THERMODYNAMICS

1. All the commercial liquid fuels are derived from natural petroleum (or crude oil).
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
2. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
processes is known as
A
Carnot cycle
.
B
Stirling cycle
.
C
Otto cycle
.
D
Diesel cycle
.
Answer: Option D
3. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A
low
.
B
very low
.
C
high
.
D
very high
.
Answer: Option B
4. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one
degree at constant volume, is called
A
specific heat at constant volume
.
B
specific heat at constant pressure
.
C
kilo Joule
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
5. There is a loss of heat in an irreversible process.

A True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
6. An adiabatic process is one in which
A
no heat enters or leaves the gas
.
B
the temperature of the gas changes
.
C
the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
7. Water gas is obtained by passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about
650°C.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option B
8. Which of the following represents Otto cycle on temperature - entropy (T - s) diagram?
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option C
9. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied increases the internal energy
of the gas.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
10. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
A
Gasoline
.
B
Kerosene
.
C
Fuel oil
.
Answer: Option A
11. The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the
system, are known as
A
flow processes
.
B
non-flow processes
.
C
adiabatic processes
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
12. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?

A
Oxygen
.
B
Sulphur
.
C
Nitrogen
.
D
Carbon
.
Answer: Option D
13. Workdone in a free expansion process is

A
zero
.
B
minimum
.
C
maximum
.
D
positive
.
Answer: Option A
14. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all the
molecules contained in a unit volume of gas.
A
one-half
.
B
one-third
.
C
two-third
.
D
three-fourth
.
Answer: Option C
15. The compression ratio for petrol engines is

A
3 to 6
.
B
5 to 8
.
C
15 to 20
.
D
20 to 30
.
Answer: Option B
16. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
17. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when
A
cut-off is increased
.
B
cut-off is decreased
.
C
cut-off is zero
.
D
cut-off is constant
.
Answer: Option C
18. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process.

A
remains constant
.
B
decreases
.
C
increases
.
Answer: Option C
19. The atomic mass of oxygen is

A
12
.
B
14
.
C
16
.
D
32
.
Answer: Option C
20. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
A
equal to one
.
B
less than one
.
C
greater than one
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
21. Carbonisation of coal consists of
A
drying and crushing the coal to a fine powder
.
B
moulding the finely ground coal under pressure with or without a binding material
.
C
heating the wood with a limited supply of air to temperature not less than 280°C
.
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option D
22. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.

A
greater than
.
B
less than
.
C
equal to
.
Answer: Option C
23. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, p/T = constant, if v is kept constant.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
24. There is no change in internal energy in an isothermal process.

A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
25. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = C, then the process is called
A
constant volume process
.
B
adiabatic process
.
C
constant pressure process
.
D
isothermal process
.
Answer: Option C
26. The value of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) is __________ that of at constant volume
(cv).
A
less than
.
B
equal to
.
C
more than
.
Answer: Option C
27. When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed
vessel, the process is known as __________ of fuel.
A
atomisation
.
B
carbonisation
.
Answer: Option B
28. Which of the following is correct?

A
Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
.
B
Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
.
C
Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure
.
D
Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
.
Answer: Option A
29. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid with the lowest boiling point is first
evaporated and recondensed, then the liquid with the next higher boiling point is then
evaporated and recondensed, and so on until all the available liquid fuels are separately
recovered in the sequence of their boiling points. Such a process is called
A
cracking
.
B
carbonisation
.
C
fractional distillation
.
D
full distillation
.
Answer: Option C
30. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A
The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.
.
B
The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels.
.
C
The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels.
.
D
A good fuel should have low ignition point.
.
Answer: Option C
31. Which of the following gas is mostly used in town for street and domestic lighting and
heating?
A
Producer gas
.
B
Coal gas
.
C
Mond gas
.
D
Coke oven gas
.
Answer: Option B
32. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is

A
0.287 J/kgK
.
B
2.87 J/kgK
.
C
28.7 J/kgK
.
D
287 J/kgK
.
Answer: Option D
33. In the first law of thermodynamics, the total energy of the system remains constant.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
34. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with

A
decrease in cut-off
.
B
increase in cut-off
.
C
constant cut-off
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
35. Coal gas is obtained by mixing coal and gas at ambient conditions.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
36. According to Avogadro's law, the density of any two gases is __________ their molecular
masses, if the gases are at the same temperature and pressure.
A
equal to
.
B
directly proportional to
.
C
inversely proportional to
.
Answer: Option B
37. The kinetic energy of molecules of a gas becomes zero at absolute zero temperature.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
38. One kg of carbon monoxide requires __________ kg of oxygen to produce 11/7 kg of carbon
dioxide gas.
A
All
.
B
4/7
.
C
11/4
.
D
9/7
.
Answer: Option B
39. The absolute zero temperature is taken as

A
-273°C
.
B
273°C
.
C
237°F
.
D
-237°F
.
Answer: Option A
40. The specific heat of water is

A
1.817
.
B 2512
.
C
4.187
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
41. The constant pressure, constant volume and constant pvn processes are regarded as
irreversible process.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
42. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

A
reversible cycles
.
B
irreversible cycles
.
C
semi-reversible cycles
.
D
quasi-static cycles
.
Answer: Option A
43. When cut-off ratio is __________ the efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle
efficiency.
A
zero
.
B
1/5
.
C
4/5
.
D
1
.
Answer: Option A
44. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and restore the initial conditions
at the end, is known as
A
reversible cycle
.
B
irreversible cycle
.
C
thermodynamic cycle
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
45. An isothermal process is governed by

A
Boyle's law
.
B
Charles' law
.
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Avogadro's law
.
Answer: Option A
46. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as
A
workdone
.
B
entropy
.
C
enthalpy
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
47. The value of 1 mm of Hg is equal to
A
1.333 N/m2
.
B
13.33 N/m2
.
C
133.3 N/m2
.
D
1333 N/m2
.
Answer: Option C
48. One kg of carbon requires 4/3 kg of oxygen and produces __________ kg of carbon
monoxide gas.
A
8/3
.
B
11/3
.
C
11/7
.
D
7/3
.
Answer: Option D
49. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the variables which control
physical properties, is governed by
A
Boyle's law
.
B
Charles' law
.
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
50. The universal gas constant of a gas is the product of molecular mass of the gas and the gas
constant.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
1. According to Kelvin-Planck's statement of second law of thermodynamics,

it is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole
A.
purpose is to convert heat energy into work
it is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose

B.
is to convert heat energy into work
it is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces

C.
no effect other than the transfer of heat from a cold body to a hot body
D. none of the above

Answer: Option A
2. According to Gay-Lussac law, the absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies
__________ as its absolute temperature, when the volume remains constant.
A. directly
B. indirectly
Answer: Option A
3. According to Avogadro's law

A. the product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an ideal gas is constant
B. the sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of the two
equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal
C.
number of molecules
D. all of the above

Answer: Option C
4. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance remains constant during its
expansion or compression, is called
A. isothermal process
B. hyperbolic process
C. adiabatic process
D. polytropic process
Answer: Option A
5. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Methane
Answer: Option C
6. The total energy of a molecule is shared equally by the various degrees of freedom
possessed by it. This law is known as
A
law of equipartition of energy
.
B
law of conservation of energy
.
C
law of degradation of energy
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
7. The thermodynamic property of a system is said to be an intensive property whose value for
the entire system __________ the sum of their value for the individual parts of the system.
A
is equal to
.
B
is not equal to
.
Answer: Option B
8. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its volume, when
the temperature remains constant. This statement is known as Charles' law.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
9. The fuel mostly used in steam boilers is

A
brown coal
.
B
peat
.
C
coking bituminous coal
.
D
non-coking bituminous coal
.
Answer: Option D
10. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

A
greater than Carnot cycle
.
B
less than Carnot cycle
.
C
equal to Carnot cycle
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
11. The hyperbolic pocess is governed by

A
Boyle's law
.
B
Charles' law
.
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Avogadro's law
.
Answer: Option A
12. A closed system is one in which heat and work crosses the boundary of the system but the
mass of the working substance does not crosses the boundary of the system.
A Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
13. The entropy of water at 0°C is assumed to be

A
1
.
B
0
.
C
-1
.
D
10
.
Answer: Option B
14. The greater the pressure difference in throttling, the lesser is the irreversibility.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
15. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle?
A
Isothermal expansion
.
B
Isentropic expansion
.
C
Isothermal compression
.
D
Isentropic compression
.
Answer: Option C
16. Which is the incorrect statement about Carnot cycle?

A
It is used as the alternate standard of comparison of all heat engines.
.
B
All the heat engines are based on Carnot cycle.
.
C
It provides concept of maximising work output between the two temperature limits.
.
D all of the above

.
Answer: Option B
17. When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in thermal
equilibrium with each other. This statement is called
A
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
.
B
First law of thermodynamics
.
C
Second law of thermodynamics
.
D
Kelvin Planck's law
.
Answer: Option A
18. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T - s curve) of any thermodynamic process
represents
A
heat absorbed
.
B
heat rejected
.
C
either (a) or (b)
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
19. The free expansion process is a constant enthalpy process.

A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
20. The specific heat at constant volume is

A the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of gas through one
. degree, at constant pressure
B the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of gas through one
. degree, at constant volume
C the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through one
. degree
D
any one of the above
.
Answer: Option B
21. One kg of carbon produces __________ kg of carbon dioxide.
A
3/7
.
B
7/3
.
C
11/3
.
D
3/11
.
Answer: Option C
22. Ericsson cycle consists of two constant pressure and two isothermal processes.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
23. The isothermal and isentropic processes are reversible non-flow processes.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
24. The blast furnace gas is a by-product in the production of pig iron in the blast furnace.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
25. The heat supplied to the gaS at constant volume is (where m = Mass of gas, cv = Specific
heat at constant volume, cp = Specific heat at constant pressure, T2 - T1 = Rise in
temperature, and R = Gas constant)
A
mR(T2 - T1)
.
B
mcv(T2 - T1)
.
C
mcp(T2 - T1)
.
D
mcp(T2 + T1)
.
Answer: Option B
26. Liquid fuels have lower efficiency than solid fuels.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option B
27. The heat absorbed during a polytropic process is
A
. x Workdone
B
.
C
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
28. Liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.

A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
29. The expansion ratio (r) is the ratio of (where v1 = Volume at the beginning of expansion,
and v2 = Volume at the end of expansion)
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
30. The dual combustion cycle consists of one constant pressure, two constant volume and two
isentropic processes.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
31. The general gas energy equation is (where Q1 - 2 = Heat supplied, dU = Change in internal
energy, and W1 - 2 = Work done in heat units)
A
Q1 - 2 = dU + W1 - 2
.
B
Q1 - 2 = dU - W1 - 2
.
C
Q1 - 2 = dU/W1 - 2
.
D
Q1 - 2 = dU x W1 - 2
.
Answer: Option A
32. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is

A. 3 to 6
B. 5 to 8
C. 15 to 20
D. 20 to 30
Answer: Option C
33. In an isothermal process,

A. there is no change in temperature
B. there is no change in enthalpy
C. there is no change in internal energy
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
34. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law of thermodynamics?
It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole
A.
purpose is to convert heat energy into work.
It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a higher

B.
temperature, without the aid of an external source.
There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be obtained from a given
C.
quantity of heat energy.
D. all of the above

Answer: Option D
35. The heating and expanding of a gas is called thermodynamic system.

A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option B
36. Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle efficiency for the same compression ratio and
heat input because in Otto cycle
A
combustion is at constant volume
.
B
expansion and compression are isentropic
.
C
maximum temperature is higher
.
D
heat rejection is lower
.
Answer: Option D
37. Liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
38. The free expansion process is __________ non-flow process.

A
reversible
.
B
irreversible
.
Answer: Option B
39. A mixture of gas expands from 0.03 m3 to 0.06 m3 at a constant pressure of 1 MPa and
absorbs 84 kJ of heat during the process. The change in internal energy of the mixture is
A
30 kJ
.
B
54 kJ
.
C
84 kJ
.
D
114 kJ
.
Answer: Option B
40. The gas constant (R) is equal to the __________ of two specific heats.
A
sum
.
B
difference
.
C
product
.
D
ratio
.
Answer: Option B
41. Hydrogen is the __________ substance.

A
lightest
.
B
heaviest
.
Answer: Option A
42. Otto cycle is also known as

A
constant pressure cycle
.
B
constant volume cycle
.
C
constant temperature cycle
.
D
constant temperature and pressure cycle
.
Answer: Option B
43. For a perfect gas, according to Boyle's law (where p = Absolute pressure, v = Volume,
and T = Absolute temperature)
A
p v = constant, if T is kept constant
.
B
v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
.
C
p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
.
D
T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
.
Answer: Option A
44. Producer gas is obtained by

A
partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
.
B
carbonisation of bituminous coal
.
C
passing steam over incandescent coke
.
D
passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650°C
.
Answer: Option A
45. The efficiency of a dual combustion cycle __________ upon cut-off ratio.
A
depends
.
B
does not depend
.
Answer: Option A
46. The efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon

A
temperature limits
.
B
pressure ratio
.
C
compression ratio
.
D
cut-off ratio and compression ratio
.
Answer: Option D
47. Those substances which have so far not been resolved by any means into other substances
of simpler form are called
A
elements
.
B
compounds
.
C
atoms
.
D
molecules
.
Answer: Option A
48. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as temperature is based on

A
.
B
.
C
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
49. Kelvin-Planck's law deals with

A
conservation of work
.
B
conservation of heat
.
C
conversion of heat into work
.
D
conversion of work into heat
.
Answer: Option C
1. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of dual combustion cycle is
A
greater than Diesel cycle and less than Otto cycle
.
B
less than Diesel cycle and greater than Otto cycle
.
C
greater than Diesel cycle
.
D
less than Diesel cycle
.
Answer: Option A
2. In an irreversible process, there is a

A
loss of heat
.
B
no loss of heat
.
C
gain of heat
.
D
no gain of heat
.
Answer: Option A
3. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of a gas through one
degree at constant pressure is called specific heat at constant pressure.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
4. The change of entropy, when heat is removed from the gas, is negative.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
5. Coke is produced
A
when coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by pulverising machine
.
B from the finely ground coal by moulding under pressure with or without a binding
. material
C when coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a
. closed vessel
D
by heating wood with a limited supply of air to a temperature not less than 280°C
.
Answer: Option C
6. One Joule (J) is equal to

A
1 N-m
.
B
1 kN-m
.
C
10 N-m/s
.
D
10 kN-m/s
.
Answer: Option A
7. When the expansion or compression takes place according to the law pvn = C, the process is
known as
A
isothermal process
.
B
adiabatic process
.
C
hyperbolic process
.
D
polytropic process
.
Answer: Option D
8. The entropy is a point function and thus it is a property of the same.

A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
9. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete, is known as
A
vapour
.
B
perfect gas
.
C
air
.
D
steam
.
Answer: Option B
10. An open cycle gas turbine works on
A
Carnot cycle
.
B
Otto cycle
.
C
Joule's cycle
.
D
Stirling cycle
.
Answer: Option C
11. The volumetric or molar specific heat at constant pressure is the product of
A
molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant volume
.
B
atomic mass of the gas and the gas constant
.
C
molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant
.
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option D
12. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon

A
temperature limits
.
B
pressure ratio
.
C
volume compression ratio
.
D
cut-off ratio and compression ratio
.
Answer: Option A
13. The gas turbine cycle with regenerator improves

A
thermal efficiency
.
B
work ratio
.
C
avoids pollution
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
14. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

A
Peat
.
B
Lignite
.
C
Bituminous coal
.
D
Anthracite coal
.
Answer: Option D
15. When a gas is heated, change takes place in

A
pressure
.
B
volume
.
C
temperature
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
16. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?

A
Volume
.
B Temperature
.
C
Mass
.
D
Energy
.
Answer: Option B
17. A triatomic molecule consists of __________ atoms.

A
one
.
B
two
.
C
three
.
D
four
.
Answer: Option C
18. The main cause for the irreversibility is

A
mechanical and fluid friction
.
B
unrestricted expansion
.
C
heat transfer with a finite temperature difference
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
19. A cycle consisting of __________ and two isothermal processes is known as Stirling cycle.
A
two constant pressure
.
B
two constant volume
.
C
two isentropic
.
D
one constant pressure, one constant volume
.
Answer: Option B
20. The heat and mechanical energies are mutually convertible. This statement was established
by
A Boyle
.
B
Charles
.
C
Joule
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
21. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of Diesel cycle is __________ Otto cycle.
A
greater than
.
B
less than
.
C
equal to
.
Answer: Option B
22. Mond gas is obtained by

A
partial combusion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
.
B
carbonisation of bituminous coal
.
C
passing steam over incandescent coke
.
D
passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650°C
.
Answer: Option D
23. The natural solid fuel is

A
wood
.
B
coke
.
C
anthracite coal
.
D
pulverised coal
.
Answer: Option A
24. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is

A the pressure and temperature of the working substance must not differ, appreciably,
. from those of the surroundings at any stage in the process
B
all the processes, taking place in the cycle of operation, must be extremely slow
.
C
the working parts of the engine must be friction free
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
25. In open cycle gas turbine plants

A
the indirect heat exchanger and cooler is avoided
.
B
direct combustion system is used
.
C
a condenser is used
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
26. In an isolated system, neither the heat and work nor the, mass of the working substance
crosses the boundary of the system.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
27. The compression ratio is the ratio of

A
swept volume to total volume
.
B
total volume to swept volume
.
C
swept volume to clearance volume
.
D
total volume to clearance volume
.
Answer: Option D
28. When a fluid is allowed to expand suddenly into a vaccum chamber through an orifice of
large dimensions, the process is known as free expansion process.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
29. The efficiency of Ericsson cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.
A
greater than
.
B
less than
.
C
equal to
.
Answer: Option C
30. One molecule of oxygen consists of __________ atoms of oxygen.

A
2
.
B
4
.
C
8
.
D
16
.
Answer: Option A
31. According to kinetic theory of gases, the velocity of molecules __________ with the increase
in temperature.
A
remains constant
.
B
increases
.
C
decreases
.
Answer: Option B
32. The hard coke is obtained when carbonisation of coal is carried out at
A
300° to 500°C
.
B
500° to700°C
.
C
700° to 900°C
.
D
900° to 1100°C
.
Answer: Option D
33. According to First law of thermodynamics,

A total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
.
B
total energy of a system remains constant
.
C
workdone by a system is equal to the heat transferred by the system
.
D
internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remains constant
.
Answer: Option B
34. The root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is given by (where k = Boltzmann's
constant, T = Absolute temperature, and m = Mass of one molecule of a gas)
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option C
35. Stirling cycle consists of

A
two constant volume and two isentropic processes
.
B
two constant volume and two isothermal processes
.
C
two constant pressure and two isothermal processes
.
D
one constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic processes
.
Answer: Option B
36. The ratio of molar specific heats for monoatomic gas is

A
1
.
B
1.4
.
C
1.67
.
D
1.87
.
Answer: Option C
37. The general law of expansion or compression is pvn = C, The process is said to be
hyperbolic, if n is equal to
A
0
.
B
1
.
C
γ
.
D
∝
.
Answer: Option B
38. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is partial, is known as
steam.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option B
39. The value of universal gas constant is same for all gases.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
40. The numerical value of the thermal capacity and the water equivalent of the substance are
the same.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
41. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (i. e. T - s curve) of any thermodynamic
process represents the workdone during the process.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option B
42. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by Charles' law.

A True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
43. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A
The closed cycle gas turbine plants are external combustion plants.
.
B In the closed cycle gas turbine, the pressure range depends upon the atmospheric
. pressure.
C The advantage of efficient internal combustion is eliminated as the closed cycle has
. an external surface.
D
In open cycle gas turbine, atmosphere acts as a sink and no coolant is required.
.
Answer: Option B
44. Carnot cycle consists of

A
.
B
two isothermal and two isentropic processes
.
C
two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
.
D
one constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic processes
.
Answer: Option B
45. When a gas is heated at constant volume

A
its temperature will increase
.
B
its pressure will increase
.
C
both temperature and pressure will increase
.
D
neither temperature nor pressure will increase
.
Answer: Option C
46. According to kinetic theory of gases, the kinetic energy of translation of a molecule is
proportional to
A
T
.
B
T
.
C
1/T
.
D
1/T
.
Answer: Option A
47. The amount of heat given out by the complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel is known as calorific
value of solid or liquid fuel.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
48. The conditions of temperature and pressure at 0°C (273K) and 760 mm of Hg pressure are
termed as __________ temperature and pressure.
A
normal
.
B
standard
.
Answer: Option B
49. The value of cp/cv for air is

A
1
.
B
1.4
.
C
1.8
.
D
23
.
Answer: Option B
50. The heat absorbed or rejected by the working substance is given by (where ds = Increase or
decrease of entropy, T= Absolute temperature, and dQ = Heat absorbed or rejected)
A
δQ = T.ds
.
B
δQ = T/ds
.
C
dQ = ds/T
.
D none of these
.
Answer: Option A
1. Which of the following gas has the highest calorific value?
A
Coal gas
.
B
Producer gas
.
C
Mond gas
.
D
Blast furnace gas
.
Answer: Option A
2. The oxygen atom is __________ times heavier than the hydrogen atom.
A
2
.
B
4
.
C
8
.
D
16
.
Answer: Option D
3. When the gas is cooled at constant pressure,

A
its temperature increases but volume decreases
.
B
its volume increases but temperature decreases
.
C
both temperature and volume increases
.
D
both temperature and volume decreases
.
Answer: Option D
4. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is given by

A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option A
5. As per Charles' law, the volume of a given mass of a perfect gas varies __________ as its
absolute temperature, when the absolute pressure remains constant.
A
directly
.
B
indirectly
.
Answer: Option A
6. The principal constituents of a fuel are

A
carbon and hydrogen
.
B
oxygen and hydrogen
.
C
sulphur and oxygen
.
D
sulphur and hydrogen
.
Answer: Option A
7. In an extensive property of a thermodynamic system

A
extensive heat is transferred
.
B
extensive work is done
.
C
extensive energy is utilised
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option D
8. When a gas is heated at constant pressure

A
its temperature will increase
.
B
its volume will increase
.
C
both temperature and volume will increase
.
D
neither temperature not volume will increase
.
Answer: Option C
9. By decreasing the highest temperature in the Carnot cycle, its efficiency is increased.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option B
10. Workdone during adiabatic expansion is given by (where p1 v1, T1 = Pressure, volume and
temperature for the initial condition of gas, p2, v2, T2 = Corresponding values for the final
condition of gas, R = Gas constant, and γ = Ratio of specific heats)
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
The lower calorific value of fuel may be obtained by adding the heat of steam formed during
combustion to the higher calorific value.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
12. One kg of carbon monoxide requires 4/7 kg of oxygen and produces

A
11/3 kg of carbon dioxide gas
.
B
7/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas
.
C
11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas
.
D
8/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas
.
Answer: Option C
13. The molecular mass expresssed in gram (i.e. 1 g - mole) of all gases, at N. T. P., occupies a
volume of
A 0.224 litres
.
B
2.24 litres
.
C
22.4 litres
.
D
224 litres
.
Answer: Option C
14. The absolute zero pressure will be

A
when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
.
B
at sea level
.
C
at the temperature of - 273 K
.
D
at the centre of the earth
.
Answer: Option A
15. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled at
A
constant volume
.
B
constant temperature
.
C
constant pressure
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
16. Which of the following is the correct statement?

A
For a given compression ratio, both Otto and Diesel cycles have the same efficiency.
.
B
For a given compression ratio, Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle.
.
C
For a given compression ratio, Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle.
.
D
The efficiency of Otto or Diessel cycle has nothing to do with compressioin ratio.
.
Answer: Option B
17. The temperature at which the volume of a gas becomes zero is called
A
absolute scale of temperature
.
B
absolute zero temperature
.
C
absolute temperature
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
18. The heating of gas at constant volume is governed by

A
Boyle's law
.
B
Charles' law
.
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Avogadro's law
.
Answer: Option C
19. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its volume, when
the temperature remains constant. This statement is known as Boyle's law.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
20. The fuel mostly used in cement industry and in metallurgical processes is
A
wood charcoal
.
B
bituminous coke
.
C
pulverised coal
.
D
coke
.
Answer: Option C
21. Boyle's law states that change of internal energy of a perfect gas is directly proportional to
the change of temperature.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option B
22. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
always __________ one.
A
equal to
.
B
less than
.
C
greater than
.
Answer: Option C
23. The isothermal and adiabatic processes are regarded as

A
reversible process
.
B
irreversible process
.
C
reversible or irreversible process
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
24. The variables which control the physical properties of a perfect gas are
A
pressure exerted by the gas
.
B
volume occupied by the gas
.
C
temperature of the gas
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
25. The heat flows from a cold body to a hot body with the aid of an external source. This
statement is given by
A
Kelvin
.
B
Joule
.
C
Clausis
.
D
Gay-Lussac
.
Answer: Option C
26. The unit of power in S.I. units is kilowatt.

A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
27. Otto cycle consists of

A
.
B
two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
.
C
two constant volume and two isothermal processes
.
D
one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes
.
Answer: Option A
28. The increase in entropy of a system represents

A
increase in availability of energy
.
B
increase in temperature
.
C
decrease in pressure
.
D
degradation of energy
.
Answer: Option D
29. In a free expansion process,

A
W1 - 2 = 0
.
B
Q1 - 2 = 0
.
C
dU = 0
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
30. The reading of the pressure gauge fitted on a vessel is 25 bar. The atmospheric pressure is
1.03 bar and the value of 'g' is 9.81 m/s2. The absolute pressure in the vessel is
A
23.97 bar
.
B
25 bar
.
C
26.03 bar
.
D
34.81 bar
.
Answer: Option C
31. The general gas equation is (where p = Pressure, v = Volume, m = mass, T = Absolute
temperature, and R = Gas constant)
A
pv = mRT
.
B
pv = RTm
.
C
pvm = C
.
D
pv = (RT)m
.
Answer: Option A
32. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends upon
A
maximum cycle temperature
.
B
minimum cycle temperature
.
C
pressure ratio
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
33. The gas constant (R) is equal to the

A
sum of two specific heats
.
B
difference of two specific heats
.
C
product of two specific heats
.
D ratio of two specific heats

.
Answer: Option B
34. Select the wrong statement

A
A Joule cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes.
.
B
An Otto cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes.
.
C
An Ericsson cycle consists of two constant pressure and two isothermal processes.
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option A
35. One kg of hydrogen requires 8 kg of oxygen and produces

A
1 kg of water
.
B
7 kg of water
.
C
8 kg of water
.
D
9 kg of water
.
Answer: Option D
36. The standard value of atmospheric pressure taken at sea level is

A
1.013 bar
.
B
760 mm of Hg
.
C
1013 x 102 N/m2
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
37. The efficiency of Otto cycle depends upon the specific heats of the working substance.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
38. The smallest quantity of a substance, which can exist by itself in a chemically recognizable
form is known as
A
element
.
B
compound
.
C
atom
.
D
molecule
.
Answer: Option D
39. The absolute zero pressure can be attained at a temperature of

A
0°C
.
B
273°C
.
C
273 K
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option D
40. One kg of ethylene (C2H4) requires 2 kg of oxygen and produces 22/7 kg of carbon dioxide
and __________ kg of water or steam.
A
9/7
.
B
11/7
.
C
7/4
.
D
11/4
.
Answer: Option A
41. One m3 of methane (CH4) requires 2m3 of oxygen and produces 1m3 of carbon dioxide and
2m3 of water or steam.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
42. Coke oven gas is obtained by burning coke in an oven.

A Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option B
43. A perpetual motion machine of the first kind is __________ according to first law of
thermodynamics.
A
possible
.
B
impossible
.
Answer: Option B
44. One kg of carbon requires 8/3 kg of oxygen for its complete combustion and produces 11/3
kg of carbon dioxide gas.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
45. A process, in which the gas is heated or expanded in such a way that product of its pressure
and volume remains constant, is called isothermal process.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
46. An open system is one in which

A heat and work crosses the boundary of the system, but the mass of the working
. substance does not crosses the boundary of the system
B mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the system but the heat and
. work does not crosses the boundary of the system
C both the heat and work as well as mass of the working substance crosses the
. boundary of the system
D neither the heat and work nor the mass of the working substance crosses the
. boundary of the system
Answer: Option C
47. One reversible heat engine operates between 1600 K and T2 K and another reversible heat
engine operates between T2 K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and
output, then temperature T2 is equal to
A
800K
.
B
1000K
.
C
1200K
.
D
1400K
.
Answer: Option A
48. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied
A
increases the internal energy of the gas and increases the temperature of the gas
.
B
does some external work during expansion
.
C
Both (A) and (B)
.
D
None of these
.
Answer: Option A
49. The efficiency of a gas turbine is given by

A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
50. In closed cycle gas turbine, the air is compressed

A
isothermally
.
B
isentropically
.
C
polytropically
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
1. For the same maximum pressure and temperature,

A
Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
.
B
Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
.
C
Dual cycle is more efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles
.
D
Dual cycle is less efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles
.
Answer: Option B
2. In a steady flow process, the ratio of

A
heat transfer is constant
.
B
work transfer is constant
.
C
mass flow at inlet and outlet is same
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
3. The entropy of the universe is continually on the increase.

A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
4. Select the correct statement as per Charles' law

A
p.v = constant, if T is kept constant
.
B
v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
.
C
p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
.
D
T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
.
Answer: Option B
5. The unit of energy is S. I. units is

A
Joule (J)
.
B Joule metre (Jm)

.
C
Watt(W)
.
D
Joule/metre (J/m)
.
Answer: Option A
6. A process, in which the gas is heated or expanded in such a way that the product of its
pressure and volume remains constant, is called
A
isothermal process
.
B
hyperbolic process
.
C
adiabatic process
.
D
polytropic process
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
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7. Which of the following statement is correct according to Clausis statement of second law off
thermodynamics?
A It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher
. temperature.
B It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a

. higher temperature, without the aid of an external source.
C It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher

. temperature by using refrigeration cycle.
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
8. Diesel cycle consists of __________ processes.

A
two constant volume and two isentropic
.
B
two constant pressure and two isentropic
.
C two constant volume and two isothermal

.
D
one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
.
Answer: Option D
9. When coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by pulverising machine, the
resulting fuel is called
A
wood charcoal
.
B
bituminous coal
.
C
briquetted coal
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option D
10. The process is adiabatic, if the value of n in the equation pvn = C, is

A
0
.
B
1
.
C
γ
.
D
∝
.
Answer: Option C
11. The molecular mass of a substance is the number of times a molecule of that substance is
heavier than the hydrogen atom.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
12. The behaviour of super-heated vapour is similar to that of

A
perfect gas
.
B
air
.
C
steam
.
D ordinary gas
.
Answer: Option A
13. Briquetted coal is produced from the finely ground coal by moulding under pressure with or
without a binding material.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
14. Which of the following is a reversible non-flow process?

A
Isochoric process
.
B
Isobaric process
.
C
Hyperbolic process
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
15. If in the equation pvn = C, the value of n = ∝ , then the process is called
A
constant volume process
.
B
adiabatic process
.
C
constant pressure process
.
D
isothermal process
.
Answer: Option A
16. The property of the system, whose value for the entire system is equal to the sum of their
values for the individual parts of the system is called extensive property
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
17. Coal gas consists mainly of hydrogen, carbon monoxide and various hydrocarbons.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
18. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines

A
increases power output
.
B
improves thermal efficiency
.
C
reduces exhaust temperature
.
D
do not damage turbine blades
.
Answer: Option C
19. When the finely ground coal is moulded under pressure with or without a binding material,
the resulting fuel is called briquetted coal.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
20. For the constant pressure and heat input, the air standard efficiency of gas power cycle is in
the order
A
Dual cycle, Diesel cycle, Otto cycle
.
B
Otto cycle, Diesel cycle, Dual cycle
.
C
Dual cycle, Otto cycle, Diesel cycle
.
D
Diesel cycle, Otto cycle, Dual cycle
.
Answer: Option A
21. Which of the following statement is correct?

A
The increase in entropy is obtained from a given quantity of heat at a low temperature.
.
B The change in entropy may be regarded as a measure of the rate of the availability or
. unavailability of heat for transformation into work.
C The entropy represents the maximum amount of work obtainable per degree drop in
. temperature.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
22. The elements are made up of minute and chemically invisible particles as atoms.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
23. All perfect gases change in volume by 1 / 273th of its original volume at 0°C for every 1°C
change in temperature, when the pressure remains constant. This statement is called
A
Boyle's law
.
B
Charles' law
.
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Joule's law
.
Answer: Option B
24. A good fuel should have __________ ignition point.

A
high
.
B
low
.
Answer: Option B
25. According to Kelvin-Planck's statement, a perpetual motion of the __________ is impossible.

A
first kind
.
B
second kind
.
Answer: Option B
26. The amount of heat generated per kg of fuel is known as

A
calorific value
.
B
heat energy
.
C
lower calorific value
.
D
higher calorific value
.
Answer: Option A
27. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
A
petrol engine
.
B
diesel engine
.
C
reversible engine
.
D
irreversible engine
.
Answer: Option C
28. The entropy may be expressed as a function of

A
pressure and temperature
.
B
temperature and volume
.
C
heat and work
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option A
29. It is __________ to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is
to convert heat energy into work.
A
possible
.
B
impossible
.
Answer: Option B
30. Which of the following is the correct statement?

A
All the reversible engines have the same efficiency.
.
B
All the reversible and irreversible engines have the same efficiency.
.
C
Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency.
.
D
All engines are designed as reversible in order to obtain maximum efficiency.
.
Answer: Option C
31. A close cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas
turbine.
A
same
.
B
lower
.
C
higher
.
Answer: Option C
32. Charles' law states that all perfect gases change in volume by __________ of its original
volume at 0° C for every 1° C change in temperature, when pressure remains constant.
A
1/27th
.
B
1/93th
.
C
1/173th
.
D
1/273th
.
Answer: Option D
33. The calorific value of gaseous fuel is expressed in

A
kJ
.
B
kJ/kg
.
C
kJ/m2
.
D
kJ/m3
.
Answer: Option D
34. The throttling process is an irreversible steady flow expansion process.

A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
35. The efficiency of the dual combustion cycle for the same compression ratio, is __________
Diesel cycle.
A
greater than
.
B
less than
.
C
equal to
.
Answer: Option A
36. The thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is given by (where r = Pressure ratio)
A
rγ - 1
.
B
1 - rγ - 1
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option D
37. To ensure complete and rapid combustion of a fuel, some quantity of air, in excess of the
theoretical or minimum air is supplied.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
38. According to Regnault's law, the specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at
constant volume (cv) __________ with the change in pressure and temperature of the gas.
A
change
.
B
do not change
.
Answer: Option B
39. One molecule of oxygen is __________ times heavier than the hydrogen atom.
A
12
.
B
14
.
C
16
.
D
32
.
Answer: Option D
40. Relation between cp and cv is given by (where cp = Specific heat at constant pressure, cv =

Specific heat at constant volume, γ = cp/cv, known as adiabatic index, and R = Gas constant)
A
.
B
cp - cv = R
.
C
.
D
Both (B) and (C)
.
Answer: Option D
41. The heat and work are mutually convertible. This statement is called __________ law of
thermodynamics.
A
Zeroth
.
B
First
.
C
Second
.
Answer: Option B
42. Kerosene is distilled at

A
65° to 220°C
.
B
220° to 345°C
.
C
345° to 470°C
.
D
470° to 550°C
.
Answer: Option B
43. The polytropic index (n) is given by

A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
44. The amount of heat obtained by the complete combustion of 1 kg of a fuel when the products
of its combustion are cooled down to the temperature of supplied air is called __________
calorific value offuel.
A
higher
.
B
lower
.
Answer: Option A
45. The mass of flue gas per kg of fuel is the ratio of the
A
mass of oxygen in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg of fuel
.
B
mass of oxygen in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg of flue gas
.
C
mass of carbon in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of carbon in 1 kg of fuel
.
D
mass of carbon in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of carbon in 1 kg of flue gas
.
Answer: Option C
46. Equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal number of
molecules. This statement is called Avogadro's law.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
47. Wood charcoal is produced by heating the wood at 100°C.

A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
48. The __________ is obtained when carbonisation of coal is carried out at 500° to 700° C.
A
soft coke
.
B
hard coke
.
C
pulverised coal
.
D
bituminous coal
.
Answer: Option A
49. The bomb calorimeter is used for finding the __________ calorific value of solid and liquid
fuels.
A
higher
.
B
lower
.
Answer: Option A
50. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increased by

A
increasing the highest temperature
.
B
decreasing the highest temperature
.
C
increasing the lowest temperature
.
D
keeping the lowest temperature constant
.
Answer: Option A
1. The atomic mass of sulphur is

A
12
.
B
14
.
C
16
.
D
32
.
Answer: Option D
2. A path 1-2-3 is given. A system absorbs 100 kJ as heat and does 60 kJ of work while along
the path 1-4-3, it does 20 kJ of work. The heat absorbed during the cycle 1-4-3 is
A
-140 kJ
.
B
-80 kJ
.
C
-40 kJ
.
D
+60 kJ
.
Answer: Option D
3. The atomic mass of an element is the number of times the atom of that element is heavier
than the hydrogen atom.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
4. The mass of carbon per kg of flue gas is given by

A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option A
5. A cycle consisting of two isothermal and two isentropic processes, is known as

A
Carnot cycle
.
B
Stirling cycle
.
C
Ericsson cycle
.
D
Joule cycle
.
Answer: Option A
6. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and γ =
Ratio of specific heats)
A
1 - rγ - 1
.
B
1 + rγ - 1
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option C
7. In an ideal gas turbine plant, it is assumed that the compression and expansion processes
are
A
isothermal
.
B
isentropic
.
C
polytropic
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
8. When gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied is utilised in

A
increasing the internal energy of gas
.
B
doing some external work
.
C
increasing the internal energy of gas and also for doing some external work
.
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option C
9. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through one Kelvin is
called
A
specific heat at constant volume
.
B
specific heat at constant pressure
.
C
kilo-Joule
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
10. When wood is heated with a limited supply of air to a temperature not less than 280°C, the
resulting fuel is
A
coke
.
B
wood charcoal
.
C
bituminous coal
.
D
briquetted coal
.
Answer: Option B
11. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with increase in cut-off.

A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
12. The property of a working substance which increases or decreases as the heat is supplied or
removed in a reversible manner, is known as
A
enthalpy
.
B
internal energy
.
C
entropy
.
D
external energy
.
Answer: Option C
13. It is __________ to make an engine working on a Carnot cycle.

A
possible
.
B
impossible
.
Answer: Option B
14. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by

A
Boyle's law
.
B
Charles' law
.
C Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Avogadro's law
.
Answer: Option B
15. Reversed Joule cycle is known as

A
Carnot cycle
.
B
Bell-Coleman cycle
.
C
Rankine cycle
.
D
Stirling cycle
.
Answer: Option B
16. Which of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?

A
Pressure
.
B
Volume
.
C
Temperature
.
D
Density
.
Answer: Option B
17. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher
temperature, without the aid of an external source.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
18. One kilowatt is equal to

A
1 N-m/s
.
B
100 N-m
.
C
1000 N-m/s
.
D
1 x 106 N-m/s
.
Answer: Option C
19. Second law of thermodynamics defines

A
heat
.
B
work
.
C
internal energy
.
D
entropy
.
Answer: Option D
20. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but it can be transformed from one form to
another. This statement is known as
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
Kinetic theory of gases
.
Answer: Option B
21. The value of one bar (in S. I. units) is equal to

A
1 x 102 N/m2
.
B
1 x 103 N/m2
.
C
1 x 104 N/m2
.
D
1 x 105 N/m2
.
Answer: Option D
22. Petrol is distilled at

A
65° to 220°C
.
B
220° to 345°C
.
C
345° to 470°C
.
D
470° to 550°C
.
Answer: Option A
23. If the carbon content in the bituminous coal is 78 to 81%, it is said to be coking bituminous
coal.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option B
24. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is (where T1 and T2 = Highest and lowest temperature
during the cycle)
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option C
25. The mass of excess air supplied is equal to

A
. x Mass of excess carbon
B
. x Mass of excess oxygen
C
. x Mass of excess carbon
D
. x Mass of excess oxygen
Answer: Option D
26. When a perfect gas is expanded through an aperture of minute dimensions, the process is
known as
A
isothermal process
.
B
adiabatic process
.
C
free expansion process
.
D
throttling process
.
Answer: Option D
27. Steam coal is a

A
pulverised coal
.
B
brown coal
.
C
coking bituminous coal
.
D
non-coking bituminous coal
.
Answer: Option D
28. In a reversible adiabatic process, the ratio of T1/T2 is equal to
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
29. The kinetic energy per kg molecule of any gas at absolute temperature T is equal to
(where Ru = Universal gas constant)
A
Ru x T
.
B
1.5 Ru x T
.
C
2 Ru x T
.
D
3 Ru x T
.
Answer: Option B
30. The atomic mass of nitrogen is __________ oxygen.
A
equal to
.
B
less than
.
C
more than
.
Answer: Option B
31. One kg of sulphur requires 1 kg of oxygen for complete combustion and produces 2 kg of
sulphur dioxide.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
32. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed by the gas, is

A
positive
.
B
negative
.
C
positive or negative
.
Answer: Option A
33. A machine which violates the first law of thermodynamics is known as perpetual motion
machine of the second kind.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option B
34. Both the Ericsson and Joule's cycle have two constant pressure processes.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
35. The general law for the expansion or compression of gases, is

A
pv = C
.
B
pv = m R T
.
C
pvn = C
.
D
pvγ = C
.
Answer: Option C
36. The heat energy stored in the gas and used for raising the temperature of the gas is known
as
A
external energy
.
B
internal energy
.
C
kinetic energy
.
D
molecular energy
.
Answer: Option B
37. A cycle consisting of two constant pressure and two isentropic processes is known as
A
Carnot cycle
.
B
Stirling cycle
.
C
Otto cycle
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option D
38. When the gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied
A
increases the internal energy of the gas
.
B
increases the temperature of the gas
.
C
does some external work during expansion
.
D
Both (B) and (C)
.
Answer: Option D
39. The __________ states that change of internal energy of a perfect gas is directly
proportional to the change of temperature.
A
Boyle's law
.
B
Charle's law
.
C
Gay-Lussac law
.
D
Joule's law
.
Answer: Option D
40. A closed cycle gas turbine works on Joule's cycle.

A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
41. The workdone in a free expansion process is zero.

A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
42. When a system changes its state from one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state,
then the path of successive states through which the system has passed, is known as
A
thermodynamic law
.
B
thermodynamic process
.
C
thermodynamic cycle
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
43. The fuel mostly used in blast furnace for extracting pig iron from iron ores is
A
hard coke
.
B
soft coke
.
C
pulverised coal
.
D
bituminous coal
.
Answer: Option A
44. The ultimate analysis of coal consists of the determination of the percentage of
A
carbon
.
B
hydrogen and nitrogen
.
C
sulphur and ash
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
45. The change of entropy, when heat is removed from the gas, is positive.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
46. The ratio of root mean square velocity to average velocity of gas molecules at a particular
temperature is
A
0.086
.
B
1.086
.
C
3.086
.
D
4.086
.
Answer: Option B
47. First law of thermodynamics deals with

A
conservation of heat
.
B
conservation of momentum
.
C
conservation of mass
.
D
conservation of energy
.
Answer: Option D
A
The heat and work are boundary phenomena
.
B
The heat and work represent the energy crossing the boundary of the system
.
C
The heat and work are path functions
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
49. In S. I. units, the value of the universal gas constant is

A
8.314 J/kg mole-K
.
B
83.14 J/kgmole-K
.
C
831.4 J/kgmole-K
.
D
8314 J/kgmole-K
.
Answer: Option D
50. The throttling process is __________ process.

A
reversible
.
B
irreversible
.
C
reversible or irreversible
.
Answer: Option B
1. A cycle consisting of two constant pressure and two isothermal processes is known as
Ericsson cycle.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
2. A process of heating crude oil to a high temperature under a very high pressure to increase
the yield of lighter distillates, is known as
A
cracking
.
B
carbonisation
.
C
fractional distillation
.
D
full distillation
.
Answer: Option A
3. If in the equation pvn = C, the value of n = 1, then the process is called isothermal process.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
4. The specific volume of a system is an __________ property.

A
extensive
.
B
intensive
.
Answer: Option B
5. Which of the following process can be made reversible with the help of a regenerator?
A
Constant pressure process
.
B
Constant volume process
.
C
Constant pvn process
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
6. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends upon pressure ratio.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
7. A molecule consisting of one atom is known as

A
monoatomic
.
B diatomic
.
C
triatomic
.
D
polyatomic
.
Answer: Option A
8. The natural petroleum may be separated into

A
petrol
.
B
kerosene
.
C
fuel oil
.
D
lubricating oil
.
Answer: Option D
9. A definite area or a space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as
A
thermodynamic system
.
B
thermodynamic cycle
.
C
thermodynamic process
.
D
thermodynamic law
.
Answer: Option A
10. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of __________ water through one
degree is called kilojoule.
A
1g
.
B
10 g
.
C
100 g
.
D
1000 g
.
Answer: Option D
11. The universal gas constant (or molar constant) of a gas is the product of
A molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant
.
B
atomic mass of the gas and the gas constant
.
C
molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant pressure
.
D
molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant volume
.
Answer: Option A
12. A process, in which the working substance neither receives nor gives out heat to its
surroundings during its expansion or compression, is called
A
isothermal process
.
B
hyperbolic process
.
C
adiabatic process
.
D
polytropic process
.
Answer: Option C
1. A nozzle is said to be a convergent nozzle

A
when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
.
B
when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
.
C when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then
. increases from its throat to exit
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option B
2. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at
__________ to the direction of the blade motion.
A
60°
.
B
90°
.
C
180°
.
D
270°
.
Answer: Option B
3. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
A
constant volume flow
.
B
constant pressure flow
.
C
isothermal flow
.
D
isentropic flow
.
Answer: Option D
4. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop, is called
A
stage efficiency
.
B
internal efficiency
.
C
Rankine efficiency
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
5. The pressure at which the steam leaves the nozzle is known as back pressure.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
6. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle __________ after the throat (i.e. in
the divergent portion of the nozzle)
A
remains constant
.
B
decreases
.
C
increases
.
Answer: Option A
7. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit pressure is gradually
reduced.
A
remains same
.
B
decreases
.
C
increases
.
Answer: Option C
8. The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by (where K = Nozzle coefficient or
nozzle efficiency, and hd = Enthalpy or heat drop during expansion of steam in a nozzle)
A
V = 44.72 hd K
.
B
V = 44.72 K hd
.
C
V = 44.72 K hd
.
D
V = 44.72 K hd
.
Answer: Option C
9. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between

A
inlet and thoroat
.
B
inlet and outlet
.
C
throat and exit
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option C
10. The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is

A
0.546
.
B
0.577
.
C
0.582
.
D
0.601
.
Answer: Option C
11. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop in
fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
A
0.4
.
B
0.56
.
C
0.67
.
D
1.67
.
Answer: Option A
12. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force

A
as an impulsive force
.
B
as a reaction force
.
C
partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force
.
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option C
13. The efficiency of reaction turbine is maximum when (where α = Angle made by the absolute
velocity (V) at inlet)
A
Vb = 0.5 V cos α
.
B
Vb = V cos α
.
C
Vb = 0.5 V2 cos α
.
D
Vb = V2 cos α
.
Answer: Option B
14. A regenerative steam cycle renders

A
increased work output per unit mass of steam
.
B
decreased work output per unit mass of steam
.
C
increased thermal efficiency
.
D
decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
.
Answer: Option D
15. De-Laval turbine is a
A single rotor impulse turbine
.
B
multi-rotor impulse turbine
.
C
impulse reaction turbine
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
16. The turbine, in which the general direction of the steam flow is parallel to the turbine axis, is
called axial flow turbines
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
17. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of sound.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
18. The reheat factor is the ratio of the

A
cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop
.
B
isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied
.
C
total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop
.
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option A
19. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option B
20. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is

A
isothermal
.
B
isentropic
.
C
hyperbolic
.
D
polytrophic
.
Answer: Option B
21. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of
nozzle, the nozzle is said to be
A
choked
.
B
Under damping
.
C
Over damping
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
22. The ratio of the work done on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades, is called
A
blading efficiency
.
B
nozzle efficiency
.
C
gross or stage efficiency
.
D
mechanical efficiency
.
Answer: Option A
23. The discharge is __________ at critical pressure.

A
zero
.
B
minimum
.
C
maximum
.
Answer: Option C
24. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the
available heat drop
A
remains the same
.
B
increases
.
C
decreases
.
D
is unpredictable
.
Answer: Option C
25. The steam leaves the nozzle at a

A
high pressure and a low velocity
.
B
high pressure and a high velocity
.
C
low pressure and a low velocity
.
D
low pressure and a high velocity
.
Answer: Option D
26. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat
A
equal to the velocity of sound
.
B
less than the velocity of sound
.
C
more than the velocity of sound
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
27. The Parsons' reaction turbine has

A
only moving blades
.
B
only fixed blades
.
C
identical fixed and moving blades
.
D
fixed and moving blades of different shape
.
Answer: Option C
28. The action of steam in a steam turbine is

A
static
.
B
dynamic
.
C
static and dynamic
.
D
neither static nor dynamic
.
Answer: Option B
29. The blade velocity coefficient is ratio of relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of the blade to
the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
30. Multi-stage steam turbines are of the

A
velocity compounded type
.
B
reaction type
.
C
pressure compounded type
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
31. The critical pressure ratio (p2/p1) is given by
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
32. In reaction turbines, the axial thrust is due to
A
pressure drop across the rotor
.
B
change in axial velocity
.
C
both (a) and (b)
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

A
The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows Rankine cycle.
.
B
The friction in the nozzle increases the dryness fraction of steam.
.
C
The pressure of steam at throat is called critical pressure.
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
34. A binary vapour plant consists of

A
steam turbine
.
B
steam condenser
.
C
mercury boiler
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
35. In a De-Laval nozzle expanding superheated steam from 10 bar to 0.1 bar, the pressure at
the minimum cross-section (i. e. pressure at throat, p2) will be
A
3.3 bar
.
B
5.46 bar
.
C 8.2 bar
.
D
9.9 bar
.
Answer: Option B
36. The stage efficiency (ηS) is given by (where ηB = Blading efficiency, and ηN = Nozzle
efficiency)
A
ηS = ηB x ηN
.
B
ηS = ηB/ηN
.
C
ηS = ηN/ηB
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
37. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is more as compared to initially wet
steam.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
38. In a convergent divergent nozzle, the discharge depends upon the initial conditions of steam
and the area of nozzle at throat.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
39. Parson's reaction turbine is a __________ reaction turbine.

A
40 percent
.
B
50 percent
.
C
60 percent
.
D
70 percent
.
Answer: Option B
40. The turbine blades are

A
straight
.
B
circular
.
C
curved
.
Answer: Option C
41. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends upon
A
velocity of steam
.
B
specific volume of steam
.
C
dryness fraction of steam
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
42. Steam turbines are used for

A
large marine propulsion
.
B
electric power generation
.
C
direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
43. Parson's turbine is a

A
simple impulse turbine
.
B
simple reaction turbine
.
C
impulse-reaction turbine
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
44. The value of the reheat factor varies from

A
1.02 to 1.06
.
B
1.08 to 1.l0
.
C
1.2 to 1.6
.
D
1.6 to 2
.
Answer: Option A
45. The steam enters the nozzle at a

A
high pressure and a low velocity
.
B
high pressure and a high velocity
.
C
low pressure and a low velocity
.
D
low pressure and a high velocity
.
Answer: Option A
46. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure is
called
A
degree of supersaturation
.
B
degree of superheat
.
C
degree of undercooling
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
47. The maximum efficiency of a reaction turbine is

A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
48. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called
A
condenser efficiency
.
B
nozzle efficiency
.
C
boiler efficiency
.
D
vacuum efficiency
.
Answer: Option B
49. The efficiency of steam turbines may be improved by

A
reheating of steam
.
B
regenerative feed heating
.
C
binary vapour plant
.
D
any one of these
.
Answer: Option D
50. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades,
A
pressure increases while velocity decreases
.
B
pressure decreases while velocity increases
.
C
pressure and velocity both decreases
.
D
pressure and velocity both increases
.
Answer: Option B
1. A single stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 1.2 m runs at 3000 r.p.m. If the blade speed
ratio is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of steam will be
A
79 m/s
.
B
188 m/s
.
C
450 m/s
.
D
900 m/s
.
Answer: Option C
2. In a De-Laval impulse turbine, the nozzle is kept very close to the blades.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
3. The flow of steam is super-sonic

A
at the entrance to the nozzle
.
B
at the throat of the nozzle
.
C
in the convergent portion of the nozzle
.
D
in the divergent portion of the nozzle
.
Answer: Option D
4. The pressure of steam at throat of a steam nozzle is called critical pressure.

A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
5. For maximum efficiency of an impulse turbine, the steam should leave the blades at right
angles to their motion.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
6. De-Laval turbine is a
A
simple impulse turbine
.
B
.
C
impulse-reaction turbine
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
7. The impulse turbine rotor efficiency will have a maximum value of 0.5 cos 2 α, where α is the
nozzle exit flow angle, if the
A
blades are equiangular
.
B
blade velocity coefficient is unity
.
C
blades are equiangular and frictionless
.
D
blade solidity is 0.65
.
Answer: Option C
8. When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit, it is called a
A
divergent nozzle
.
B
convergent nozzle
.
C
convergent-divergent nozzle
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
9. Rateau turbine is
A
.
B
velocity compounded turbine
.
C
pressure compounded turbine
.
D
pressure-velocity compounded turbine
.
Answer: Option C
10. The ratio of the work delivered at the turbine shaft to the heat supplied is called overall
thermal efficiency of turbine.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
11. In a single stage impulse turbine, the velocity of steam approaching nozzles is negligible.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
12. Curtis turbine is a

A
.
B
velocity compounded turbine
.
C
pressure compounded turbine
.
D
pressure-velocity compounded turbine
.
Answer: Option D
13. The velocity of steam at throat of the nozzle is __________ the velocity of sound.
A
equal to
.
B
less than
.
C
more than
.
Answer: Option A
14. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
A
0.546
.
B
0.577
.
C
0.582
.
D
0.601
.
Answer: Option B
15. The discharge through a nozzle is maximum for a certain value of exit pressure. This
pressure is known as critical pressure.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
16. The velocity of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in the fixed blades as well as in
moving blades.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
17. The critical pressure ratio for gases is

A
0.528
.
B
0.546
.
C
0.577
.
D
0.582
.
Answer: Option A
18. The efficiency of a pressure-velocity compounded impulse turbine is __________ as

compared to pressure compounded impulse turbine.
A
same
.
B
less
.
C
more
.
Answer: Option B
19. The effect of supersaturation is that the

A
mass of the steam discharged increases
.
B entropy and specific volume of the steam increases

.
C
exit velocity of steam reduces
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
20. The effect of friction on the flow of steam through a nozzle is to

A
decrease the mass flow rate and to increase the wetness of steam
.
B
increase the mass flow rate and to increase the exit temperature
.
C
decrease the mass flow rate and to decrease the wetness of steam
.
D
increase the exit temperature without any effect on mass flow rate
.
Answer: Option C
21. The ratio of the isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied, is called
A
reheat factor
.
B
stage efficiency
.
C
internal efficiency
.
D
Rankine efficiency
.
Answer: Option D
22. When the cross-section of a nozzle first increases from its entrance to throat, and then
decreases from its throat to exit, it is not a convergent-divergent nozzle.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
23. The efficiency ratio is the ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
24. The purpose of governing in steam turbines is to
A
maintain the speed of the turbine
.
B
reduce the effective heat drop
.
C
reheat the steam and improve its quality
.
D
completely balance against end thrust
.
Answer: Option A
25. De-Laval turbines are mostly used

A
where low speeds are required
.
B
for small power purposes and low speeds
.
C
for large power purposes
.
D
for small power purposes and high speeds
.
Answer: Option D
26. The reheat factor depends upon
A
initial pressure and superheat
.
B
exit pressure
.
C
turbine stage efficiency
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
27. In an impulse turbine

A
the steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop
.
B
the steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades continuously
.
C
the steam is expanded in moving blades only
.
D
the pressure and temperature of steam remains constant
.
Answer: Option A
28. A nozzle is said to be a divergent nozzle
A
when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
.
B
when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
.
C when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then
. increases from its throat to exit
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option A
29. The ratio of the cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called reheat factor.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
30. The compounding of turbines is done in order to

A
reduce speed of rotor
.
B
improve efficiency
.
C
reduce exit losses
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
31. The pressure of steam __________ while flowing through a nozzle.
A
increases
.
B
decreases
.
C
remains constant
.
Answer: Option B
32. The process of maintaining the speed of the turbine constant for various load conditions, is
known as
A
bleeding
.
B
reheating
.
C
governing
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
33. Reheating of steam in a turbine

A
increases the work done through the turbine
.
B
increases the efficiency of the turbine
.
C
reduces wear on the blades
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
34. Which of the following statement is correct for steam turbines as compared to reciprocating
steam engines?
A
A steam turbine develops higher speeds
.
B
The efficiency of steam turbine is higher
.
C
The steam consumption is less
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
35. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of the ordinary saturated
vapour at the corresponding pressure.
A
same as
.
B
2 times
.
C
4 times
.
D
8 times
.
Answer: Option D
36. The ratio of the workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per
stage per kg of steam is called
A
blading efficiency
.
B
nozzle efficiency
.
C
stage efficiency
.
D
.
Answer: Option C
37. The diagram efficiency is the ratio of

A
workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades
.
B workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg
. of steam
C energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage
. per kg of steam
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option A
38. The Rankine efficiency depends upon total useful heat drop and total isentropic heat drop.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option B
39. Blading efficiency is also known as

A
stage efficiency
.
B
diagram efficiency
.
C
nozzle efficiency
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
40. The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is reduced in the fixed blades as well as in
moving blades.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
41. In order to reduce the rotor speed of an impulse turbine, the method employed is
A
velocity compounding
.
B
pressure compounding
.
C
pressure-velocity compounding
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
42. The nozzle efficiency is the ratio of

A
workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades
.
B workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg
. of steam
C energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage
. per kg of steam
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option C
43. The friction in the nozzle __________ exit velocity of steam.

A
has no effect on
.
B
decreases
.
C
increases
.
Answer: Option B
44. In a reaction turbine

A the steam is allowed to expand in the nozzle, where it gives a high velocity before it
. enters the moving blades
B the expansion of steam takes place partly in the fixed blades and partly in the moving
. blades
C the steam is expanded from a high pressure to a condenser pressure in one or more
. nozzles
D
the pressure and temperature of steam remains constant
.
Answer: Option B
45. A stage, in reaction turbine, is represented by

A
number of casing
.
B
number of entries of steam
.
C
number of exits of steam
.
D
each row of blades
.
Answer: Option D
46. When the nozzle operates with the maximum mass flow, the nozzle is said to be
A
choked
.
B
underdamping
.
C
overdamping
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
47. In a velocity compounded impulse turbine, when steam flows through the second row of
moving blades,
A
velocity increases
.
B
velocity decreases
.
C
velocity remains constant
.
D
pressure remains constant
.
Answer: Option B
48. The ratio of the energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied
per stage per kg of steam is called mechanical efficiency.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
49. A steam nozzle converts

A
heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
.
B
kinetic energy into heat energy of steam
.
C
heat energy of steam into potential energy
.
D
potential energy into heat energy of steam
.
Answer: Option A
50. The maximum discharge of steam through a convergent-divergent nozzle depends upon
A
area of nozzle at throat
.
B
initial pressure and volume of steam
.
C
final pressure of steam leaving the nozzle
.
D
both (a) and (b)
.
Answer: Option D
1. Steam turbines may be classified according to
A
direction of steam flow
.
B
number of stages
.
C
mode of steam action
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
2. The process of draining steam from the turbine, at certain points during its expansion and
using this steam for heating the feed water in feed water heaters and then supplying it to the
boiler is known as
A
regenerative heating
.
B
reheating of steam
.
C
bleeding
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
3. In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet is
537 m/s and the blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power output in kW of steam will be
A
260 kW
.
B
282 kW
.
C
296 kW
.
D
302 kW
.
Answer: Option B
4. In an impulse turbine, steam expands

A
wholly in blades
.
B
wholly in nozzle
.
C
partly in the nozzle and partly in blades
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
5. In a nozzle, the effect of super saturation is to increase the dryness fraction of steam.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
6. In a nozzle, the effect of super saturation is to
A
decrease dryness fraction of steam
.
B
decrease specific volume of steam
.
C
increase the entropy
.
D
increase the heat drop
.
Answer: Option C

A
The efficiency of steam turbines is greater than steam engines.
.
B
A flywheel is a must for steam turbine.
.
C
The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle
.
D The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in fixed blades as well as in

. moving blades
Answer: Option A
8. The pressure velocity compounded impulse turbine allows a bigger pressure drop and hence
__________ numbers of stages are required.
A
more
.
B
less
.
Answer: Option B
9. If the critical pressure ratio for steam is 0.546, then the steam is initially
A
wet steam
.
B
dry saturated steam
.
C
superheated steam
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
10. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of
. sound.
B
The flow in the convergent portion of the nozzle is sub-sonic.
.
C
The flow in the divergent portion of the nozzle is super-sonic.
.
To increase the velocity of steam above sonic velocity (super-sonic) by expanding

D
steam below the critical pressure, the divergent portion for the nozzle is not
.
necessary.
Answer: Option D
11. The maximum efficiency of a De-Laval turbine is (where α = Nozzle angle)

A
sin2 α
.
B cos2 α
.
C
tan2 α
.
D
cot2 α
.
Answer: Option B
12. The pressure compounded impulse turbine as compared to velocity compounded turbine
require __________ number of stages.
A
same
.
B
less
.
C
more
.
Answer: Option C
13. In a reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then there is
A
no heat drop in moving blades
.
B
no heat drop in fixed blades
.
C
maximum heat drop in moving blades
.
D
maximum heat drop in fixed blades
.
Answer: Option A
14. The effect of friction in the nozzle __________ dryness fraction of steam.
A
has no effect on
.
B
decreases
.
C
increases
.
Answer: Option C
15. In a Parson's turbine stage, blade velocity is 320 m/s at the mean radius and rotor blade exit
angle is 30°. For minimum kinetic energy of the steam leaving the stage, the steam velocity
at the exit of the rotor will be
A
160/3 m/s
.
B
320/3 m/s
.
C
640/3 m/s
.
D
640 m/s
.
Answer: Option C
16. In pressure compounding of an impulse turbine, the total pressure drop of the steam does
not take place in the first nozzle ring, but is divided equally among all the nozzle rings.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
17. When the cross-section of a nozzle __________ continuously from entrance to exit, it is
called a convergent nozzle.
A
increases
.
B
decreases
.
Answer: Option B
18. In an ideal impulse turbine, the

A
absolute velocity at the inlet of moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
.
B
relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
.
C
axial velocity at inlet is equal to that at the outlet
.
D
whirl velocity at inlet is equalto that at the outlet
.
Answer: Option B
19. During flow through a nozzle, no heat is supplied or rejected by the steam.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
20. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the moving blades,
A
pressure increases while velocity decreases
.
B
pressure decreases while velocity increases
.
C
pressure and velocity both decreases
.
D
pressure and velocity both increases
.
Answer: Option C
21. In velocity compounding of an impulse turbine, the expansion of steam takes place in a
nozzle or a set of nozzles from the boiler pressure to condenser pressure.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
22. The critical pressure ratio is given by (where p1 = Initial pressure of steam, and p2 = Pressure
of steam at throat or critical pressure)
A
p1 p2
.
B
p1/p2
.
C
p2/p1
.
D
p1 + p2
.
Answer: Option C
23. A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam after partial expansion, is used for process
heating and the remaining steam is further expanded for power generation, is known as
A
back pressure turbine
.
B
pass out turbine
.
C
low pressure turbine
.
D
impulse turbine
.
Answer: Option B
24. The stage efficiency is the ratio of energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total
energy supplied per stage per kg of steam.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option B
25. Stage efficiency is also known as

A
diagram efficiency
.
B
nozzle efficiency
.
C
gross efficiency
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
26. A single stage turbine is not used because it requires large reduction gearing due to very
high rotational speed.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
27. In turbines, the fluid undergoes a continuous steady flow process and the speed of flow is
A
low
.
B
very low
.
C
high
.
D
very high
.
Answer: Option D
28. A nozzle is said to be a convergent-divergent nozzle, when the cross-section of a nozzle first
decreases from its entrance to throat and then increases from its throat to exit.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
29. In an impulse reaction turbine, the pressure drops gradually and continuously over
A
fixed blades
.
B
moving blades
.
C
both fixed and moving blades
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
30. When the inlet pressure of steam is equal to the exit pressure, then
A
there is a pressure drop in the nozzle
.
B
fluid flows through the nozzle
.
C
pressure drops and fluid flows through the nozzle
.
D
there is no pressure drop and fluid does not flow through the nozzle
.
Answer: Option D
31. The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam by __________ while it
passes over the blades.
A
10 to 15%
.
B
15 to 20%
.
C
20 to 30%
.
D
30 to 40%
.
Answer: Option A
32. The effect of bleeding is that

A
it increases the thermodynamic efficiency of the turbine
.
B
boiler is supplied with hot water
.
C
it decreases the power developed by the turbine
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
33. The expansion of steam, as it flows over the blades in reaction turbine, represents
A
isothermal process
.
B
isentropic process
.
C
throttling process
.
D
free-expansion process
.
Answer: Option B
34. The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is __________ as compared to
initially dry saturated steam.
A
more
.
B
less
.
Answer: Option B
35. For a Parson's reaction turbine, if α1 and α2 are fixed blade angles at inlet and exit
respectively and β1 and β2 are the moving blade angles at entrance and exit respectively,
then
A
α1 = α2 and β1 = β2
.
B
α1 = β1 and α2 = β2
.
C
α1 < β1 and α2 > β2
.
D
α1 = β2 and β1 = α2
.
Answer: Option B
36. The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when (where Vb = Blade speed, V =
Absolute velocity of steam entering the blade, and α = Nozzle angle)
A
Vb = 0.5 V cos α
.
B
Vb = V cos α
.
C
Vb = 0.5 V2 cos α
.
D
Vb = V2 cosα
.
Answer: Option A
37. The velocity of whirl at outlet for an axial discharge turbine is

A
minimum
.
B
maximum
.
C
zero
.
Answer: Option C
38. In impulse turbines, when friction is neglected, the relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of
the blade is __________ the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.
A
equal to
.
B
less than
.
C
greater than
.
Answer: Option A
39. The friction present between the steam and the nozzle surfaces reduces the heat drop by
A
10 to 15 percent
.
B
15 to 25 percent
.
C
25 to 40 percent
.
D
40 to 60 percent
.
Answer: Option A
40. An impulse turbine as compared to a reaction turbine, for a given power has __________
row of blades.
A
equal
.
B
less
.
C
more
.
Answer: Option C
41. Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of
A
heat drop in fixed blades to the heat drop in moving blades
.
B
heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades
.
C heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving
. blades
D heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in moving
. blades
Answer: Option C
42. The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows

A
Carnot cycle
.
B
Rankine cycle
.
C
Joule cycle
.
D
Stirling cycle
.
Answer: Option B
1. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
A
iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
.
B
normal octane and aniline
.
C
iso-octane and normal hexane
.
D
normal heptane and iso-octane
.
Answer: Option D
2. The diesel engines are also known as __________ engines.

A
compression ignition
.
B
spark ignition
.
Answer: Option A
3. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the
A
beginning of suction stroke
.
B
end of suction stroke
.
C
beginning of exhaust stroke
.
D
end of exhaust stroke
.
Answer: Option A
4. In hit and miss governing, the fuel supply is cut-off completely during one or more number of
cycles.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
5. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be
A
25%
.
B
50%
.
C
70%
.
D
100%
.
Answer: Option B
6. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is
called
A
.
B
overall efficiency
.
C
volumetric efficiency
.
D
relative efficiency
.
Answer: Option C
7. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine

A
opens at 50° before bottom dead centre and closes at 15° after top dead centre
.
B
opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
.
C
opens at 50° after bottom dead centre and closes at 15° before top dead centre
.
D
may open and close anywhere
.
Answer: Option A
8. Nuclear reactors are used

A
to produce heat for thermoelectric power
.
B
to produce fissionable material
.
C
to propel ships, submarines, aircrafts
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
9. A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is

A
graphite
.
B
heavy water
.
C
concrete
.
D
graphite and concrete
.
Answer: Option D
10. The predominent isotope of the naturally occuring element is

A
U235
.
B
U238
.
C
Pu233
.
D
Pu239
.
Answer: Option B
11. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by
A
decreasing the density of intake air
.
B
increasing the temperature of intake air
.
C
increasing the pressure of intake air
.
D
decreasing the pressure of intake air
.
Answer: Option C
12. In diesel engines, the fuel is injected in the form of very fine spray, into the engine cylinder,
which gets ignited due to high temperature of the compressed air.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
13. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontantaneous combustion of the mixture before the end of
the compression stroke, and is due to
A
cylinder walls being too hot
.
B
overheated spark plug points
.
C
red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls
.
D
any one of these
.
Answer: Option D
14. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine

A
starts at 15° before top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
.
B
starts at top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
.
C
starts at 15° after top dead centre and ends at 30° before bottom dead centre
.
D
may start and end anywhere
.
Answer: Option C
15. The object of supercharging the engine is

A
to reduce mass of the engine per brake power
.
B
to reduce space occupied by the engine
.
C
to increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
16. In open combustion chamber in diesel engines, the shape and layout of the piston crown, the
inlet port and the valve produce the turbulent effect of fuel mixture.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
17. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is ignited at

A
30° before top dead centre
.
B
30° after top dead centre
.
C
30° before bottom dead centre
.
D
30° after bottom dead centre
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
18. A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium introduced into the fuel mass in order to
A
slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
.
B
control the reaction
.
C
reduce the temperature
.
D
extract heat from nuclear reaction
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
19. Where reactor operation is designed with fast neutrons such as in reactors using highly
enriched fuel, the moderator used is
A
heavy water
.
B
graphite
.
C
carbon dioxide
.
D
no moderator is needed
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
20. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as
A
pre-ignition period
.
B
delay period
.
C
period of ignition
.
D
burning period
.
Answer: Option B
21. The detonating tendency in petrol engines increases with increase of compression ratio.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
22. Each fission of U235 produces on the average __________ fast neutrons as a product of
reaction.
A
2.46
.
B
24.6
.
C
246
.
D
2460
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
23. Reactors for propulsion applications are designed for

A
any form of uranium
.
B
natura uranium
.
C
enriched uranium
.
D
plutonium
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
24. The primary fuel used in nuclear power plants is

A
U235
.
B
U238
.
C
Pu239
.
D
Pu233
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
25. In petrol engine, using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, supercharging
will __________ the knocking tendency.
A
not effect
.
B
decrease
.
C
increase
.
Answer: Option C
26. Ordinary water is sometimes used as moderator when enriched uranium is used as a fuel in
nuclear power plants.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
27. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds
because the
A
jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction
.
B
the flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed
.
C
the diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant
.
D
flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
28. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is

A
alcohol
.
B
water
.
C
lead
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
29. The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is

A
to determine the information, which can not be obtained by calculations
.
B
to conform the data used in design, the validity of which may be doubtful
.
C
to satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine
.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
30. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about

A
15%
.
B
30%
.
C
50%
.
D
70%
.
Answer: Option D
31. A diesel engine has
A
one valve
.
B
two valves
.
C
three valves
.
D
four valves
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
32. The self ignition temperature of petrol is __________ as compared to diesel oil.
A
same
.
B
lower
.
C
higher
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
33. The pressure inside the cylinder is __________ the atmospheric pressure during the exhaust
stroke.
A
equal to
.
B
below
.
C
above
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
34. The increase of cooling water temperature in petrol engine will __________ the knocking
tendency.
A
not effect
.
B
decrease
.
C
increase
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
35. A carburettor is used to supply

A
petrol, air and lubricating oil
.
B
air and diesel
.
C
petrol and lubricating oil
.
D
petrol and air
.
Answer: Option D
36. U233 is produced

A
artificially
.
B
as basic raw material
.
C
when thorium is irradiated by neutrons
.
D
by fission of U238
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
37. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is approximately

A
10 bar
.
B
20 bar
.
C
25 bar
.
D
35 bar
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
38. The detonation is also called knocking or pinking.

A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
39. The pre-ignition occurs before the spark is produced whereas detonation develops after the
introduction of spark.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
40. The energy released during the fission of one atom of Uranium - 235 in million electron volts
is about
A
100
.
B
200
.
C
300
.
D
400
.
Answer: Option B
41. Morse test can be conducted for

A
petrol engines
.
B
diesel engines
.
C
multi-cylinder engines
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
42. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is

A
minimum turbulence
.
B
low compression ratio
.
C
high thermal efficiency and power output
.
D
low volumetric efficiency
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
43. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is compressed when both the valves (i.e. inlet
valve and exit valve) are closed,
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
44. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines on weak mixtures is

A
unaffected
.
B
lower
.
C
higher
.
D
dependent on other factors
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
45. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about

A
10 bar
.
B
100 bar
.
C
150 bar
.
D
500 bar
.
Answer: Option B
46. High speed compression engines operate on

A
Otto cycle
.
B
Diesel cycle
.
C Dual-combustion cycle
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
47. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the inlet valve

A
opens at top dead centre and closes at bottom dead centre
.
B
opens at 20° before top dead centre and closes at 40° after bottom dead centre
.
C opens at 20° after top dead centre and closes at 20° before bottom dead centre id)
. may open or close anywhere
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
48. The nuclear power station at Tarapur has the reactor of the __________ type.
A
pressurized water
.
B
boiling water
.
C
gas cooled
.
D
liquid metal cooled
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
49. In nuclear power plants, due to reflector, less fuel is needed to generate sufficient neutrons
to sustain a chain reaction.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
50. The secondary fuel used in nuclear power plants is
A
U233 and Pu239
.
B
U235 and Th232
.
C
U235 and Pu238
.
D
U233 and Pu238
.
Answer: Option A
1. If V1 is the jet velocity and V0 is the vehicle velocity, then propulsive efficiency of a turbo-jet
engine is
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
2. Theoretically, a four stroke cycle engine should develop __________ power as that of a two
stroke cycle engine.
A
half
.
B
same
.
C
double
.
D
four times
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
3. Light weight substances can not be effective moderators.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
4. The higher combustion chamber wall temperature in compression ignition engines will
__________ knocking tendency.
A
increase
.
B
reduce
.
C
not effect
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
5. The nuclear radiators produced in a reactor which must be sheilded are

A
electrons
.
B
α, β and γ rays
.
C
neutron and gamma rays
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
6. A two stroke cycle engine gives __________ mechanical efficiency than a four stroke cycle
engine.
A
higher
.
B
lower
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
7. The delay period in compression ignition engines depends upon
A
temperature and pressure in the cylinder at the time of injection
.
B
nature of the fuel mixture strength
.
C relative velocity between the fuel injection and air turbulence pressure of residual
. gases
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
8. Lubrication in I.C. engines dissipates the heat generated from the moving parts due to
friction.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
9. The ratio of the heat equivalent to one kW hour to the heat in fuel per B.P. hour is termed as
brake thermal efficiency.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
10. The theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is

A
10:1
.
B
15:1
.
C
20:1
.
D
25:1
.
Answer: Option B
11. In qualitative governing, the quantity of fuel is varied to suit the load on the engine and the
total charge of air is altered.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
12. The function of a distributor in a coil ignition system of I.C. engines is

A
to distribute spark
.
B
to distribute power
.
C
to distribute current
.
D
to time the spark
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
13. A moderator, apart from its high neutron slowing power, and low non-productive neutron,
should be
A
stable under nuclear radiation
.
B
corrossion resistant
.
C
good thermal conductor
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
14. The frictional power (F.P.) is given by

A
F.P. = B.P. - I.P.
.
B
F.P. = I.P. - B.P.
.
C
F.P. = B.P./I.P.
.
D
F.P. = I.P./B.P.
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
15. The unit million electron volts (Mev) is commonly used to measure the nuclear energy.
A
True
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
16. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines can be decreased by adding dopes like
tetra ethyle lead and ethylene dibromide.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
17. If V1 is the jet velocity and V0 is the vehicle velocity, then the propulsive efficiency of a rocket
is given by
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
18. A diesel engine has compression ratio from

A
6 to 10
.
B
10 to 15
.
C
15 to 25
.
D
25 to 40
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
19. A petrol engine, during suction stroke draws

A
air only
.
B
petrol only
.
C
a mixture of petrol and air
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
20. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine

A
requires smaller foundation
.
B
is lighter
.
C
consumes less lubricating oil
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
21. Which of the following does not relate to a compression ignition engine?
A
Fuel pump
.
B
Fuel injector
.
C
Governor
.
D
Carburettor
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
22. Which of the following statement is correct regarding petrol engines?

A A fine fuel spray mixed with air is ignited by the heat of compression which is at a high
. pressure.
B The fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with necessary amount of air and the
. mixture in ignited with the help of a spark plug.
C The fuel is first evaporated after passing through a carburettor and is mixed with air
. before ignition.
D
all of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
23. Supercharging __________ the power developed by the engine.

A
has no effect on
.
B
increases
.
C
decreases
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
24. Uranium has isotopes

A
U234
.
B
U235
.
C
U238
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
25. The colour of exhaust from diesel engine is generally

A
white
.
B
bluish
.
C
black
.
D
violent
.
Answer: Option C

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THERMODYNAMICS

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1. All the commercial liquid fuels are derived from natural petroleum (or crude oil).

5. There is a loss of heat in an irreversible process.

12. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?

13. Workdone in a free expansion process is

15. The compression ratio for petrol engines is

16. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by

18. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process.

19. The atomic mass of oxygen is

22. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.

24. There is no change in internal energy in an isothermal process.

28. Which of the following is correct?

30. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

32. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is

34. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with

39. The absolute zero temperature is taken as

40. The specific heat of water is

42. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

45. An isothermal process is governed by

1. According to Kelvin-Planck's statement of second law of thermodynamics,

it is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose

it is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces

D. none of the above

3. According to Avogadro's law

D. all of the above

5. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?

9. The fuel mostly used in steam boilers is

10. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

11. The hyperbolic pocess is governed by

13. The entropy of water at 0°C is assumed to be

16. Which is the incorrect statement about Carnot cycle?

D all of the above

19. The free expansion process is a constant enthalpy process.

20. The specific heat at constant volume is

27. The heat absorbed during a polytropic process is

28. Liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.

32. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is

33. In an isothermal process,

B. there is no change in enthalpy

C. there is no change in internal energy

It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a higher

D. all of the above

35. The heating and expanding of a gas is called thermodynamic system.

38. The free expansion process is __________ non-flow process.

41. Hydrogen is the __________ substance.

42. Otto cycle is also known as

44. Producer gas is obtained by

46. The efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon

48. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as temperature is based on

49. Kelvin-Planck's law deals with

2. In an irreversible process, there is a

6. One Joule (J) is equal to

8. The entropy is a point function and thus it is a property of the same.

12. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon

13. The gas turbine cycle with regenerator improves

14. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

15. When a gas is heated, change takes place in

16. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?

17. A triatomic molecule consists of __________ atoms.

18. The main cause for the irreversibility is

22. Mond gas is obtained by

23. The natural solid fuel is

24. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is

25. In open cycle gas turbine plants

27. The compression ratio is the ratio of