPQRS” and “PRATPBRQRPS”. What is the length of the
longest common subsequence?

A:9

B:8

C:7

D:6

Q.no 40. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing optimal solutions
for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 41. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

C : actual time required

D : actual memory required

Q.no 42. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

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C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 43. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 44. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 45. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 46. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 47. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time complexity in
Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

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B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

D : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

Q.no 48. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 49. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 50. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

Q.no 51. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 52. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers " is

A : n(n+1)/2

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B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n(n-1)/2

D:

Q.no 53. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=40. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 10080

B : 11070

C : 130110

D : 11080

Q.no 54. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

C : 38.3

D : 45

Q.no 55. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 56. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

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Q.no 57. What are requirements should a problem satisfy in order to be suitable for solving it by
a Genetic Algorithm?

A : The Fitness Function Cannot Be Well–Defined.

B : Solutions Should Be Decomposable Into Steps (Building Blocks) Which Could Be Then Encoded
As Chromosomes.

C : The Member Function Can Be Well–Defined.

D : Minimize Functions

Q.no 58. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 59. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 60. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
………

A : time complexity

B : space complexity

C : computational complexity

D : problem complexity

Q.no 2. Recursive function must have

A : switch -case

B : exit condition

C : loop

D:

Q.no 3. What is the worst case time complexity of merge sort?

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A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 4. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory?

A : Best case

B : Average case

C : Null case

D : Worst case

Q.no 5. In Algorithm Specification the blockes are indicated with matching

A : Braces

B : Parenthesis

C : Square Brackets

D : Slashes

Q.no 6. With minimal weighted external path length obtained by an optimal set Huffman codes
are the applications of?

A : BST

B : MST

C : Binary Tree

D : Weighted Graph

Q.no 7. Which of the following problems is NOT NP complete?

A : Hamiltonian circuit

B : Bin packing

C : Partition problem

D : Halting problem

Q.no 8. Operations in the neural networks can perform what kind of operations?

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A : Not In Serial

B : Not In Parallel

C : Serial Or Parallel

D : Partial

Q.no 9. Dijkstra algorithm, which solves the single-source shortest--paths problem, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 10. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is___

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O( n^2)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 11. Steps of Divide and Conquer approach are______

A : Divide, Conquer And Combine

B : Combine, Conquer and Divide

C : Combine, Divide And Conquer

D : Divide, Combine And Conquer

Q.no 12. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Array

D : Linked List

Q.no 13. In artificial Neural Network interconnected processing elements are called

A : Nodes Or Neurons
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B : Weights

C : Axons

D : Soma

Q.no 14. The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has balanced
parentheses is a

A : queue

B : stack

C : tree

D : list

Q.no 15. Dijkstra’s Algorithm cannot be applied on ………….

A : Directed and weighted graphs

B : Graphs having negative weight function

C : Unweighted graphs

D : Undirected and unweighted graphs

Q.no 16. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the longest common subsequence
problem?

A : Not Recursion

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Algorithm

Q.no 17. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : NP class

B : P class

C : NP Complete

D : NP Hard

Q.no 18. Fill in the blank. The notion of correctness for approximation algorithms is
…………...straightforward
than it is for exact algorithms

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A : More

B : Less

C:

D:

Q.no 19. which of the following is not a proof technique

A : Contradiction

B : Approximation

C : Mathematical induction

D:

Q.no 20. steps followed in mathematical induction are 1)basis 2)Induction step 3) Induction
hypothesis

A : steps 1and 2 only

B : steps 2 and 3 only

C : steps 1,2, 3

D : steps 1 and 3 only

Q.no 21. What is worst case in Naive Pattern matching algorithm.

A : The first character of the pattern is not present in text at all.

B : When all characters of the text and pattern are same.

C : when only the last character is different.

D : Both B and C

Q.no 22. One important class of concurrency platform is

A : Parallel Programming

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Serial Programming

D : Multiprogramming

Q.no 23. If txt[] = "THIS IS A TEST TEXT" and pat[] = "TEST", what will be the index of
pattern?

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A:9

B : 13

C : 11

D : 10

Q.no 24. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : Branch And Bound Isworst Method

B : Branch And Bound Is Not Suitable Where A Greedy Algorithm Is Not Applicable

C : Branch And Bound Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

D : Backtracking Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

Q.no 25. which of the following is not basic control structure

A : the process

B : the decision

C : the loop

D : the sequential

Q.no 26. Which algorithm startegy builds up a solution by choosing the option that looks the best
at every step.

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 27. What will be the position of 6, when a max heap is constructed on the input elements 6,
71, 46, 8, 13, 16, 14, 66, 31, 27?

A : 6 will be at the root

B : 6 will be at the last level

C : 6 will be at the second level

D : 6 can be anywhere in the heap

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Q.no 28. What is the time complexity of following code: int i, j, k = 0;


for (i = n / 2; i <= n; i++) {
for (j = 2; j <= n; j = j * 2) {
k = k + n / 2;
}
}

A : O(n)

B : O(nLogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^2Logn)

Q.no 29. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 30. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch and bound

D : Greedy method

Q.no 31. Multithreaded computation can be better understood with the help of a

A : Computation undirected acyclic graph

B : Computation directed cyclic graph

C : Computation directed acyclic graph

D : Computation undirected cyclic graph

Q.no 32. Which of the following problems is equivalent to the 0-1 Knapsack problem?

A : You are given a bag that can carry a maximum weight of W. You are given N items which have a
weight of {w1, w2, w3,…., wn} and a value of {v1, v2, v3,…., vn}. You can break the items into
smaller pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value

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B : You are studying for an exam and you have to study N questions. The questions take {t1, t2, t3,….,
tn} time(in hours) and carry {m1, m2, m3,…., mn} marks. You can study for a maximum of T hours.
You can either study a question or leave it. Choose the questions in such a way that your score is
maximized

C : You are given infinite coins of denominations {v1, v2, v3,….., vn} and a sum S. You have to find
the minimum number of coins required to get the sum S

D : You are given a suitcase that can carry a maximum weight of 15kg. You are given 4 items which
have a weight of {10, 20, 15,40} and a value of {1, 2, 3,4}. You can break the items into smaller
pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value

Q.no 33. What is the time, space complexity of following code: int a = 0, b = 0;
for (i = 0; i < N; i++) {
a = a + rand();
}
for (j = 0; j < M; j++) {
b = b + rand();
}

A : O(N * M) time, O(1) space

B : O(N + M) time, O(N + M) space

C : O(N + M) time, O(1) space

D : O(N * M) time, O(N + M) space

Q.no 34. Which data structure has a better amortized running time than others?

A : Queue

B : Stack

C : Priority Queue

D : List

Q.no 35. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Priority Queue

D : Linked List

Q.no 36. What is the purpose of using randomized quick sort over standard quick sort?

A : To reduce worst case space complexity


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B : To reduce worst case time complexity

C : To improve average case time complexity

D : To improve accuracy

Q.no 37. Running the program many times is sufficient to prove the correctness of program

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 38. Choose the correct steps to prove if the vertex cover problem is NP-Complete. I-- Vertex
Cover problem is in NP II--Clique problem is in NP III--Prove that Clique problem ≤ Vertex
Cover Problem in polynomial time IV---Prove that Vertex Cover problem ≤ Clique Problem in
polynomial time

A : I and III

B : I and IV

C : II and III

D : II and IV

Q.no 39. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is______

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Back Tracking

D : Branch & Bound

Q.no 40. Given an array of elements 5, 7, 9, 1, 3, 10, 8, 4. Which of the following is the correct
sequences of elements after inserting all the elements in a min-heap?

A : 1,3,4,5,7,8,9,10

B : 1,4,3,9,8,5,7,10

C : 1,3,4,5,8,7,9,10

D : 1,3,7,4,8,5,9,10

Q.no 41. Identify incorrect statement

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A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 42. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 43. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 44. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

Q.no 45. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

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D : O(nW)

Q.no 46. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 47. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

C : actual time required

D : actual memory required

Q.no 48. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 49. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers " is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n(n-1)/2

D:

Q.no 50. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

C : Exponential Recursion

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D : Recursion

Q.no 51. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 52. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

Q.no 53. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 54. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

C : Inappropriate

D : Not In Iterative Nature

Q.no 55. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

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C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 56. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 57. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 58. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 59. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

C : 38.3

D : 45

Q.no 60. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

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B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Brute force algorithm

B : Recursion

C : Dynamic programming

D : Brute force, Recursion and Dynamic Programming

Q.no 2. The goal of structured programming is to

A : have well indented programs

B : be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code

C : be able to infer the flow of control from the program text

D : avoid the use of GOTO statements

Q.no 3. Which design strategy stops the execution when it finds the solution otherwise starts the
problem from top again?

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A : Back Tracking

B : Branch and Bound

C : Divide And Conquer

D : Dynamic Programming

Q.no 4. O(2^n) means computing time is ____

A : Linear

B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

Q.no 5. What does the algorithmic analysis count?

A : The number of arithmetic and the operations that are required to run the program

B : The number of lines required by the program

C : The number of seconds required by the program to execute

D : The size of the input

Q.no 6. Alorithm should have finite number of steps

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 7. Which of the following standard algorithms is not a Greedy algorithm?

A : Dijkstra's shortest path algorithm

B : Prim's algorithm

C : Kruskal algorithm

D : Bellmen Ford Shortest path algorithm

Q.no 8. Binomial tree with zero order has only

A : 1 Node
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B : 2 Nodes

C : 3 Nodes

D : 4 Nodes

Q.no 9. What will be the best case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 10. Master theorem applies to recurrences of the form (a=1 and b>1) are two constants.
Select one:

A : T(N)=A.T(N/B)+F(N)

B : T(n)=n.T(n/2)+b.f(n)

C : T(N)=A.T(N-1)+B

D : T(N)=N.T(N-3)+B

Q.no 11. What term is used to describe O(n) algorithm?

A : Constant

B : Non polynomial deterministic

C : logarithmic

D : linear

Q.no 12. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?

A : Backtracking

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Divide And Conquer

Q.no 13. If a problem X is in NP and a polynomial time algorithm for X could also be used to
solve problem Y in polynomial time, then Y is also in NP

A : true

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B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 14. Which of the following is true about Huffman Coding.

A : Huffman coding may become lossy in some cases

B : Huffman Codes may not be optimal lossless codes in some cases

C : In Huffman coding, no code is prefix of any other code.

D : Huffman Codes may not be optimal lossy codes in some cases

Q.no 15. For the improvement of efficiency of quick sort the pivot can be____

A : the first element

B : the middle element

C : the last element

D : any random element

Q.no 16. Which Data Structure is used to perform Recursion?

A : Array

B : queue

C : stack

D : linked list

Q.no 17. Genetic algorithms are

A : Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm

B : Binary search algorithm

C : Simulated Annealing

D : Adaptive Linear

Q.no 18. What’s happen if base condition is not defined in recursion ?

A : stack underflow

B : stack overflow
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C : both

D:

Q.no 19. Fractional knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 20. Which Programming is based on stepwise refinement process.

A : Structural

B : C programming

C : Procedural

D : Fine

Q.no 21. Which of the following statements about loop invariants is false?

A : Loop invariants are used to show that algorithms produce the correct results.

B : A loop invariant is the opposite, that is the negation, of the condition of the loop.

C : To prove that a statement is a loop invariant, we use mathematical induction.

D : Loop invariants remain true each time a loop is executed.

Q.no 22. What is the time complexity of following code: int i, j, k = 0;


for (i = n / 2; i <= n; i++) {
for (j = 2; j <= n; j = j * 2) {
k = k + n / 2;
}
}

A : O(n)

B : O(nLogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^2Logn)

Q.no 23. Consider the strings “PQRSTPQRS” and “PRATPBRQRPS”. What is the length of the
longest common subsequence?

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A:9

B:8

C:7

D:6

Q.no 24. To prove the statement " There are infinitely many prime numbers" by contradiction
what is the assumption for P?

A : P is infinite set

B : P is finite set

C:

D:

Q.no 25. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing optimal solutions
for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 26. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of knapsack is
40. Find the maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 100, 80

B : 110, 70

C : 130, 110

D : 110, 80

Q.no 27. Prims algorithm is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

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Q.no 28. In analysis of algorithm, approximate relationship between the size of the job and the
amount of work required to do is expressed by using

A : Central tendency

B : Differential equation

C : Order of execution

D : Order of Storage

Q.no 29. Running the program many times is sufficient to prove the correctness of program

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 30. subjective decision is important aspect of algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 31. The term ________ refers to all state space search methods in which all children of the –
nodes are generated before any other live node can become the E-node.

A : Backtacking

B : Depth First Search

C : Branch And Bound

D : Breadth First Search

Q.no 32. What is true about Dynamic Programming

A : It Didn’T Find All Possible Solution

B : It Is Not Suitable For Solving Optimization Problems

C : Avoid The Re-Computation Of Overlapping Sub-Problems

D : Reliability Design Problem Is Not Solved

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Q.no 33. A problem in NP is NP-complete if

A : It can be reduced to the 3-SAT problem in polynomial time

B : The 3-SAT problem can be reduced to it in polynomial time

C : It can be reduced to any other problem in NP in polynomial time

D : some problem in NP can be reduced to it in polynomial time

Q.no 34. Loop invariant is inert assertion and not useful in analysis of program.

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 35. Which one of the following is true about Binary search?

A : the best-case occurs when the target item is in the beginning of the search list

B : the best-case occurs when the target is at the end of the search list

C : the worst-case is when the target item is not in the search list

D : the worst-case is when the target is found in the middle of the search list

Q.no 36. Which of the following problems can’t be solved using recursion?

A : Factorial of a number

B : Nth fibonacci number

C : Length of a string

D : Problems without base case

Q.no 37. Which of the following options match the given statement:
The algorithms that use the random input to reduce the expected running time or memory usage,
but always terminate with a correct result in a bounded amount of time.

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

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Q.no 38. Dynamic programming is used to find:

A : All Optimal Solution Is Generated

B : One Solution Is Generated

C : No Optimal Solution Is Generated

D : Partial Solution Is Generated

Q.no 39. which is not the important aspect of Loop

A : Initial condition

B : nested loop

C : invariant relation

D : termination

Q.no 40. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 41. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 42. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

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Q.no 43. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers " is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n(n-1)/2

D:

Q.no 44. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 45. What are requirements should a problem satisfy in order to be suitable for solving it by
a Genetic Algorithm?

A : The Fitness Function Cannot Be Well–Defined.

B : Solutions Should Be Decomposable Into Steps (Building Blocks) Which Could Be Then Encoded
As Chromosomes.

C : The Member Function Can Be Well–Defined.

D : Minimize Functions

Q.no 46. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 47. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

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C : 38.3

D : 45

Q.no 48. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 49. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 50. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

Q.no 51. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 52. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

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A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 53. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a
polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 54. To calculate c(i, j )’s, w( i, j)’s and r(i, j)’s; the OBST algorithm in worst case takes the
following time.

A : O(Log N)

B : O (N*N)

C : O (N*N*N)

D : O (N Log N)

Q.no 55. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 56. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

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D : Not Flexible

Q.no 57. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

Q.no 58. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

Q.no 59. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 60. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Crossover, mutation, and selection are the

A : Operators Of Genetic

B : Functions of Genetic

C : Population Of Genetic

D : Member Function

Q.no 2. All the iterations in the parallel loop should be __________

A : Independent

B : Dependent

C:

D:

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not characteristic of Algorithm

A : Definiteness
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B : finiteness

C : scalability

D : effectiveness

Q.no 4. Which element of an input array is chosen as pivot in Randomized Quicksort?

A : First

B : Last

C : Median

D : Random number

Q.no 5. parallel algorithms that can run on a ____________ that permits multiple instructions to
execute concurrently

A : Uniprocessor

B : Serial Computer

C : Mainframe Computer

D : Multiprocessor computer

Q.no 6. What is best case complexity of selection sort

A:n

B : n^2

C : nlogn

D:

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a proof technique

A : Contradiction

B : Approximation

C : Mathematical induction

D:

Q.no 8. Which of the following is incorrect? Algorithms can be represented:

A : Pseudocode

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B : Programme

C : Grammar

D : flowchart

Q.no 9. To solve one problem how many algorithms are possible?

A : one

B : two

C : several

D:

Q.no 10. What is the average case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 11. state whether True or false. Algorithms are as impotant as advanced technologies

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 12. goto statement is?

A : Used to jump the control of program.

B : Used for iteration

C : same as switch statement

D : Not Used for iteration

Q.no 13. def f():


int a[n][n]
// Finding sum of elements of a matrix that are above or on the diagonal.
sum = 0
for i = 1 to n:

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for j = i to n:
sum += a[i][j]
print(sum)
Time Complexity of this program:

A : O(n)

B : O(nlogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^3)

Q.no 14. Dijkstra algorithm, which solves the single-source shortest--paths problem, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 15. Algorithm must have atleast one external input

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 16. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c1, c2, n0 such that 0 ≤ c1.g(n) ≤ f(n)
≤ c2.g(n), for all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 17. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
………

A : time complexity

B : space complexity

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C : computational complexity

D : problem complexity

Q.no 18. Matrix chain multiplication problem is solved by which approach?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Approach

Q.no 19. If a problem X is in NP and a polynomial time algorithm for X could also be used to
solve problem Y in polynomial time, then Y is also in NP

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 20. Two main measure of efficiency of an algorithm

A : processor and memory

B : time and space

C : date and space

D : date and capacity

Q.no 21. When a thread u spawns a new thread v, then (u,v) is called a

A : Simple edge

B : Return edge

C : Continuation edge

D : spawn edge

Q.no 22. What is work?

A : Execution time of single thread

B : Average of all threads

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C : Sum of the times taken by each thread

D : Sum of the times taken by child threads only

Q.no 23. What is base case in the given code?

A : Fn(10)

B : return

C : if (n==0)

D : Fn(n-1)

Q.no 24. loop invariant property can be proved using

A : Mathematical Induction

B : Proof by cases

C : proof by contradiction

D : direct proof

Q.no 25. Simulated annealing (SA) is

A : A Probabilistic Technique For Approximating The Global Optimum Of A Given Function

B : It Is A Exact Local Optimization In A Small Search Space For Problem

C : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

D : It Is Not Used When The Search Space Is Discrete

Q.no 26. In the principle of mathematical induction, which of the following steps is mandatory?

A : induction hypothesis

B : induction reference

C : induction set assumption

D:

Q.no 27. Choose the option with function having same complexity for a Fibonacci heap.

A : Insertion, Merge

B : Insertion, Deletion

C : ExtractMin, Insertion
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D : Merge, Deletion

Q.no 28. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 29. From the following choose the one which belongs to the algorithm paradigm other than
to which others from the following belongs to.

A : Minimum & Maximum problem

B : Knapsack problem

C : Selection problem

D : Merge sort

Q.no 30. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(1)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 31. loop termination condition along with what makes loop correct

A : loop condition

B : loop increment variable

C : loop invariant

D : none of these

Q.no 32. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the matrix chain multiplication
problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Greedy

C : Backtracking

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D : Dynamic Programming, Brute Force, Recursion

Q.no 33. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as ……… problems.

A : Intractable

B : Tractable

C : Undecidable

D : Decidable

Q.no 34. which of the following is not a characteristics of good algorithm

A : precise

B : Ambigous

C : finite number of steps

D : logical flow of control

Q.no 35. Arrange following from highest to lowest order by complexity wise A log n B n! C nlogn

A : A,B, C

B : B, C, A

C : C, B ,A

D : B,A, C

Q.no 36. Power saving is an important job in embedded systm and sensor network.

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 37. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Priority Queue

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D : Linked List

Q.no 38.

A : 10

B:1

C : 10 9 8 ……1 0

D : 10 9 8 ……1

Q.no 39. The first step of the genetic algorithm is

A : Applying Selection Of Letter

B : Applying Crossover Operator

C : Applying Nutrition Operator

D : Generated Initial Population

Q.no 40. An algorithm that always runs in polynomial time but possibly returns erroneous
answers is called a …………

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

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Q.no 41. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time complexity in
Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

D : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

Q.no 42. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

C : Inappropriate

D : Not In Iterative Nature

Q.no 43. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 44. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 45. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

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D : Greedy

Q.no 46. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 47. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 48. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 49. Fill in the blank. Proof by induction is a technique used to prove statements about
objects that can be defined using …………………

A : recursive functions.

B : iterative function

C : built in function

D:

Q.no 50. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

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B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 51. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 52. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 53. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 54. What is time complexity of fun()? int fun(int n)


{
int count = 0;
for (int i = n; i > 0; i /= 2)
for (int j = 0; j < i; j++)
count += 1;
return count;
}

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

C : O( n)

D : O(log n)
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Q.no 55. What are the issues on which biological networks proves to be superior than AI
networks?

A : Robustness & Fault Tolerance

B : Inflexibility

C : Single Computation

D : No Computation

Q.no 56. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

Q.no 57. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 58. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 59. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

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C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 60. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is___

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O( n^2)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 2. Alorithm should have finite number of steps

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 3. Pseudocode is______________

A : Language dependent
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B : Language independent

C:

D:

Q.no 4. The fundamental unit of neural network is

A : Brain

B : Nucleus

C : Neuron

D : Axon

Q.no 5. goto statement is?

A : Used to jump the control of program.

B : Used for iteration

C : same as switch statement

D : Not Used for iteration

Q.no 6. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem Solving Technique

B : Data Structure

C : Sorting Algorithm

D : Type Of Tree

Q.no 7. Which of the following is the most commonly used data structure for implementing
Dijkstra’s Algorithm?

A : Max priority queue

B : Stack

C : Circular queue

D : Min priority queue

Q.no 8. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

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B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 9. 0 1 knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 10. One can have __________, where each processor can directly access any location of
memory

A : Shared Memory

B : Cache Memory

C : Distributed Memory

D : Private Memory

Q.no 11. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c, n0 such that 0 ≤ f(n) ≤ c.g(n), for
all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : Little o(g(n))

Q.no 12. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c1, c2, n0 such that 0 ≤ c1.g(n) ≤ f(n)
≤ c2.g(n), for all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 13. def f():


int a[n][n]

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// Finding sum of elements of a matrix that are above or on the diagonal.


sum = 0
for i = 1 to n:
for j = i to n:
sum += a[i][j]
print(sum)
Time Complexity of this program:

A : O(n)

B : O(nlogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^3)

Q.no 14. Who created the Rabin Karp Algorithm?

A : Joseph Rabin and Michael Karp

B : Michael Rabin and Joseph Karp

C : Richard Karp and Michael Rabin

D : Michael Karp and Richard Rabin

Q.no 15. What does the algorithmic analysis count?

A : The number of arithmetic and the operations that are required to run the program

B : The number of lines required by the program

C : The number of seconds required by the program to execute

D : The size of the input

Q.no 16. q29.jpeg

A : 111

B : 101

C : 110

D : 11

Q.no 17. Fractional knapsack problem is solved most efficiently by which of the following
algorithm?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Dynamic Programming
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C : Greedy Algorithm

D : Backtracking

Q.no 18. which of the following is not a proof technique

A : Contradiction

B : Approximation

C : Mathematical induction

D:

Q.no 19. What is the time complexity of Dijikstra’s algorithm?

A : O(n)

B : O(n^3)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(log n)

Q.no 20. The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by

A : Counting microseconds

B : Counting the number of key operations

C : Counting the kilobytes of algorithm

D:

Q.no 21. A strand of maximal length is called as ______________

A : Process

B : Work

C : Thread

D : Span

Q.no 22. In the development of dynamic programming the value of an optimal solution is
computed in Select one:

A : Top Up Fashion

B : Bottom Up Fashion

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C : In Any Way

D : Random

Q.no 23. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(1)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 24. Which of the following branch and bound strategy leads to depth first search?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 25. What is base case in the given code?

A : F1()

B : return

C : both

D : neither 1 nor 2

Q.no 26. If T= abcabaabc & P= abaa then what will be the value of s?

A:4

B:2

C:3

D:1

Q.no 27. In dynamic programming, the technique of storing the previously calculated values is
called ___________

A : Saving Value Property

B : Storing Value Property

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C : Memoization

D : Mapping

Q.no 28. The speed up of a computation on P processors is defined as

A : T1 / T∞

B : T1 / Tp

C : Tp / T1

D : T∞/T1

Q.no 29. Which of these is false about recursion?

A : Recursive function can be replaced by a non-recursive function

B : Recursive functions usually take more memory space than non-recursive function

C : Recursive functions run faster than non-recursive function

D : Recursion makes programs easier to understand

Q.no 30. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is______

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Back Tracking

D : Branch & Bound

Q.no 31. 0/1 knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 32. Which of the following options match the given statement:
The algorithms that use the random input to reduce the expected running time or memory usage,
but always terminate with a correct result in a bounded amount of time.

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

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C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 33. What are desirable characteristics of Algorithm with efficiency 1)Generality 2)
Availability 3) Simplicity

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 34. Mathematical induction proves

A : Correctness of algorithm

B : Efficiency of algorithm

C : both

D:

Q.no 35. In analysis of algorithm, approximate relationship between the size of the job and the
amount of work required to do is expressed by using

A : Central tendency

B : Differential equation

C : Order of execution

D : Order of Storage

Q.no 36. How many stages(steps) of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 37. Which one of the following is true about Binary search?

A : the best-case occurs when the target item is in the beginning of the search list

B : the best-case occurs when the target is at the end of the search list

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C : the worst-case is when the target item is not in the search list

D : the worst-case is when the target is found in the middle of the search list

Q.no 38. Prims algorithm is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 39. Consider the following function f:


int f(int n)
{
int s = 0;
while(n > 1)
{
n = n/2;
s++;
}
return s;
}
What is the asymptotic complexity in terms of n? (Pick the smallest correct answer)

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

C : O(n)

D : O(log n )

Q.no 40. Running the program many times is sufficient to prove the correctness of program

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 41. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

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C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 42. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 43. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

C : actual time required

D : actual memory required

Q.no 44. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 45. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time complexity in
Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

D : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

Q.no 46. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

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B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 47. Fill in the blank. Proof by induction is a technique used to prove statements about
objects that can be defined using …………………

A : recursive functions.

B : iterative function

C : built in function

D:

Q.no 48. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 49. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 50. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

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Q.no 51. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 52. To calculate c(i, j )’s, w( i, j)’s and r(i, j)’s; the OBST algorithm in worst case takes the
following time.

A : O(Log N)

B : O (N*N)

C : O (N*N*N)

D : O (N Log N)

Q.no 53. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 54. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 55. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

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Q.no 56. How many times is the recursive function called, when the following code is executed?

A:7

B:9

C : 11

D : 13

Q.no 57. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 58. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a
polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 59. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

Q.no 60. What are requirements should a problem satisfy in order to be suitable for solving it by
a Genetic Algorithm?

A : The Fitness Function Cannot Be Well–Defined.

B : Solutions Should Be Decomposable Into Steps (Building Blocks) Which Could Be Then Encoded
As Chromosomes.
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C : The Member Function Can Be Well–Defined.

D : Minimize Functions

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Heap can be used as ……………….

A : Priority queue

B : Stack

C : A decreasing order array

D : Normal Array

Q.no 2. 0 1 knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 3. The main distinguishable characteristic of a binomial heap from a binary heap is that

A : It allows union operations very efficiently.


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B : It does not allow union operations that could easily be implemented in binary heap.

C : The heap structure is not similar to complete binary tree.

D : The location of child node is not fixed.

Q.no 4. Amortized analysis is a technique that, given a sequence of operations, permits sharing
the cost of a single expensive operation with many other cheaper ones.

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 5. Express the formula (n-2)*(n-4) in terms of Theta Ɵ Notation

A : Ɵ(n^2)

B : Ɵ(8)

C : Ɵ(log n)

D : Ɵ(n)

Q.no 6. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c, n0 such that 0 ≤ c.g(n) ≤ f(n), for all
n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 7. Which is a condition about the relationship between the variables of our program which
is definitely true immediately before and immediately after each iteration of the loop?

A : For condition

B : Loop invariant condition

C : Both a and b

D : If condition

Q.no 8. Fractional knapsack problem is also known as

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A : 0/1 knapsack problem

B : Continuous knapsack problem

C : Divisible knapsack problem

D : Non continuous knapsack problem

Q.no 9. steps followed in mathematical induction are 1)basis 2)Induction step 3) Induction
hypothesis

A : steps 1and 2 only

B : steps 2 and 3 only

C : steps 1,2, 3

D : steps 1 and 3 only

Q.no 10. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 11. In recursion, the condition for which the function will stop calling itself is

A : Best case

B : Worst case

C : Base case

D : There is no such condition

Q.no 12. Which of the following statements is true?

A : Recursion is always better than iteration

B : Recursion uses more memory compared to iteration

C : Recursion uses less memory compared to iteration

D : Iteration is always better and simpler than recursion

Q.no 13. A Greedy Algorithm can be used to solve all the Dynamic Programming problems.

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A : True

B : FALSE

C:

D:

Q.no 14. What is the worst case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n^2)

C : O(n^2 log n)

D : O(n log n^2)

Q.no 15. Floyd-Warshall algorithm, which finds shortest paths between all pairs of vertices, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 16. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are 1)time 2) space 3) lines of code

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 17. Which of the following is true about Huffman Coding.

A : Huffman coding may become lossy in some cases

B : Huffman Codes may not be optimal lossless codes in some cases

C : In Huffman coding, no code is prefix of any other code.

D : Huffman Codes may not be optimal lossy codes in some cases

Q.no 18. Which is the process of executing a correct program on data sets and
measuring the time and space it takes tocompute the results.

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A : Debugging

B : Profiling

C : Conquer

D : Combining

Q.no 19. What is best case complexity of selection sort

A:n

B : n^2

C : nlogn

D:

Q.no 20. Which element of an input array is chosen as pivot in Randomized Quicksort?

A : First

B : Last

C : Median

D : Random number

Q.no 21. What is base case in the given code?

A : Fn(10)

B : return

C : if (n==0)

D : Fn(n-1)

Q.no 22. Which of the following statements about loop invariants is false?

A : Loop invariants are used to show that algorithms produce the correct results.

B : A loop invariant is the opposite, that is the negation, of the condition of the loop.

C : To prove that a statement is a loop invariant, we use mathematical induction.

D : Loop invariants remain true each time a loop is executed.

Q.no 23. loop invariant property can be proved using

A : Mathematical Induction
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B : Proof by cases

C : proof by contradiction

D : direct proof

Q.no 24. which of the following is not a characteristics of good algorithm

A : precise

B : Ambigous

C : finite number of steps

D : logical flow of control

Q.no 25. What are desirable characteristics of Algorithm with efficiency 1)Generality 2)
Availability 3) Simplicity

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 26. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 27. we can refere to the common sense/ intution while specifing the algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 28. Which of the following problems is similar to that of a Hamiltonian path problem?

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A : knapsack problem

B : closest pair problem

C : travelling salesman problem

D : assignment problem

Q.no 29. A binomial heap with n nodes contains not more than ………. binomial trees.

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n+1)

D : O(n-1)

Q.no 30. Multithreaded computation can be better understood with the help of a

A : Computation undirected acyclic graph

B : Computation directed cyclic graph

C : Computation directed acyclic graph

D : Computation undirected cyclic graph

Q.no 31. Mathematical induction allows us to prove the correctness and efficiency of algorithm
both

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 32. What is the purpose of using randomized quick sort over standard quick sort?

A : To reduce worst case space complexity

B : To reduce worst case time complexity

C : To improve average case time complexity

D : To improve accuracy

Q.no 33. subjective decision is important aspect of algorithm

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A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 34. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch and bound

D : Greedy method

Q.no 35. How many stages(steps) of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 36. Choose the correct steps required to prove that a problem is NP complete?

A : 1. prove that problem is in P 2. Prove that every problem in P is reducible to the problem in
question in polynomial time.

B : 1.prove that problem is in P 2. Prove that the problem in question is reducible to any problem in P
in polynomial time.

C : 1.prove that problem is in NP 2. Prove that every problem in NP is reducible to the problem in
question in polynomial time.

D : 1.prove that problem is P 2. Prove that the problem in question is reducible to any problem in P in
polynomial time.

Q.no 37. Which of the following options match the given statement:
The algorithms that use the random input to reduce the expected running time or memory usage,
but always terminate with a correct result in a bounded amount of time.

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

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D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 38. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{40,20},{30,10},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=20. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible.

A : 60

B : 80

C : 100

D : 40

Q.no 39. Arrange following from highest to lowest order by complexity wise A log n B n! C nlogn

A : A,B, C

B : B, C, A

C : C, B ,A

D : B,A, C

Q.no 40. The time taken by nondeterministic sorting algorithm is ______

A : O(1)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n)

D : O(n^2)

Q.no 41. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 42. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

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C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 43. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 44. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 45. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 46. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

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Q.no 47. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 48. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

Q.no 49. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 50. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 51. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

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D : Not Flexible

Q.no 52. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 53. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=40. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 10080

B : 11070

C : 130110

D : 11080

Q.no 54. How many times is the recursive function called, when the following code is executed?

A:7

B:9

C : 11

D : 13

Q.no 55. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 56. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

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B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 57. To calculate c(i, j )’s, w( i, j)’s and r(i, j)’s; the OBST algorithm in worst case takes the
following time.

A : O(Log N)

B : O (N*N)

C : O (N*N*N)

D : O (N Log N)

Q.no 58. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 59. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 60. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the longest common subsequence
problem?

A : Not Recursion

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Algorithm

Q.no 2. All the iterations in the parallel loop should be __________

A : Independent

B : Dependent

C:

D:

Q.no 3. What does the algorithmic analysis count?

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A : The number of arithmetic and the operations that are required to run the program

B : The number of lines required by the program

C : The number of seconds required by the program to execute

D : The size of the input

Q.no 4. Fill in the blank. The notion of correctness for approximation algorithms is
…………...straightforward
than it is for exact algorithms

A : More

B : Less

C:

D:

Q.no 5. What is the worst case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 6. Which design strategy stops the execution when it finds the solution otherwise starts the
problem from top again?

A : Back Tracking

B : Branch and Bound

C : Divide And Conquer

D : Dynamic Programming

Q.no 7. What is best case complexity of Insertion sort

A:n

B : n^2

C : nlogn

D:

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Q.no 8. _____is the maximum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 9. O(2^n) means computing time is ____

A : Linear

B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

Q.no 10. _____is the minimum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 11. Algorithm can be represented as

A : Pseudocode

B : Flowchart

C : None of the above

D : both 1and 2

Q.no 12. In recursion, the condition for which the function will stop calling itself is?

A : Best case

B : Worst case

C : Base case

D : There is no such condition

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Q.no 13. def f():


int a[n][n]
// Finding sum of elements of a matrix that are above or on the diagonal.
sum = 0
for i = 1 to n:
for j = i to n:
sum += a[i][j]
print(sum)
Time Complexity of this program:

A : O(n)

B : O(nlogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^3)

Q.no 14. In Algorithm Specification the blockes are indicated with matching

A : Braces

B : Parenthesis

C : Square Brackets

D : Slashes

Q.no 15. Which Programming is based on stepwise refinement process.

A : Structural

B : C programming

C : Procedural

D : Fine

Q.no 16. Which of the following standard algorithms is not a Greedy algorithm?

A : Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm

B : Prim’s algorithm

C : Huffman Coding

D : Bellmen Ford Shortest path algorithm

Q.no 17. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c, n0 such that 0 ≤ c.g(n) ≤ f(n), for
all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))
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B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 18. What term is used to describe O(n) algorithm?

A : Constant

B : Non polynomial deterministic

C : logarithmic

D : linear

Q.no 19. For the improvement of efficiency of quick sort the pivot can be____

A : the first element

B : the middle element

C : the last element

D : any random element

Q.no 20. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : Backtracking

B : Greedy Algorithm

C : Divide And Conquer

D : Dynamic Programming

Q.no 21. An algorithm that always runs in polynomial time but possibly returns erroneous
answers is called a …………

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 22. Which of the following problems is NOT solved using dynamic programming?

A : 0/1 Knapsack Problem

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B : Matrix Chain Multiplication Problem

C : Edit Distance Problem

D : Fractional Knapsack Problem

Q.no 23. Mathematical induction allows us to prove the correctness and efficiency of algorithm
both

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 24. which of the following is not a characteristics of good algorithm

A : precise

B : Ambigous

C : finite number of steps

D : logical flow of control

Q.no 25. What is work?

A : Execution time of single thread

B : Average of all threads

C : Sum of the times taken by each thread

D : Sum of the times taken by child threads only

Q.no 26. Which one of the following is true about Binary search?

A : the best-case occurs when the target item is in the beginning of the search list

B : the best-case occurs when the target is at the end of the search list

C : the worst-case is when the target item is not in the search list

D : the worst-case is when the target is found in the middle of the search list

Q.no 27. ____________ is an algorithm design method that can be used when the solution to a
problem can be viewed as the result of a sequence of decisions

A : Dynamic Programming

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B : Backtracking

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 28. Given an array of elements 5, 7, 9, 1, 3, 10, 8, 4. Which of the following is the correct
sequences of elements after inserting all the elements in a min-heap?

A : 1,3,4,5,7,8,9,10

B : 1,4,3,9,8,5,7,10

C : 1,3,4,5,8,7,9,10

D : 1,3,7,4,8,5,9,10

Q.no 29. What are desirable characteristics of Algorithm with efficiency 1)Generality 2)
Availability 3) Simplicity

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 30. What is base case in the given code?

A : Fn(10)

B : return

C : if (n==0)

D : Fn(n-1)

Q.no 31. Which of the given options provides the increasing order of asymptotic complexity of
functions f1, f2, f3 and f4?
f1(n) = 2^n
f2(n) = n^(3/2)
f3(n) = nLogn
f4(n) = n^(Logn)

A : f3, f2, f4, f1

B : f3, f2, f1, f4

C : f2, f3, f1, f4

D : None of these
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Q.no 32. From the following choose the one which belongs to the algorithm paradigm other than
to which others from the following belongs to.

A : Minimum & Maximum problem

B : Knapsack problem

C : Selection problem

D : Merge sort

Q.no 33. What is the time, space complexity of following code: int a = 0, b = 0;
for (i = 0; i < N; i++) {
a = a + rand();
}
for (j = 0; j < M; j++) {
b = b + rand();
}

A : O(N * M) time, O(1) space

B : O(N + M) time, O(N + M) space

C : O(N + M) time, O(1) space

D : O(N * M) time, O(N + M) space

Q.no 34. In the principle of mathematical induction, which of the following steps is mandatory?

A : induction hypothesis

B : induction reference

C : induction set assumption

D:

Q.no 35. What is the time complexity of Huffman Coding?

A : O(n)

B : O(NlogN)

C:

D:

Q.no 36. The number of trees in a binomial heap with n nodes is

A : log n

B:n
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C : n log n

D : n/2

Q.no 37. Which of the following is false in the case of a spanning tree of a graph G?

A : It is tree that spans G

B : It is a subgraph of the G

C : It includes every vertex of the G

D : It can be either cyclic or acyclic

Q.no 38. Arrange following from lowest to highest order by complexity wise A log n B n! C nlogn

A : A,B, C

B : B, C, A

C : A, C, B

D : B,A, C

Q.no 39. Let X be a problem that belongs to the class NP. Then which one of the following is
TRUE?

A : There is no polynomial time algorithm for X.

B : If X can be solved deterministically in polynomial time, then P = NP.

C : If X is NP-hard, then it is NP-complete.

D : X may be undecidable.

Q.no 40. To prove the statement " There are infinitely many prime numbers" by contradiction
what is the assumption for P?

A : P is infinite set

B : P is finite set

C:

D:

Q.no 41. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

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C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

Q.no 42. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 43. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 44. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 45. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 46. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=40. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

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A : 10080

B : 11070

C : 130110

D : 11080

Q.no 47. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

Q.no 48. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 49. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 50. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

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Q.no 51. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 52. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time complexity in
Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

D : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

Q.no 53. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 54. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 55. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

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Q.no 56. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 57. Fill in the blank. Proof by induction is a technique used to prove statements about
objects that can be defined using …………………

A : recursive functions.

B : iterative function

C : built in function

D:

Q.no 58. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

Q.no 59. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

Q.no 60. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

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D : S. Golomb

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What approach is being followed in Floyd Warshall Algorithm?

A : Greedy Technique

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Linear Programming

D : Backtracking

Q.no 2. steps followed in mathematical induction are 1)basis 2)Induction step 3) Induction
hypothesis

A : steps 1and 2 only

B : steps 2 and 3 only

C : steps 1,2, 3

D : steps 1 and 3 only

Q.no 3. Which of the following is incorrect for the given phrase: ’solvable by non deterministic
algorithms in polynomial time’
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A : NP problems

B : P problem

C : NP complete problem

D : NP hard problem

Q.no 4. If the children of the root,from left to right, are the roots of Bk−1, Bk−2, . . . , B1, B0,
then root has degree .........

A : K-1

B:K

C : K+1

D : K+2

Q.no 5. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are 1)time 2) space 3) lines of code

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 6. All the iterations in the parallel loop should be __________

A : Independent

B : Dependent

C:

D:

Q.no 7. Which is an essential tool for proving the statement that proves an algorithm's
correctness.

A : Mathematical induction

B : Flow chart

C : Pseudo code

D : Recursion

Q.no 8. In a binomial heap the root value is greater than left child and less than right child.

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A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 9. Which of the following problems is NOT NP complete?

A : Hamiltonian circuit

B : Bin packing

C : Partition problem

D : Halting problem

Q.no 10. _____is the minimum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 11. What is the average case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 12. What is the worst case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 13. Uniprocessor executes____instruction at a time

A : Many
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B : Two

C : One

D : Three

Q.no 14. The fundamental unit of neural network is

A : Brain

B : Nucleus

C : Neuron

D : Axon

Q.no 15. What is the best case time complexity of binary search?

A : O(n)

B : O(1)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n^2)

Q.no 16. Which is the process of executing a correct program on data sets and
measuring the time and space it takes tocompute the results.

A : Debugging

B : Profiling

C : Conquer

D : Combining

Q.no 17. Binomial tree with zero order has only

A : 1 Node

B : 2 Nodes

C : 3 Nodes

D : 4 Nodes

Q.no 18. O(2^n) means computing time is ____

A : Linear

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B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

Q.no 19. What term is used to describe O(n) algorithm?

A : Constant

B : Non polynomial deterministic

C : logarithmic

D : linear

Q.no 20. With minimal weighted external path length obtained by an optimal set Huffman codes
are the applications of?

A : BST

B : MST

C : Binary Tree

D : Weighted Graph

Q.no 21. Parallel loops are like an ordinary_______________except that the iterations of the loop
can execute concurrently.

A : While loop

B : For Loop

C : Do while loop

D : If statement

Q.no 22. Which of the following branch and bound strategy leads to depth first search?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 23. Which of the following problems can’t be solved using recursion?

A : Factorial of a number

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B : Nth fibonacci number

C : Length of a string

D : Problems without base case

Q.no 24. What is worst case in Naive Pattern matching algorithm.

A : The first character of the pattern is not present in text at all.

B : When all characters of the text and pattern are same.

C : when only the last character is different.

D : Both B and C

Q.no 25. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as ……… problems.

A : Intractable

B : Tractable

C : Undecidable

D : Decidable

Q.no 26. A strand of maximal length is called as ______________

A : Process

B : Work

C : Thread

D : Span

Q.no 27. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is______

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Back Tracking

D : Branch & Bound

Q.no 28. In analysis of algorithm, approximate relationship between the size of the job and the
amount of work required to do is expressed by using

A : Central tendency

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B : Differential equation

C : Order of execution

D : Order of Storage

Q.no 29. Which of the following problems is similar to that of a Hamiltonian path problem?

A : knapsack problem

B : closest pair problem

C : travelling salesman problem

D : assignment problem

Q.no 30. The number of trees in a binomial heap with n nodes is

A : log n

B:n

C : n log n

D : n/2

Q.no 31. A Fibonacci heap uses ………… memory than a binary heap.

A : less

B : equal

C : more

D : cannot say

Q.no 32. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch and bound

D : Greedy method

Q.no 33. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of knapsack is
40. Find the maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 100, 80

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B : 110, 70

C : 130, 110

D : 110, 80

Q.no 34. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{40,20},{30,10},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=20. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible.

A : 60

B : 80

C : 100

D : 40

Q.no 35. what are the basic rules of recursion

A : Each recursive call should be on a smaller instance of the same problem, that is, a smaller
subproblem

B : The recursive calls must eventually reach a base case, which is solved without further recursion.

C : both 1 and 2

D : Either 1 or 2

Q.no 36. Which data structure has a better amortized running time than others?

A : Queue

B : Stack

C : Priority Queue

D : List

Q.no 37. What will be the position of 6, when a max heap is constructed on the input elements 6,
71, 46, 8, 13, 16, 14, 66, 31, 27?

A : 6 will be at the root

B : 6 will be at the last level

C : 6 will be at the second level

D : 6 can be anywhere in the heap

Q.no 38. What is base case in the given code?

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A : F1()

B : return

C : both

D : neither 1 nor 2

Q.no 39. What is work?

A : Execution time of single thread

B : Average of all threads

C : Sum of the times taken by each thread

D : Sum of the times taken by child threads only

Q.no 40. Which of the following options match the given statement:
The algorithms that use the random input to reduce the expected running time or memory usage,
but always terminate with a correct result in a bounded amount of time.

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 41. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 42. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

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Q.no 43. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time complexity in
Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

D : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

Q.no 44. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 45. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 46. How many times is the recursive function called, when the following code is executed?

A:7

B:9

C : 11

D : 13

Q.no 47. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

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C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 48. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

Q.no 49. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

C : actual time required

D : actual memory required

Q.no 50. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 51. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 52. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

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B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 53. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 54. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 55. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 56. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 57. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a

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polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 58. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 59. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 60. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=40. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 10080

B : 11070

C : 130110

D : 11080

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. In Huffman coding, data in a tree is always present at?

A : Roots

B : Leafs

C : Left Sub Trees

D : Right Sub Trees

Q.no 2. Who created the Rabin Karp Algorithm?

A : Joseph Rabin and Michael Karp

B : Michael Rabin and Joseph Karp

C : Richard Karp and Michael Rabin

D : Michael Karp and Richard Rabin

Q.no 3. 0 1 knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method
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B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 4. Matrix chain multiplication problem is solved by which approach?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Approach

Q.no 5. There are four algorithms A1, A2, A3, A4 to solve the given problem with the order
log(n), nlog(n), log(log(n)), n^2, Which is the best algorithm.

A : A1

B : A2

C : A3

D : A4

Q.no 6. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem Solving Technique

B : Data Structure

C : Sorting Algorithm

D : Type Of Tree

Q.no 7. The best suited algorithm could be decided using proof technique

A : false

B : true

C:

D:

Q.no 8. Which of the following is incorrect? Algorithms can be represented:

A : Pseudocode

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B : Programme

C : Grammar

D : flowchart

Q.no 9. state whether True or false. Algorithms are as impotant as advanced technologies

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 10. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Branch And Bound

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 11. In the absence of a exit condition in a recursive function, the following error is given by?

A : Compile time error

B : Run time error

C : Logical error

D : No error

Q.no 12. Choose the correct option

A : Recursion is always better than iteration

B : Recursion uses more memory compared to iteration

C : Recursion uses less memory compared to iteration

D : Iterative function is always better and simpler to write than recursion

Q.no 13. Binomial tree with zero order has only

A : 1 Node

B : 2 Nodes
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C : 3 Nodes

D : 4 Nodes

Q.no 14. Dijkstra’s Algorithm cannot be applied on ………….

A : Directed and weighted graphs

B : Graphs having negative weight function

C : Unweighted graphs

D : Undirected and unweighted graphs

Q.no 15. parallel algorithms that can run on a ____________ that permits multiple instructions to
execute concurrently

A : Uniprocessor

B : Serial Computer

C : Mainframe Computer

D : Multiprocessor computer

Q.no 16. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 17. What does the algorithmic analysis count?

A : The number of arithmetic and the operations that are required to run the program

B : The number of lines required by the program

C : The number of seconds required by the program to execute

D : The size of the input

Q.no 18. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

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C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 19. Which of the following problems is NOT NP complete?

A : Hamiltonian circuit

B : Bin packing

C : Partition problem

D : Halting problem

Q.no 20. The Data structure used in standard implementation of Breadth First search
is___________

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked List

D : Tree

Q.no 21. Given an array of elements 5, 7, 9, 1, 3, 10, 8, 4. Which of the following is the correct
sequences of elements after inserting all the elements in a min-heap?

A : 1,3,4,5,7,8,9,10

B : 1,4,3,9,8,5,7,10

C : 1,3,4,5,8,7,9,10

D : 1,3,7,4,8,5,9,10

Q.no 22. Parallel loops are like an ordinary_______________except that the iterations of the loop
can execute concurrently.

A : While loop

B : For Loop

C : Do while loop

D : If statement

Q.no 23. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the matrix chain multiplication
problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

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B : Greedy

C : Backtracking

D : Dynamic Programming, Brute Force, Recursion

Q.no 24. In the principle of mathematical induction, which of the following steps is mandatory?

A : induction hypothesis

B : induction reference

C : induction set assumption

D:

Q.no 25. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{40,20},{30,10},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=20. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible.

A : 60

B : 80

C : 100

D : 40

Q.no 26. The term ________ refers to all state space search methods in which all children of the –
nodes are generated before any other live node can become the E-node.

A : Backtacking

B : Depth First Search

C : Branch And Bound

D : Breadth First Search

Q.no 27. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 28. we can refere to the common sense/ intution while specifing the algorithm

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A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 29. Time taken in decreasing the node value in a binomial heap is

A : O(n)

B : O(1)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 30. A binomial heap with n nodes contains not more than ………. binomial trees.

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n+1)

D : O(n-1)

Q.no 31. The time taken by nondeterministic sorting algorithm is ______

A : O(1)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n)

D : O(n^2)

Q.no 32. Consider the following three claims

1. (n + k)m = Θ(nm), where k and m are constants


2. 2n + 1 = O(2n)
3. 22n + 1 = O(2n)
Which of these claims are correct ?

A : 1 and 2

B : 1 and 3

C : 2 and 3

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D : 1, 2, and 3

Q.no 33. Choose the correct steps to prove if the vertex cover problem is NP-Complete. I-- Vertex
Cover problem is in NP II--Clique problem is in NP III--Prove that Clique problem ≤ Vertex
Cover Problem in polynomial time IV---Prove that Vertex Cover problem ≤ Clique Problem in
polynomial time

A : I and III

B : I and IV

C : II and III

D : II and IV

Q.no 34. Prims algorithm is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 35. For a good loop invariant, following property is not important

A : Initialization

B : Maintenance

C : Termination:

D : loop condition

Q.no 36. Which of the following problems is equivalent to the 0-1 Knapsack problem?

A : You are given a bag that can carry a maximum weight of W. You are given N items which have a
weight of {w1, w2, w3,…., wn} and a value of {v1, v2, v3,…., vn}. You can break the items into
smaller pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value

B : You are studying for an exam and you have to study N questions. The questions take {t1, t2, t3,….,
tn} time(in hours) and carry {m1, m2, m3,…., mn} marks. You can study for a maximum of T hours.
You can either study a question or leave it. Choose the questions in such a way that your score is
maximized

C : You are given infinite coins of denominations {v1, v2, v3,….., vn} and a sum S. You have to find
the minimum number of coins required to get the sum S

D : You are given a suitcase that can carry a maximum weight of 15kg. You are given 4 items which
have a weight of {10, 20, 15,40} and a value of {1, 2, 3,4}. You can break the items into smaller
pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value
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Q.no 37. A problem in NP is NP-complete if

A : It can be reduced to the 3-SAT problem in polynomial time

B : The 3-SAT problem can be reduced to it in polynomial time

C : It can be reduced to any other problem in NP in polynomial time

D : some problem in NP can be reduced to it in polynomial time

Q.no 38. What is true about Dynamic Programming

A : It Didn’T Find All Possible Solution

B : It Is Not Suitable For Solving Optimization Problems

C : Avoid The Re-Computation Of Overlapping Sub-Problems

D : Reliability Design Problem Is Not Solved

Q.no 39. Why can’t we design a perfect neural network?

A : Full Operation Is Still Known Of Biological Neurons

B : Number Of Neuron Is Itself Not Precisely Known

C : Number Of Interconnection Is Very Less & Is Very Easy

D : Easy Network

Q.no 40. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : Branch And Bound Isworst Method

B : Branch And Bound Is Not Suitable Where A Greedy Algorithm Is Not Applicable

C : Branch And Bound Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

D : Backtracking Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

Q.no 41. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

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Q.no 42. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 43. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

Q.no 44. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 45. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

Q.no 46. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

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Q.no 47. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 48. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 49. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

Q.no 50. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 51. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

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Q.no 52. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 53. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 54. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 55. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

Q.no 56. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

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Q.no 57. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 58. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

C : 38.3

D : 45

Q.no 59. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 60. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Operations in the neural networks can perform what kind of operations?

A : Not In Serial

B : Not In Parallel

C : Serial Or Parallel

D : Partial

Q.no 2. Genetic algorithms are

A : Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm

B : Binary search algorithm

C : Simulated Annealing

D : Adaptive Linear

Q.no 3. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?

A : Exhaustive Search
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B : Greedy Algorithm

C : Brute Force Algorithm

D : Divide And Conquer Algorithm

Q.no 4. Which of the following is the most commonly used data structure for implementing
Dijkstra’s Algorithm?

A : Max priority queue

B : Stack

C : Circular queue

D : Min priority queue

Q.no 5. 0 1 knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 6. What is the time complexity of Dijikstra’s algorithm?

A : O(n)

B : O(n^3)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(log n)

Q.no 7. Uniprocessor executes____instruction at a time

A : Many

B : Two

C : One

D : Three

Q.no 8. parallel algorithms that can run on a ____________ that permits multiple instructions to
execute concurrently

A : Uniprocessor

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B : Serial Computer

C : Mainframe Computer

D : Multiprocessor computer

Q.no 9. if x and y are Irrational numbers then x**y is

A : Rational

B : Irrational

C:

D:

Q.no 10. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve ………. problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 11. In a max-heap, element with the greatest key is always in the which node?

A : Leaf node

B : First node of left sub tree

C : Root node

D : First node of right sub tree

Q.no 12. What is the average case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 13. _____is the minimum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case
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C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 14. Pseudocode is______________

A : Language dependent

B : Language independent

C:

D:

Q.no 15. The main distinguishable characteristic of a binomial heap from a binary heap is that

A : It allows union operations very efficiently.

B : It does not allow union operations that could easily be implemented in binary heap.

C : The heap structure is not similar to complete binary tree.

D : The location of child node is not fixed.

Q.no 16. If the children of the root,from left to right, are the roots of Bk−1, Bk−2, . . . , B1, B0,
then root has degree .........

A : K-1

B:K

C : K+1

D : K+2

Q.no 17. The goal of structured programming is to

A : have well indented programs

B : be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code

C : be able to infer the flow of control from the program text

D : avoid the use of GOTO statements

Q.no 18. In an amortized analysis, the time required to perform a sequence of data structure
operations is summed over all the operations performed. This statement is true or false.

A : true

B : false

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C:

D:

Q.no 19. Example of O(n) algorithms is______________

A : Multiplying two numbers.

B : linear search

C : assigning a value to a variable

D : displaying some integer on console

Q.no 20. Genetic algorithm uses

A : Natural Functions

B : Fitness Functions

C : Minimize Objective Functions

D : Member Function

Q.no 21. we can refere to the common sense/ intution while specifing the algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 22. Which of the following is false in the case of a spanning tree of a graph G?

A : It is tree that spans G

B : It is a subgraph of the G

C : It includes every vertex of the G

D : It can be either cyclic or acyclic

Q.no 23. which of the following is not basic control structure

A : the process

B : the decision

C : the loop
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D : the sequential

Q.no 24. Running the program many times is sufficient to prove the correctness of program

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 25. To prove the statement " There are infinitely many prime numbers" by contradiction
what is the assumption for P?

A : P is infinite set

B : P is finite set

C:

D:

Q.no 26. What will be the position of 6, when a max heap is constructed on the input elements 6,
71, 46, 8, 13, 16, 14, 66, 31, 27?

A : 6 will be at the root

B : 6 will be at the last level

C : 6 will be at the second level

D : 6 can be anywhere in the heap

Q.no 27. What is work?

A : Execution time of single thread

B : Average of all threads

C : Sum of the times taken by each thread

D : Sum of the times taken by child threads only

Q.no 28. Suppose SAT reduces to a problem C. To claim that C is NP-complete, we additionally
need to show that:

A : There is a checking algorithm for C.

B : Every instance of C maps to an instance of SAT.

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C : Every instance of SAT maps to an instance of C.

D : C does not have an efficient algorithm.

Q.no 29. loop termination condition along with what makes loop correct

A : loop condition

B : loop increment variable

C : loop invariant

D : none of these

Q.no 30. Which of the following problems is equivalent to the 0-1 Knapsack problem?

A : You are given a bag that can carry a maximum weight of W. You are given N items which have a
weight of {w1, w2, w3,…., wn} and a value of {v1, v2, v3,…., vn}. You can break the items into
smaller pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value

B : You are studying for an exam and you have to study N questions. The questions take {t1, t2, t3,….,
tn} time(in hours) and carry {m1, m2, m3,…., mn} marks. You can study for a maximum of T hours.
You can either study a question or leave it. Choose the questions in such a way that your score is
maximized

C : You are given infinite coins of denominations {v1, v2, v3,….., vn} and a sum S. You have to find
the minimum number of coins required to get the sum S

D : You are given a suitcase that can carry a maximum weight of 15kg. You are given 4 items which
have a weight of {10, 20, 15,40} and a value of {1, 2, 3,4}. You can break the items into smaller
pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value

Q.no 31. Let X be a problem that belongs to the class NP. Then which one of the following is
TRUE?

A : There is no polynomial time algorithm for X.

B : If X can be solved deterministically in polynomial time, then P = NP.

C : If X is NP-hard, then it is NP-complete.

D : X may be undecidable.

Q.no 32. Consider the following three claims

1. (n + k)m = Θ(nm), where k and m are constants


2. 2n + 1 = O(2n)
3. 22n + 1 = O(2n)
Which of these claims are correct ?

A : 1 and 2

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B : 1 and 3

C : 2 and 3

D : 1, 2, and 3

Q.no 33. For a good loop invariant, following property is not important

A : Initialization

B : Maintenance

C : Termination:

D : loop condition

Q.no 34. Which of the following options match the given statement:
The algorithms that use the random input to reduce the expected running time or memory usage,
but always terminate with a correct result in a bounded amount of time.

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 35. What is base case in the given code?

A : Fn(10)

B : return

C : if (n==0)

D : Fn(n-1)

Q.no 36. In dynamic programming, the technique of storing the previously calculated values is
called ___________

A : Saving Value Property

B : Storing Value Property

C : Memoization

D : Mapping

Q.no 37. Why can’t we design a perfect neural network?

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A : Full Operation Is Still Known Of Biological Neurons

B : Number Of Neuron Is Itself Not Precisely Known

C : Number Of Interconnection Is Very Less & Is Very Easy

D : Easy Network

Q.no 38. A strand of maximal length is called as ______________

A : Process

B : Work

C : Thread

D : Span

Q.no 39. Given an array of elements 5, 7, 9, 1, 3, 10, 8, 4. Which of the following is the correct
sequences of elements after inserting all the elements in a min-heap?

A : 1,3,4,5,7,8,9,10

B : 1,4,3,9,8,5,7,10

C : 1,3,4,5,8,7,9,10

D : 1,3,7,4,8,5,9,10

Q.no 40. Choose the correct steps to prove if the 3 SAT CNF problem is NP-Complete. I-- SAT
problem is in NP II--3 SAT CNF problem is in NP III--Prove that SAT ≤ 3 SAT CNF Problem in
polynomial time IV---Prove that 3 SAT CNF problem ≤ SAT Problem in polynomial time

A : I and III

B : I and IV

C : II and III

D : II and IV

Q.no 41. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

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Q.no 42. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 43. What is time complexity of fun()? int fun(int n)


{
int count = 0;
for (int i = n; i > 0; i /= 2)
for (int j = 0; j < i; j++)
count += 1;
return count;
}

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

C : O( n)

D : O(log n)

Q.no 44. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 45. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 46. What are the parameters of annealing?

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A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

Q.no 47. Fill in the blank. Proof by induction is a technique used to prove statements about
objects that can be defined using …………………

A : recursive functions.

B : iterative function

C : built in function

D:

Q.no 48. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 49. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 50. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

Q.no 51. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

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A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 52. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

Q.no 53. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 54. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 55. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 56. How many times is the recursive function called, when the following code is executed?

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A:7

B:9

C : 11

D : 13

Q.no 57. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a
polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 58. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 59. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

C : Inappropriate

D : Not In Iterative Nature

Q.no 60. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

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D : 130

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is d

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is incorrect? Algorithms can be represented:

A : Pseudocode

B : Programme

C : Grammar

D : flowchart

Q.no 2. state whether True or false. Algorithms are as impotant as advanced technologies

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 3. Hamiltonian path problem is _________

A : NP problem
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B : N class problem

C : P class problem

D : NP complete problem

Q.no 4. In an amortized analysis, the time required to perform a sequence of data structure
operations is summed over all the operations performed. This statement is true or false.

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 5. Which is a condition about the relationship between the variables of our program which
is definitely true immediately before and immediately after each iteration of the loop?

A : For condition

B : Loop invariant condition

C : Both a and b

D : If condition

Q.no 6. Floyd-Warshall algorithm, which finds shortest paths between all pairs of vertices, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 7. which of the following is not a proof technique

A : Contradiction

B : Approximation

C : Mathematical induction

D:

Q.no 8. Algorithm must have atleast one external input

A : true

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B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 9. Which of the following is incorrect for the given phrase: ’solvable by non deterministic
algorithms in polynomial time’

A : NP problems

B : P problem

C : NP complete problem

D : NP hard problem

Q.no 10. The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has balanced
parentheses is a

A : queue

B : stack

C : tree

D : list

Q.no 11. def f():


int a[n][n]
// Finding sum of elements of a matrix that are above or on the diagonal.
sum = 0
for i = 1 to n:
for j = i to n:
sum += a[i][j]
print(sum)
Time Complexity of this program:

A : O(n)

B : O(nlogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^3)

Q.no 12. Pseudocode is______________

A : Language dependent

B : Language independent

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C:

D:

Q.no 13. Master theorem applies to recurrences of the form (a=1 and b>1) are two constants.
Select one:

A : T(N)=A.T(N/B)+F(N)

B : T(n)=n.T(n/2)+b.f(n)

C : T(N)=A.T(N-1)+B

D : T(N)=N.T(N-3)+B

Q.no 14. In computer science, algorithm refers to a special method usable by a computer for the
solution to a problem.

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 15. One can have __________, where each processor can directly access any location of
memory

A : Shared Memory

B : Cache Memory

C : Distributed Memory

D : Private Memory

Q.no 16. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are

A : Processor and memory

B : Complexity and capacity

C : Time and Space

D : Speed and Storage

Q.no 17. In a computational complexity theory, a problem with decision making is said to be NP-
complete when it is both in NP and NP-hard. What does NP mean?

A : Non Polynomial time

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B : Non-deterministic Probabilistic

C : Non-deterministic Polynomial time

D : Non Probabilistic time

Q.no 18. What’s happen if base condition is not defined in recursion ?

A : stack underflow

B : stack overflow

C : both

D:

Q.no 19. What is the best case time complexity of binary search?

A : O(n)

B : O(1)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n^2)

Q.no 20. Which of the following statements is true?

A : Recursion is always better than iteration

B : Recursion uses more memory compared to iteration

C : Recursion uses less memory compared to iteration

D : Iteration is always better and simpler than recursion

Q.no 21. Which of the following statements about loop invariants is false?

A : Loop invariants are used to show that algorithms produce the correct results.

B : A loop invariant is the opposite, that is the negation, of the condition of the loop.

C : To prove that a statement is a loop invariant, we use mathematical induction.

D : Loop invariants remain true each time a loop is executed.

Q.no 22. Generally greedy algorithms are are in nature of

A : Iterative

B : Recursive
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C : Both A and B

D : Neither A Nor B

Q.no 23. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 24. which of the following is not basic control structure

A : the process

B : the decision

C : the loop

D : the sequential

Q.no 25. Simulated annealing (SA) is

A : A Probabilistic Technique For Approximating The Global Optimum Of A Given Function

B : It Is A Exact Local Optimization In A Small Search Space For Problem

C : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

D : It Is Not Used When The Search Space Is Discrete

Q.no 26. In the principle of mathematical induction, which of the following steps is mandatory?

A : induction hypothesis

B : induction reference

C : induction set assumption

D:

Q.no 27. When the proof of a statement is started by assuming the statement is false the type of
proof is called _________.

A : proof by induction

B : proof by deduction

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C : proof by contradiction

D:

Q.no 28. Which of these is false about recursion?

A : Recursive function can be replaced by a non-recursive function

B : Recursive functions usually take more memory space than non-recursive function

C : Recursive functions run faster than non-recursive function

D : Recursion makes programs easier to understand

Q.no 29. A problem in NP is NP-complete if

A : It can be reduced to the 3-SAT problem in polynomial time

B : The 3-SAT problem can be reduced to it in polynomial time

C : It can be reduced to any other problem in NP in polynomial time

D : some problem in NP can be reduced to it in polynomial time

Q.no 30. Mathematical induction allows us to prove the correctness and efficiency of algorithm
both

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 31. Consider the following function f:


int f(int n)
{
int s = 0;
while(n > 1)
{
n = n/2;
s++;
}
return s;
}
What is the asymptotic complexity in terms of n? (Pick the smallest correct answer)

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

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C : O(n)

D : O(log n )

Q.no 32. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 33. Which of the following statement about 0 1 knapsack and fractional knapsack problem
is correct?

A : In 0 1 knapsack problem items are divisible and in fractional knapsack items are indivisible

B : Both are the same

C : 0 1 knapsack is solved using a greedy algorithm and fractional knapsack is solved using dynamic
programming

D : In 0 1 knapsack problem items are indivisible and in fractional knapsack items are divisible

Q.no 34. Which of the following problems is equivalent to the 0-1 Knapsack problem?

A : You are given a bag that can carry a maximum weight of W. You are given N items which have a
weight of {w1, w2, w3,…., wn} and a value of {v1, v2, v3,…., vn}. You can break the items into
smaller pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value

B : You are studying for an exam and you have to study N questions. The questions take {t1, t2, t3,….,
tn} time(in hours) and carry {m1, m2, m3,…., mn} marks. You can study for a maximum of T hours.
You can either study a question or leave it. Choose the questions in such a way that your score is
maximized

C : You are given infinite coins of denominations {v1, v2, v3,….., vn} and a sum S. You have to find
the minimum number of coins required to get the sum S

D : You are given a suitcase that can carry a maximum weight of 15kg. You are given 4 items which
have a weight of {10, 20, 15,40} and a value of {1, 2, 3,4}. You can break the items into smaller
pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value

Q.no 35. In the development of dynamic programming the value of an optimal solution is
computed in Select one:

A : Top Up Fashion

B : Bottom Up Fashion
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C : In Any Way

D : Random

Q.no 36. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as ……… problems.

A : Intractable

B : Tractable

C : Undecidable

D : Decidable

Q.no 37. which is not the important aspect of Loop

A : Initial condition

B : nested loop

C : invariant relation

D : termination

Q.no 38. Which algorithm startegy builds up a solution by choosing the option that looks the best
at every step.

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 39. In analysis of algorithm, approximate relationship between the size of the job and the
amount of work required to do is expressed by using

A : Central tendency

B : Differential equation

C : Order of execution

D : Order of Storage

Q.no 40. Which of the following statement about 0/1 knapsack and fractional knapsack problem
is correct?

A : In 0/1 Knapsack Problem Items Are Divisible And In Fractional Knapsack Items Are Indivisible

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B : Both Are The Same

C : 0/1 Knapsack Is Solved Using A Greedy Algorithm And Fractional Knapsack Is Solved Using
Dynamic Programming

D : In 0/1 Knapsack Problem Items Are Indivisible And In Fractional Knapsack Items Are Divisible

Q.no 41. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 42. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time complexity in
Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

D : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

Q.no 43. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 44. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

C : Inappropriate

D : Not In Iterative Nature

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Q.no 45. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 46. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 47. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 48. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 49. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

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Q.no 50. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers " is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n(n-1)/2

D:

Q.no 51. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 52. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 53. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 54. Fill in the blank. Proof by induction is a technique used to prove statements about
objects that can be defined using …………………

A : recursive functions.

B : iterative function

C : built in function

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D:

Q.no 55. How many times is the recursive function called, when the following code is executed?

A:7

B:9

C : 11

D : 13

Q.no 56. To calculate c(i, j )’s, w( i, j)’s and r(i, j)’s; the OBST algorithm in worst case takes the
following time.

A : O(Log N)

B : O (N*N)

C : O (N*N*N)

D : O (N Log N)

Q.no 57. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 58. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 59. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

C : actual time required

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D : actual memory required

Q.no 60. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. In recursion, the condition for which the function will stop calling itself is

A : Best case

B : Worst case

C : Base case

D : There is no such condition

Q.no 2. state whether True or false. Algorithms are as impotant as advanced technologies

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 3. In computer science, algorithm refers to a special method usable by a computer for the
solution to a problem.

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A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 4. What will be the best case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 5. Steps of Divide and Conquer approach are______

A : Divide, Conquer And Combine

B : Combine, Conquer and Divide

C : Combine, Divide And Conquer

D : Divide, Combine And Conquer

Q.no 6. Express the formula (n-2)*(n-4) in terms of Theta Ɵ Notation

A : Ɵ(n^2)

B : Ɵ(8)

C : Ɵ(log n)

D : Ɵ(n)

Q.no 7. Which of the following is not characteristic of Algorithm

A : Definiteness

B : finiteness

C : scalability

D : effectiveness

Q.no 8. Which Programming is based on stepwise refinement process.

A : Structural
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B : C programming

C : Procedural

D : Fine

Q.no 9. In Huffman coding, data in a tree is always present at?

A : Roots

B : Leafs

C : Left Sub Trees

D : Right Sub Trees

Q.no 10. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS manner?

A : Branch And Bound

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Greedy Algorithm

D : Backtracking

Q.no 11. Algorithm must produce one output

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 12. What is the objective of the knapsack problem?

A : To Get Maximum Total Value In The Knapsack

B : To Get Minimum Total Value In The Knapsack

C : To Get Maximum Weight In The Knapsack

D : To Get Minimum Weight In The Knapsack

Q.no 13. Algorithm can be represented as

A : Pseudocode

B : Flowchart
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C : None of the above

D : both 1and 2

Q.no 14. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
………

A : time complexity

B : space complexity

C : computational complexity

D : problem complexity

Q.no 15. What term is used to describe O(n) algorithm?

A : Constant

B : Non polynomial deterministic

C : logarithmic

D : linear

Q.no 16. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the longest common subsequence
problem?

A : Not Recursion

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Algorithm

Q.no 17. O(2^n) means computing time is ____

A : Linear

B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

Q.no 18. In an amortized analysis, the time required to perform a sequence of data structure
operations is summed over all the operations performed. This statement is true or false.

A : true

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B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 19. Which of the following algorithms has worst time complexity?

A : insertion sort

B : binary search

C : linear search

D : merge sort

Q.no 20. which of the following is not a proof technique

A : Contradiction

B : Approximation

C : Mathematical induction

D:

Q.no 21. The speed up of a computation on P processors is defined as

A : T1 / T∞

B : T1 / Tp

C : Tp / T1

D : T∞/T1

Q.no 22. Dynamic Programming uses

A : Member Function

B : Principle Of Optimality

C : Fitness Function

D : Minimize Objective Function

Q.no 23. Which of the following is false in the case of a spanning tree of a graph G?

A : It is tree that spans G

B : It is a subgraph of the G
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C : It includes every vertex of the G

D : It can be either cyclic or acyclic

Q.no 24. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing optimal solutions
for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 25. Consider the strings “PQRSTPQRS” and “PRATPBRQRPS”. What is the length of the
longest common subsequence?

A:9

B:8

C:7

D:6

Q.no 26. subjective decision is important aspect of algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 27. Running the program many times is sufficient to prove the correctness of program

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 28. Dynamic programming is used to find:

A : All Optimal Solution Is Generated

B : One Solution Is Generated

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C : No Optimal Solution Is Generated

D : Partial Solution Is Generated

Q.no 29. What are desirable characteristics of Algorithm with efficiency 1)Generality 2)
Availability 3) Simplicity

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 30. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 31. What is the purpose of using randomized quick sort over standard quick sort?

A : To reduce worst case space complexity

B : To reduce worst case time complexity

C : To improve average case time complexity

D : To improve accuracy

Q.no 32. Which of the following is/are property/properties of a dynamic programming problem?

A : Evolutionary Approach

B : Require More Time

C : Greedy Approach

D : Optimal Substructure And Overlapping Subproblems

Q.no 33. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

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C : O(1)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 34. we can refere to the common sense/ intution while specifing the algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 35. Many multithreaded algorithms involving nested parallelism follow naturally from

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Divide and conquer

C : Greedy Method

D : Branch and Bound Method

Q.no 36. Which of the following problems is similar to that of a Hamiltonian path problem?

A : knapsack problem

B : closest pair problem

C : travelling salesman problem

D : assignment problem

Q.no 37. Which of the following problems can’t be solved using recursion?

A : Factorial of a number

B : Nth fibonacci number

C : Length of a string

D : Problems without base case

Q.no 38. The parallelism of a multithreaded computation is given by

A : T1 / Tp

B : T1 / T∞

C : T∞/T1
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D : Tp / T1

Q.no 39. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 40. From the following choose the one which belongs to the algorithm paradigm other than
to which others from the following belongs to.

A : Minimum & Maximum problem

B : Knapsack problem

C : Selection problem

D : Merge sort

Q.no 41. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 42. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 43. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

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C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 44. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 45. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 46. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 47. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 48. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

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C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 49. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 50. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 51. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 52. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 53. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

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A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

Q.no 54. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 55. What are the issues on which biological networks proves to be superior than AI
networks?

A : Robustness & Fault Tolerance

B : Inflexibility

C : Single Computation

D : No Computation

Q.no 56. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 57. What is time complexity of fun()? int fun(int n)


{
int count = 0;
for (int i = n; i > 0; i /= 2)
for (int j = 0; j < i; j++)
count += 1;
return count;
}

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )
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C : O( n)

D : O(log n)

Q.no 58. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 59. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time complexity in
Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

D : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

Q.no 60. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. To solve one problem how many algorithms are possible?

A : one

B : two

C : several

D:

Q.no 2. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?

A : Exhaustive Search

B : Greedy Algorithm

C : Brute Force Algorithm

D : Divide And Conquer Algorithm

Q.no 3. Pseudocode is______________

A : Language dependent
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B : Language independent

C:

D:

Q.no 4. O(n^3) means computing time is ____

A : Linear

B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

Q.no 5. What is the average case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 6. _____is the minimum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 7. Running time of algorithm varies with the size of the input called____

A : Growth of Function

B : Order of growth

C : Growth Rate

D : Growth of log function

Q.no 8. Recursion is a method in which the solution of a problem depends on?

A : Larger instances of different problems

B : Larger instances of the same problem


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C : Smaller instances of the same problem

D : Smaller instances of different problems

Q.no 9. Two main measure of efficiency of an algorithm

A : processor and memory

B : time and space

C : date and space

D : date and capacity

Q.no 10. Which of the following algorithms has worst time complexity?

A : insertion sort

B : binary search

C : linear search

D : merge sort

Q.no 11. Keywords________indicates that iteration of the loop may run concurrently.

A : Parallel loop

B : Thread

C : Parallel for

D : Multithreading

Q.no 12. What is the time complexity of following code: int a = 0;


for (i = 0; i < N; i++) {
for (j = N; j > i; j--) {
a = a + i + j;
}
}

A : O(N)

B : O(N*log(N))

C : O(N * Sqrt(N))

D : O(N*N)

Q.no 13. In recursion, the condition for which the function will stop calling itself is?

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A : Best case

B : Worst case

C : Base case

D : There is no such condition

Q.no 14. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 15. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 16. Matrix chain multiplication problem is solved by which approach?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Approach

Q.no 17. What is the worst case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 18. In an amortized analysis, the time required to perform a sequence of data structure
operations is summed over all the operations performed. This statement is true or false.

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A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 19. 0 1 knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 20. What does the algorithmic analysis count?

A : The number of arithmetic and the operations that are required to run the program

B : The number of lines required by the program

C : The number of seconds required by the program to execute

D : The size of the input

Q.no 21. Crossover operator of genetic algorithms is

A : Join Operator

B : Two Point Crossover

C : Selection

D : Multiplication

Q.no 22. Which of the following method is used for sorting in merge sort?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchanging

Q.no 23. The procedure FindMin() to find the minimum element and the procedure DeleteMin()
to delete the minimum element in min heap take ……….

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A : logarithmic and linear time constant respectively

B : constant and linear time respectively

C : constant and quadratic time respectively

D : constant and logarithmic time respectively

Q.no 24. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{40,20},{30,10},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=20. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible.

A : 60

B : 80

C : 100

D : 40

Q.no 25. Which of the following branch and bound strategy leads to breadth first search?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 26. Choose the option with function having same complexity for a Fibonacci heap.

A : Insertion, Merge

B : Insertion, Deletion

C : ExtractMin, Insertion

D : Merge, Deletion

Q.no 27. Which of the following can be used to define NP complete class? I) polynomial time
Verifier II) Polynomial time reducibility of the known NP complete problem

A : only I

B : only II

C : both I and II

D : neither I nor II

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Q.no 28. The speed up of a computation on P processors is defined as

A : T1 / T∞

B : T1 / Tp

C : Tp / T1

D : T∞/T1

Q.no 29. subjective decision is important aspect of algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 30. When a thread u spawns a new thread v, then (u,v) is called a

A : Simple edge

B : Return edge

C : Continuation edge

D : spawn edge

Q.no 31. What are desirable characteristics of Algorithm with efficiency 1)Generality 2)
Availability 3) Simplicity

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 32. which is not the important aspect of Loop

A : Initial condition

B : nested loop

C : invariant relation

D : termination

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Q.no 33. An algorithm that always runs in polynomial time but possibly returns erroneous
answers is called a …………

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 34. Which of the given options provides the increasing order of asymptotic complexity of
functions f1, f2, f3 and f4?
f1(n) = 2^n
f2(n) = n^(3/2)
f3(n) = nLogn
f4(n) = n^(Logn)

A : f3, f2, f4, f1

B : f3, f2, f1, f4

C : f2, f3, f1, f4

D : None of these

Q.no 35. which of the following is not a characteristics of good algorithm

A : precise

B : Ambigous

C : finite number of steps

D : logical flow of control

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Q.no 36.

A : 10

B:1

C : 10 9 8 ……1 0

D : 10 9 8 ……1

Q.no 37. What is true about Dynamic Programming

A : It Didn’T Find All Possible Solution

B : It Is Not Suitable For Solving Optimization Problems

C : Avoid The Re-Computation Of Overlapping Sub-Problems

D : Reliability Design Problem Is Not Solved

Q.no 38. Which of the following is/are property/properties of a dynamic programming problem?

A : Evolutionary Approach

B : Require More Time

C : Greedy Approach

D : Optimal Substructure And Overlapping Subproblems

Q.no 39. Which of the following problems is similar to that of a Hamiltonian path problem?

A : knapsack problem

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B : closest pair problem

C : travelling salesman problem

D : assignment problem

Q.no 40. What is the purpose of using randomized quick sort over standard quick sort?

A : To reduce worst case space complexity

B : To reduce worst case time complexity

C : To improve average case time complexity

D : To improve accuracy

Q.no 41. To calculate c(i, j )’s, w( i, j)’s and r(i, j)’s; the OBST algorithm in worst case takes the
following time.

A : O(Log N)

B : O (N*N)

C : O (N*N*N)

D : O (N Log N)

Q.no 42. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 43. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 44. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution

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set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 45. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 46. Fill in the blank. Proof by induction is a technique used to prove statements about
objects that can be defined using …………………

A : recursive functions.

B : iterative function

C : built in function

D:

Q.no 47. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

Q.no 48. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

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D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 49. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 50. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

Q.no 51. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

Q.no 52. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 53. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

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D : Not Flexible

Q.no 54. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 55. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=40. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 10080

B : 11070

C : 130110

D : 11080

Q.no 56. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

Q.no 57. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 58. What are requirements should a problem satisfy in order to be suitable for solving it by
a Genetic Algorithm?

A : The Fitness Function Cannot Be Well–Defined.

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B : Solutions Should Be Decomposable Into Steps (Building Blocks) Which Could Be Then Encoded
As Chromosomes.

C : The Member Function Can Be Well–Defined.

D : Minimize Functions

Q.no 59. What are the issues on which biological networks proves to be superior than AI
networks?

A : Robustness & Fault Tolerance

B : Inflexibility

C : Single Computation

D : No Computation

Q.no 60. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. A Greedy Algorithm can be used to solve all the Dynamic Programming problems.

A : True

B : FALSE

C:

D:

Q.no 2. Dijkstra algorithm, which solves the single-source shortest--paths problem, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 3. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?

A : Backtracking
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B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Divide And Conquer

Q.no 4. What will be the best case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 5. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : Backtracking

B : Greedy Algorithm

C : Divide And Conquer

D : Dynamic Programming

Q.no 6. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are

A : Processor and memory

B : Complexity and capacity

C : Time and Space

D : Speed and Storage

Q.no 7. Alorithm should have finite number of steps

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 8. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems
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C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 9. The Data structure used in standard implementation of Breadth First search
is___________

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Linked List

D : Tree

Q.no 10. In Algorithm Specification the blockes are indicated with matching

A : Braces

B : Parenthesis

C : Square Brackets

D : Slashes

Q.no 11. parallel algorithms that can run on a ____________ that permits multiple instructions to
execute concurrently

A : Uniprocessor

B : Serial Computer

C : Mainframe Computer

D : Multiprocessor computer

Q.no 12. Matrix chain multiplication problem is solved by which approach?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Approach

Q.no 13. If t1 (n) = O(f(n)), t2 (n)= O(g(n)). Then t1 (n).t2 (n)=_____

A : O(f(n))

B : O(g(n))

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C : O(f(n)g(n))

D : O(f(n)+ g(n))

Q.no 14. Which of the following algorithms has worst time complexity?

A : insertion sort

B : binary search

C : linear search

D : merge sort

Q.no 15. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are 1)time 2) space 3) lines of code

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

D:

Q.no 16. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Branch And Bound

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 17. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : NP class

B : P class

C : NP Complete

D : NP Hard

Q.no 18. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Array
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D : Linked List

Q.no 19. In artificial Neural Network interconnected processing elements are called

A : Nodes Or Neurons

B : Weights

C : Axons

D : Soma

Q.no 20. The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by

A : Counting microseconds

B : Counting the number of key operations

C : Counting the kilobytes of algorithm

D:

Q.no 21. ____________ is an algorithm design method that can be used when the solution to a
problem can be viewed as the result of a sequence of decisions

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 22. Prims algorithm is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 23. Consider the following three claims

1. (n + k)m = Θ(nm), where k and m are constants


2. 2n + 1 = O(2n)
3. 22n + 1 = O(2n)
Which of these claims are correct ?

A : 1 and 2

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B : 1 and 3

C : 2 and 3

D : 1, 2, and 3

Q.no 24. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of knapsack is
40. Find the maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 100, 80

B : 110, 70

C : 130, 110

D : 110, 80

Q.no 25. An algorithm that always runs in polynomial time but possibly returns erroneous
answers is called a …………

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 26. which of the following is not a characteristics of good algorithm

A : precise

B : Ambigous

C : finite number of steps

D : logical flow of control

Q.no 27. Generally greedy algorithms are are in nature of

A : Iterative

B : Recursive

C : Both A and B

D : Neither A Nor B

Q.no 28. Which data structure has a better amortized running time than others?

A : Queue

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B : Stack

C : Priority Queue

D : List

Q.no 29. What is base case in the given code?

A : F1()

B : return

C : both

D : neither 1 nor 2

Q.no 30. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 31. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing optimal solutions
for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 32. Genetic algorithm is

A : A Intelligent Simple Specified Search Technique

B : Used To Solve Non Optimization Problem

C : Is A Part Of Evolutionary Computing

D : Simulated Annealing

Q.no 33. Choose the correct steps to prove if the 3 SAT CNF problem is NP-Complete. I-- SAT
problem is in NP II--3 SAT CNF problem is in NP III--Prove that SAT ≤ 3 SAT CNF Problem in
polynomial time IV---Prove that 3 SAT CNF problem ≤ SAT Problem in polynomial time

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A : I and III

B : I and IV

C : II and III

D : II and IV

Q.no 34. What is work?

A : Execution time of single thread

B : Average of all threads

C : Sum of the times taken by each thread

D : Sum of the times taken by child threads only

Q.no 35. What is the pre-processing time of Rabin and Karp Algorithm?

A : Theta(m2)

B : Theta(mlogn)

C : Theta(m)

D : Big-Oh(n)

Q.no 36. Parallel loops are like an ordinary_______________except that the iterations of the loop
can execute concurrently.

A : While loop

B : For Loop

C : Do while loop

D : If statement

Q.no 37. what are the basic rules of recursion

A : Each recursive call should be on a smaller instance of the same problem, that is, a smaller
subproblem

B : The recursive calls must eventually reach a base case, which is solved without further recursion.

C : both 1 and 2

D : Either 1 or 2

Q.no 38. The time taken by nondeterministic sorting algorithm is ______

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A : O(1)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n)

D : O(n^2)

Q.no 39. If txt[] = "THIS IS A TEST TEXT" and pat[] = "TEST", what will be the index of
pattern?

A:9

B : 13

C : 11

D : 10

Q.no 40. The term ________ refers to all state space search methods in which all children of the –
nodes are generated before any other live node can become the E-node.

A : Backtacking

B : Depth First Search

C : Branch And Bound

D : Breadth First Search

Q.no 41. What are the issues on which biological networks proves to be superior than AI
networks?

A : Robustness & Fault Tolerance

B : Inflexibility

C : Single Computation

D : No Computation

Q.no 42. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

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Q.no 43. Assertion is

A : statement that is true all the time

B : statement about state of program

C : statement describing program statement

D:

Q.no 44. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 45. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 46. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 47. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a
polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

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C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 48. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

Q.no 49. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 50. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 51. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 52. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

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B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 53. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 54. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 55. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 56. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 57. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

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A : B0, B2,B3

B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 58. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 59. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

Q.no 60. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. In the absence of a exit condition in a recursive function, the following error is given by?

A : Compile time error

B : Run time error

C : Logical error

D : No error

Q.no 2. Which strategy is followed by QuickSort?

A : Greedy strategy

B : Brute Force technique

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 3. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c1, c2, n0 such that 0 ≤ c1.g(n) ≤ f(n)
≤ c2.g(n), for all n ≥ n0

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A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 4. If the children of the root,from left to right, are the roots of Bk−1, Bk−2, . . . , B1, B0,
then root has degree .........

A : K-1

B:K

C : K+1

D : K+2

Q.no 5. The problem of finding a path in a graph that visits every vertex exactly once is called?

A : Hamiltonian cycle problem

B : Hamiltonian path problem

C : Subset sum problem

D : Turnpike reconstruction problem

Q.no 6. Which design strategy stops the execution when it finds the solution otherwise starts the
problem from top again?

A : Back Tracking

B : Branch and Bound

C : Divide And Conquer

D : Dynamic Programming

Q.no 7. The goal of structured programming is to

A : have well indented programs

B : be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code

C : be able to infer the flow of control from the program text

D : avoid the use of GOTO statements

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not characteristic of Algorithm

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A : Definiteness

B : finiteness

C : scalability

D : effectiveness

Q.no 9. state whether True or false.. The solid base of algorithmic knowledge and technique is
one characteristic that separates the truly skilled programmers from the novices

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 10. The best suited algorithm could be decided using proof technique

A : false

B : true

C:

D:

Q.no 11. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Branch And Bound

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 12. Halting problem is an example for?

A : decidable problem

B : undecidable problem

C : complete problem

D : trackable problem

Q.no 13. Example of O(n) algorithms is______________

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A : Multiplying two numbers.

B : linear search

C : assigning a value to a variable

D : displaying some integer on console

Q.no 14. Fibonacci heap has better amortized running time compared to a binomial heap.

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 15. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : NP class

B : P class

C : NP Complete

D : NP Hard

Q.no 16. When an algorithm is written in the form of a specific programming language, it
becomes a _________

A : Pseudocode

B : Programme

C:

D:

Q.no 17. Binomial tree with zero order has only

A : 1 Node

B : 2 Nodes

C : 3 Nodes

D : 4 Nodes

Q.no 18. In a computational complexity theory, a problem with decision making is said to be NP-
complete when it is both in NP and NP-hard. What does NP mean?

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A : Non Polynomial time

B : Non-deterministic Probabilistic

C : Non-deterministic Polynomial time

D : Non Probabilistic time

Q.no 19. With minimal weighted external path length obtained by an optimal set Huffman codes
are the applications of?

A : BST

B : MST

C : Binary Tree

D : Weighted Graph

Q.no 20. The main distinguishable characteristic of a binomial heap from a binary heap is that

A : It allows union operations very efficiently.

B : It does not allow union operations that could easily be implemented in binary heap.

C : The heap structure is not similar to complete binary tree.

D : The location of child node is not fixed.

Q.no 21. To prove the statement " There are infinitely many prime numbers" by contradiction
what is the assumption for P?

A : P is infinite set

B : P is finite set

C:

D:

Q.no 22. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : Branch And Bound Isworst Method

B : Branch And Bound Is Not Suitable Where A Greedy Algorithm Is Not Applicable

C : Branch And Bound Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

D : Backtracking Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

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Q.no 23.

A : 10

B:1

C : 10 9 8 ……1 0

D : 10 9 8 ……1

Q.no 24. Which of these is false about recursion?

A : Recursive function can be replaced by a non-recursive function

B : Recursive functions usually take more memory space than non-recursive function

C : Recursive functions run faster than non-recursive function

D : Recursion makes programs easier to understand

Q.no 25. Which of the following options match the given statement:
The algorithms that use the random input to reduce the expected running time or memory usage,
but always terminate with a correct result in a bounded amount of time.

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 26. Which of the following can be used to define NP complete class? I) polynomial time
Verifier II) Polynomial time reducibility of the known NP complete problem

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A : only I

B : only II

C : both I and II

D : neither I nor II

Q.no 27. What is the time complexity of following code: int i, j, k = 0;


for (i = n / 2; i <= n; i++) {
for (j = 2; j <= n; j = j * 2) {
k = k + n / 2;
}
}

A : O(n)

B : O(nLogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^2Logn)

Q.no 28. Proof by contradiction is also known as

A : inverse proof

B : indirect proof

C : reverse proof

D:

Q.no 29. One important class of concurrency platform is

A : Parallel Programming

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Serial Programming

D : Multiprogramming

Q.no 30. What is work?

A : Execution time of single thread

B : Average of all threads

C : Sum of the times taken by each thread

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D : Sum of the times taken by child threads only

Q.no 31. What is worst case in Naive Pattern matching algorithm.

A : The first character of the pattern is not present in text at all.

B : When all characters of the text and pattern are same.

C : when only the last character is different.

D : Both B and C

Q.no 32. What is the time complexity of Huffman Coding?

A : O(n)

B : O(NlogN)

C:

D:

Q.no 33. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is______

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Back Tracking

D : Branch & Bound

Q.no 34. Arrange following from lowest to highest order by complexity wise A log n B n! C nlogn

A : A,B, C

B : B, C, A

C : A, C, B

D : B,A, C

Q.no 35. loop invariant property can be proved using

A : Mathematical Induction

B : Proof by cases

C : proof by contradiction

D : direct proof
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Q.no 36. which of the following is not basic control structure

A : the process

B : the decision

C : the loop

D : the sequential

Q.no 37. If txt[] = "THIS IS A TEST TEXT" and pat[] = "TEST", what will be the index of
pattern?

A:9

B : 13

C : 11

D : 10

Q.no 38. Consider the following three claims

1. (n + k)m = Θ(nm), where k and m are constants


2. 2n + 1 = O(2n)
3. 22n + 1 = O(2n)
Which of these claims are correct ?

A : 1 and 2

B : 1 and 3

C : 2 and 3

D : 1, 2, and 3

Q.no 39. Which of the following branch and bound strategy leads to breadth first search?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 40. Which data structure has a better amortized running time than others?

A : Queue

B : Stack

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C : Priority Queue

D : List

Q.no 41. Fill in the blank. Proof by induction is a technique used to prove statements about
objects that can be defined using …………………

A : recursive functions.

B : iterative function

C : built in function

D:

Q.no 42. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

C : 38.3

D : 45

Q.no 43. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 44. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 45. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a

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polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 46. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 47. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 48. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

Q.no 49. Basic operations like insertion, look-up and removal in splay trees are performed in
……. time.

A : O(1)

B : O(n)

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C : O(log n)

D : O(n log n)

Q.no 50. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 51. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

Q.no 52. What are requirements should a problem satisfy in order to be suitable for solving it by
a Genetic Algorithm?

A : The Fitness Function Cannot Be Well–Defined.

B : Solutions Should Be Decomposable Into Steps (Building Blocks) Which Could Be Then Encoded
As Chromosomes.

C : The Member Function Can Be Well–Defined.

D : Minimize Functions

Q.no 53. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 54. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

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B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 55. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 56. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 57. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers " is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n(n-1)/2

D:

Q.no 58. What is time complexity of fun()? int fun(int n)


{
int count = 0;
for (int i = n; i > 0; i /= 2)
for (int j = 0; j < i; j++)
count += 1;
return count;
}

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

C : O( n)
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D : O(log n)

Q.no 59. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

C : actual time required

D : actual memory required

Q.no 60. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10271_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur?

A : roots

B : leaves

C : left sub trees

D : right sub trees

Q.no 2. In a binomial heap the root value is greater than left child and less than right child.

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 3. 0 1 knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method
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B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 4. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c1, c2, n0 such that 0 ≤ c1.g(n) ≤ f(n)
≤ c2.g(n), for all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 5. Fractional knapsack problem is also known as

A : 0/1 knapsack problem

B : Continuous knapsack problem

C : Divisible knapsack problem

D : Non continuous knapsack problem

Q.no 6. Which is the process of executing a correct program on data sets and
measuring the time and space it takes tocompute the results.

A : Debugging

B : Profiling

C : Conquer

D : Combining

Q.no 7. There are four algorithms A1, A2, A3, A4 to solve the given problem with the order
log(n), nlog(n), log(log(n)), n^2, Which is the best algorithm.

A : A1

B : A2

C : A3

D : A4

Q.no 8. Steps of Divide and Conquer approach are______

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A : Divide, Conquer And Combine

B : Combine, Conquer and Divide

C : Combine, Divide And Conquer

D : Divide, Combine And Conquer

Q.no 9. waiting for the hardware advancements are always fruitful than finding the better
algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 10. All the iterations in the parallel loop should be __________

A : Independent

B : Dependent

C:

D:

Q.no 11. Fractional knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 12. Recursive function must have

A : switch -case

B : exit condition

C : loop

D:

Q.no 13. Heap can be used as ……………….

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A : Priority queue

B : Stack

C : A decreasing order array

D : Normal Array

Q.no 14. If a problem X is in NP and a polynomial time algorithm for X could also be used to
solve problem Y in polynomial time, then Y is also in NP

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 15. If the children of the root,from left to right, are the roots of Bk−1, Bk−2, . . . , B1, B0,
then root has degree .........

A : K-1

B:K

C : K+1

D : K+2

Q.no 16. The fundamental unit of neural network is

A : Brain

B : Nucleus

C : Neuron

D : Axon

Q.no 17. What is flowchart ?

A : Representation of memory usage in algorithm

B : Representation of Time required to execute algorithm

C : visual representaion of algorithm

D:

Q.no 18. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

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A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 19. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the longest common subsequence
problem?

A : Not Recursion

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Algorithm

Q.no 20. Halting problem is an example for?

A : decidable problem

B : undecidable problem

C : complete problem

D : trackable problem

Q.no 21. Which of the following branch and bound strategy leads to breadth first search?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 22. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the matrix chain multiplication
problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Greedy

C : Backtracking

D : Dynamic Programming, Brute Force, Recursion

Q.no 23. Which of the following is/are property/properties of a dynamic programming problem?

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A : Evolutionary Approach

B : Require More Time

C : Greedy Approach

D : Optimal Substructure And Overlapping Subproblems

Q.no 24. In amortized analysis, which method overcharges for operations early to compensate for
under-charges later?

A : Aggregate method

B : Accounting method

C : Potential method

D : Both aggregate and potential method

Q.no 25. subjective decision is important aspect of algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 26. ____________ is an algorithm design method that can be used when the solution to a
problem can be viewed as the result of a sequence of decisions

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 27. Which of the following options match the given statement:
The algorithms that use the random input to reduce the expected running time or memory usage,
but always terminate with a correct result in a bounded amount of time.

A : Las Vegas Algorithm

B : Monte Carlo Algorithm

C : Atlantic City Algorithm

D : Approximation algorithm

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Q.no 28. To prove the statement " There are infinitely many prime numbers" by contradiction
what is the assumption for P?

A : P is infinite set

B : P is finite set

C:

D:

Q.no 29. The term ________ refers to all state space search methods in which all children of the –
nodes are generated before any other live node can become the E-node.

A : Backtacking

B : Depth First Search

C : Branch And Bound

D : Breadth First Search

Q.no 30. Which data structure has a better amortized running time than others?

A : Queue

B : Stack

C : Priority Queue

D : List

Q.no 31. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 32. A problem in NP is NP-complete if

A : It can be reduced to the 3-SAT problem in polynomial time

B : The 3-SAT problem can be reduced to it in polynomial time

C : It can be reduced to any other problem in NP in polynomial time

D : some problem in NP can be reduced to it in polynomial time

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Q.no 33. we can refere to the common sense/ intution while specifing the algorithm

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 34. Running the program many times is sufficient to prove the correctness of program

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 35. Which of the following can be used to define NP complete class? I) polynomial time
Verifier II) Polynomial time reducibility of the known NP complete problem

A : only I

B : only II

C : both I and II

D : neither I nor II

Q.no 36. Let X be a problem that belongs to the class NP. Then which one of the following is
TRUE?

A : There is no polynomial time algorithm for X.

B : If X can be solved deterministically in polynomial time, then P = NP.

C : If X is NP-hard, then it is NP-complete.

D : X may be undecidable.

Q.no 37. What are desirable characteristics of Algorithm with efficiency 1)Generality 2)
Availability 3) Simplicity

A : 1 and 2

B : 2 and 3

C : 1 and 3

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D:

Q.no 38. Crossover operator of genetic algorithms is

A : Join Operator

B : Two Point Crossover

C : Selection

D : Multiplication

Q.no 39. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as ……… problems.

A : Intractable

B : Tractable

C : Undecidable

D : Decidable

Q.no 40. Which of the following is false in the case of a spanning tree of a graph G?

A : It is tree that spans G

B : It is a subgraph of the G

C : It includes every vertex of the G

D : It can be either cyclic or acyclic

Q.no 41. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 42. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time complexity in
Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

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C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

D : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n log n)

Q.no 43. What are the issues on which biological networks proves to be superior than AI
networks?

A : Robustness & Fault Tolerance

B : Inflexibility

C : Single Computation

D : No Computation

Q.no 44. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 45. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 46. What is the induction hypothesis assumption for the inequality m ! > 2^m where m>=4?

A : for m=k, k+1!>2^k holds

B : for m=k, k!>2^k holds

C : for m=k, k!>2^(k+1) holds

D:

Q.no 47. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

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C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 48. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=40. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 10080

B : 11070

C : 130110

D : 11080

Q.no 49. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 50. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 51. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

Q.no 52. A binomial heap with n = 13 nodes consists of ……….. Tree.

A : B0, B2,B3

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B : B2,B3,B4

C : B1,B2,B3,B4

D : B1,B2,B3

Q.no 53. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

C : Inappropriate

D : Not In Iterative Nature

Q.no 54. Consider the following code snippet. What will happen when the above snippet is
executed?

A : The code will be executed successfully and no output will be generated

B : The code will run for some time and stop when the stack overflows

C : The code will be executed successfully and random output will be generated

D : The code will show a compile time error

Q.no 55. How many times is the recursive function called, when the following code is executed?

A:7

B:9

C : 11

D : 13

Q.no 56. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 57. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

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A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 58. What is time complexity of fun()? int fun(int n)


{
int count = 0;
for (int i = n; i > 0; i /= 2)
for (int j = 0; j < i; j++)
count += 1;
return count;
}

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

C : O( n)

D : O(log n)

Q.no 59. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 60. Fill in the blank. Proof by induction is a technique used to prove statements about
objects that can be defined using …………………

A : recursive functions.

B : iterative function

C : built in function

D:

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 2. Application of Heap is

A : To search an element in the array

B : To sort the array

C : To evaluate a mathematical expression

D : To store an element in the array

Q.no 3. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path


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B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 4. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 5. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 6. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 7. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.

A : Union

B : Difference

C : Intersection

D : Complement

Q.no 8. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output
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C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 9. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 10. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 12. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 13. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}
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D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 14. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 15. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 16. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 17. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 18. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

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D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 19. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 20. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 21. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 22. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 23. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem


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Q.no 24. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 25. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 26. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 27. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all elements to the right
of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 28. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

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Q.no 29. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 30. Worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when—

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is the first element of the array

C : Item is the last element of the array

D : Item is not in the array

Q.no 31. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 32. O(1) means computing time is

A : Constant

B : Linear

C : Quadratic

D : Cubic

Q.no 33. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

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Q.no 34. In stable sort algorithm

A : Only one array is needed

B : More than one array is required.

C : Duplicate values remain in same relative position after sorting

D : Values remain in same relative position after sorting

Q.no 35. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two lists into a
sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 36. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 38. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to be the same in
its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

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D : Heap sort

Q.no 39. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an empty graph
having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 40. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 41. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 42. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 43. In Divide and Conquer process,breaking the problem into smaller subproblems is the
responsibility of

A : Divide/Break

B : Sorting/Divide

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C : Conquer/Solve

D : Merge/combine

Q.no 44. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 45. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 46. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 47. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 48. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree


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D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 49. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 50. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 51. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 52. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by _________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

Q.no 53. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

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D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 54. Given an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and key = 100; What are the mid
values(corresponding array elements) generated in the first and second iterations?

A : 90 and 99

B : 90 and 100

C : 89 and 94

D : 94 and 99

Q.no 55. Given two non negative functions f(n)=6n2+5n+1 and g(n)=n2 . Calculate the lower
bound value for c

A : c=5

B : c=1

C : c=2

D : c=6

Q.no 56. Minimum number of moves required to solve a tower of hanoi problem with n disks is
__________

A:n

B : 2^n-1

C : n/2

D : n^2

Q.no 57. Time complexity of the given algorithm – Algorithm Sum(a){s:=0.0;

A : 3n+2

B : 2n+3

C : 4n+2

D : 4n+4

Q.no 58. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

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C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 59. Which of the following is NOT a rule of tower of Hanoi puzzle?

A : No disk should be placed over a smaller disk

B : Disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk of the stack

C : No disk should be placed over a larger disk

D : Only one disk can be moved at a time

Q.no 60. T1 and T2 are the time taken by the Quicksort program P to sort the inputs [1 2 3 4]
and [5 4 3 2 1] in ascending order respectively. The statement that holds true is

A : T1 = T2

B : T1<T2

C : T1>T2

D : T1 = T2 + 5 log 5

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 2. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 3. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

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A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 4. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 5. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 6. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 7. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 8. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle
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B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 9. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 10. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 11. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 12. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 13. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2
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C:3

D:4

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 15. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 16. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 17. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 18. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case
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D : Time complexity

Q.no 19. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 20. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 21. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 22. Application of Heap is

A : To search an element in the array

B : To sort the array

C : To evaluate a mathematical expression

D : To store an element in the array

Q.no 23. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest


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Q.no 24. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.

A : Union

B : Difference

C : Intersection

D : Complement

Q.no 25. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 26. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 27. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 28. In Divide and Conquer process,breaking the problem into smaller subproblems is the
responsibility of

A : Divide/Break

B : Sorting/Divide

C : Conquer/Solve

D : Merge/combine

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Q.no 29. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 30. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 31. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 32. O(1) means computing time is

A : Constant

B : Linear

C : Quadratic

D : Cubic

Q.no 33. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an empty graph
having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

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Q.no 34. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two lists into a
sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 35. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all elements to the right
of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 36. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 37. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 38. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

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Q.no 39. Worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when—

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is the first element of the array

C : Item is the last element of the array

D : Item is not in the array

Q.no 40. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 41. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 42. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 43. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

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Q.no 44. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______.

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

Q.no 45. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 46. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 47. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 48. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

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Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 50. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 51. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

Q.no 52. T1 and T2 are the time taken by the Quicksort program P to sort the inputs [1 2 3 4]
and [5 4 3 2 1] in ascending order respectively. The statement that holds true is

A : T1 = T2

B : T1<T2

C : T1>T2

D : T1 = T2 + 5 log 5

Q.no 53. Which of the following is NOT a rule of tower of Hanoi puzzle?

A : No disk should be placed over a smaller disk

B : Disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk of the stack

C : No disk should be placed over a larger disk

D : Only one disk can be moved at a time

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Q.no 54. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 55. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by _________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

Q.no 56. Time complexity of the given algorithm – Algorithm Sum(a){s:=0.0;

A : 3n+2

B : 2n+3

C : 4n+2

D : 4n+4

Q.no 57. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 58. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

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D : Queue

Q.no 59. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 60. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 2. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 3. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm
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B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 4. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 5. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 6. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 7. Application of Heap is

A : To search an element in the array

B : To sort the array

C : To evaluate a mathematical expression

D : To store an element in the array

Q.no 8. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable
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C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 9. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 10. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 11. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 12. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 13. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence


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D : Quicksort

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 15. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 16. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 17. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 18. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree
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Q.no 19. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 20. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 21. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 23. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

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Q.no 24. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 25. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 26. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 27. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 28. In stable sort algorithm

A : Only one array is needed

B : More than one array is required.

C : Duplicate values remain in same relative position after sorting

D : Values remain in same relative position after sorting

Q.no 29. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method


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A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 30. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 31. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all elements to the right
of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 32. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an empty graph
having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 34. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS manner?

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A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 35. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 36. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 37. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 38. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 39. Worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when—

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A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is the first element of the array

C : Item is the last element of the array

D : Item is not in the array

Q.no 40. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 41. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 42. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 43. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 44. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

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A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 45. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 46. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 47. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 48. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to be the same in
its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

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Q.no 49. In Divide and Conquer process,breaking the problem into smaller subproblems is the
responsibility of

A : Divide/Break

B : Sorting/Divide

C : Conquer/Solve

D : Merge/combine

Q.no 50. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 51. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 52. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 53. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using recursion is
_________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)

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Q.no 54. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 55. Which of the following is NOT a rule of tower of Hanoi puzzle?

A : No disk should be placed over a smaller disk

B : Disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk of the stack

C : No disk should be placed over a larger disk

D : Only one disk can be moved at a time

Q.no 56. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 57. Minimum number of moves required to solve a tower of hanoi problem with n disks is
__________

A:n

B : 2^n-1

C : n/2

D : n^2

Q.no 58. Given an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and key = 100; What are the mid
values(corresponding array elements) generated in the first and second iterations?

A : 90 and 99

B : 90 and 100

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C : 89 and 94

D : 94 and 99

Q.no 59. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

Q.no 60. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by _________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 2. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 3. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input
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B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 4. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 5. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 6. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 7. Application of Heap is

A : To search an element in the array

B : To sort the array

C : To evaluate a mathematical expression

D : To store an element in the array

Q.no 8. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method


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C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 9. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 10. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 11. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 12. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.

A : Union

B : Difference

C : Intersection

D : Complement

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound


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D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 15. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 16. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 17. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 18. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

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D : decision complexity

Q.no 19. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 20. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 21. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 22. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 23. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete
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Q.no 24. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 25. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 26. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 27. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 28. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 29. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method


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A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 30. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 31. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an empty graph
having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 32. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 33. In stable sort algorithm

A : Only one array is needed

B : More than one array is required.

C : Duplicate values remain in same relative position after sorting

D : Values remain in same relative position after sorting

Q.no 34. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

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A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 35. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all elements to the right
of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 37. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 38. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 39. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______.

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A : Greedy

B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

Q.no 40. Worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when—

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is the first element of the array

C : Item is the last element of the array

D : Item is not in the array

Q.no 41. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 42. In Divide and Conquer process,breaking the problem into smaller subproblems is the
responsibility of

A : Divide/Break

B : Sorting/Divide

C : Conquer/Solve

D : Merge/combine

Q.no 43. O(1) means computing time is

A : Constant

B : Linear

C : Quadratic

D : Cubic

Q.no 44. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

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A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 45. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 46. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 47. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 48. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 49. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

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A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 50. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 51. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

Q.no 52. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using recursion is
_________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)

Q.no 53. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

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Q.no 54. Given an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and key = 100; What are the mid
values(corresponding array elements) generated in the first and second iterations?

A : 90 and 99

B : 90 and 100

C : 89 and 94

D : 94 and 99

Q.no 55. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 56. Which of the following is NOT a rule of tower of Hanoi puzzle?

A : No disk should be placed over a smaller disk

B : Disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk of the stack

C : No disk should be placed over a larger disk

D : Only one disk can be moved at a time

Q.no 57. T1 and T2 are the time taken by the Quicksort program P to sort the inputs [1 2 3 4]
and [5 4 3 2 1] in ascending order respectively. The statement that holds true is

A : T1 = T2

B : T1<T2

C : T1>T2

D : T1 = T2 + 5 log 5

Q.no 58. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

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D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 59. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 60. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 2. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 3. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique


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B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 4. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 6. Application of Heap is

A : To search an element in the array

B : To sort the array

C : To evaluate a mathematical expression

D : To store an element in the array

Q.no 7. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 8. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort
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C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 9. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 10. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 11. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 12. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 13. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.

A : Union

B : Difference

C : Intersection
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D : Complement

Q.no 14. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 15. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 16. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 17. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 18. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting
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Q.no 19. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 21. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 22. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 23. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

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Q.no 24. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 25. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 27. In Divide and Conquer process,breaking the problem into smaller subproblems is the
responsibility of

A : Divide/Break

B : Sorting/Divide

C : Conquer/Solve

D : Merge/combine

Q.no 28. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

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Q.no 29. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two lists into a
sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 30. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 31. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 32. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 33. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

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Q.no 34. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 35. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 36. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 37. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 38. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

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Q.no 39. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 40. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______.

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

Q.no 41. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 42. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 43. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to be the same in
its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

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Q.no 44. O(1) means computing time is

A : Constant

B : Linear

C : Quadratic

D : Cubic

Q.no 45. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 46. In stable sort algorithm

A : Only one array is needed

B : More than one array is required.

C : Duplicate values remain in same relative position after sorting

D : Values remain in same relative position after sorting

Q.no 47. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 48. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all elements to the right
of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

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Q.no 49. Worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when—

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is the first element of the array

C : Item is the last element of the array

D : Item is not in the array

Q.no 50. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 51. Which of the following is NOT a rule of tower of Hanoi puzzle?

A : No disk should be placed over a smaller disk

B : Disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk of the stack

C : No disk should be placed over a larger disk

D : Only one disk can be moved at a time

Q.no 52. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 53. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by _________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

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Q.no 54. Time complexity of the given algorithm – Algorithm Sum(a){s:=0.0;

A : 3n+2

B : 2n+3

C : 4n+2

D : 4n+4

Q.no 55. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 56. T1 and T2 are the time taken by the Quicksort program P to sort the inputs [1 2 3 4]
and [5 4 3 2 1] in ascending order respectively. The statement that holds true is

A : T1 = T2

B : T1<T2

C : T1>T2

D : T1 = T2 + 5 log 5

Q.no 57. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 58. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using recursion is
_________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

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D : O(n)

Q.no 59. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 60. Given two non negative functions f(n)=6n2+5n+1 and g(n)=n2 . Calculate the lower
bound value for c

A : c=5

B : c=1

C : c=2

D : c=6

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is d

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 2. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 3. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach


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B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 4. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 5. Application of Heap is

A : To search an element in the array

B : To sort the array

C : To evaluate a mathematical expression

D : To store an element in the array

Q.no 6. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 7. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 8. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems
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C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 9. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 10. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.

A : Union

B : Difference

C : Intersection

D : Complement

Q.no 11. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 12. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 13. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color


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D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 14. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 16. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 17. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 18. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method
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Q.no 19. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 20. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 21. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 22. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 24. Which is not a criteria of algorithm


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A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 25. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 26. In stable sort algorithm

A : Only one array is needed

B : More than one array is required.

C : Duplicate values remain in same relative position after sorting

D : Values remain in same relative position after sorting

Q.no 27. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 28. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

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Q.no 29. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to be the same in
its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 30. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 32. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 33. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______.

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

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Q.no 34. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 35. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 36. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all elements to the right
of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 37. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 38. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

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Q.no 39. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 40. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 41. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 42. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 43. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 44. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.


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A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 45. O(1) means computing time is

A : Constant

B : Linear

C : Quadratic

D : Cubic

Q.no 46. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 47. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an empty graph
having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 48. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 49. Which of the following is false?

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A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 50. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 51. Which of the following is NOT a rule of tower of Hanoi puzzle?

A : No disk should be placed over a smaller disk

B : Disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk of the stack

C : No disk should be placed over a larger disk

D : Only one disk can be moved at a time

Q.no 52. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by _________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

Q.no 53. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 54. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

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A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 55. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using recursion is
_________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)

Q.no 56. Given two non negative functions f(n)=6n2+5n+1 and g(n)=n2 . Calculate the lower
bound value for c

A : c=5

B : c=1

C : c=2

D : c=6

Q.no 57. Given an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and key = 100; What are the mid
values(corresponding array elements) generated in the first and second iterations?

A : 90 and 99

B : 90 and 100

C : 89 and 94

D : 94 and 99

Q.no 58. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

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Q.no 59. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 60. T1 and T2 are the time taken by the Quicksort program P to sort the inputs [1 2 3 4]
and [5 4 3 2 1] in ascending order respectively. The statement that holds true is

A : T1 = T2

B : T1<T2

C : T1>T2

D : T1 = T2 + 5 log 5

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 2. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 3. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root


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B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 4. Application of Heap is

A : To search an element in the array

B : To sort the array

C : To evaluate a mathematical expression

D : To store an element in the array

Q.no 5. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 6. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 7. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 8. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search


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C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 9. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 11. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 12. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 13. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan


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D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 14. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 15. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 16. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 17. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 18. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

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D : decision complexity

Q.no 19. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 20. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 21. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 22. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 23. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree
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Q.no 24. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 25. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 26. In stable sort algorithm

A : Only one array is needed

B : More than one array is required.

C : Duplicate values remain in same relative position after sorting

D : Values remain in same relative position after sorting

Q.no 27. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 28. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

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Q.no 29. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 30. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all elements to the right
of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 31. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 32. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 33. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______.

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

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Q.no 34. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an empty graph
having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 35. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 36. O(1) means computing time is

A : Constant

B : Linear

C : Quadratic

D : Cubic

Q.no 37. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 38. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

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Q.no 39. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 40. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 41. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 42. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 43. Worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when—

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is the first element of the array

C : Item is the last element of the array

D : Item is not in the array

Q.no 44. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method


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A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 46. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two lists into a
sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 47. In Divide and Conquer process,breaking the problem into smaller subproblems is the
responsibility of

A : Divide/Break

B : Sorting/Divide

C : Conquer/Solve

D : Merge/combine

Q.no 48. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 49. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

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A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 50. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 51. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 52. Minimum number of moves required to solve a tower of hanoi problem with n disks is
__________

A:n

B : 2^n-1

C : n/2

D : n^2

Q.no 53. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

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Q.no 54. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using recursion is
_________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)

Q.no 55. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 56. Which of the following is NOT a rule of tower of Hanoi puzzle?

A : No disk should be placed over a smaller disk

B : Disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk of the stack

C : No disk should be placed over a larger disk

D : Only one disk can be moved at a time

Q.no 57. Time complexity of the given algorithm – Algorithm Sum(a){s:=0.0;

A : 3n+2

B : 2n+3

C : 4n+2

D : 4n+4

Q.no 58. Given two non negative functions f(n)=6n2+5n+1 and g(n)=n2 . Calculate the lower
bound value for c

A : c=5

B : c=1

C : c=2

D : c=6

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Q.no 59. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by _________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

Q.no 60. Given an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and key = 100; What are the mid
values(corresponding array elements) generated in the first and second iterations?

A : 90 and 99

B : 90 and 100

C : 89 and 94

D : 94 and 99

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 2. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 3. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem
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B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 4. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 5. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 6. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 7. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 8. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))


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C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 10. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 11. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 12. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 13. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.

A : Union

B : Difference

C : Intersection
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D : Complement

Q.no 14. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 15. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 16. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 17. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 18. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity
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Q.no 19. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 20. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 21. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 22. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 23. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 24. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on
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A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 25. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 26. O(1) means computing time is

A : Constant

B : Linear

C : Quadratic

D : Cubic

Q.no 27. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______.

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

Q.no 28. Worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when—

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is the first element of the array

C : Item is the last element of the array

D : Item is not in the array

Q.no 29. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

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A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 30. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 31. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 33. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 34. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS manner?

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A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 35. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 36. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 37. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 38. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 39. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method
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B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 40. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 41. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 42. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two lists into a
sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 43. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 44. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

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B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 45. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an empty graph
having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 46. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all elements to the right
of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 47. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to be the same in
its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 48. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 49. In stable sort algorithm

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A : Only one array is needed

B : More than one array is required.

C : Duplicate values remain in same relative position after sorting

D : Values remain in same relative position after sorting

Q.no 50. In Divide and Conquer process,breaking the problem into smaller subproblems is the
responsibility of

A : Divide/Break

B : Sorting/Divide

C : Conquer/Solve

D : Merge/combine

Q.no 51. T1 and T2 are the time taken by the Quicksort program P to sort the inputs [1 2 3 4]
and [5 4 3 2 1] in ascending order respectively. The statement that holds true is

A : T1 = T2

B : T1<T2

C : T1>T2

D : T1 = T2 + 5 log 5

Q.no 52. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 53. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by _________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

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Q.no 54. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 55. Which of the following is NOT a rule of tower of Hanoi puzzle?

A : No disk should be placed over a smaller disk

B : Disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk of the stack

C : No disk should be placed over a larger disk

D : Only one disk can be moved at a time

Q.no 56. Given an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and key = 100; What are the mid
values(corresponding array elements) generated in the first and second iterations?

A : 90 and 99

B : 90 and 100

C : 89 and 94

D : 94 and 99

Q.no 57. Given two non negative functions f(n)=6n2+5n+1 and g(n)=n2 . Calculate the lower
bound value for c

A : c=5

B : c=1

C : c=2

D : c=6

Q.no 58. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

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D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

Q.no 59. Time complexity of the given algorithm – Algorithm Sum(a){s:=0.0;

A : 3n+2

B : 2n+3

C : 4n+2

D : 4n+4

Q.no 60. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 2. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 3. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/
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B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 4. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 5. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 6. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 7. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 8. Application of Heap is

A : To search an element in the array

B : To sort the array


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C : To evaluate a mathematical expression

D : To store an element in the array

Q.no 9. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 10. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 11. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 12. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 13. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

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C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 14. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 15. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 16. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 17. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 18. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}
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D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 19. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 20. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.

A : Union

B : Difference

C : Intersection

D : Complement

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 23. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim


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Q.no 24. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 25. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 26. O(1) means computing time is

A : Constant

B : Linear

C : Quadratic

D : Cubic

Q.no 27. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 28. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?
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A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 30. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an empty graph
having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 31. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 32. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 33. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 34. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

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A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 35. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two lists into a
sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 36. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 37. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 38. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 39. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS manner?

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A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 40. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 41. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______.

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

Q.no 42. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 43. In Divide and Conquer process,breaking the problem into smaller subproblems is the
responsibility of

A : Divide/Break

B : Sorting/Divide

C : Conquer/Solve

D : Merge/combine

Q.no 44. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

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A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 45. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 46. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 47. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 48. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all elements to the right
of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 49. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

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A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 50. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to be the same in
its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 51. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 52. Given an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and key = 100; What are the mid
values(corresponding array elements) generated in the first and second iterations?

A : 90 and 99

B : 90 and 100

C : 89 and 94

D : 94 and 99

Q.no 53. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

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D : Queue

Q.no 54. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 55. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 56. Time complexity of the given algorithm – Algorithm Sum(a){s:=0.0;

A : 3n+2

B : 2n+3

C : 4n+2

D : 4n+4

Q.no 57. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using recursion is
_________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)

Q.no 58. Minimum number of moves required to solve a tower of hanoi problem with n disks is
__________

A:n

B : 2^n-1

C : n/2

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D : n^2

Q.no 59. Given two non negative functions f(n)=6n2+5n+1 and g(n)=n2 . Calculate the lower
bound value for c

A : c=5

B : c=1

C : c=2

D : c=6

Q.no 60. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

10682_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 2. Application of Heap is

A : To search an element in the array

B : To sort the array

C : To evaluate a mathematical expression

D : To store an element in the array

Q.no 3. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique


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B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 4. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 5. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 6. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 7. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 8. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem


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C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 9. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 10. Two sets are called disjoint if there _____________ is the empty set.

A : Union

B : Difference

C : Intersection

D : Complement

Q.no 11. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 12. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 13. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision
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D : complete

Q.no 14. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 16. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 17. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 18. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs
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Q.no 19. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 20. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 21. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 22. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 23. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 24. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?
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A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 25. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 26. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 27. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 28. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-deterministic
polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 29. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

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A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 30. O(1) means computing time is

A : Constant

B : Linear

C : Quadratic

D : Cubic

Q.no 31. The functions f & g are non negative functions. The function f(n)=

A : f(n) <= c*g(n)

B : f(n)>= c*g(n)

C : c*g(n) <= f(n) >= c*g(n)

D : c*g(n) >= f(n) <= c*g(n)

Q.no 32. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge in the same cut,
then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 33. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to be the same in
its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 34. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a graph is called?

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A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 36. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 37. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 38. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 39. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is ______.

A : Greedy
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B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

Q.no 40. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two lists into a
sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 41. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 42. In stable sort algorithm

A : Only one array is needed

B : More than one array is required.

C : Duplicate values remain in same relative position after sorting

D : Values remain in same relative position after sorting

Q.no 43. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 44. In Divide and Conquer process,breaking the problem into smaller subproblems is the
responsibility of

A : Divide/Break

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B : Sorting/Divide

C : Conquer/Solve

D : Merge/combine

Q.no 45. Worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when—

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is the first element of the array

C : Item is the last element of the array

D : Item is not in the array

Q.no 46. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 47. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of an empty graph
having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 48. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 49. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

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B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 50. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 51. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 52. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 53. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

Q.no 54. Time complexity of the given algorithm – Algorithm Sum(a){s:=0.0;

A : 3n+2

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B : 2n+3

C : 4n+2

D : 4n+4

Q.no 55. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using recursion is
_________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)

Q.no 56. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 57. Given an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and key = 100; What are the mid
values(corresponding array elements) generated in the first and second iterations?

A : 90 and 99

B : 90 and 100

C : 89 and 94

D : 94 and 99

Q.no 58. Given two non negative functions f(n)=6n2+5n+1 and g(n)=n2 . Calculate the lower
bound value for c

A : c=5

B : c=1

C : c=2

D : c=6

Q.no 59. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items

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you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 60. Minimum number of moves required to solve a tower of hanoi problem with n disks is
__________

A:n

B : 2^n-1

C : n/2

D : n^2

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate
branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 2. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree
Q.no 3. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are
required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 5. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist


of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 6. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 7. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))


C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 8. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 9. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 10. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 11. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete
solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 12. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable
C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 13. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 14. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 15. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 16. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 17. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer


C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 18. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 19. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 20. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 21. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 22. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic
programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search
C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 23. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 24. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order

C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder

Q.no 25. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 26. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 27. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP
B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 28. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 29. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to
be the same in its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 30. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two
lists into a sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 31. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 32. Which of the following is false?


A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge
in the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 33. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 34. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 35. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input
elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 36. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number
Q.no 37. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array

B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 38. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 39. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm


constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 40. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and


unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort
C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 42. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time
complexity in Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

D :  Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

Q.no 43. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the
profit is ______.

A : Greedy  

B : Dynamic 0 / 1       

C : Back tracking                              

D : Branch & Bound 0/1  

Q.no 44. The recurrence relation capturing the optimal time of the Tower of
Hanoi

A : T(n) = 2T(n – 2) + 2

B : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + n

C : T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1

D : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + 1

Q.no 45. How many arrays are required to perform deletion operation in a heap?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 46. In what position does the array for heap sort contains data?

A:0
B:1

C : -1

D : anywhere in the array

Q.no 47. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound
strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 48. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all


elements to the right of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all
leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 49. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 50. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of
an empty graph having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n
Q.no 51. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by
_________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

Q.no 52. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____
spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 53. What is the average number of comparisons used to heap sort a random
permutation of N distinct items?

A : 2N log N-O(N)

B : 2N log N-O(N log N)

C : 2N log N-O(N log log N)

D : 2N log N-O(log N)

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not O(n^2)?

A : (15^10) * n + 12099

B : n^1.98

C : n^3 / (sqrt(n))

D : (2^20) * n

Q.no 55. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : backtracking

B :  greedy algorithm

C : divide and conquer


D : dynamic programming

Q.no 56. What is the time taken to perform a delete min operation?

A : O(N)

B : O(N log N)

C : O(log N)

D : O(N2)

Q.no 57. The loop invariant condition at the end of the ith iteration is:

A : n = D1D2….Dm-i and rev = DmDm-1…Dm-i+1

B : n = Dm-i+1…Dm-1Dm and rev = Dm-1….D2D1

C : n != rev

D : n = D1D2….Dm and rev = DmDm-1…D2D1

Q.no 58. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing


optimal solutions for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________
property.

A : Overlapping subproblems

B : Optimal substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 59. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

Q.no 60. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using
recursion is _________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)
C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate
branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound


Q.no 3. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 4. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 5. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 6. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 7. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic


programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort
Q.no 8. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 9. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 10. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 11. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 12. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach


Q.no 13. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 14. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 15. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 16. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order

C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder

Q.no 17. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete
solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route


D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 18. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 19. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 20. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 21. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 22. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color
C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 23. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm


consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 24. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 25. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 26. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of
an empty graph having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 27. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method
B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 28. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 29. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and


unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 30. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the
profit is ______.

A : Greedy  

B : Dynamic 0 / 1       

C : Back tracking                              

D : Branch & Bound 0/1  

Q.no 31. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two
lists into a sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 32. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?
A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 33. The recurrence relation capturing the optimal time of the Tower of
Hanoi

A : T(n) = 2T(n – 2) + 2

B : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + n

C : T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1

D : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + 1

Q.no 34. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch
and bound strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 35. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm


constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 36. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)
Q.no 37. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all
elements to the right of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all
leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 38. In what position does the array for heap sort contains data?

A:0

B:1

C : -1

D : anywhere in the array

Q.no 39. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 40. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 41. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time
complexity in Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)


D :  Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

Q.no 42. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 43. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 44. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 45. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge
in the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort
C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array

B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 48. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to
be the same in its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 49. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS
manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 50. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete
Q.no 51. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There
are 4 items with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the
maximum value of the items you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 52. What is the average number of comparisons used to heap sort a random
permutation of N distinct items?

A : 2N log N-O(N)

B : 2N log N-O(N log N)

C : 2N log N-O(N log log N)

D : 2N log N-O(log N)

Q.no 53. The loop invariant condition at the end of the ith iteration is:

A : n = D1D2….Dm-i and rev = DmDm-1…Dm-i+1

B : n = Dm-i+1…Dm-1Dm and rev = Dm-1….D2D1

C : n != rev

D : n = D1D2….Dm and rev = DmDm-1…D2D1

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not O(n^2)?

A : (15^10) * n + 12099

B : n^1.98

C : n^3 / (sqrt(n))

D : (2^20) * n

Q.no 55. What is the time taken to perform a delete min operation?

A : O(N)

B : O(N log N)

C : O(log N)
D : O(N2)

Q.no 56. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____
spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 57. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : backtracking

B :  greedy algorithm

C : divide and conquer

D : dynamic programming

Q.no 58. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

Q.no 59. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 60. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs


so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack
C : B-Tree

D : Queue
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist


of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 2. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim


Q.no 3. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 4. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 5. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 6. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 7. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs
Q.no 8. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 9. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete


solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 10. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 11. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 12. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking
Q.no 13. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 14. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order

C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder

Q.no 15. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 16. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 17. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method
Q.no 18. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 19. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 20. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 21. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 22. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic
programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort
Q.no 23. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are
required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 25. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array

B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 27. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP
B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 28. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two
lists into a sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 29. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time
complexity in Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

D :  Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

Q.no 30. The recurrence relation capturing the optimal time of the Tower of
Hanoi

A : T(n) = 2T(n – 2) + 2

B : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + n

C : T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1

D : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + 1

Q.no 31. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch
and bound strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list
Q.no 32. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and
unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 33. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 34. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input
elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 35. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 36. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS
manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming
C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 37. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm


constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 38. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 39. In what position does the array for heap sort contains data?

A:0

B:1

C : -1

D : anywhere in the array

Q.no 40. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 41. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning
C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 42. How many arrays are required to perform deletion operation in a heap?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 43. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 44. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 45. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the
profit is ______.

A : Greedy  

B : Dynamic 0 / 1       

C : Back tracking                              

D : Branch & Bound 0/1  

Q.no 46. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4


C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 47. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 48. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge
in the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 49. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound
strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 50. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all


elements to the right of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all
leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 51. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing


optimal solutions for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________
property.

A : Overlapping subproblems

B : Optimal substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 52. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____
spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 53. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There
are 4 items with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the
maximum value of the items you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 54. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 55. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable
D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not O(n^2)?

A : (15^10) * n + 12099

B : n^1.98

C : n^3 / (sqrt(n))

D : (2^20) * n

Q.no 57. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using
recursion is _________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)

Q.no 58. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by
_________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

Q.no 59. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs


so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 60. The loop invariant condition at the end of the ith iteration is:

A : n = D1D2….Dm-i and rev = DmDm-1…Dm-i+1

B : n = Dm-i+1…Dm-1Dm and rev = Dm-1….D2D1


C : n != rev

D : n = D1D2….Dm and rev = DmDm-1…D2D1


Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate
branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 2. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs
Q.no 3. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 4. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 5. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 6. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 7. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic


programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort
Q.no 8. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are
required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 10. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 11. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 12. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems
Q.no 13. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 14. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 15. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 16. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 17. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))


Q.no 18. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 19. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm


consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 20. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 21. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order

C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder

Q.no 22. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color
C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 23. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 24. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 25. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete
solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 26. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all


elements to the right of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all
leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 27. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm


B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 28. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 29. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 30. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 31. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of
an empty graph having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 32. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method
B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 34. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the
profit is ______.

A : Greedy  

B : Dynamic 0 / 1       

C : Back tracking                              

D : Branch & Bound 0/1  

Q.no 35. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound
strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 36. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input
elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2
Q.no 37. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to
be the same in its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 38. How many arrays are required to perform deletion operation in a heap?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 39. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two
lists into a sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 40. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 41. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS
manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm
D : backtracking

Q.no 42. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 43. The recurrence relation capturing the optimal time of the Tower of
Hanoi

A : T(n) = 2T(n – 2) + 2

B : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + n

C : T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1

D : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + 1

Q.no 44. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 45. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge
in the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array
B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 47. In what position does the array for heap sort contains data?

A:0

B:1

C : -1

D : anywhere in the array

Q.no 48. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 49. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch
and bound strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 50. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 51. Choose the correct statement from the following.


A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

Q.no 52. Minimum number of moves required to solve a tower of hanoi problem
with n disks is __________

A:n

B : 2^n-1

C : n/2

D : n^2

Q.no 53. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by
_________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

Q.no 54. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing


optimal solutions for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________
property.

A : Overlapping subproblems

B : Optimal substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 55. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using
recursion is _________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)
D : O(n)

Q.no 56. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs


so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 57. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : backtracking

B :  greedy algorithm

C : divide and conquer

D : dynamic programming

Q.no 58. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 59. What is the average number of comparisons used to heap sort a random
permutation of N distinct items?

A : 2N log N-O(N)

B : 2N log N-O(N log N)

C : 2N log N-O(N log log N)

D : 2N log N-O(log N)

Q.no 60. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____
spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8
C : 16

D : 13
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 2. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 3. Which of the following is true?


A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 4. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist


of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 5. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 6. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 7. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 8. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?
A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 9. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 10. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 11. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 12. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 13. Who invented the word Algorithm


A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 14. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 15. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 16. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 17. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 18. What is vertex coloring of a graph?


A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 19. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 20. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order

C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder

Q.no 21. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 22. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete
solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route


D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 23. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic
programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are
required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 25. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 26. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS
manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 27. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to
be the same in its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort
B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 28. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 29. The recurrence relation capturing the optimal time of the Tower of
Hanoi

A : T(n) = 2T(n – 2) + 2

B : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + n

C : T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1

D : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + 1

Q.no 30. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound
strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 31. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 32. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the
profit is ______.
A : Greedy  

B : Dynamic 0 / 1       

C : Back tracking                              

D : Branch & Bound 0/1  

Q.no 33. How many arrays are required to perform deletion operation in a heap?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 34. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and


unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 35. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 36. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch
and bound strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list
Q.no 37. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 38. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 39. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm


constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 40. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 41. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard
D : Complete

Q.no 42. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 43. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input
elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 44. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all


elements to the right of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all
leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 45. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 46. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of
an empty graph having n vertices?

A:0
B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 47. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time
complexity in Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

D :  Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array

B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 50. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort
Q.no 51. What is the time taken to perform a delete min operation?

A : O(N)

B : O(N log N)

C : O(log N)

D : O(N2)

Q.no 52. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 53. The loop invariant condition at the end of the ith iteration is:

A : n = D1D2….Dm-i and rev = DmDm-1…Dm-i+1

B : n = Dm-i+1…Dm-1Dm and rev = Dm-1….D2D1

C : n != rev

D : n = D1D2….Dm and rev = DmDm-1…D2D1

Q.no 54. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using
recursion is _________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)

Q.no 55. Minimum number of moves required to solve a tower of hanoi problem
with n disks is __________

A:n

B : 2^n-1

C : n/2
D : n^2

Q.no 56. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There
are 4 items with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the
maximum value of the items you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 57. What is the average number of comparisons used to heap sort a random
permutation of N distinct items?

A : 2N log N-O(N)

B : 2N log N-O(N log N)

C : 2N log N-O(N log log N)

D : 2N log N-O(log N)

Q.no 58. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

Q.no 59. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by
_________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

Q.no 60. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : backtracking
B :  greedy algorithm

C : divide and conquer

D : dynamic programming
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 2. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete


solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route


Q.no 3. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate
branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 5. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 6. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 7. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color


D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 8. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 9. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist


of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 10. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 11. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 12. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort
D : Radix sort

Q.no 13. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 14. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 15. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 16. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order

C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder

Q.no 17. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm
D : Type of tree

Q.no 18. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 19. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 20. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 21. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 22. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements
D : Number of inputs

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are
required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 24. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 25. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 26. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS
manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 27. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch
and bound strategy?

A : stack

B : queue
C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 28. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 29. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 30. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 31. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 32. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort
C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 33. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of
an empty graph having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 34. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 35. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm


constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array

B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?
A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 38. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all


elements to the right of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all
leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 39. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge
in the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 40. How many arrays are required to perform deletion operation in a heap?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 41. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to
be the same in its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort
D : Heap sort

Q.no 42. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and


unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 43. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input
elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 44. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 45. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 46. The recurrence relation capturing the optimal time of the Tower of
Hanoi

A : T(n) = 2T(n – 2) + 2
B : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + n

C : T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1

D : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + 1

Q.no 47. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two
lists into a sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 48. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 49. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound
strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 50. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time
complexity in Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

D :  Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)


Q.no 51. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There
are 4 items with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the
maximum value of the items you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 52. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : backtracking

B :  greedy algorithm

C : divide and conquer

D : dynamic programming

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not O(n^2)?

A : (15^10) * n + 12099

B : n^1.98

C : n^3 / (sqrt(n))

D : (2^20) * n

Q.no 54. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

Q.no 55. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs


so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree
D : Queue

Q.no 56. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing


optimal solutions for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________
property.

A : Overlapping subproblems

B : Optimal substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 57. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____
spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 58. The loop invariant condition at the end of the ith iteration is:

A : n = D1D2….Dm-i and rev = DmDm-1…Dm-i+1

B : n = Dm-i+1…Dm-1Dm and rev = Dm-1….D2D1

C : n != rev

D : n = D1D2….Dm and rev = DmDm-1…D2D1

Q.no 59. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

Q.no 60. What is the average number of comparisons used to heap sort a random
permutation of N distinct items?

A : 2N log N-O(N)
B : 2N log N-O(N log N)

C : 2N log N-O(N log log N)

D : 2N log N-O(log N)
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 2. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete


solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route


Q.no 3. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are
required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 4. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 5. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 6. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 7. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color


D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 8. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 9. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 10. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic
programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 11. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 12. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case
D : Time complexity

Q.no 13. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 14. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 15. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 16. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 17. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision
D : complete

Q.no 18. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 19. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate
branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 21. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 22. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order


C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder

Q.no 23. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 24. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 25. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 26. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 27. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS
manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming
C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 28. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 29. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and


unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 30. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the
profit is ______.

A : Greedy  

B : Dynamic 0 / 1       

C : Back tracking                              

D : Branch & Bound 0/1  

Q.no 31. The recurrence relation capturing the optimal time of the Tower of
Hanoi

A : T(n) = 2T(n – 2) + 2

B : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + n

C : T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1

D : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + 1

Q.no 32. In what position does the array for heap sort contains data?

A:0
B:1

C : -1

D : anywhere in the array

Q.no 33. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm


constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 34. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch
and bound strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 35. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 37. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----


A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 38. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 39. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 40. How many arrays are required to perform deletion operation in a heap?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 41. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete
Q.no 42. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to
be the same in its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 43. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time
complexity in Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

D :  Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array

B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 45. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of
an empty graph having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 46. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two
lists into a sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)
B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 47. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 48. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 49. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all


elements to the right of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all
leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 50. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound
strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array
Q.no 51. The loop invariant condition at the end of the ith iteration is:

A : n = D1D2….Dm-i and rev = DmDm-1…Dm-i+1

B : n = Dm-i+1…Dm-1Dm and rev = Dm-1….D2D1

C : n != rev

D : n = D1D2….Dm and rev = DmDm-1…D2D1

Q.no 52. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : backtracking

B :  greedy algorithm

C : divide and conquer

D : dynamic programming

Q.no 53. What is the average number of comparisons used to heap sort a random
permutation of N distinct items?

A : 2N log N-O(N)

B : 2N log N-O(N log N)

C : 2N log N-O(N log log N)

D : 2N log N-O(log N)

Q.no 54. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

Q.no 55. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs


so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree
D : Queue

Q.no 56. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____
spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 57. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

Q.no 58. Minimum number of moves required to solve a tower of hanoi problem
with n disks is __________

A:n

B : 2^n-1

C : n/2

D : n^2

Q.no 59. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There
are 4 items with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the
maximum value of the items you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 60. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing


optimal solutions for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________
property.
A : Overlapping subproblems

B : Optimal substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy
Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 2. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order

C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder
Q.no 3. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 4. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 5. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 6. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 7. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity
Q.no 8. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic
programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 9. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 10. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm


consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 11. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 12. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem


D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 13. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate
branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are
required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 16. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 17. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete
solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions


C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 18. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 19. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 20. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 21. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 22. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path


B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 23. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 24. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 25. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 26. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS
manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 27. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?
A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 28. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----

A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 29. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the
profit is ______.

A : Greedy  

B : Dynamic 0 / 1       

C : Back tracking                              

D : Branch & Bound 0/1  

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array

B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 31. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge
in the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph
D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 32. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 33. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input
elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 34. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all


elements to the right of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all
leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 35. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 36. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time
complexity in Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)


B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

D :  Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

Q.no 37. How many arrays are required to perform deletion operation in a heap?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 38. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch
and bound strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 39. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 40. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 41. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort
B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 42. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound
strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 43. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm


constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 44. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two
lists into a sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 45. The recurrence relation capturing the optimal time of the Tower of
Hanoi

A : T(n) = 2T(n – 2) + 2

B : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + n

C : T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1

D : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + 1
Q.no 46. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 47. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and


unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 48. In what position does the array for heap sort contains data?

A:0

B:1

C : -1

D : anywhere in the array

Q.no 49. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 50. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm


D : DFS traversal

Q.no 51. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : backtracking

B :  greedy algorithm

C : divide and conquer

D : dynamic programming

Q.no 52. Minimum number of moves required to solve a tower of hanoi problem
with n disks is __________

A:n

B : 2^n-1

C : n/2

D : n^2

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not O(n^2)?

A : (15^10) * n + 12099

B : n^1.98

C : n^3 / (sqrt(n))

D : (2^20) * n

Q.no 54. What is the average number of comparisons used to heap sort a random
permutation of N distinct items?

A : 2N log N-O(N)

B : 2N log N-O(N log N)

C : 2N log N-O(N log log N)

D : 2N log N-O(log N)

Q.no 55. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs


so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack
C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 56. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____
spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 57. Recurrence equation formed for the tower of Hanoi problem is given by
_________

A : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+n

B : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+c

C : T(n) = 2T(n-1)+c

D : T(n) = 2T(n/2)+n

Q.no 58. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

Q.no 59. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using
recursion is _________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)

Q.no 60. The loop invariant condition at the end of the ith iteration is:

A : n = D1D2….Dm-i and rev = DmDm-1…Dm-i+1


B : n = Dm-i+1…Dm-1Dm and rev = Dm-1….D2D1

C : n != rev

D : n = D1D2….Dm and rev = DmDm-1…D2D1


Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order

C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder

Q.no 2. How many stages of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist


of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4
Q.no 3. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 4. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 5. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic


programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 6. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate
branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 7. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs


D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 8. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 9. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete


solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 10. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ problems.

A : All pair shortest path

B : Single source shortest path

C : Network flow

D : Sorting

Q.no 11. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 12. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*
C : */

D : //

Q.no 13. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 14. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 15. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 16. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim

Q.no 17. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems
C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 18. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 19. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 20. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 21. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 22. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable
C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 23. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are
required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 25. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 26. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound
strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array

Q.no 27. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch
and bound strategy?

A : stack
B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 28. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the
profit is ______.

A : Greedy  

B : Dynamic 0 / 1       

C : Back tracking                              

D : Branch & Bound 0/1  

Q.no 29. In what position does the array for heap sort contains data?

A:0

B:1

C : -1

D : anywhere in the array

Q.no 30. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 31. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number
Q.no 32. Consider an array L. If an element in an array L is greater than all
elements to the right of it then it is called a leader. The best algorithm to find all
leaders in an array

A : Solves it in time θ (n²)

B : Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array

C : Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array

D : Solves it using divide and conquer in time θ (n logn)

Q.no 33. How many unique colors will be required for proper vertex coloring of
an empty graph having n vertices?

A:0

B:1

C:2

D:n

Q.no 34. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge
in the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 35. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm

B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 36. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS
manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming
C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 37. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 38. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input
elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 40. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two
lists into a sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 41. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm


constructed?

A : Depth-first search
B : Breadth-first search

C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 42. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and


unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness

C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array

B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 44. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 45. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time
complexity in Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

D :  Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)


Q.no 46. How many arrays are required to perform deletion operation in a heap?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 47. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 48. Which of the following algorithm takes non linear time for sorting?

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Bucket sort

D : Radix sort

Q.no 49. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 50. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal
Q.no 51. Which of the following is not O(n^2)?

A : (15^10) * n + 12099

B : n^1.98

C : n^3 / (sqrt(n))

D : (2^20) * n

Q.no 52. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

Q.no 53. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____
spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 54. What is the average number of comparisons used to heap sort a random
permutation of N distinct items?

A : 2N log N-O(N)

B : 2N log N-O(N log N)

C : 2N log N-O(N log log N)

D : 2N log N-O(log N)

Q.no 55. What is the time taken to perform a delete min operation?

A : O(N)

B : O(N log N)

C : O(log N)
D : O(N2)

Q.no 56. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 57. If an optimal solution can be created for a problem by constructing


optimal solutions for its subproblems, the problem possesses ____________
property.

A : Overlapping subproblems

B : Optimal substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 58. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs


so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 59. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : backtracking

B :  greedy algorithm

C : divide and conquer

D : dynamic programming

Q.no 60. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There
are 4 items with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the
maximum value of the items you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160
B : 200

C : 170

D : 90
Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11028_IT 44 DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is vertex coloring of a graph?

A : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should not have same
color

B : A condition where any two vertices having a common edge should always have
same color

C : A condition where all vertices should have a different color

D : A condition where all vertices should have same color

Q.no 2. Who invented the word Algorithm

A : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Uthman

B : Abu Ja’far Muhammed ibn Musa

C : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Ali Khan

D : Abu Ja’far Muhammed Kasim


Q.no 3. In algorithm comments begin with

A:/

B : /*

C : */

D : //

Q.no 4. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?

A : fibonacci heap

B : Binary tree

C : Priority queue

D : FIFO

Q.no 5. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is the prime example for ___________.

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Branch and bound

C : Back tracking

D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 6. The worst-case efficiency of solving a problem in polynomial time is?

A : O(p(n))

B : O(p( n log n))

C : O(p(n2))

D : O(p(m log n))

Q.no 7. In heap sort, after deleting the last minimum element, the array will
contain elements in?

A : tree preorder

B :  increasing sorting order

C : decreasing sorting order

D : tree inorder
Q.no 8. Algorithms like Quick sort, Merge sort and Binary Search are based on

A : Greedy Method

B : Divide and Conquer Method

C : Backtracking method

D : Hashing method

Q.no 9. Branch and bound is a __________

A : Problem solving technique

B : Data structure

C : Sorting algorithm

D : Type of tree

Q.no 10. Which of the following is an NP complete problem?

A : Hamiltonian cycle

B : Travelling salesman problem

C : Calculating chromatic number of graphs

D : Finding maximum element in an array

Q.no 11. Which one of the following option is true for merge sort?

A : It uses greedy approach

B : It uses heuristic search

C : It uses divide and conquer strategy

D : It uses backtracking approach

Q.no 12. Which is not a criteria of algorithm

A : Input

B : Output

C : Best case

D : Time complexity
Q.no 13. Which of the following problems should be solved using dynamic
programming?

A : Merge sort

B : Binary search

C : Longest common subsequence

D : Quicksort

Q.no 14. Placing n-queens so that no two queens attack each other is called?

A : N-queen’s problem

B : 8-queen’s problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : Subset sum problem

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate
branches?

A : LIFO branch and bound

B : FIFO branch and bound

C : Lowest cost branch and bound

D : Highest cost branch and bound

Q.no 16. Which of the following methods can be used to solve n-queen’s problem?

A : Greedy algorithm

B : Divide and conquer

C : Iterative improvement

D : Backtracking

Q.no 17. Which of the following algorithm follows Divide & Conquer technique

A : Bubble sort

B : Quick sort

C : Insertion sort
D : Radix sort

Q.no 18. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set _______________

A : {1,2,6,1}

B : {1,2,5,6}

C : {1,2,1,2}

D : {1,5,6,3}

Q.no 19. What happens when the backtracking algorithm reaches a complete
solution?

A : It backtracks to the root

B : It continues searching for other possible solutions

C : It traverses from a different route

D : Recursively traverses through the same route

Q.no 20. The running time of Quick sort depends on

A : Array size

B : Pivot element

C : Arrangement of elements

D : Number of inputs

Q.no 21. Which of the following is true?

A : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex

B : Prim’s algorithm initialises with an edge

C : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a vertex which has smallest edge

D : Prim’s algorithm initialises with a forest

Q.no 22. Graphical representation of algorithm is-----

A : Pseudo code

B : Graph Coloring

C : Flow chart
D : Dynamic programming

Q.no 23. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a limitation of the binary search algorithm

A : Array must be sorted

B : Requirement of sorted array is expensive when lot of insertions and deletions are
required

C : When the elements are more than 1000

D : There must be a mechanism to access the middle elements directly

Q.no 25. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 26. The travelling salesman problem can be solved using _________.

A : A spanning tree

B : A minimum spanning tree

C : Bellman – Ford algorithm

D : DFS traversal

Q.no 27. The general criteria of algorithm-each instruction is clear and


unambiguous ----

A : Output

B : Effectiveness
C : Definiteness

D : Input

Q.no 28. Job sequencing with deadline is based on ___method

A : Greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 29. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the
profit is ______.

A : Greedy  

B : Dynamic 0 / 1       

C : Back tracking                              

D : Branch & Bound 0/1  

Q.no 30. The recurrence relation capturing the optimal time of the Tower of
Hanoi

A : T(n) = 2T(n – 2) + 2

B : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + n

C : T(n) = 2T(n/2) + 1

D : T(n) = 2T(n – 1) + 1

Q.no 31. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is the time
complexity in Worst case?

A : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

B : Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)

C : Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

D :  Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10) + O(n) and time complexity is O(nLogn)

Q.no 32. Prim’s algorithm is a ______.

A : Divide and conquer algorithm


B : Greedy algorithm

C : Dynamic Programming

D : Approximation algorithm

Q.no 33. Counting sort performs …………. Numbers of comparisons between input
elements.

A:0

B:n

C : nlogn

D : n/2

Q.no 34. Which of the following can traverse the state space tree only in DFS
manner?

A : branch and bound

B : dynamic programming

C : greedy algorithm

D : backtracking

Q.no 35. To which class does the Euler’s circuit problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : Partition class

D : Complete class

Q.no 36. _________ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms?

A : NP

B:P

C : Hard

D : Complete

Q.no 37. The complexity of binary search algorithm is----


A : O(n)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n log n)

D : O(n2)

Q.no 38. Which of the following is false?

A : The spanning trees do not have any cycles

B : MST have n – 1 edges if the graph has n edges

C : Edge e belonging to a cut of the graph if has the weight smaller than any other edge
in the same cut, then the edge e is present in all the MSTs of the graph

D : Removing one edge from the spanning tree will not make the graph disconnected

Q.no 39. We have two sorted lists whose sizes are a and b. For merging these two
lists into a sorted list of size a + b, we require comparisons of

A : O (log a + log b)

B : O (a + b)

C : O(a)

D : O(b)

Q.no 40. How many arrays are required to perform deletion operation in a heap?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 41. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound
strategy?

A : linked list

B : stack

C : queue

D : array
Q.no 42. In what position does the array for heap sort contains data?

A:0

B:1

C : -1

D : anywhere in the array

Q.no 43. The complexity of which of the following sorting algorithms remains to
be the same in its best,average and worst case?

A : Quick sort

B : Insertion sort

C : Counting sort

D : Heap sort

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not an example of non comparison sort?

A : Bubble sort

B : Counting sort

C : Radix sort

D : Bucket sort

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not true about comparison based sorting
algorithms?

A : The minimum possible time complexity of a comparison based sorting algorithm is


O(nLogn) for a random input array

B : Any comparison based sorting algorithm can be made stable by using position as a
criteria when two elements are compared

C : Counting Sort is not a comparison based sorting algortihm

D : Heap Sort is not a comparison based sorting algorithm.

Q.no 46. In what manner is a state-space tree for a backtracking algorithm


constructed?

A : Depth-first search

B : Breadth-first search
C : Twice around the tree

D : Nearest neighbour first

Q.no 47. Minimum number of unique colors required for vertex coloring of a
graph is called?

A : Vertex matching

B : Chromatic index

C : Chromatic number

D : Color number

Q.no 48. 0/1 knapsack is based on __method

A : Greedy Method

B : Branch and bound 2 8 7 1 3 5 6 4

C : Dynamic programming

D : Divide and conquer

Q.no 49. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch
and bound strategy?

A : stack

B : queue

C : priority queue

D : linked list

Q.no 50. Merge sort uses which of the following method to implement sorting?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchange

Q.no 51. Merge sort uses which of the following technique to implement sorting?

A : backtracking
B :  greedy algorithm

C : divide and conquer

D : dynamic programming

Q.no 52. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs


so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is: Select one:

A : Heap

B : Stack

C : B-Tree

D : Queue

Q.no 53. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____
spanning trees.

A : 15

B:8

C : 16

D : 13

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not O(n^2)?

A : (15^10) * n + 12099

B : n^1.98

C : n^3 / (sqrt(n))

D : (2^20) * n

Q.no 55. To which of the following class does a CNF-satisfiability problem belong?

A : P class

B : NP class

C : NP hard

D : NP complete

Q.no 56. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There
are 4 items with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the
maximum value of the items you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 57. Which of the problems cannot be solved by backtracking method?

A : N-queen problem

B : Subset sum problem

C : Hamiltonian circuit problem

D : travelling salesman problem

Q.no 58. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : backtracking divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

B : branch and bound is more efficient than backtracking

C : branch and bound is not suitable where a greedy algorithm is not applicable

D : branch and bound divides a problem into at least 2 new restricted sub problems

Q.no 59. The loop invariant condition at the end of the ith iteration is:

A : n = D1D2….Dm-i and rev = DmDm-1…Dm-i+1

B : n = Dm-i+1…Dm-1Dm and rev = Dm-1….D2D1

C : n != rev

D : n = D1D2….Dm and rev = DmDm-1…D2D1

Q.no 60. The time complexity of the solution tower of Hanoi problem using
recursion is _________

A : O(logn)

B : O(2^n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(n)
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b


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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1001282_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. _____is the minimum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 2. Fractional knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 3. Crossover, mutation, and selection are the

A : Operators Of Genetic
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B : Functions of Genetic

C : Population Of Genetic

D : Member Function

Q.no 4. In a computational complexity theory, a problem with decision making is said to be NP-
complete when it is both in NP and NP-hard. What does NP mean?

A : Non Polynomial time

B : Non-deterministic Probabilistic

C : Non-deterministic Polynomial time

D : Non Probabilistic time

Q.no 5. What is the objective of the knapsack problem?

A : To get maximum total value in the knapsack

B : To get minimum total value in the knapsack

C : To get maximum weight in the knapsack

D : To get minimum weight in the knapsack

Q.no 6. The goal of structured programming is to

A : have well indented programs

B : be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code

C : be able to infer the flow of control from the program text

D : avoid the use of GOTO statements

Q.no 7. Operations in the neural networks can perform what kind of operations?

A : Not In Serial

B : Not In Parallel

C : Serial Or Parallel

D : Partial

Q.no 8. Genetic algorithms are

A : Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm

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B : Binary search algorithm

C : Simulated Annealing

D : Adaptive Linear

Q.no 9. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable

C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 10. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the longest common subsequence
problem?

A : Not Recursion

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Algorithm

Q.no 11. Which of the following standard algorithms is not a Greedy algorithm?

A : Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm

B : Prim’s algorithm

C : Huffman Coding

D : Bellmen Ford Shortest path algorithm

Q.no 12. Recursion is similar to which of the following?

A : Switch Case

B : Loop

C : If else

D : if elif else

Q.no 13. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic Programming

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B : Branch And Bound

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 14. What is tail recursion?

A : A recursive function that has two base cases

B : A function where the recursive functions leads to an infinite loop

C : A recursive function where the function doesn’t return anything and just prints the values

D : A function where the recursive call is the last thing executed by the function

Q.no 15. Matrix chain multiplication problem is solved by which approach?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Approach

Q.no 16. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c, n0 such that 0 ≤ f(n) ≤ c.g(n), for
all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : Little o(g(n))

Q.no 17. In recursion, the condition for which the function will stop calling itself is?

A : Best case

B : Worst case

C : Base case

D : There is no such condition

Q.no 18. What are dendrites?

A : Fibers Of Nerves

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B : nuclear projections

C : Other Name For Nucleus

D : Twisted Network

Q.no 19. Dijkstra algorithm, which solves the single-source shortest--paths problem, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 20. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?

A : Backtracking

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Divide And Conquer

Q.no 21. What is the time complexity of following code: int i, j, k = 0;


for (i = n / 2; i <= n; i++) {
for (j = 2; j <= n; j = j * 2) {
k = k + n / 2;
}
}

A : O(n)

B : O(nLogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^2Logn)

Q.no 22. Which of the following problems is similar to that of a Hamiltonian path problem?

A : knapsack problem

B : closest pair problem

C : travelling salesman problem

D : assignment problem

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Q.no 23. Suppose SAT reduces to a problem C. To claim that C is NP-complete, we additionally
need to show that:

A : There is a checking algorithm for C.

B : Every instance of C maps to an instance of SAT.

C : Every instance of SAT maps to an instance of C.

D : C does not have an efficient algorithm.

Q.no 24. Which of the following problems is NOT solved using dynamic programming?

A : 0/1 Knapsack Problem

B : Matrix Chain Multiplication Problem

C : Edit Distance Problem

D : Fractional Knapsack Problem

Q.no 25. The type of encoding where no character code is the prefix of another character code is
called?

A : optimal encoding

B : prefix encoding

C : Fequency encoding

D : Trie encoding

Q.no 26. loop termination condition along with what makes loop correct

A : loop condition

B : loop increment variable

C : loop invariant

D : none of these

Q.no 27. Dynamic programming is used to find:

A : All Optimal Solution Is Generated

B : One Solution Is Generated

C : No Optimal Solution Is Generated

D : Partial Solution Is Generated

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Q.no 28. What is true about Dynamic Programming

A : It Didn’T Find All Possible Solution

B : It Is Not Suitable For Solving Optimization Problems

C : Avoid The Re-Computation Of Overlapping Sub-Problems

D : Reliability Design Problem Is Not Solved

Q.no 29. Which of the following statements about loop invariants is false?

A : Loop invariants are used to show that algorithms produce the correct results.

B : A loop invariant is the opposite, that is the negation, of the condition of the loop.

C : To prove that a statement is a loop invariant, we use mathematical induction.

D : Loop invariants remain true each time a loop is executed.

Q.no 30. Which algorithm startegy builds up a solution by choosing the option that looks the best
at every step.

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 31. Which one of the following is true about Binary search?

A : the best-case occurs when the target item is in the beginning of the search list

B : the best-case occurs when the target is at the end of the search list

C : the worst-case is when the target item is not in the search list

D : the worst-case is when the target is found in the middle of the search list

Q.no 32. In the development of dynamic programming the value of an optimal solution is
computed in Select one:

A : Top Up Fashion

B : Bottom Up Fashion

C : In Any Way

D : Random

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Q.no 33. Which of the following can be used to define NP complete class? I) polynomial time
Verifier II) Polynomial time reducibility of the known NP complete problem

A : only I

B : only II

C : both I and II

D : neither I nor II

Q.no 34. Arrange following from highest to lowest order by complexity wise A log n B n! C nlogn

A : A,B, C

B : B, C, A

C : C, B ,A

D : B,A, C

Q.no 35. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : Branch And Bound Isworst Method

B : Branch And Bound Is Not Suitable Where A Greedy Algorithm Is Not Applicable

C : Branch And Bound Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

D : Backtracking Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

Q.no 36. Genetic algorithm is

A : A Intelligent Simple Specified Search Technique

B : Used To Solve Non Optimization Problem

C : Is A Part Of Evolutionary Computing

D : Simulated Annealing

Q.no 37. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch and bound

D : Greedy method

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Q.no 38. Which of the following method is used for sorting in merge sort?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchanging

Q.no 39. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{40,20},{30,10},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=20. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible.

A : 60

B : 80

C : 100

D : 40

Q.no 40. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is not in the array at all

C : Item is the first element in the array

D : Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all

Q.no 41. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 42. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

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D : 10*20*30

Q.no 43. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 44. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 45. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 46. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 47. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

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B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 48. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

Q.no 49. To calculate c(i, j )’s, w( i, j)’s and r(i, j)’s; the OBST algorithm in worst case takes the
following time.

A : O(Log N)

B : O (N*N)

C : O (N*N*N)

D : O (N Log N)

Q.no 50. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 51. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

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Q.no 52. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

C : 38.3

D : 45

Q.no 53. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 54. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 55. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

C : actual time required

D : actual memory required

Q.no 56. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

C : 1=1(1+1)/2

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D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 57. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 58. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 59. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 60. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1001282_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What will be the best case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 2. _____is the maximum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 3. Which Data Structure is used to perform Recursion?

A : Array
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B : queue

C : stack

D : linked list

Q.no 4. Recursion is a method in which the solution of a problem depends on?

A : Larger instances of different problems

B : Larger instances of the same problem

C : Smaller instances of the same problem

D : Smaller instances of different problems

Q.no 5. What are dendrites?

A : Fibers Of Nerves

B : nuclear projections

C : Other Name For Nucleus

D : Twisted Network

Q.no 6. Which of the following is true about Huffman Coding.

A : Huffman coding may become lossy in some cases

B : Huffman Codes may not be optimal lossless codes in some cases

C : In Huffman coding, no code is prefix of any other code.

D : Huffman Codes may not be optimal lossy codes in some cases

Q.no 7. In Algorithm Specification the blockes are indicated with matching

A : Braces

B : Parenthesis

C : Square Brackets

D : Slashes

Q.no 8. Fractional knapsack is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound


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C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 9. Steps of Divide and Conquer approach are______

A : Divide, Conquer And Combine

B : Combine, Conquer and Divide

C : Combine, Divide And Conquer

D : Divide, Combine And Conquer

Q.no 10. O(2^n) means computing time is ____

A : Linear

B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

Q.no 11. What is the worst case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 12. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?

A : Exhaustive Search

B : Greedy Algorithm

C : Brute Force Algorithm

D : Divide And Conquer Algorithm

Q.no 13. What is adaline in neural networks?

A : Adaptive Linear Element

B : Automatic Linear Element

C : Adaptive Line Element


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D : Adaptive Nonlinear Element

Q.no 14. Which Programming is based on stepwise refinement process.

A : Structural

B : C programming

C : Procedural

D : Fine

Q.no 15. Which of the following algorithm can be used to solve the Hamiltonian path problem
efficiently?

A : branch and bound

B : iterative improvement

C : divide and conquer

D : greedy algorithm

Q.no 16. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Branch And Bound

C : Backtracking

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 17. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 18. In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur?

A : roots

B : leaves

C : left sub trees

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D : right sub trees

Q.no 19. What is the average case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 20. In a computational complexity theory, a problem with decision making is said to be NP-
complete when it is both in NP and NP-hard. What does NP mean?

A : Non Polynomial time

B : Non-deterministic Probabilistic

C : Non-deterministic Polynomial time

D : Non Probabilistic time

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 22. Which of the following problems is equivalent to the 0-1 Knapsack problem?

A : You are given a bag that can carry a maximum weight of W. You are given N items which have a
weight of {w1, w2, w3,…., wn} and a value of {v1, v2, v3,…., vn}. You can break the items into
smaller pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value

B : You are studying for an exam and you have to study N questions. The questions take {t1, t2, t3,….,
tn} time(in hours) and carry {m1, m2, m3,…., mn} marks. You can study for a maximum of T hours.
You can either study a question or leave it. Choose the questions in such a way that your score is
maximized

C : You are given infinite coins of denominations {v1, v2, v3,….., vn} and a sum S. You have to find
the minimum number of coins required to get the sum S

D : You are given a suitcase that can carry a maximum weight of 15kg. You are given 4 items which
have a weight of {10, 20, 15,40} and a value of {1, 2, 3,4}. You can break the items into smaller
pieces. Choose the items in such a way that you get the maximum value

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Q.no 23. What is the time complexity of following code: int i, j, k = 0;


for (i = n / 2; i <= n; i++) {
for (j = 2; j <= n; j = j * 2) {
k = k + n / 2;
}
}

A : O(n)

B : O(nLogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^2Logn)

Q.no 24. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 25. Which of the following problems can’t be solved using recursion?

A : Factorial of a number

B : Nth fibonacci number

C : Length of a string

D : Problems without base case

Q.no 26. The first step of the genetic algorithm is

A : Applying Selection Of Letter

B : Applying Crossover Operator

C : Applying Nutrition Operator

D : Generated Initial Population

Q.no 27. Crossover operator of genetic algorithms is

A : Join Operator

B : Two Point Crossover

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C : Selection

D : Multiplication

Q.no 28. Which of the following statement about 0 1 knapsack and fractional knapsack problem
is correct?

A : In 0 1 knapsack problem items are divisible and in fractional knapsack items are indivisible

B : Both are the same

C : 0 1 knapsack is solved using a greedy algorithm and fractional knapsack is solved using dynamic
programming

D : In 0 1 knapsack problem items are indivisible and in fractional knapsack items are divisible

Q.no 29. Arrange following from lowest to highest order by complexity wise A log n B n! C nlogn

A : A,B, C

B : B, C, A

C : A, C, B

D : B,A, C

Q.no 30. What is true about Dynamic Programming

A : It Didn’T Find All Possible Solution

B : It Is Not Suitable For Solving Optimization Problems

C : Avoid The Re-Computation Of Overlapping Sub-Problems

D : Reliability Design Problem Is Not Solved

Q.no 31. From the following choose the one which belongs to the algorithm paradigm other than
to which others from the following belongs to.

A : Minimum & Maximum problem

B : Knapsack problem

C : Selection problem

D : Merge sort

Q.no 32. Choose the correct steps to prove if the 3 SAT CNF problem is NP-Complete. I-- SAT
problem is in NP II--3 SAT CNF problem is in NP III--Prove that SAT ≤ 3 SAT CNF Problem in
polynomial time IV---Prove that 3 SAT CNF problem ≤ SAT Problem in polynomial time

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A : I and III

B : I and IV

C : II and III

D : II and IV

Q.no 33. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 34. Simulated annealing (SA) is

A : A Probabilistic Technique For Approximating The Global Optimum Of A Given Function

B : It Is A Exact Local Optimization In A Small Search Space For Problem

C : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

D : It Is Not Used When The Search Space Is Discrete

Q.no 35. loop invariant property can be proved using

A : Mathematical Induction

B : Proof by cases

C : proof by contradiction

D : direct proof

Q.no 36. Choose the correct steps to prove if the vertex cover problem is NP-Complete. I-- Vertex
Cover problem is in NP II--Clique problem is in NP III--Prove that Clique problem ≤ Vertex
Cover Problem in polynomial time IV---Prove that Vertex Cover problem ≤ Clique Problem in
polynomial time

A : I and III

B : I and IV

C : II and III

D : II and IV

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Q.no 37. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch and bound

D : Greedy method

Q.no 38. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{40,20},{30,10},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=20. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible.

A : 60

B : 80

C : 100

D : 40

Q.no 39. Which one of the following is true about Binary search?

A : the best-case occurs when the target item is in the beginning of the search list

B : the best-case occurs when the target is at the end of the search list

C : the worst-case is when the target item is not in the search list

D : the worst-case is when the target is found in the middle of the search list

Q.no 40. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 41. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

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Q.no 42. What are requirements should a problem satisfy in order to be suitable for solving it by
a Genetic Algorithm?

A : The Fitness Function Cannot Be Well–Defined.

B : Solutions Should Be Decomposable Into Steps (Building Blocks) Which Could Be Then Encoded
As Chromosomes.

C : The Member Function Can Be Well–Defined.

D : Minimize Functions

Q.no 43. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

Q.no 44. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

Q.no 45. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 46. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

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C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

Q.no 47. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 48. For any integer m>=3, the series 2+4+6+…+(4m) can be equivalent to ________

A : m^2 + 3

B : m^m

C:m

D : m+1

Q.no 49. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 50. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 51. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

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C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 52. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

C : 38.3

D : 45

Q.no 53. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

C : Inappropriate

D : Not In Iterative Nature

Q.no 54. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 55. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 56. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

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A : Divide And Conquer

B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 57. To calculate c(i, j )’s, w( i, j)’s and r(i, j)’s; the OBST algorithm in worst case takes the
following time.

A : O(Log N)

B : O (N*N)

C : O (N*N*N)

D : O (N Log N)

Q.no 58. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 59. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 60. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

C : 1=1(1+1)/2

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D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1001282_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not characteristic of Algorithm

A : Definiteness

B : finiteness

C : scalability

D : effectiveness

Q.no 2. Which of the following statement about 0/1 knapsack and fractional knapsack problem is
correct?

A : In 0/1 knapsack problem items are divisible and in fractional knapsack items are indivisible

B : Both are the same

C : 0/1 knapsack is solved using a greedy algorithm and fractional knapsack is solved using dynamic
programming

D : In 0/1 knapsack problem items are indivisible and in fractional knapsack items are divisible

Q.no 3. In the absence of a exit condition in a recursive function, the following error is given by?
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A : Compile time error

B : Run time error

C : Logical error

D : No error

Q.no 4. Fractional knapsack problem is solved most efficiently by which of the following
algorithm?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Greedy Algorithm

D : Backtracking

Q.no 5. goto statement is?

A : Used to jump the control of program.

B : Used for iteration

C : same as switch statement

D : Not Used for iteration

Q.no 6. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory?

A : Best case

B : Average case

C : Null case

D : Worst case

Q.no 7. What is tail recursion?

A : A recursive function that has two base cases

B : A function where the recursive functions leads to an infinite loop

C : A recursive function where the function doesn’t return anything and just prints the values

D : A function where the recursive call is the last thing executed by the function

Q.no 8. Express the formula (n-2)*(n-4) in terms of Theta Ɵ Notation

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A : Ɵ(n^2)

B : Ɵ(8)

C : Ɵ(log n)

D : Ɵ(n)

Q.no 9. What is adaline in neural networks?

A : Adaptive Linear Element

B : Automatic Linear Element

C : Adaptive Line Element

D : Adaptive Nonlinear Element

Q.no 10. steps followed in mathematical induction are 1)basis 2)Induction step 3) Induction
hypothesis

A : steps 1and 2 only

B : steps 2 and 3 only

C : steps 1,2, 3

D : steps 1 and 3 only

Q.no 11. Running time of algorithm varies with the size of the input called____

A : Growth of Function

B : Order of growth

C : Growth Rate

D : Growth of log function

Q.no 12. The choice of polynomial class has led to the development of an extensive theory called
________

A : computational complexity

B : time complexity

C : problem complexity

D : decision complexity

Q.no 13. If t1 (n) = O(f(n)), t2 (n)= O(g(n)). Then t1 (n).t2 (n)=_____

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A : O(f(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : O(f(n)g(n))

D : O(f(n)+ g(n))

Q.no 14. Which is an essential tool for proving the statement that proves an algorithm's
correctness.

A : Mathematical induction

B : Flow chart

C : Pseudo code

D : Recursion

Q.no 15. _____is the average number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 16. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c1, c2, n0 such that 0 ≤ c1.g(n) ≤ f(n)
≤ c2.g(n), for all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 17. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are

A : Processor and memory

B : Complexity and capacity

C : Time and Space

D : Speed and Storage

Q.no 18. Which of the following is incorrect? Algorithms can be represented:

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A : Pseudocode

B : Programme

C : Grammar

D : flowchart

Q.no 19. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?

A : Backtracking

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Divide And Conquer

Q.no 20. Which design strategy stops the execution when it finds the solution otherwise starts the
problem from top again?

A : Back Tracking

B : Branch and Bound

C : Divide And Conquer

D : Dynamic Programming

Q.no 21. Which of the following are not in NP?

A : All problems in P

B : Boolean Satisfiability problems

C : Integer factorization problem

D : Halting problem

Q.no 22. Let X be a problem that belongs to the class NP. Then which one of the following is
TRUE?

A : There is no polynomial time algorithm for X.

B : If X can be solved deterministically in polynomial time, then P = NP.

C : If X is NP-hard, then it is NP-complete.

D : X may be undecidable.

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Q.no 23. Choose the correct steps to prove if the 3 SAT CNF problem is NP-Complete. I-- SAT
problem is in NP II--3 SAT CNF problem is in NP III--Prove that SAT ≤ 3 SAT CNF Problem in
polynomial time IV---Prove that 3 SAT CNF problem ≤ SAT Problem in polynomial time

A : I and III

B : I and IV

C : II and III

D : II and IV

Q.no 24. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{40,20},{30,10},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=20. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible.

A : 60

B : 80

C : 100

D : 40

Q.no 25. Crossover operator of genetic algorithms is

A : Join Operator

B : Two Point Crossover

C : Selection

D : Multiplication

Q.no 26. The time taken by nondeterministic sorting algorithm is ______

A : O(1)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n)

D : O(n^2)

Q.no 27. Which of the following branch and bound strategy leads to depth first search?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

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D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 28. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 29. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A : Branch And Bound Isworst Method

B : Branch And Bound Is Not Suitable Where A Greedy Algorithm Is Not Applicable

C : Branch And Bound Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

D : Backtracking Divides A Problem Into At Least 2 New Restricted Sub Problems

Q.no 30. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Priority Queue

D : Linked List

Q.no 31. Which of the following problems can’t be solved using recursion?

A : Factorial of a number

B : Nth fibonacci number

C : Length of a string

D : Problems without base case

Q.no 32. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is______

A : Greedy

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Back Tracking

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D : Branch & Bound

Q.no 33. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 35. Which of the following is/are property/properties of a dynamic programming problem?

A : Evolutionary Approach

B : Require More Time

C : Greedy Approach

D : Optimal Substructure And Overlapping Subproblems

Q.no 36. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is not in the array at all

C : Item is the first element in the array

D : Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all

Q.no 37. Simulated annealing (SA) is

A : A Probabilistic Technique For Approximating The Global Optimum Of A Given Function

B : It Is A Exact Local Optimization In A Small Search Space For Problem

C : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

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D : It Is Not Used When The Search Space Is Discrete

Q.no 38. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch and bound

D : Greedy method

Q.no 39. The first step of the genetic algorithm is

A : Applying Selection Of Letter

B : Applying Crossover Operator

C : Applying Nutrition Operator

D : Generated Initial Population

Q.no 40. Which of the following method is used for sorting in merge sort?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchanging

Q.no 41. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a
polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 42. Identify incorrect statement

A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

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C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 43. What are the parameters of annealing?

A : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

B : The Annealing Schedule Temperature()

C : The Un-Acceptance Probability Function P()

D : Not Flexible

Q.no 44. When recursive call is the last thing executed by the function is called?

A : Mutual Recursion

B : Tail Recursion

C : Exponential Recursion

D : Recursion

Q.no 45. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 46. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

Q.no 47. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

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B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 48. What are the issues on which biological networks proves to be superior than AI
networks?

A : Robustness & Fault Tolerance

B : Inflexibility

C : Single Computation

D : No Computation

Q.no 49. To calculate c(i, j )’s, w( i, j)’s and r(i, j)’s; the OBST algorithm in worst case takes the
following time.

A : O(Log N)

B : O (N*N)

C : O (N*N*N)

D : O (N Log N)

Q.no 50. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

Q.no 51. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?

A : exhaustive search

B : greedy algorithm

C : brute force algorithm

D : divide and conquer algorithm

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Q.no 52. What are requirements should a problem satisfy in order to be suitable for solving it by
a Genetic Algorithm?

A : The Fitness Function Cannot Be Well–Defined.

B : Solutions Should Be Decomposable Into Steps (Building Blocks) Which Could Be Then Encoded
As Chromosomes.

C : The Member Function Can Be Well–Defined.

D : Minimize Functions

Q.no 53. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 54. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 55. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Sorting Algorithm

C : Monte-Carlo Algorithm

D : Brute Force, Recursion And Dynamic Programming

Q.no 56. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

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C : actual time required

D : actual memory required

Q.no 57. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

D : Greedy

Q.no 58. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 59. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 60. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

C : 38.3

D : 45

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1001282_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Floyd-Warshall algorithm, which finds shortest paths between all pairs of vertices, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 2. In a computational complexity theory, a problem with decision making is said to be NP-
complete when it is both in NP and NP-hard. What does NP mean?

A : Non Polynomial time

B : Non-deterministic Probabilistic

C : Non-deterministic Polynomial time

D : Non Probabilistic time

Q.no 3. The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has balanced
parentheses is a
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A : queue

B : stack

C : tree

D : list

Q.no 4. What is the worst case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 5. Which is a condition about the relationship between the variables of our program which
is definitely true immediately before and immediately after each iteration of the loop?

A : For condition

B : Loop invariant condition

C : Both a and b

D : If condition

Q.no 6. def f():


int a[n][n]
// Finding sum of elements of a matrix that are above or on the diagonal.
sum = 0
for i = 1 to n:
for j = i to n:
sum += a[i][j]
print(sum)
Time Complexity of this program:

A : O(n)

B : O(nlogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^3)

Q.no 7. Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?

A : intractable

B : tractable
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C : decision

D : complete

Q.no 8. The goal of structured programming is to

A : have well indented programs

B : be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code

C : be able to infer the flow of control from the program text

D : avoid the use of GOTO statements

Q.no 9. What is the objective of the knapsack problem?

A : To get maximum total value in the knapsack

B : To get minimum total value in the knapsack

C : To get maximum weight in the knapsack

D : To get minimum weight in the knapsack

Q.no 10. _____is the maximum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 11. Which data structure is used for implementing a LIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Array

D : Linked List

Q.no 12. What will be the best case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)
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D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 13. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?

A : Exhaustive Search

B : Greedy Algorithm

C : Brute Force Algorithm

D : Divide And Conquer Algorithm

Q.no 14. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?

A : Brute force algorithm

B : Recursion

C : Dynamic programming

D : Brute force, Recursion and Dynamic Programming

Q.no 15. In recursion, the condition for which the function will stop calling itself is

A : Best case

B : Worst case

C : Base case

D : There is no such condition

Q.no 16. In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur?

A : roots

B : leaves

C : left sub trees

D : right sub trees

Q.no 17. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?

A : Backtracking

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Divide And Conquer


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Q.no 18. Recursion is similar to which of the following?

A : Switch Case

B : Loop

C : If else

D : if elif else

Q.no 19. If f(n) = ______, then there exists positive constants c1, c2, n0 such that 0 ≤ c1.g(n) ≤ f(n)
≤ c2.g(n), for all n ≥ n0

A : Θ(g(n))

B : O(g(n))

C : Ω(g(n))

D : little Ω(g(n))

Q.no 20. Express the formula (n-2)*(n-4) in terms of Theta Ɵ Notation

A : Ɵ(n^2)

B : Ɵ(8)

C : Ɵ(log n)

D : Ɵ(n)

Q.no 21. In the development of dynamic programming the value of an optimal solution is
computed in Select one:

A : Top Up Fashion

B : Bottom Up Fashion

C : In Any Way

D : Random

Q.no 22. The term ________ refers to all state space search methods in which all children of the –
nodes are generated before any other live node can become the E-node.

A : Backtacking

B : Depth First Search

C : Branch And Bound

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D : Breadth First Search

Q.no 23. Prims algorithm is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 24. Why can’t we design a perfect neural network?

A : Full Operation Is Still Known Of Biological Neurons

B : Number Of Neuron Is Itself Not Precisely Known

C : Number Of Interconnection Is Very Less & Is Very Easy

D : Easy Network

Q.no 25. Which of the following method is used for sorting in merge sort?

A : Merging

B : Partitioning

C : Selection

D : Exchanging

Q.no 26. Which of the following problems can’t be solved using recursion?

A : Factorial of a number

B : Nth fibonacci number

C : Length of a string

D : Problems without base case

Q.no 27. Consider the following function f:


int f(int n)
{
int s = 0;
while(n > 1)
{
n = n/2;
s++;
}
return s;
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}
What is the asymptotic complexity in terms of n? (Pick the smallest correct answer)

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

C : O(n)

D : O(log n )

Q.no 28. You are given a knapsack that can carry a maximum weight of 60. There are 4 items
with weights {20, 30, 40, 70} and values {70, 80, 90, 200}. What is the maximum value of the items
you can carry using the knapsack?

A : 160

B : 200

C : 170

D : 90

Q.no 29. Which of the following problems is NOT solved using dynamic programming?

A : 0/1 Knapsack Problem

B : Matrix Chain Multiplication Problem

C : Edit Distance Problem

D : Fractional Knapsack Problem

Q.no 30. loop termination condition along with what makes loop correct

A : loop condition

B : loop increment variable

C : loop invariant

D : none of these

Q.no 31. The type of encoding where no character code is the prefix of another character code is
called?

A : optimal encoding

B : prefix encoding

C : Fequency encoding

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D : Trie encoding

Q.no 32. Choose the correct steps required to prove that a problem is NP complete?

A : 1. prove that problem is in P 2. Prove that every problem in P is reducible to the problem in
question in polynomial time.

B : 1.prove that problem is in P 2. Prove that the problem in question is reducible to any problem in P
in polynomial time.

C : 1.prove that problem is in NP 2. Prove that every problem in NP is reducible to the problem in
question in polynomial time.

D : 1.prove that problem is P 2. Prove that the problem in question is reducible to any problem in P in
polynomial time.

Q.no 33. which is not the important aspect of Loop

A : Initial condition

B : nested loop

C : invariant relation

D : termination

Q.no 34. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch and bound

D : Greedy method

Q.no 35. A problem in NP is NP-complete if

A : It can be reduced to the 3-SAT problem in polynomial time

B : The 3-SAT problem can be reduced to it in polynomial time

C : It can be reduced to any other problem in NP in polynomial time

D : some problem in NP can be reduced to it in polynomial time

Q.no 36. For a good loop invariant, following property is not important

A : Initialization

B : Maintenance

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C : Termination:

D : loop condition

Q.no 37. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is not in the array at all

C : Item is the first element in the array

D : Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all

Q.no 38. What is the time complexity of following code: int i, j, k = 0;


for (i = n / 2; i <= n; i++) {
for (j = 2; j <= n; j = j * 2) {
k = k + n / 2;
}
}

A : O(n)

B : O(nLogn)

C : O(n^2)

D : O(n^2Logn)

Q.no 39. Genetic algorithm uses

A : No Population

B : Chromosomes

C : Not Gene,

D : Not Allele

Q.no 40. Let X be a problem that belongs to the class NP. Then which one of the following is
TRUE?

A : There is no polynomial time algorithm for X.

B : If X can be solved deterministically in polynomial time, then P = NP.

C : If X is NP-hard, then it is NP-complete.

D : X may be undecidable.

Q.no 41. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

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A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 42. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 43. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 44. Genetic Algorithm is a part of

A : Not Evolutionary Computing

B : Inspired By Monte-Carlo'S Theory About Evolution

C : Are Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm Based On The Evolutionary Ideas Of Natural Selection
And Genetics

D : The Fitness Function Not Used

Q.no 45. algorithms performance is characterized by

A : size of a computation

B : computing resources required

C : actual time required

D : actual memory required

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Q.no 46. What is the feature of ANNs due to which they can deal with noisy, fuzzy, inconsistent
data?

A : Non Associative Nature Of Networks

B : Distributive Nature Of Networks

C : Non Distributive Nature Of Networks

D : Is A Meta Heuristic Search Method

Q.no 47. Consider the two matrices P and Q which are 10 x 20 and 20 x 30 matrices respectively.
What is the number of multiplications required to multiply the two matrices?

A : 10*20

B : 20*30

C : 10*30

D : 10*20*30

Q.no 48. Given items as value=(12,10,20,15) and weight=(2,1,3,2).The capacity of knapsack=5.


Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 38

B : 40

C : 38.3

D : 45

Q.no 49. Given items I = (I1,I2,I3,I4,I5), w = (5, 10, 20, 30, 40) and v = (30, 20, 100, 90,160). The
capacity of knapsack W = 60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 250

B : 270

C : 290

D : 130

Q.no 50. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

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B : 420

C : 500

D : 440

Q.no 51. What is time complexity of fun()? int fun(int n)


{
int count = 0;
for (int i = n; i > 0; i /= 2)
for (int j = 0; j < i; j++)
count += 1;
return count;
}

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )

C : O( n)

D : O(log n)

Q.no 52. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

Q.no 53. The name backtrack was first coined by _________

A : D.H.Lehmer

B : L.Baumert

C : R.J.Walker

D : S. Golomb

Q.no 54. If a problem can be broken into subproblems which are reused several times, the
problem possesses ____________ property.

A : Overlapping Subproblems

B : Optimal Substructure

C : Memoization

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D : Greedy

Q.no 55. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 56. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 57. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?

A : exhaustive search

B : greedy algorithm

C : brute force algorithm

D : divide and conquer algorithm

Q.no 58. Core of soft Computing is

A : Fuzzy Computing, Neural Computing, Genetic Algorithms

B : Fuzzy Networks And Artificial Intelligence

C : Artificial Intelligence And Neural Science

D : Neural Science And Genetic Science

Q.no 59. Characteristics of EAs ( Evolutionary Algorithm)

A : Not Flexible

B : Robust

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C : Inappropriate

D : Not In Iterative Nature

Q.no 60. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1001282_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following statement about 0/1 knapsack and fractional knapsack problem is
correct?

A : In 0/1 knapsack problem items are divisible and in fractional knapsack items are indivisible

B : Both are the same

C : 0/1 knapsack is solved using a greedy algorithm and fractional knapsack is solved using dynamic
programming

D : In 0/1 knapsack problem items are indivisible and in fractional knapsack items are divisible

Q.no 2. Which data structure is used for implementing a FIFO branch and bound strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Array

D : Linked List

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Q.no 3. Master theorem applies to recurrences of the form (a=1 and b>1) are two constants.
Select one:

A : T(N)=A.T(N/B)+F(N)

B : T(n)=n.T(n/2)+b.f(n)

C : T(N)=A.T(N-1)+B

D : T(N)=N.T(N-3)+B

Q.no 4. Which is the process of executing a correct program on data sets and
measuring the time and space it takes tocompute the results.

A : Debugging

B : Profiling

C : Conquer

D : Combining

Q.no 5. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?

A : Backtracking

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Divide And Conquer

Q.no 6. What is the average case time complexity of merge sort?

A : O(N Log N)

B : O(n*n)

C : O(Log N)

D : O(Log Log N)

Q.no 7. O(n^3) means computing time is ____

A : Linear

B : polynomial

C : quadratic

D : exponential

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Q.no 8. Problems that cannot be solved by any algorithm are called?

A : tractable problems

B : intractable problems

C : undecidable problems

D : decidable problems

Q.no 9. In recursion, the condition for which the function will stop calling itself is

A : Best case

B : Worst case

C : Base case

D : There is no such condition

Q.no 10. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory?

A : Best case

B : Average case

C : Null case

D : Worst case

Q.no 11. Example of O(n) algorithms is______________

A : Multiplying two numbers.

B : linear search

C : assigning a value to a variable

D : displaying some integer on console

Q.no 12. Dijkstra algorithm, which solves the single-source shortest--paths problem, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 13. In Huffman coding, data in a tree is always present at?


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A : Roots

B : Leafs

C : Left Sub Trees

D : Right Sub Trees

Q.no 14. _____is the average number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 15. What does the algorithmic analysis count?

A : The number of arithmetic and the operations that are required to run the program

B : The number of lines required by the program

C : The number of seconds required by the program to execute

D : The size of the input

Q.no 16. Two main measure of efficiency of an algorithm

A : processor and memory

B : time and space

C : date and space

D : date and capacity

Q.no 17. Which of the following algorithm can be used to solve the Hamiltonian path problem
efficiently?

A : branch and bound

B : iterative improvement

C : divide and conquer

D : greedy algorithm

Q.no 18. Fractional knapsack is based on which method?

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A : greedy method

B : branch and bound

C : dynamic programming

D : divide and conquer

Q.no 19. The space factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by

A : Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm

B : Counting the minimum memory needed by the algorithm

C : Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm

D : Counting the maximum disk space needed by the algorithm

Q.no 20. What is adaline in neural networks?

A : Adaptive Linear Element

B : Automatic Linear Element

C : Adaptive Line Element

D : Adaptive Nonlinear Element

Q.no 21. The first step of the genetic algorithm is

A : Applying Selection Of Letter

B : Applying Crossover Operator

C : Applying Nutrition Operator

D : Generated Initial Population

Q.no 22. loop termination condition along with what makes loop correct

A : loop condition

B : loop increment variable

C : loop invariant

D : none of these

Q.no 23. The Knapsack problem where the objective function is to minimize the profit is

A : Greedy
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B : Dynamic 0 / 1

C : Back tracking

D : Branch & Bound 0/1

Q.no 24. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when

A : Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

B : Item is not in the array at all

C : Item is the first element in the array

D : Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all

Q.no 25. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the matrix chain multiplication
problem?

A : Divide And Conquer

B : Greedy

C : Backtracking

D : Dynamic Programming, Brute Force, Recursion

Q.no 26. Which of the following problems is similar to that of a Hamiltonian path problem?

A : knapsack problem

B : closest pair problem

C : travelling salesman problem

D : assignment problem

Q.no 27. Which of the following can be used to define NP complete class? I) polynomial time
Verifier II) Polynomial time reducibility of the known NP complete problem

A : only I

B : only II

C : both I and II

D : neither I nor II

Q.no 28. Simulated annealing (SA) is

A : A Probabilistic Technique For Approximating The Global Optimum Of A Given Function

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B : It Is A Exact Local Optimization In A Small Search Space For Problem

C : The Energy (Goal) Function Is Not Used

D : It Is Not Used When The Search Space Is Discrete

Q.no 29. Choose the correct steps to prove if the 3 SAT CNF problem is NP-Complete. I-- SAT
problem is in NP II--3 SAT CNF problem is in NP III--Prove that SAT ≤ 3 SAT CNF Problem in
polynomial time IV---Prove that 3 SAT CNF problem ≤ SAT Problem in polynomial time

A : I and III

B : I and IV

C : II and III

D : II and IV

Q.no 30. Which of the following statement about 0/1 knapsack and fractional knapsack problem
is correct?

A : In 0/1 Knapsack Problem Items Are Divisible And In Fractional Knapsack Items Are Indivisible

B : Both Are The Same

C : 0/1 Knapsack Is Solved Using A Greedy Algorithm And Fractional Knapsack Is Solved Using
Dynamic Programming

D : In 0/1 Knapsack Problem Items Are Indivisible And In Fractional Knapsack Items Are Divisible

Q.no 31. Which data structure is most suitable for implementing best first branch and bound
strategy?

A : Stack

B : Queue

C : Priority Queue

D : Linked List

Q.no 32. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{40,20},{30,10},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=20. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible.

A : 60

B : 80

C : 100

D : 40
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Q.no 33. Dynamic Programming uses

A : Member Function

B : Principle Of Optimality

C : Fitness Function

D : Minimize Objective Function

Q.no 34. Which of the following are not in NP?

A : All problems in P

B : Boolean Satisfiability problems

C : Integer factorization problem

D : Halting problem

Q.no 35. Arrange following from highest to lowest order by complexity wise A log n B n! C nlogn

A : A,B, C

B : B, C, A

C : C, B ,A

D : B,A, C

Q.no 36. The time taken by nondeterministic sorting algorithm is ______

A : O(1)

B : O(log n)

C : O(n)

D : O(n^2)

Q.no 37. Which of the following statements about loop invariants is false?

A : Loop invariants are used to show that algorithms produce the correct results.

B : A loop invariant is the opposite, that is the negation, of the condition of the loop.

C : To prove that a statement is a loop invariant, we use mathematical induction.

D : Loop invariants remain true each time a loop is executed.

Q.no 38. Which one of the following is true about Binary search?
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A : the best-case occurs when the target item is in the beginning of the search list

B : the best-case occurs when the target is at the end of the search list

C : the worst-case is when the target item is not in the search list

D : the worst-case is when the target is found in the middle of the search list

Q.no 39. ____________ is an algorithm design method that can be used when the solution to a
problem can be viewed as the result of a sequence of decisions

A : Dynamic Programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Method

Q.no 40. what are the basic rules of recursion

A : Each recursive call should be on a smaller instance of the same problem, that is, a smaller
subproblem

B : The recursive calls must eventually reach a base case, which is solved without further recursion.

C : both 1 and 2

D : Either 1 or 2

Q.no 41. In greedy method which type of solution is generated

A : Optimal solution

B : Best solution

C : Worst solution

D : All solutions

Q.no 42. Time complexity of LCS Select one:

A : O(M!)

B : O(Mn)

C : O(N!)

D : O(N)

Q.no 43. Identify incorrect statement

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A : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) and g(n) = Θ(h(n)), then f(n) = Θ(h(n))

B : f(n) = Θ(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Θ(f(n))

C : f(n) = O(g(n)) if and only if g(n) = Ω(f(n))

D : If f(n) = O(g(n)) and g(n) = O(h(n)), then f(n) ≠ O(h(n))

Q.no 44. When a top-down approach of dynamic programming is applied to a problem, it usually
_____________

A : Decreases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

B : Decreases The Time Complexity And Increases The Space Complexity

C : Increases The Time Complexity And Decreases The Space Complexity

D : Increases Both, The Time Complexity And The Space Complexity

Q.no 45. Consider the following two problems of graph. 1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a
cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited
again to complete the cycle. 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge
exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems.

A : Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P

B : Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set

C : Both problems belong to P set

D : Both problems belong to NP complete set

Q.no 46. Time complexity of fractional knapsack problem is?

A : O(n log n)

B : O(n)

C : O(nlogn)

D : O(nW)

Q.no 47. Given items as profit=(100,180,120,120) and weight=(10,40,20,24).The capacity of


knapsack=60. Find the
maximum profit using fractional knapsack.

A : 400

B : 420

C : 500

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D : 440

Q.no 48. what are the ways to remove the redundant computation outside the loop

A : Code motion

B : frequency reduction

C : Strength reduction

D : All of these

Q.no 49. The main time taking step in fractional knapsack problem is?

A : Breaking items into fraction

B : Adding items into knapsack

C : Sorting

D : Looping through sorted items

Q.no 50. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?

A : exhaustive search

B : greedy algorithm

C : brute force algorithm

D : divide and conquer algorithm

Q.no 51. Find out one solution store it in solution set again find out another solution store in it
solution set, again find out the another solution store into the solution set, now from the solution
set we find out the best solution, which maybe best solution for optimal solution, this is which
type of solution strategy?

A : Dynamic programming

B : Greedy method

C : backtracking

D : Neither Dynamic Nor Greedy

Q.no 52. In a proof by mathematical induction that for all positive integers n, is the "Summation
of numbers from 1 to n is equal to n(n + 1)/2" , inductive hypothesis would be to assume that

A : n=1

B : k=1

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C : 1=1(1+1)/2

D : 1+2+3+…+k = k(k+1)/2

Q.no 53. Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{60,20},{50,25},{20,5}}. The capacity of


knapsack=40. Find the
maximum value output assuming items to be divisible and nondivisible respectively.

A : 10080

B : 11070

C : 130110

D : 11080

Q.no 54. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete.
Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a
polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these
reductions ?

A : Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete

B : Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete

C : Π is NP-complete

D : Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP

Q.no 55. What are the issues on which biological networks proves to be superior than AI
networks?

A : Robustness & Fault Tolerance

B : Inflexibility

C : Single Computation

D : No Computation

Q.no 56. What is time complexity of fun()? int fun(int n)


{
int count = 0;
for (int i = n; i > 0; i /= 2)
for (int j = 0; j < i; j++)
count += 1;
return count;
}

A : O(nlog n)

B : O(n^2 )
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C : O( n)

D : O(log n)

Q.no 57. What is worst case in Rabin-Karp string matching algorithm.

A : when all characters of pattern and text are same as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

B : when all characters of pattern and text are different as the hash values of all the substrings of text]
match with hash value of pattren.

C : Both a and b

D : neither a nor b

Q.no 58. In knapsack problem which ratio is used to find out the best solution if used W for
weight P for price m for capacity?

A : W divided by P

B : P divided by W

C : m divided by P

D : P divided by m

Q.no 59. Mathematical induction can be used to prove that, for any positive integer n,
"Summation of first 1 to n numbers cube" is

A : n(n+1)/2

B : n^2(n+1)^2/2

C : n^2(n+1)^2/4

D : n^2(n+1)^2/6

Q.no 60. Tabu search is

A : A Binary Search Method

B : Mathematical Optimization Method

C : C) Non Associative

D : D) The Acceptance Probability Function Is Used

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1001282_DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following algorithms has better time complexity?

A : insertion sort

B : binary search

C : linear search

D : merge sort

Q.no 2. What is the best case time complexity of binary search?

A : O(n)

B : O(1)

C : O(log n)

D : O(n^2)

Q.no 3. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?

A : Backtracking
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B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Divide And Conquer

Q.no 4. _____is the average number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 5. The goal of structured programming is to

A : have well indented programs

B : be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code

C : be able to infer the flow of control from the program text

D : avoid the use of GOTO statements

Q.no 6. Which of the following statement about 0/1 knapsack and fractional knapsack problem is
correct?

A : In 0/1 knapsack problem items are divisible and in fractional knapsack items are indivisible

B : Both are the same

C : 0/1 knapsack is solved using a greedy algorithm and fractional knapsack is solved using dynamic
programming

D : In 0/1 knapsack problem items are indivisible and in fractional knapsack items are divisible

Q.no 7. _____is the minimum number of steps that can be executed for given input

A : Average case

B : Best case

C : Worst case

D : Time complexity

Q.no 8. Which of the following algorithm can be used to solve the Hamiltonian path problem
efficiently?

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A : branch and bound

B : iterative improvement

C : divide and conquer

D : greedy algorithm

Q.no 9. Crossover, mutation, and selection are the

A : Operators Of Genetic

B : Functions of Genetic

C : Population Of Genetic

D : Member Function

Q.no 10. Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?

A : Exhaustive Search

B : Greedy Algorithm

C : Brute Force Algorithm

D : Divide And Conquer Algorithm

Q.no 11. Floyd-Warshall algorithm, which finds shortest paths between all pairs of vertices, is a

A : Greedy Algorithm

B : Dynamic programming algorithm

C : Divide and Conquer Algorithm

D : Backtracking Algorithm

Q.no 12. What term is used to describe O(n) algorithm?

A : Constant

B : Non polynomial deterministic

C : logarithmic

D : linear

Q.no 13. Genetic algorithm uses

A : Natural Functions
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B : Fitness Functions

C : Minimize Objective Functions

D : Member Function

Q.no 14. In artificial Neural Network interconnected processing elements are called

A : Nodes Or Neurons

B : Weights

C : Axons

D : Soma

Q.no 15. Which Data Structure is used to perform Recursion?

A : Array

B : queue

C : stack

D : linked list

Q.no 16. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the longest common subsequence
problem?

A : Not Recursion

B : Dynamic Programming

C : Branch And Bound

D : Greedy Algorithm

Q.no 17. What is the objective of the knapsack problem?

A : To get maximum total value in the knapsack

B : To get minimum total value in the knapsack

C : To get maximum weight in the knapsack

D : To get minimum weight in the knapsack

Q.no 18. Operations in the neural networks can perform what kind of operations?

A : Not In Serial

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B : Not In Parallel

C : Serial Or Parallel

D : Partial

Q.no 19. Genetic algorithms are

A : Adaptive Heuristic Search Algorithm

B : Binary search algorithm

C : Simulated Annealing

D : Adaptive Linear

Q.no 20. Choose the correct option

A : Recursion is always better than iteration

B : Recursion uses more memory compared to iteration

C : Recursion uses less memory compared to iteration

D : Iterative function is always better and simpler to write than recursion

Q.no 21. Which of the following is/are property/properties of a dynamic programming problem?

A : Evolutionary Approach

B : Require More Time

C : Greedy Approach

D : Optimal Substructure And Overlapping Subproblems

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not a branch and bound strategy to generate branches?

A : Lifo Branch And Bound

B : Fifo Branch And Bound

C : Lowest Cost Branch And Bound

D : Highest Cost Branch And Bound

Q.no 23. Genetic algorithm uses

A : No Population

B : Chromosomes
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C : Not Gene,

D : Not Allele

Q.no 24. From the following which is not return optimal solution

A : Dynamic programming

B : Backtracking

C : Branch and bound

D : Greedy method

Q.no 25. job sequencing with deadline is based on which method?

A : Divide and conquer method

B : Dynamic programming

C : Greedy method

D : Branch and bound

Q.no 26. How many stages(steps) of procedure does a non-deterministic algorithm consist of?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 27. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when

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