Here are the answers to the English language questions:1. b2. a 3. d4. c5. a6. d 7. b8. c9. a10. b11. c

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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2022

MOCK AILET #02
Candidate Name : _________________

Duration : 90 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a
BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and in
the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal
prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test
Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
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SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. In the following question, a sentence is given with a phrase or idiom highlighted in bold. Select the option
given below that can replace the phrase in bold without changing the meaning of the sentence and mark
that as your answer.
Tuesday saw the end of India's first auction of telecommunications spectrum in five years, with the
government generating a revenue of ₹77,815 crores.
(a) The administration weaving a depreciation
(b) The government brought about a profit
(c) The institute generated a profit
(d) The administration made an earning
Coffee drinkers are now focussing more on identifying hidden flavour notes, learning how to appreciate
provenance by honing their coffee making techniques.
(a) Coffee drinkers have now been (b) Coffee drinker's are now
(c) Coffee drinkers' is (d) Coffee drinkers is
Higher education sees more women signing up for game design as a full-time course - a departure from
its former status as a casual elective as an extra credit.
(a) Confirming to their former (b) A departure from it's former
(c) A leaving from her former (d) leaving its former
In 1992, Parliament included Section 61A in the Act and rules validating the use of the EVM and paving
way for their use in elections.
(a) In 1992, Parliament inspected (b) Within 1992, Parliament instigated
(c) The Parliament, in 1992, inserted (d) The Parliament, within 1992, inserted
Direction (Q.5-Q.9): Choose an appropriate word to fill in each blank space.

True, the expansion of renewable energy capacity in India is a step in the right direction. There are
benefits not only from an environmental (A) but also in terms of generating more employment
opportunities. However, the question is whether the government has put forth enough efforts to take
advantage of the extremely favourable cost conditions on renewable energy, (B) solar photovoltaics and
onshore winds. The costs of electricity generation from these sources have declined at a rapid pace over
the years and generating power from these renewables now costs more or less the same as fossil fuels.
Taking (C) of these lower costs, other developing economies like China and Brazil have performed much
better than India in renewable energy generation. According to the International Renewable Energy
Agency, these countries currently rank the first and third respectively in terms of production of renewable
energy. Despite the reduction in costs due to global technological advancement in the field of renewable
energy, India has been unable to (D) these benefits to their full extent. Further, the recent (E) of
safeguard duty on imported solar photovoltaic cells, and the ongoing depreciation of the Indian rupee vis-
à-vis the U.S. dollar, have only lessened some of these cost advantages. If the government is concerned
enough about the deteriorating environment, there is an immediate need to spend more on the research
and development of these renewable energy sources.
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5. A
(a) Respective (b) Perspective (c) Vigilant (d) Conservative
6. B
(a) Conditionally (b) Rapidly (c) Hysterically (d) Especially
7. C
(a) Disadvantage (b) Advantage (c) Mention (d) Surrogacy
8. D
(a) Steep (b) Dislodge (c) Reap (d) Gathered
9. E
(a) Imposition (b) Exposition (c) Supposition (d) Reposition
Direction (Q.10-Q.12): Which of the phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase in
bold to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is
required, mark No correction required as the answer.
10. The airline was able to saved 40 minutes in flight duration compared with the re-routed flight it had
been operating due to airspace curbs, according to aviation website flightradar24.com.
(a) Was able to save 40 minute (b) Was able to save 40 minutes
(c) Were able to save 40 minutes (d) No correction
11. Every school should declared prominently that it is RTE compliant - and the admission procedure,
including deadlines, should be conspicuously displayed at the school premises.
(a) Should declare prominent that (b) Should declares prominently that
(c) Should declare prominently that (d) No correction
12. The central bank had undertaken the exercise of benchmarking India's payment systems vis-à-vis
payment systems in a mix of advanced economies, Asian economies and the BRICS nations.
(a) In a mixed of advanced economies (b) In a mix of advance economies
(c) In a mix at advanced economies (d) No correction
Direction (Q.13 and Q.14): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which
can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
13. A person who believes that people are motivated purely by self-interest
(a) Idealist (b) Cynic (c) Hypocrite (d) Optimist
14. A large group of people or things of a particular kind.

(a) Bevy (b) Escort (c) Lobbyist (d) Cadaver
Direction (Q.15 and Q.16): In each question below a word with its usage is given. Select as your
answer, the word that is inappropriate as a replacement to the word in the main sentence.
15. Constrained: Constrained by paucity of funds the project had to be shelved midway
(a) Restrained (b) Intimidated (c) Hindered (d) Hampered
16. Irrevocable: Despite the obstacles which came his way, he succeeded in his mission due to his
irrevocable determination.
(a) Obstinate (b) Unalterable (c) Immutable (d) Absolute
Direction (Q.17-Q.20): In each of the questions below, four different ways of writing a sentence are
indicated. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
17. (a) Since most human beings are law abiding and peace-loving, they prefer to live with reasonable
restrictions on their ability, rather than adopting a confrontationist posture against the ‘powers that-
be’.
(b) Since mostly humans are peace-loving and law-abiding rather than adopting a confrontationist
posture against the ‘power-that-be’, they will prefer to live with reasonable restrictions.
(c) Because human beings are mostly law-abiding and peace-loving so they prefer to live with
reasonable restrictions on their ability, rather than by adopting a confrontationist posture against the
powers-that-be.
(d) Since human beings are mostly law-abiding and peace-loving, they prefer to be living with reasonable
restrictions on their ability, rather than by adopting a confrontationist posture against the powers-that-
be
18. (a) A fact which has no denying is that both natural and human systems are desperately dependent on
water.
(b) There is no denying the fact that both natural and human systems are desperately dependent on
water.
(c) Both natural and human systems are desperately dependent on water is a fact which has no denying.
(d) Natural and human systems are both desperately dependent on water and this is a fact which has no
denying.
19. (a) Women are ten times as likely as men to be suffering from eating disorders, and female athletes fare
even worse by comparison.
(b) Women are ten times as likely as men to suffer from eating disorders, and female athletes fare even
worst by comparison.
(c) Women are ten times as likely as men to be suffering with eating disorders, and female athletes fare
even worse in comparison.
(d) Women are ten times as likely as men to suffer from eating disorders, and female athletes fare even
worse by comparison.
20. (a) One of the surprising triumphs of sustainable development is its remarkable progress upon
encouraging understanding between people of implacably opposed opinions.
(b) One of the surprising triumph of the sustainable development community is its remarkable progress in
(c) One of the surprising triumphs of the sustainable development community is its remarkable progress
in encouraging understanding between people of implacably opposed opinions.
(d) One of the surprising triumphs in sustainable development community is its remarkable progress in
Passage (Q.21-Q.25): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
I have just returned from a visit to my landlord the solitary neighbour that I shall be troubled with. This is
certainly a beautiful country! In all England, I do not believe that I could have fixed on a situation so
completely removed from the stir of society. A perfect misanthropist’s heaven: and Mr. Heathcliff and I
are such a suitable pair to divide the desolation between us. A capital fellow! He little imagined how my
heart warmed towards him when I beheld his black eyes withdraw so suspiciously under their brows, as I
rode up, and when his fingers sheltered themselves, with a jealous resolution, still further in his waistcoat,
as I announced my name.
‘Mr. Heathcliff?’ I said.
A nod was the answer.
‘Mr. Lockwood, your new tenant, sir. I do myself the honour of calling as soon as possible after my arrival,
to express the hope that I have not inconvenienced you by my perseverance in soliciting the occupation
of Thrushcross Grange: I heard yesterday you had had some thoughts ‘
‘Thrushcross Grange is my own, sir,’ he interrupted, wincing. ‘I should not allow anyone to inconvenience
me, if I could hinder it walk in!’
The ‘walk in’ was uttered with closed teeth, and expressed the sentiment, ‘Go to the Deuce:’ even the
gate over which he leant manifested no sympathizing movement to the words; and I think that
circumstance determined me to accept the invitation: I felt interested in a man who seemed more
exaggeratedly reserved than myself.
When he saw my horse’s breast fairly pushing the barrier, he did put out his hand to unchain it, and then
sullenly preceded me up the causeway, calling, as we entered the court, ‘Joseph, take Mr. Lockwood’s
horse; and bring up some wine.’
‘Here we have the whole establishment of domestics, I suppose,’ was the reflection suggested by this
compound order. ‘No wonder the grass grows up between the flags, and cattle are the only hedge
cutters.’
Joseph was an elderly, nay, an old man: very old, perhaps, though hale and sinewy. ‘The Lord help us!’
he soliloquized in an undertone of peevish displeasure, while relieving me of my horse: looking,
meantime, in my face so sourly that I charitably conjectured he must have need of divine aid to digest his
dinner, and his pious ejaculation had no reference to my unexpected advent.
21. Which of the following is meant by the phrase ‘Go to the Deuce’ as has been used in the passage?
(a) Go to heaven (b) Go to hell
(c) A sense of religious fanaticism (d) A sense of realism and authenticity
22. Which of the following sentences is closely related to the term ‘misanthropist’ as has been used in the
passage?
(a) A person who dislikes humankind and avoids human society.
(b) A person who dislikes, despises or is strongly prejudiced against men.
(c) A person who is strongly prejudiced against women.
(d) A person who hates marriage.
23. This passage demonstrates which of the following narrative techniques?
(a) Irony (b) Pathos (c) Foreshadowing (d) Characterization
24. In the primary mode of composition of this passage, the narrator’s tone is mainly:
(a) Romantic (b) Narrative (c) Apologetic (d) Definitive
25. It can be inferred from the passage that Joseph:

(a) Was very pleased to meet Mr. Lockwood.
(b) Was the only domestic help appointed by Mr. Heathcliff.
(c) Was not a man of faith and religious beliefs.
(d) Was not treated well by his employer Mr. Heathcliff.
26. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning
of the given word.
Peripatetic
(a) Crossroad (b) Headway (c) Nomadic (d) Surveyor
27. In the following question, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Diabolical
(a) Saintly (b) Earthly (c) Secular (d) Monotheism
28. In the question given below, four statements are given which may or may not contain an error. Choose
the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct.
(a) A good diet is as much about what you don't eat as it is about what you do.
(b) The Socotra dragon tree is an iconic tree with a longest history of commerce use.
(c) Dengue fever is caused by one of the five serotypes or strains off the dengue virus.
(d) World Heritage Week is been celebrated this year by UNESCO between November 19 and
November 25.
(a) When we numb our feelings or overindulge them, we also impacts the quality of our thinking.
(b) India's ongoing economic slowdown has been largely attributed to a fall in consumer demand.
(c) The burning of fuels in India were responsible for 7% of global carbon dioxide emissions last year.
(d) It has been my experience which folks who have no vices have very few virtues.
(a) The new theory can help explain the existence of black hole mergers heavier then 50 solar masses.
(b) The island of Socotra's 34-million-year separation from mainland Arabia has gave rise to a unique
flora.
(c) The objective of the mission is to empower citizens to take moral responsible of protecting future
generations.
(d) The tree, perhaps best known for the red resin it is named after, has a range of traditional medicinal
uses.
Direction (Q.31-Q.33): Choose the word or pair of words that best completes the relationship to the
given pair.
31. Utopia : Perfection :: ________ : ________
(a) Epitome: Excellence (b) Dystopia: Elation
(c) Sullied : Flawless (d) Elation: Pity
32. Aristocracy : Elite :: ________ : ________
(a) Democracy: Privileged (b) Ochlocracy: Mob
(c) Bureaucracy: Plebeian (d) Gerontocracy: Women
33. Castigate: Excoriate :: ________ : ________
(a) Eulogize : Belittle (b) Commend : Exemplify
(c) Eulogize: Extol (d) Exalt : Revile
Direction (Q.34 and Q.35): Complete the sentences with the most relevant options.
34. His appearance is unsmiling but ......
(a) his heart is full of compassion for others
(b) he looks very serious on most occasions
(c) people are afraid of him
(d) he is uncompromising on matters of task performance
35. She never visits any zoo because she is strong opponent of the idea of ......
(a) setting the animals free into forest
(b) feeding the animals while others are watching
(c) watching the animals in their natural abode
(d) holding the animals in captivity for our joy
SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
36. The ‘Basel III norms’ is associated with which of the following?
(a) Banking Sector
(b) Transfer of Hazardous Waste
(c) Cybercrime
(d) Administration of Criminal Justice
37. The ‘World Social Protection Report’ is released by which of the following?
(a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(b) International Labour Organisation (ILO)
(c) United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA)
(d) World Bank
38. Consider the following statements:

I. Right to be Forgotten (RTBF) is a part of the broader right of privacy under Article 21.
II. The right to privacy is declared as a fundamental right in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India case in
2017.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
39. The ‘EASE 4.0 reforms agenda’ has been recently in the news. It is related to reforms in which of the
following areas?
(a) Manufacturing sector reforms (b) Global taxation reforms
(c) Higher judiciary reforms (d) Banking reforms
40. With reference to National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP), consider the following statements:
I. The assets of the central and state government public sector undertakings will be divested.
II. It envisages asset monetisation of greenfield projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
41. Which university topped the list of the best 400 universities across the world according to World university
Rankings 2022?
(a) California Institute of Technology
(b) Massachusetts Institute of Technology
(c) University of Oxford
(d) Harvard University
42. Where did the 28th edition of Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise SIMBEX held?
(a) Bay of Bengal (b) North Atlantic (c) Pacific Ocean (d) South China Sea
43. Who has written the memoir titled ‘A Rude Life: The Memoir’?
(a) Suhel Seth (b) Rajdeep Sardesai
(c) Vir Sanghvi (d) Shekhar Gupta
44. Yoshihide Suga stepped down as which country’s Prime Minister amid increasing anger over his
government’s handling of COVID-19?
(a) Australia (b) China (c) Russia (d) Japan
45. Which State has launched an e-ILP platform to regulate entry and exit?
(a) Nagaland (b) Sikkim (c) Manipur (d) Assam
46. Which state government renamed Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park as Orang National Park?
(a) Assam (b) Nagaland (c) Meghalaya (d) Arunachal Pradesh
47. In which city,WHO opened a hub for Pandemic and Epidemic Intelligence?
(a) Rome (b) Washington (c) Berlin (d) NewYork
48. Recently which country declared food emergency as forex crisis worsened?
(a) Nepal (b) SriLanka (c) Maldives (d) Indonesia
49. Recently Indian Army participated in Multilateral Exercise ZAPAD, 2021 in which country?
(a) USA (b) Russia (c) China (d) France
50. Which country was approved as new member by New Development Bank ?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Maldives (c) SriLanka (d) Pakistan
51. In which sports event Yogesh Kathuniya has won silver at Tokyo Paralympics 2020?
(a) Discus Throw (b) Javelin Throw (c) Table Tennis (d) Long Jump
52. Which of the following tech institution is developing an online platform, called e-Source that will be used
to tackle electronic wastes (e-waste)?
(a) IIT Mumbai (b) IIT Delhi (c) IIT Madras (d) None of these
53. Recently Indian Navy handed over two medical oxygen plants to which country?
(a) Bangladesh (b) China (c) Maldives (d) Nepal
54. Which country to partner with Bitt Inc to launch ‘eNaira’ digital currency?
(a) Netherlands (b) Nigeria (c) Qatar (d) Austria
55. Which country gives every year Ramon Magsaysay Award to recipients?
(a) Austria (b) Philippines (c) Australia (d) Netherlands
56. Syed Ali Shah Geelani who passed away was related to which field?
(a) Politics (b) Journalism (c) Producer (d) Poet
57. On the occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of Srila Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupada, the founder of
the Hare Krishna movement, Prime Minister Narendra Modi released a special commemorative coin of
what denomination?
(a) 100 Rupees (b) 125 Rupees (c) 90 Rupees (d) 50 Rupees
58. In the Rabobank’s 2021 Global Top 20 Dairy Companies list, which is topped by France’s Lactalis, India’s
Amul has been placed at which position?
(a) 4th (b) 18th (c) 22nd (d) 1st
59. Recently Nine new judges, including three women, were administered oath of office as judges of the
Supreme Court, taking its strength to how much?
(a) 34 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 33
60. Who was appointed as director general of the country’s largest border guarding force BSF?
(a) Pankaj Kumar Singh
(b) MM Sundresh
(c) TN Pilai
(d) Anil Agarwal
61. In which of the following state of India The GROWTH – India telescope, a joint project of Institute of
Astrophysics (IIA) and IIT Bombay has been installed?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Ladakh
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Goa
62. Who has been appointed as the governor of Uttarakhand on September 9 ?

(a) Gurmit Singh (b) R N Ravi (c) Jagdish Mukhi (d) None of the above
63. Who won gold medal in shooting in Tokyo Paralympics ?

(a) Manish Narwal (b) Singhraj Adhana
(c) Sisodia (d) Abhinav Bindra
64. Which country has recently(September 2021) become first country to use bitcoin as legal tender ?
(a) El Salvador (b) Maldives (c) Hong kong (d) Macao
65. Which one of the following animals was not represented on seals and terracota art of the Harappan
culture
(a) Cow (b) Elephant (c) Rhinoceros (d) Tiger
66. Which of the following is the most common motif of the Indus seals?
(a) Elephant (b) Bull (c) Rhinoceros (d) Unicorn
67. Which one of the following is a local wind that blows out from Siberia?
(a) Bora (b) Purga (c) Mistral (d) Blizzard
68. Which one of the following agencies of Indian Government implements the Price Support Scheme
(PSS)?
(a) FCI
(b) NAFED
(c) Agriculture pricing agency of India
(d) None of the above
69. Consider the following statements with respect to Competition Commission of India.
I. Competition Commission of India is a constitutional body of the Government of India
II. It consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
70. The highest peace time gallantry award is

(a) Ashok Chakra
(b) Param Vir Chakra
(c) Kirti Chakra
(d) Vir Chakra
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
71. Legal Principles:

1. Taking away a movable property dishonestly with the intent to dispossess a person of such object
without his consent amounts to theft.
2. Dispossession is said to occur if a person is denied of enjoying the benefit of an object without his
consent.
3. Consent means and includes any express or implied permission granted to a person for the specified
usage.
4. Implied permission is said to be granted if a person by actions or utterances conveys his acceptance
of usage by the other person.
Factual Situation: John decided to develop a very high efficiency vehicle engine with double fuel
efficiency than the market standards. Divya promised to financially aid John. John completed his
research after three years and discovered a new engine named 'nuv’ engine with almost double the fuel
efficiency However, it failed to deliver similar results after reaching engine temperature of 150°
Centigrade and above. Many car manufacturers rejected the model on this ground alone. John grew
adamant and decided not to make any further change in the engine. Divya was keen to take the
technology to other experts and scientists to improve the same. One day Divya took the engine model
without permission of John and gave it to a scientific research forum for the limited purpose of
improvement. Divya's effort paid off and the scientist plugged the gap in the technology and the engine
started to give double fuel efficiency under all type temperatures and conditions. Divya broke this news to
John and gave him the suggestions to be carried in the model. John was so upset that he filed a
complaint against Divya alleging theft.
On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide:

Whether Divya can be held guilty for theft in the instant case?
(a) Yes, as Divya dispossessed John of his engine model without his consent.
(b) No, as Divya being the part owner of the engine model cannot be held guilty of theft of his own engine
model.
(c) No, as the element of dishonesty was absent in the present case. The engine was taken to the
scientific research firm only for the purpose of making necessary changes in the model.
(d) Yes, as John was categorically against making any further change in the engine model.

1. Libel is an actionable tort punishable with an imprisonment of seven years. Three necessary
conditions must be established to sustain an action for libel.
2. The first condition to be satisfied for holding someone liable for libel is that there must be false
statement on part of the person committing libel. False statement has to be based on events not
known to anyone but the person who is accused of making libelous statement.
3. The second condition to be satisfied for holding someone liable for libel is that there must be
publication of false statement. Publication is said to occur if a statement is made in a permanent form
such as effigy, painting, writing, printing etc.
4. The third condition to be satisfied for holding someone liable for libel is that such statement should be
defamatory. A statement is said to be defamatory if it lowers the plaintiff in the estimation of right-
thinking members of the society generally
Factual Situation: Riyo was a famous basketball player in his country. He was a person of reputable
personality in the society. He struggled from the scratch and worked hard to achieve a global fame on his
own. But to utter dismay, he started developing some illness in a mean while. As he was suffering from
severe body ache since last two weeks therefore, he approached a famous physician in the town. The
famous Physician “X” referred Riyo for taking few tests. Rony, in charge of the diagnostic centre, told
Riyo that it would take some time to prepare the medical report. So, the medical report would be
couriered to his address. After three days when the medical report was prepared, Riyo received the
medical report. At that time, he was going to a get together party with some friends. So, he took the same
to his friends. The medical report was read aloud by his friends which disclosed that he was suffering
from leprosy. Riyo was extremely ashamed and was ostracized from his community. Riyo filed a suit
against Rony for defamation and demanded damages.
Whether the medical report sent by Rony defamatory in nature?
(a) No, as the medical report rightly stated the medical condition of Riyo and no right-thinking member of
the society would have ostracized Riyo for leprosy.
(b) Yes, as Riyo was ostracized from the society due to disclosure of leprosy
(c) Yes, as Riyo suffered loss of reputation due to the medical report prepared by Rony
(d) No, as Rony had no intention to defame Riyo.

1. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is a fundamental right.
2. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment
to any office under the State.
3. For a person to have a valid claim at State employment a right to claim employment must have
accrued to such person.
4. A right is said to be accrued in favor of a person when another person has made an overt or covert
promise to such person resulting in an obligation over the person making such promise.
Factual Situation: X graduated from a prestigious university in the country of Freeland. After his
graduation, many of his friend’s suggested him to prepare for competitive exams and appear for the
competitive exam of Public Works Department. So, he finally decided to start preparing for the same and
later on he appeared in a competitive exam in order to become a civil engineer with the Public Works
Department. He qualified for the stipulated post, but several others did too. A merit list was accordingly
prepared and his name appeared in the waiting list of the result. His recruitment was subject to his name
making it to the final merit list. As it happened, no candidate withdrew his candidature and as a result, no
further changes were made in the merit list and in the waiting list.This never happened, and the
recruitment and appointment process were closed after this. X approached the court of law saying that
his right to employment with State is being violated since he had secured for himself a position with
Public Works Department the moment, he qualified the exam.
(a) X will succeed as the fact that he qualified for a position with the PWD after cracking the competitive
exam,
(b) X will succeed as the government impliedly accepted X's candidature as a meritorious candidate the
moment they put his name on a waiting list. Thus, the State now must provide suitable employment to
X
(c) X will succeed as a right to employment accrued to X after successfully cracking the competitive
exam with the State in general.
(d) X will not succeed as his right to employment was contingent on his name being selected in the final
merit list.

1. No country can violate the territorial sovereignty of another country.
2. All countries have a right of self-defense in International Law.
3. Any act of self-defense carried out by a country must be immediately reported by it to the UN
4. Self-defense may be used as a defense for the use of force in order to prevent crime against oneself,
Factual Situation: The country of X and Y were neighboring countries and were staunch rivals with each
other. Both the countries shared this rivalry from a long period of time and all the other neighboring
countries known about their rivalry from the very beginning. So, they try to avoid involving themselves in
their small matters. But suddenly in May 2020, the state of X started a mass mobilization of troops on its
borders with Y, and further began a series of military drills in order to intimidate Y. All these ongoing
operations and activities were sharply observed by the state of Y and held an emergency meeting in
order to deal with the current escalating situation. After the meeting, fearing an imminent risk of attack,
the state of Y, began a strategic and systematic bombing on all the bases and military installations
occupied by their rivals, and immediately informed the United Forum of Nations (UFN). Both the countries
are members of UFN and appeared before the forum for the redressal of the issue. Can the state of Y
take the plea of self-defense?
(a) No, because what Y did was not in self-defense, and rather was an act of anticipatory self-defense.
(b) Yes, because there was a real danger to the safety and security of Y.
(c) Yes, because it immediately informed the UFN about its attacks on X.
(d) No, because Y should have first consulted UFN before attacking X.
1. Article 124(4) of the Constitution of Indiana lays down the procedure for impeachment of Judges.
2. No sitting or serving judge of either the Supreme Court or High Court be removed from office or
punished by the Government of Indianauntil and unless he/she has been convicted in a corruption
case by a permanent and competent court of law.
3. In case a person demits office during the trial against him, the matter would be then Immediately
transferred to the Anti-Corruption Tribunal of the Government of Indiana, who would then have the
sole right to prosecute him.
4. Only a court of Law can prosecute a Judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court.
Factual Situation: Justice Ram Singh is the youngest Supreme Court Judge in the history of this
country. Honorable Justice Ram has achieved a lot of accomplishment at a young age, he completed his
LLB degree at an early age when he was just 18 years old and started practicing in the court of law at a
very early age. He soon thereafter elevated to the higher judiciary as Judge. But suddenly after a famous
case he faced a lot of criticism for his point of view in the matter. This led to the scrutiny of the judgement
of other cases held by him. After all this the Anti-Corruption Tribunal which was set up by the
Government of Indiana to try government officers and personnel on corruption charges, finds conclusive
evidence against Justice Ram Singh, the sitting judge of the Supreme Court of Indiana. The anti-
corruption Tribunal eventually finds him guilty of corruption charges. He is then removed from his office
by the Government. Justice Ram Singh was aggrieved from the decision therefore he challenged this
order on the basis that the tribunal does not have the right to prosecute him.
Whether Justice Ram Singh will be successful in his challenge?
(a) Yes, Justice Singh can succeed as he is a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of Indiana and he
enjoys absolute immunity from any prosecution
(b) Yes, as the tribunal which punished him is not a permanent or competent court of law which can
punish him.
(c) No, because the Tribunal has been specifically formed with the purpose of eradicating corruption from
the society and Justice Sen is a corrupt person.
(d) None of the above.
1. The word 'illegal is applicable to everything which is an offence, or which is prohibited by law, or
which furnishes a ground to civil action, and person is said to be legally bound to do that whatever it
is illegal to omit.
2. If a person committed an act which he knows that it is so imminently dangerous that it must in all
probability, cause death, or such bodily injury as it likely to cause death and commit such act without
any lawful excuse, is said to be guilty of murder.
3. Whosoever does any act with such intention or knowledge and under such circumstances that, if he
by that act caused death, he would be guilty of culpable homicide not amounting t murder.
4. Intention and motive are of paramount importance while deciding an offence.
Factual Situation: Ramesh is a resident of city Z and works as a swimming instructor at many places.
He is a professional swimmer and apart from working as a swimming instructor, he also used to train
swimmers in State Swimming Academy as he was a state level swimmer coach as well. In his
neighborhood a very sweet child lived. The name of the child was Sakshi and she was just 7-year-old.
Both Ramesh and Sakshi were very close to each other as they frequently used to visit each other’s
house. The bond between the two was known to all the members of his society. One day Ramesh was
returning from the work. On that day he decided to take a different route to home. Adjacent to that route
flows a river. He was enjoying the view along the road when he suddenly noticed a child of seven years
was drowning into the river. He recognized the child as Sakshi who resides in his neighborhood. As he
was a good swimmer, he could have saved the child but he could not do so. At the end the child drowned
in the river and ultimately died.
Ramesh is guilty of
(a) No offence (b) Murder (c) Culpable homicide (d) None of the above

1. If a person commits suicide, whosoever abets the commission of such suicide shall be liable for the
offence of abetment of suicide.
2. Abetment means assisting, aiding or advising a person by direct or indirect means.
3. Suicide means an act aimed to end the life of oneself and does not include a failed attempt to commit
suicide
4. Whoever attempts to commit suicide and does any act towards the commission of such offence, shall
be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with fine, or with
both.
Factual Situation: Mr. X was farmer in the state of Ayinga which was known for its fertile agricultural
lands. X owned his own farm and totally depends upon the income raised through crops from in his
agriculture farms. In last few years, monsoon season took an ugly turn which resulted in bad weather
conditions and affected the productivity of crops. Eventually there were fewer days where clouds could
be seen in the sky. His last crop damaged bearing him no yield because of not having rain a single day
during the monsoon season. The result of all this was that he was laden with debt due to bad agricultural
productivity in last several years. His problems got deteriorated and continued from thereon. Soon X's
wife Y kept reminding him about lack of ration and household necessities. He was deeply affected by all
these thongs andone day X gave a bottle of rat poison to Y and asked her to mix it in dinner to put an end
to the misery Y did so. Y and her children died by consuming poison but X survived.
Whether X can be held guilty of abetment to suicide and suicide together?
(a) No, as X is guilty of abetment to suicide of Y and their chidren, but not guilty of suicide.
(b) Yes, as X is guilty of abetment to suicide of all his family members.
(c) Yes, as X is guilty of murder of children and abetment to suicide of his wife,
(d) No, as X is neither guilty of abetment to suicide nor suicide itself.

1. The right to practice any trade or profession is a Fundamental Right under Art. 19 (1) (g).
2. Secularism is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
3. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on certain Fundamental Rights.
4. Reasonable restriction by government will not amount to violation of fundamental right if such
restriction is put forth for the benefit of the public at large.
Factual Situation:The Government of Pavitrabhoomi is a secular State. Since the inception of its
independence the State of Pavitrabhoomi believed in protecting and safeguarding the religious rights of
each and every community residing into the territory of State of Pavitrabhoomi. Over a due course of
time, different communities started developing wrong assumptions about each other over religious
issues. This tussle between the communities started escalating furthermore which raised a serious
concern for the Government of Pavitrabhoomi. The Government decided to ban the slaughter of cows,
goats and poultry, during the period of a particular festival belonging to a community of the State, so that
the religious sentiments of a particular section of the population who are in majority in that state did not
get hurt. The Butchers and Meat Sellers Union get aggrieved with the decision of the government and as
a result filed a writ petition against this action of the Government in the Apex Court of the country, making
the grounds and claiming that their Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(g) has been violated.
I. The Fundamental Right in question has not been infringed, because the ban is only temporary. and
restricted to a few days in a year, thus causing no substantial harm to the meat trade.
II. There has not been any infringement of Fundamental Rights, because secularism also implies
that the religious sentiments of all communities have to be accorded equal importance.
III. The ban falls within the ambit of a reasonable restriction.
IV. The Fundamental Rights have a higher status than the basic structure; hence the Meat Sellers Union
would succeed.
On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide which statement is true
(a) Only (I) (b) (I) and (II)
(c) (I), (II) & (III) (d) Only (IV)

1. Coercion is committing, or threatening to commit, any act forbidden by the Indic Penal Code.
2. Coercion means the unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property, to the prejudice of any
person whatever, with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement.
3. Consent acquired through coercion is void.
4. There is no contract without reasonable, adequate, and mutual consideration from both parties.
Factual Situation: Tarun, a crook and a beggar used to earn his living through cheating people and
asking for alms. He was very famous for his conning and scheming tactics which he uses to befool the
people. He is very cunning by nature and always work upon creating new ways of conning the people.
One day while roaming around a busy street he saw a person named Adarsh driving by in a new car
belonging to a famous brand and hits upon an idea. He rushes to the middle of the road in front of
Adarsh's car and thereby not allowing him to move and threatens to jump under the wheels unless
Adarsh gives him Rs. 500. Intimidated of facing police harassment and criminal prosecution, Adarsh
agrees to comply with demand put forth by Tarun. Adarsh finds that he has only two-hundred-rupee note
with him and the rest are all in denominations Rs. 1000. He pays Rs. 200 and promises to pay the
balance later. Tarun readily agrees to his promise and approaches Adarsh the very next day for the rest
of the money. On Adarsh's refusal to pay the remaining amount, Tarun sues him for the breach of
contract.
On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide the best option, as to whether or not there has
been any amounting to coercion.
(a) Tarun's case would be dismissed, because giving of alms out of charity or otherwise does not come
within the ambit of the law of contract.
(b) There was an agreement but no valid consent since such consent had been obtained through
intimidation
(c) There was no valid written contract, so Adarsh would not be required to pay
(d) Adarsh would not be required to pay, since he gave his consent out of fear and the desire to avoid
any harassment.
1. The wrong of defamation is committed either by way of writing, or its equivalent or by way of speech.
2. To be considered defamatory, the statement must concern a matter of fact, not simply an opinion.
3. The defamatory statement should be published so that a third party knows about it.
4. A defamatory statement is a statement is one which lowers a person reputation in the eyes of the
right-minded people of the society.
Factual Situation: X &Y used to be very close friend in college time and everyone in the college knew
about their friendship. Even some people were jealous of their friendship and often tried to create
misunderstanding between the two but fortunately their schemes never worked out. Finally after
graduating from college, people’s schemes of separating them apart showed colors and one fine day
both got into a pretty nasty fight because of some misunderstanding created by others. Eventually the
fight led to verbal abuse and some third person had to intervene to stop the fight. Few weeks after the
fight, X wrote a letter to her friend Y in Spanish in which she called her a woman of bad character. X did
not know that Y did not know Spanish. Y went to one of her friends who knew the language and asked
her to translate it for her. When she came to know about the contents of the letter, she felt very
humiliated and filed a case against X for defamation. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts
decide.
Whether the case filed by Y will succeed or not?
(a) Y will succeed because X tried to defame her.
(b) Y will succeed because the contents of the letter were published.
(c) Y will not succeed because X was unaware of the fact that Y did not know Spanish.
(d) Y will not succeed because she is X’s friend.

1. An Act of God or vis major is a general defence in Torts.
2. An Act of God is defined as an act which could not by any amount of care would have been foreseen,
or if it has been foreseen, could not be avoided by any amount of care by any individual.
3. An act of God is a type of inevitable accident where the factors affecting the accident are natural
causes.
4. If the damage is inflicted by the forces of nature and in such circumstances, a person would not be
responsible for any unintentional harm under the rule of tort.
Factual Situation: P is a leading architect in the city of Mumbai and he was well known for his work in
the whole city and even people from outside the city also praised him for his outstanding work in this field.
With success also come haters and these people do not want anyone else succeed beside themselves.
P always had a dream to build something for which he will be known exclusively. So, P started working
on a big project. After few years of hard work P created a series of artificial lakes and built embankments
to contain them. After the completion of project everyone praised his work. All the safety measures were
also displayed during the inauguration ceremony. But one bad day due to extremely heavy rainfall, the
heaviest in human memory, the embankments broke and the water washed away four bridges which
were owned by S. S suffered a very heavy loss due to P’s artificial lakes. In the end S consulted a friend
and filed a suit to recover damages. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide.
(a) P is liable because it is an unnatural use of his land to build embankments and artificial lakes on
one’s land.
(b) P is liable because he caused a lot of damage to S.
(c) P is not liable because it was an act of God that caused so much damage.
(d) P is not liable because the rainfall was very heavy and the bridges broke because of it.
1. The law gives a person his right to protect his property and himself from any attack with the use of a
reasonable amount of force.
2. The private defence is not justified as a pre-emptive attack.
3. Private defence is also not justified when the attack is already over.
4. Disproportionate force must not be used in private defence. Otherwise the case may change
according to the force used.
Factual Situation: B was a resident of Z-city. He recently moved to another city. As he was running on
tight budget, so he could not afford to live in a well mannered and civilized neighborhood and he can only
settle for a rather shady looking neighborhood but he decided to work hard to earn some quick cash and
get out of this area. The neighborhood, in which B lives, is known for its unruly behavior, stealing and
trespassing as its day today issue. When B shifted to this neighborhood he decided take some
precautions and decided to secure his property from trespassing and other misfortunes therefore B had
placed a live wire running across his land. C was also a resident of the same neighborhood and works in
a night club. One day he was returning home late at night. When C passed through B’s land to go to his
own house; he came in contact with the wire and was seriously injured. Later he brought a case for
damages against B. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide if he will succeed or not.
(a) C will win the case because he had a right to pass over B’s property to reach his own house.
(b) C will win the case because B used unreasonable force to protect his property and it was
unnecessary force.
(c) B will win in this case because it was his property and C was a trespasser.
(d) B will win the case because C should have taken due care and caution while walking on the land.

1. In the case of trespass to land, the unlawful land infringement must be direct, intentional and
actionable in itself.
2. In order to constitute a trespass, entry is essential and Entry must be without permission.
3. A person has the right to protect one’s property from any attack with the use of a reasonable amount
of force.
4. The private defence is not justified as a pre-emptive attack and is also not justified when the attack is
already over.
Factual Situation: R & S used to work in the same office. One day both got into a pretty bad fight in the
office, due to which S got fired from her job as well. After that day both became sworn enemies,who can’t
even tolerate to look at each other’s faces any time. Although they are enemies, they are also neighbors
in a highly sort for neighborhood. One fine morning, when S returned from her morning walk, she saw
that R trespassed into her property and was trying to nail something onto the wall of her house. He was
on a ladder doing this and when S saw this, she got really angry and shook the ladder and R fell onto the
ground sustaining severe injuries. Due to injuries R has to remain in the hospital for a whole week and
because of which R incurred heavy expenses in the hospital for treatment. Later, after careful
consideration he filed a case for damages and to recover the money incurred in the hospital. On the
basis of the given Principles and Facts decide.
Whether S is liable or not?

(a) S is not liable because R trespassed into her land.
(b) S is not liable because R trespassed into her property.
(c) S is liable because she used unreasonable force. It was a pre-emptive attack and was
disproportionate.
(d) S is liable because she did something very wrong by pulling the ladder.
1. The defence of necessity arises when a person is forced to cause harm to prevent greater harm from
taking place.
2. With the necessity defense there will always be a prima facie violation of the law.
3. The defense of necessity is only applicable when the defendant is able to justify his unlawful acts.
4. the defence of necessity gives the state or an individual a privilege to take or use the property of
another.
Factual Situation: G is a resident of X-city which is also known as the city of dreams. G is a hardworking
and honest guy by nature and He is a chef by profession. His earning is enough for him to live in a posh
neighborhood in X-city. Once during an unfortunate night when he was sleeping, he felt suffocated and
woke up. Then he figured out the reason for suffocation is smoke as his house was on fire. So he hastily
tried to douse it but when he fails to do so, he enters X’s house in order to put out the fire so that it won’t
spread to the other houses. X holds a different kind of reputation in the society because of his nature.
Therefore he being the strict and no-nonsense person that he is, he saw it as trespass to his property.
Even after continuous explanation of G, X did not falter from his point of view and brings a case of
trespass against G. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide the liability of G.
Whether G is liable or not?

(a) G is liable because he cannot randomly jump into X’s property without his permission.
(b) G is liable because he could have taken help from the fire brigade instead of jumping into X’s
property.
(c) G is not liable because he can take the defense of necessity.
(d) G is not liable because he was doing a public good by trying to prevent the fire from spreading into
the houses of other people.

1. Statutory authority is the authority derived from a statute or legislation.
2. When legislation is passed, empowering a person to commit a certain act, that authority granted by
the statute is a defence against liability for torts.
3. Negligence as a tort is said to have been committed when a person owes a duty of care towards
someone and commits a breach of duty by failing to perform it resulting in a legal damage caused to
the complainant.
4. The damage so caused must be an immediate cause of the act of negligence and not a remote
cause.
Factual Situation: The X rail company is a newly emerging construction companies in the past couple of
years. Although it is new but it’s scale is large enough for it to be considered as a major construction
company in the state of XYZ. Recently the X rail company took the major task of laying rail tracks as per
the statute or legislation governing them and they finished their work rather quickly and laid down tracks
over the land of Y. as the tracks was laid down over the land of Y, he has to forego some part of his land
which affected his day today life majorly. Eventually everything gets as usual and normal life of Y started
again. One day, when a train was going through his land, the sparks from the train set fire to the woods
belonging to Y. This caused a great loss to Y because his land was taken away and his woods were also
destroyed. He filed a case against the railway company for damages and to get compensation for his
loss. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide the liability of the X rail company.
(a) X Rail Company will have to pay for the damages caused to Y.
(b) X Rail Company will not have to pay for the damages caused to Y as they are protected by the
defence of statutory authority.
(c) X Rail Company will not have to pay damages because there was no negligence on their part.
(d) Both (b) and (c).
1. Consideration is one of the most important parts of a contract because it states why each party is
joining the agreement.
2. Consent to enter into a legal relationship by both parties must be freely given
3. The agreement must also have the elements of certainty and possibility of performance for it to be
enforceable by law and it must not be void.
4. Where one of the parties to a contract was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party,
the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party who was in a position to dominate the
decision of the other party.
Factual Situation: X was a resident of well known city in the country of ZZ. He was a very health
conscious. He followed a pretty healthy routine throughout the day, including proper exercise and three
healthy meals a day. But his life took a reverse turn when he was diagnosed with a unique type of
disease which need continuous blood transplant once in every two week. He consulted with a lot of
doctors regarding his disease and every one of them suggested him for a certain operation. The cost of
the operation was around ten lakh rupees. Eventually X approached a famous doctor for treatment. The
doctor asked him to make a payment of rupees Ten Lakh for treatment of his disease. As X’s financial
condition was not that good so he paid an amount of rupees Five Lakh and promised to pay the
remaining amount after the treatment. After treatment, the patient recovered from the disease. The doctor
demanded the remaining amount from the patient. The patient X refused to pay.On the basis of the given
Principles and Facts decide
Whether the contract is enforceable against X or not?

(a) The contract is not enforceable without the consent of the patient.
(b) The contract is enforceable against the doctor.
(c) The contract is not enforceable as doctor was in dominating position.
(d) The contract is enforceable against the patient by the doctor.

1. There is a duty on every person do acts with reasonable care in order to avoid any harm which may
occur due to their failure of taking such care.
2. “Volenti non fit injuria”, means that a person has no legal remedy for the injury caused by an act to
which he has consented.
3. A person has no remedy against an injury caused by an act to which he has consented.
4. The consent of the plaintiff acts as a defence and this defence is called volenti non fit injuria which
means to a willing person no injury happens.
Factual Situation: N came to Bombay on the behalf of his company, to work out the details of a business
deal which can be a changing point to his career in the company he is currently working for. After
successfully signing the deal he got relax and forgot the point that he had to ratify the business deal with
the signature of his company’ CEO in two days and the train he was supposed to catch will leave in 40
minutes. So, he was in a hurry to get to the railway station to catch the Delhi bound train and hired a taxi
run by MB Taxi Company, well known in city. N asked the driver to drive fast, in a bid not to miss the
train. In the city zone, there was a speed limit of 110 km per hour and the driver, rather reluctantly, drove
quite fast at times 100 km per hour in his pursuit to reach the station in time. As a result of the fast
driving, the driver lost control and hit a truck parked outside a mill and N was badly injured. N filed a suit
against the taxi company. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide
(a) The MB Taxi Company would not be liable since N asked the driver to drive fast.
(b) The MB Taxi Company would be liable, because the driver ought not to have exceeded the speed
limit.
(c) The MB Taxi Company would be liable, because the request of “driving fast” does not mean consent
to negligence.
1. A person is entitled to use reasonable force for self-defence.
2. The subject matter of the right comprise the body if the person exercising the right or of anyone else,
against any offence affecting the human body; and the property of the person exercising the right, or
of anyone else, against theft, robbery, mischief or criminal trespass
3. The right commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger arises
4. The right ceases when the apprehension of danger ceases, or on completion of the offence
Factual Situation: P was a famous businessman, known for his bold statement in the share market.
Through investing in the share market he collected a lot of wealth which also included several properties
like flats, villas, casinos and farmhouses etc. once he decided to go for a vacation with his family
members to relax and enjoy some family time away from all the day to day business matters. So, he went
to his farmhouse at Lonavala with his family members. One night, a group of robbers broke open the
door of the house and there was scuffle between the intruders and the residents. P took out his licensed
pistol and fired a shot at one of the intruders. The shot did not hit the target and the robbers ran out of the
house and by that time, the neighbours gathered in front of P’s farmhouse. P in a fit of anger came out of
the house with his pistol and fired at fleeing robbers who by that time mingled with the neighbours. The
shot injured a robber and he filed a suit against P. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide
(a) P is not liable, since his action was in continuation of self-defence.

(b) P is liable, because he should have realised that the robbers have left the scene and there was no
further harm to anyone from the robbers. Praveer is liable, because the action was in not in self-
defence but was due to his anger.
(c) P is not liable since his act was for the betterment of society.
(d) P is liable, because he shot the robber which was wrong.

1. The defence of necessity arises when a person is forced to cause harm to prevent greater harm from
taking place.
2. With the necessity defense there will always be a prima facie violation of the law.
3. The defense of necessity is only applicable when the defendant is able to justify his unlawful acts.
4. The battery is intentional touching another person without the person’s consent. In the battery, the
personal liberty of the person is compromised to cause physical harm to the person.
Factual Situation: Amy Hazarika was a well known activist. She was a model figure and a lot of people,
specially ladies, and look up to her and treats her as a role model for future. She was very famous for her
righteous attitude towards peace and violence free strikes and protests. She used to participate
frequently in protests and candle march for righteous causes. If there is any protest, strike etc. is going on
for a justified reason than she’ll be the first one to support the movement. Once, she was participating in
protest against government for injustice towards certain people. There, she was arrested for inciting
people. But the arrest could not deter her and she went on a hunger strike until her demands were met.
Mr Madhok was the warden of the jail. He tried to convince her to eat but she refused to do so. Therefore
he had to force-feed her in order to save her life. This was not taken very nicely by Ms Hazarika and she
filed a suit of battery against Mr Madhok. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide if Mr
Madhok is liable for battery.
(a) Mr Madhok is liable for battery because he forced her to eat inspite of her will.
(b) Mr. Madhok is liable for battery because it was committed against her body and she did not approve
of it.
(c) Mr. Madhok is not liable for battery because he did the act out of necessity to protect her life.
(d) Mr. Madhok is not liable for battery because he just did his duty as the warden of the jail.
1. A master shall be responsible for the wrongful acts of his servants in the course of his employment.
2. The master-servant rule is a regulation that makes employers responsible for certain actions made by
their employees.
3. This rule may cover employee acts that fall within the scope of their regular duties carried out for that
employer.
4. The master-servant rule also states that an employer need not be aware of the actions of an
employee in order to be held liable for their misdeeds.
Factual Situation: XYZ Limited is a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is registered with Reserve
Bank of India to accept deposit from public. Although it is comparatively new company in finance sector
but the trust, the company has build with people in this short period of time, is something to be brag
about. For the smooth conduction of business, the company has recruited a lot of employees and agents.
One of the agents is Mr. S. Mr. S is appointed as authorised agent by XYZ Limited to collect deposit
money from several people on daily basis. Mr. S, collecting deposits from people on daily basis. One day
he disappeared. One Ms. R, who had been handing over her deposit money to Mr. S found that nearly for
a month before his disappearance, he was not depositing her money at all. Ms. R when approached the
XYZ Limited, the NBFC took the stand that Mr. S was not its employee, he is his agent and therefore,
XYZ Limited is not responsible for his misconduct. Ms. R files a suit against the XYZ Limited. On the
basis of the given Principles and Facts decide
Who is liable?
(a) XYZ Limited (b) Mr. S (c) Ms. R (d) None of the above

1. A contract is a legally binding promise or a set of promises between two parties.
2. There must be an offer and an acceptance with a definite agreement between the parties.
3. Both parties in a contract must have the necessary mental capacity to understand what they are
doing.
4. All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract, for
a lawful consideration and with a lawful object.
Factual Situation: B was a famous builder in z-city. His core works revolve around making flats &
houses and sell them to people. From past few months, he was on a lookout for a new property to put jis
new plan into work. At that, he got to know about A’s property. Even A was planning to sell his property to
B but B was not aware of it and this led to a bad situation. Since B was interested in the property, he
threatened to harm the only child of A if A did not enter into an agreement to sell the property to B.
Fearing this A agreed to whatever B said. The price at which the agreement to sell was agreed upon was
much more than the expectation of A or the prevailing market price of the property. Once the agreement
was signed, B got to know that A was anyway interested in selling the property to B and at a lower price.
A later refused to execute the sale deed and claimed that the contract between the parties was not valid.
On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide
Whether A will:
(a) Fail because there was a valid contract between him and B.
(b) Succeed because the consent of A for the agreement to sell was not a free consent.
(c) Fail because in the given facts and circumstances even with the free consent the same transaction
would have taken place. A is even better placed because he is receiving a higher price.
(d) Succeed because there is no lawful object in the contract.
1. Every citizen of India has a fundamental right to carry on any trade or business or profession of his
choice subject to the imposition of reasonable restrictions by the State.
2. The State is authorized by law to prescribe any professional or technical qualifications which it feels is
essential for practicing a particular profession or carrying on any occupation.
3. No citizen should adopt any kind of profession or trade which is forbidden by law.
4. The State may impose reasonable restrictions upon the freedom of trade, business, occupation or
profession in the interest of the general public.
Factual Situation: In pursuance of an order passed by the Institute of Company Secretary of India
(ICSI). The said order prohibits a person from Practice the profession of Company Secretary unless such
person passed the Company Secretary ship Course and hold a certificate of practice from the ICSI. Mr.
Manoj is an ambitious guy who planned for his future from his school years. He graduated from a
prestigious university a few years ago. His overall performance in the university was excellent and he
received a lot of praises throughout his university time. So, he had high hopes for his potentially bright
future. So, when he got to know about the order passed by the Institute of Company Secretary of India
(ICSI). He considered the above mentioned order of ICSI hampering his future goals. Therefore after
careful consideration regarding this matter, he as an Executive Programme passed student of Company
Secretaryship Course challenges the ban as it violates his right to carry his profession. It is
unconstitutional in nature, so it is unjustified. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide.
Whether the ban is justified or not?

(a) Institute of Company Secretary of India (ICSI) has a superior right to ban.
(b) The ban is justified. as the right of Mr. Manoj to carry his profession is not absolute
(c) The ban is not justifiedas the Institute of Company Secretary of India (ICSI) cannot deprive any
person of his right to carry on his profession

1. A violation of a legal right, with or without damage, gives rise to a tort.
2. Injuria sine damnum: “Injuria” means unauthorised interference with the right of the plaintiff.
3. Damnum sine injuria: means there is some injury caused to the plaintiff without any unauthorised
interference to plaintiff’s legal right.
4. A person cannot claim damages in law even if the injury is caused due to the deliberate act of the
defendant, as long as the other party is exercising his legal right.
Factual Situation: Mr. K establishes a coaching class for Company Secretary Students of Executive
Programme and charges Rs.10,000/ per year as tuition fees. Mr. K decided to advertise his coaching
classes so that more students can join it. Soon Mr. K’s coaching classes got famous in the town and a lot
of students started showing interest in his classes. Even a large number of interested students joined the
coaching classes. Mr. K’s neighbor Mr. L saw this as a good business opportunity which can be
developed further in upcoming years. So, Mr. L consulted his family and friends regarding this matter and
after carefully thinking decided to start a similar business. Therefore after few months, Mr. L also
established his coaching class for Company Secretary Students of Executive Programme thereby heating
a competition between them. Mr. K‘s coaching classes got severely affected the coaching classes of Mr.
L and this forces Mr. K to reduce his tuition fees to Rs. 7000/ per year. So, he decided to sue Mr. L for
loss of revenue. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide.
Can Mr. K claim damages from Mr. L for the loss caused to him”
(a) Yes. he can as Mr. L has violated his Legal Right;
(b) No. Mr. L has reduced the fees on his own;
(c) No. because though, there was damage there was no legal injury;
1. If a person brings on his land and keeps some dangerous thing, and such a thing is likely to cause
some damage if it escapes then such person will be answerable for the damaged caused.
2. According to the rule of absolute liability, if any person is engaged in an inherently dangerous or
hazardous activity, and if any harm is caused to any person due to any accident which occurred
during carrying out such inherently dangerous and hazardous activity, then the person who is carrying
out such activity will be held absolutely liable.
3. A person is made liable only when he is at fault.
4. Absolute or strict liability is exceptions to the requirement of mens-rea.
Factual Situation: B is a well known personage in the city in which he lives. The reason for his identity is
the business empire that he created from the scratch in last 20 years. He has his hands in a lot of
different businesses but his main business was of construction and mills. Recently he acquired a new mill
for his new project. To further move his plan as a mill owner, he employed independent contractors, who
were apparently competent to construct a reservoir on his land to provide water for his mill. There were
old disused mining shafts under the site of the reservoir which the contractors failed to observe because
they were filled. The contractors therefore did not blow them. When the water was filled in the reservoir, it
bursts through the shafts and flooded the plaintiffs coal mines on the adjoining land. It was found as a
fact that B did not know of the shafts and had not been negligent. But the damage cause by flooded
water was real. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide.
Whether B or someone else will be held liable or not?

(a) Even though the independent contractors had been negligible, B will be held liable for the losses
suffered by the plaintiff;
(b) B will be held liable for the losses suffered by the plaintiff only if B was negligent and not otherwise ;
(c) Independent contractors would be liable to the plaintiff as there is privity of contract between them;
(d) Neither B nor the independent contractors would be held liable as there was no guilty mind at work.

1. Retrospective law is made to affect acts or facts occurring, or rights occurring before it came into
force.
2. Retrospective effect is not allowed in criminal law.
3. Offence is an act harmful not only to some individual but also to a community, society, or the state;
4. No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of law in force at the time of the
commission of the act charged as an offence.
Factual Situation: Ms. C was a student of famous IIM University which was famous for its MBA program.
She was in his second year. Her university life was going smoothly but it took a bad turn when one day
during class hours, she had an altercation with her classmate and in the heat of the moment she hurled a
racist abuse at her classmate and her classmate was deeply offended by it. Seeing that the situation
could get even worse, Ms. C’s friends stopped her from speaking any further and when she calmed
down, they suggested her to apologize for her words. So, Ms. C had later apologized for it but even after
apology her classmate was deeply affected by her racist slur. Life continued thereafter. In the next few
months, a law was passed which made racist abuse criminally punishable. When her classmate got to
know about the law she started thinking of filing a criminal complaint. Aware of the fact that the law of
limitation does not apply to criminal act. She moved an application to the court to initiate criminal action
against Ms. C for the racist abuse. On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide.
The classmate’s application will:

(a) Fail because racist abuse was not punishable when it was hurled.
(b) Succeed because the law made racist abuse punishable with imprisonment and it is undeniable that
Ms. Chandni has hurled that abuse.
(c) Succeed because law of limitation does not apply to criminal acts.
(d) Fail because it was not a serious offence and Ms. Chandni had already apologized for it.
96. The appointment of which of the following Senior Advocate as a judge of the Supreme Court of India
shall result in becoming the third person ever to be directly appointed from Bar to the Chief Justice of
India?
(a) B V Nagarathna (b) PS Narasimha
(c) HimaKoli (d) SM Sikri
97. Who amongst the following has been nominated as Chairman of Supreme Court Legal Services
Committee?
(a) Justice UU Lalit (b) Justice RF Nariman
(c) Justice AM Khanwilkar (d) Justice Dipak Misra
98. Patna High Court has recently ruled that who amongst the following shall have no right to file an appeal
under Criminal Procedure Code on grounds of inadequate sentence awarded to accused?
(a) Victim (b) Guardians of the victim
(c) Legal heirs of the victim (d) Victim above 18 years of age
99. Madhya Pradesh High Court has recently ruled that which amongst the following authorities have no
jurisdiction to determine the genuineness of a will?
(a) Department of Prosecution (b) Revenue Authorities
(c) Family courts (d) None of the above
100. National Green Tribunal has directed which of the following state governments to notify Elephant
corridors within
two months?
(a) Nagaland (b) Odisha (c) Assam (d) Arunachal Pradesh
101. Which of the states has passed a state legislation banning the sale on beef within 5km of temples?
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Manipur (c) Assam (d) Nagaland
102. Which of the following High Courts has ruled that – “Cow is part of culture of India; should be declared as
national animal, made part of fundamental rights”?
(a) Madhya Pradesh High Court (b) Delhi High Court
(c) Rajasthan High Court (d) Allahabad High Court
103. As per the latest amendment of Insurance Amendment Bill, who amongst the following will now not be
required to be a major shareholders in National Insurance Companies?
(a) Central Government (b) State Government
(c) Public sector units (d) Government Banks
104. Which of the following High Court has ruled that the State should take steps to stop all activities which
impede the natural flow of water?
(a) Odisha High Court (b) Kerala High Court
(c) Delhi High Court (d) Rajasthan High Court
105. Supreme Court has ruled which of the following to be a Fantasy sports game and not gambling?
(a) Dream 11 (b) Teen Patti (c) Poker (d) None of the above
SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
106. When the division of labour has been once thoroughly established, it is but a very small part of the man’s
wants which the produce of his own labour can supply. He supplies the far greater part of them by
exchanging that surplus part of the produce of his own labour, which is over and above his own
consumption, for such parts of the produce of other mens labour as he has occasion for.
Which of the following assertions, if true, is the summary of the given passage?
(a) Man lives by exchanging goods/things with other men.
(b) The growth of society is facilitated by exchange of goods among men.
(c) Man is generally unsatisfied with what he himself produces.
(d) The growth of man will be stymied if he stops socializing.
107. Strong nations and hegemonic research universities have a gravitational power of attraction, pulling
towards them cross-border flows of faculty talent and doctoral students, tuition fees and research and
philanthropic funding. In weaker systems global brain circulation becomes a brain drain transferring long-
term academic capacity to the strong nations.
Which of the following statements, if true, is the essence of the passage mentioned above?
(a) Cross-border flows are continually undergoing and generating change.
(b) Global traffic often flows in a fashion, benefiting some nations and institutions more than others.
(c) The capacity of nations and institutions to operate globally depends on both their absolute potential to
do so, and their voluntary decisions.
(d) Raw national and institutional potential in higher education is framed by such elements as the size
and wealth of the economy; the systems, resources.
108. The tradition prevalent among social scientists of predicting gloom and doom on the evidence of
perpetual crises or the deficiencies of human nature overlooks a self-fulfilling danger. Such predictions
can promote the very conditions so deplored. This defeatist stance also evades the basic fact that people
learn and adapt. Radicals may deliver witty, cynical, despairing commentary, but in so doing they reveal
how far they have reconciled themselves to their marginality in influencing the course of events. Equally
trapped, however, are the perpetual optimists who naively claim linear progress by ignoring its obstacles,
who, substitute mere exhortation for sober evaluation?
Which one of the following assertions, if true, contradicts the passage mentioned above?
(a) The process of prediction regarding bad events is far from perfect.
(b) Perpetual optimists ignore the things that stymie growth and progress.
(c) The defeatists believe that people are flexible, adaptable and open to learning
(d) None of these
109. Despite input costs gnawing at the profit margins of consumer durable companies, they are postponing
their decision to hike prices till after the festive season.
Which of the following, if true, underpins the above argument?

(a) People have a tendency to spend more during the festive season.
(b) Increase in price deters the buyers from buying goods.
(c) The decrease in profit margins of company may affect the employees in the long run.
(d) None of these.
110. While on the one hand the Maoist tag is used to persecute and torture those who speak out against the
excesses and illegalities of the State, on the other there is a growing trend where the institutions of the
State are used to push the vested interests of one section of the population those who consume high
energy and high cost industrial products and profit out of its investment, production and distribution.
From among the alternatives, identify the statement that can be inferred from the given?
(a) The State is using its institutions in a partisan manner.
(b) The people of the state are unhappy.
(c) The legitimacy of the institutions and of the State itself stands hollowed out.
(d) None of these.
111. Ms. Cynthia Thorn argued that money and time invested in acquiring a professional degree are totally
wasted. As evidence supporting her argument, she offered the case of a man who, at considerable
expense of money and time, completed his law degree and married and lived as a house-husband taking
care of their children, and worked part time at a day-care centre so his wife could pursue her career.
Thorn makes the unsupported assumption that-

(a) A professional education in law is useful only in pursuing law-related activities.
(b) What was not acceptable 25 years ago may very well be acceptable today.
(c) Wealth is more important than learning.
(d) Professional success can be attained by statement implies the second working full time.
112. Caries or tooth decay is a disease in which the teeth are demineralized due to the action of acids
produced by the action of micro organisms on food. Brushing is a means of keeping tooth decay at bay.
Which of the following is the assumption made by the above argument?

(a) Micro organisms are found everywhere except the oral cavity.
(b) Food particles are found on teeth and micro organisms are found in the mouth of all people.
(c) Only by brushing regularly, can we keep our teeth healthy.
(d) Demineralization can be caused by other things apart from acids.
Directions (Q.113-Q.115): In the question below is given the statement followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two
conclusions together and decide which of them logically follow beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement.
113. Statements: Many people are endowed with plentiful time. ldling away time is a sign of high status for
them.
Conclusions:
i. Affluent people idle away time.
ii. Good fortune makes a person idle.
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both I and II follows (d) Neither I nor II follows
114. Statements: Time saving devices constitutes a new work culture. This culture removes sloth and India
needs it badly.
Conclusions:
i. All Indians are very slow and slothful.
ii. Possibly, India does not have time-saving.
115. Statements: The Planning Commission is opposed to the proposal. It feels that the cost of subsidizing
helicopter operations will be highly exorbitant.
Conclusion:
i. The Planning Commission wants the government to spend less on itself.
ii. Helicopter operations must be subsidized.
Directions (Q.116-Q.119): The finance minister’s promise of structural adjustment program with a
human face remains a pipedream. When the reforms started, he had assured that priorities of public
spending will focus more sharply on welfare programmes, once the fiscal imbalances were controlled.
This experience is yet to be materialized. Recently he said that “only when the growth momentum picks
up, the resources needed f or these programs can be mobilized”. Such excessive emphasis on economic
growth will hamper social welfare and indefinitely postpone the promise of reform with a human face thus
leaving out in the cold substantial section of the society.
Consider the following statements and choose whether the statement is Probably True or Definitely True
or Probably True or Definitely False.
116. A major chunk of our society is in desperate need of social welfare programmes.
(a) Probably true (b) Definitely true (c) Probably false (d) Definitely false
117. The finance minister is not consistent in his thought.

118. The fiscal imbalance has not been controlled yet.

119. Economic growth is being given more priority than social welfare by the government.
120. Mr. Sharma: Well, Ms. Khanna, by how much do you plan to increase your donation to the literary society
this year? You know how many important projects we make.
Ms. Khanna: I am not sure about that. I was very upset about the painting you purchased last month. I
think I will give no more money to your cause.
Mr. Sharma: That is all right. We will just put you down for the same amount that you donated last year.
Which one of the following words or phrases has been misinterpreted in the above conversation?
(a) “increase” (b) “you know” (c) “no more” (d) “same question”
121. A statement is followed by two arguments numbered I, and II. Decide which of the argument(s)
is/are Strong (important and directly related to the question) and which is/are weak (not important
and not related to the central message of the question).
Statement: Should bars be banned in India?

Argument:
I. Yes. They do not reflect well on India’s morals and principles.
II. No. India is a free country and nothing ought to be banned.
(a) Only argument I is strong. (b) Only argument II is strong.
(c) Both I and II are strong. (d) Neither I nor II is strong.
122. A statement is followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which
of the given assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: Videos on YouTube allow people to learn dancing even without formal training.
Assumption:
I. It is possible to learn dancing without formal training.
II. Everyone might not be able to receive formal training for dance.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit. (b) Only assumption II is implicit.
(c) Both I and II are implicit. (d) Neither I nor II is implicit.
123. A statement is followed by two arguments numbered I, and II. Decide which of the argument(s) is/are
Strong (important and directly related to the question) and which is/are weak (not important and not
related to the central message of the question).
Statement: Owning guns without a license should be prohibited.
Argument:
I. No. Guns are a means of self-defence and a license is an unnecessary hurdle.
II. Yes. Illegitimate ownership of guns can lead to violence and misuse.
(a) Only argument I is strong. (b) Only argument II is strong.
(c) Both I and II are strong. (d) Neither I nor II is strong.
124. A statement is followed by three assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide
which of the given assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: My mother does not succumb to illnesses very easily.
Assumption:
I. My mother has never been ill.
II. My mother will recover from illnesses quickly.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit. (b) Only assumption II is implicit.
(c) Both I and II are implicit. (d) Neither I nor II is implicit.
125. In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is
implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.
Statement: Bill Clinton is the second democrat to be re-elected as President of America, the other being
the legendary Roosevelt.
Assumptions:
I. Clinton has the same qualities that Roosevelt had.
II. The majority of people in America have faith in Clinton.
III. The election campaign of Clinton's rivals was not impressive.
(a) Only I is implicit (b) Only II is implicit
(c) Only III is implicit (d) Either I or III is implicit
126. It is obvious that Bertha could not have qualified at the Olympic Selection Trials. Everyone knows that
Berta did not get even a single medal at the University Sports Meet.
What is the assumption in the above arguments?

(a) Bertha is still a maverick.
(b) The Olympic selection trials have low qualifying marks.
(c) The University Sports Meet is an essential precursor to the Olympic selection trials.
(d) Athletes who fail in the University Sports Meet cannot qualify at the Olympic selection trials.
127. Although Kautilya has been hailed as a giant figure in Indian intellectual history, his ideas were largely
borrowed from his predecessors, now unfairly neglected by historians. Furthermore, Kautilya never wrote
a truly great book; his most widely known works are muddy in style, awkwardly constructed, and often
self- contradictory.
With which of the following would the author most likely agree?
(a) Kautilya made use of ideas without acknowledging his predecessors as the sources of those ideas.
(b) Current historians are re-evaluating the work of Kautilya in the light of the present-day knowledge.
(c) Kautilya’s contributions to the development of Indian thought have been greatly exaggerated.
(d) Historians should re-examine Kautilya’s place in the Indian intellectual history.
128. Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
On the centenary celebrations of the public school, principal wants to have a gala festival fest for which
an organizing committee is to be formed from class X and class XII students. Class X students are Arya,
Boman, Chiki and the class XII students are the Rajni, Sonam, Tapu and Umeed. Total 4 students are
selected of which atleast two must be from class X. Boman will not work with Rajni and Arya will not work
with Tapu.
Based on this information, which of the following statements is correct?

I. If Arya is choosen, then Umeed must also be choosen
II. If Arya is rejected, then Sonam must be choosen
III. If Arya is rejected, then Chiki must be choosen
(a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) II only (d) III only
Directions (Q.129 to Q.131): Read the information carefully to answer the questions.
129. A tourist can tour utmost four places out of A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Out of four, not more than two can
come under holiday tour and at least two must come under business trip. The break up is as follows:
A, B, C and D - Business tour. E, F and G - Holiday tour. The following restrictions hold good.
(A) If A is included, then both C and G are excluded.
(B) If neither E nor F is included, then B or G or both of them can be included.
(C) If G is included, then D cannot be included.
Which one of the following combinations is possible?

(a) A, C, E and F (b) B, G and E
(c) A, D and G (d) A, B and D
130. Under the same fact situation as above, suppose that the following restrictions hold good:
(A) A can be included provided C is included.
(B) E is included provided B or G is included but not both.
(C) C can be included provided at least D or F is excluded.
Which one of the following is a certainty?

(a) A, B, C, & E (b) A, C, D & F
(c) B, C, D & E (d) A, B, C & F
131. Four members have to be nominated to a Committee and there are six candidates: A, B, C, D, E and F.
The following restrictions hold good:
(A) If A is nominated, then D does not find any place.
(B) If B is nominated, then either E or F has to be nominated, but not both.
(C) If C is nominated, then both D and E have to be nominated.
Which one of the following is an acceptable combination?
(a) A, B, C and E (b) A, B, C and D
(c) B, C, D and E (d) B, C, D and F
132. Sixty four identical cubes are assembled to form a larger cube. All the six faces of this larger cube are
painted black. How many smaller cubes will have exactly 4 faces which are not painted black?
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 24 (d) 32
133. India is understood to have told Pakistan that it is ready to lift the ban on exports of some raw materials, if
the latter resumes its onion and sugar exports to India through rail and land routes.
Which of the following provides the strongest support to the probable action of the Government of India?
(a) The Union Commerce and Industry Minister termed the onion ban by Pakistan shocking and said the
issue would be taken up with the UN.
(b) Pakistani traders hoped to tide over the shortage by importing raw materials from India as Pakistan’s
textile industry has been badly hit by the suspension of cotton exports by India.
(c) After Pakistan banned onion exports to India by land, the sugar and onion prices once again were
pushed up in India as India is dependent on supply from Pakistan.
(d) India has 5.5 million bales of surplus cotton, of which only 3 million bales have been exported.
134. A statement is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. Decide which of the argument(s) is/are
Strong (important and directly related to the question) and which is/are weak (not important and not
related to the central message of the question).
Statement: Should the Government restrict use of electricity for each household depending upon the
requirement?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will help government tide over the problem of inadequate generation of electricity.
II. No, every citizen has the right to consume electricity, as per his requirement as he pays for using
electricity.
lll. No, the Govt. does not have the machinery to put such a restriction on use of electricity.
(a) Only I is strong (b) Only lll strong
(c) Only I and II are strong (d) Only II and lll are strong.
135. A statement is followed by two Courses of actions numbered I, and II. Decide which of the Courses of
action (s) is/are important and directly related to the question.
Statement: The World Bank’s recent downward revision of India’s growth prospects was by no means
unexpected. It merely follows the trend set by international rating agencies.
Courses of actions:
I. The investors should be cautioned and asked not to pay heed to such downward revisions
II. Core problems stalling India’s growth should be identified and should be addressed extensively
(a) only I follows (b) only II follows
(c) either I or II follows (d) neither I nor II follows
136. ‘Chak de India’ apart from being one of Shah Rukh Khan’s most compelling performances, is also an
outstanding movie.
Assumptions:
1. Shah Rukh Khan is probably an actor.
2. ‘Chak de India’ is a movie about Shah Rukh Khan.
3. Shah Rukh Khan has given many compelling performances.
(a) Only assumption 1 is implicit. (b) Assumption 1 and 3 are implicit.
(c) Assumption 1 and 2 are implicit. (d) All three assumptions are implicit
137. Find a word from the given options that is related to the third word in the same way as the first is related
to the second:
Dictionary: Words :: Encyclopedia: ?

(a) plants (b) humans
(c) sentences (d) facts
138. Each word of the following question consists of a pair of words bearing a relationship among these, from
amongst the alternatives; pick up the pair that best illustrate a similar relationship.
Rectangle: Pentagon
(a) Square: Side (b) Triangle: Rectangle
(c) Circle: Triangle (d) Kite: Square
139. Ram and Mohan drive their scooters from two opposite ends on the straight road one national highway
which is 70 km long. Ram drives 10 km and turns left and then drives 5 km. He again turns right and
drives 15 km and takes the straight road back to the main road. Meanwhile, Mohan drives 30 km on the
main road from the opposite end. Now, what would be the distance between Ram and Mohan at this
point?
(a) 5 km (b) 15 km (c) 18 km (d) 10 km
140. A man is facing north. He turns 1200 in the anti-clockwise direction and then 3000 in the clockwise
direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) South-west (b) South (c) North-west (d) South-east
SECTION - E :QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
141. On dividing a number by 5, we get remainder as 3. What will be the remainder when the square of this
number is divided by 5?
(a) 3 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 4
142. A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B in 15 days. They work together for 5 days, the rest of the work is
finished by C in two more days. If they get Rs. 3000 as wages for the whole work, what are the daily
wages of A, B and C respectively (in Rs):
(a) 200, 250, 300 (b) 300, 200, 250
(c) 200, 300, 400 (d) None of these
143. A and B are two alloys of argentum and brass prepared by mixing metals in proportions 7 : 2 and 7 : 11
respectively. If equal quantities of the two alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, the proportion of
argentum and brass in C will be ?
(a) 5 : 9 (b) 5 : 7 (c) 7 : 5 (d) 9 : 5
144. How much more would Rs.20000 fetch, after two years, if it is put at 20% p.a. compound interest payable
half yearly than if is put at 20% p.a. compound interest payable yearly?
(a) Rs.424 (b) Rs.482 (c) Rs.512 (d) Rs.842
145. How many kg of custard powder costing Rs. 42 per kg must be mixed with 16 kg of custard powder
costing Rs. 60 per kg so that 20 % may be gained by selling the mixture at Rs. 60 per kg?
(a) 11 kg (b) 14 kg (c) 12 kg (d) 20 kg
USE FOR ROUGH WORK
146. Walking at the speed of 5 km / hr from his home, a geek misses his train by 7 minutes. Had he walked
1 km / hr faster, he would have reached the station 5 minutes before the actual departure time of the
train. Find the distance between his home and the station.
(a) 6 km (b) 8 km (c) 10 km (d) 15 km
147. A man rows to a place 40 km distant and come back in 9 hours. He finds that he can row 5 km with the
stream in the same time as 4 km against the stream. The rate of the stream is:
(a) 1 km/hr (b) 1.5 km/hr (c) 2 km/hr (d) 2.5 km/hr
148. Arjun kapoor and Anil Kapoor appear for a test. For each correct answer is awarded 1 mark and for each
wrong answer 1/2 mark is deducted. Arjun kapoor answers some questions and gets 10% of his answers
wrong. He secures a score of 85% which is 6 marks more than the pass marks. Anil Kapoor also answers
some questions and gets 20% of his answers wrong. He gets a score of 70% which is 3 marks less than
the pass mark. No marks are awarded or deducted for the unanswered questions. What is the pass
mark?
(a) 64 (b) 51 (c) 45 (d) 25
149. There are 8 orators A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. In how many ways can the arrangements be made so that
A always comes before B and B always comes before C.
(a) 8! / 3! (b) 8! / 6! (c) 5! x 3! (d) 8! / (5! x 3!)
150. The length of a rectangle is two - fifths of the radius of a circle. The radius of the circle is equal to the side
of the square, whose area is 1225 sq. units. What is the area (in sq. units) of the rectangle if the
rectangle if the breadth is 10 units?
(a) 140 (b) 156 (c) 175 (d) 214
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Here are the answers to the English language questions:1. b2. a 3. d4. c5. a6. d 7. b8. c9. a10. b11. c

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Here are the answers to the English language questions:1. b2. a 3. d4. c5. a6. d 7. b8. c9. a10. b11. c

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2022

Candidate Name : _________________

Search @CLATEXAM20 ON TELEGRAM

Direction (Q.5-Q.9): Choose an appropriate word to fill in each blank space.

14. A large group of people or things of a particular kind.

25. It can be inferred from the passage that Joseph:

38. Consider the following statements:

62. Who has been appointed as the governor of Uttarakhand on September 9 ?

63. Who won gold medal in shooting in Tokyo Paralympics ?

70. The highest peace time gallantry award is

71. Legal Principles:

On the basis of the given Principles and Facts decide:

72. Legal Principles:

73. Legal Principles:

74. Legal Principles:

77. Legal Principles:

78. Legal Principles:

79. Legal Principles:

81. Legal Principles:

83. Legal Principles:

Whether S is liable or not?

Whether G is liable or not?

85. Legal Principles:

Whether the contract is enforceable against X or not?

87. Legal Principles:

(a) P is not liable, since his action was in continuation of self-defence.

89. Legal Principles:

91. Legal Principles:

Whether the ban is justified or not?

93. Legal Principles:

Whether B or someone else will be held liable or not?

95. Legal Principles:

The classmate’s application will:

Which of the following, if true, underpins the above argument?

Thorn makes the unsupported assumption that-

Which of the following is the assumption made by the above argument?

117. The finance minister is not consistent in his thought.

118. The fiscal imbalance has not been controlled yet.

Statement: Should bars be banned in India?

What is the assumption in the above arguments?

Based on this information, which of the following statements is correct?

Which one of the following combinations is possible?

Which one of the following is a certainty?

Dictionary: Words :: Encyclopedia: ?

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